GATE Question Paper Civil Engineering 2006

WWW.JNTUWORLD.COM
Q.1-Q.20 Carry One Mark Each

1. Solution for the system by the set of equations 4y + 3z = 8 ; 2x  z = 2; and 3x +

2y = 5 is
(a) x = 0; y = 1; z = 4/3 (b) x = 0; y = 1/2; z = 2
(c) x = 1; y = 1/2 ; z = 2 (d) nonexistent

2. The differential equation = 0.25 y2 is to be solved using the backward

(implicit) Euler's method with the boundary condition y = 1 at x = 0 and with a
step size of 1. What would be the value of y at x = 1?
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.67 (c) 2.00 (d)
2.33

3. The necessary and sufficient condition for a surface to be called as a free surface
is
(a) no stress should be acting on it
(b) tensile stress acting on it must be zero
(c) shear stress acting on it must be zero
(d) no point on it should be under any stress

4. Mohr's circle for the state of stress defined by MPa is a circle with
(a) center at (0,0) and radius 30 MPa
(b) center at (0,0) and radius 60 MPa
(c) center at (30,0) and radius 30 MPa
(d) center at (30,0) and zero radius

5. The buckling load P = Pcr for the column AB in the figure, as KT approaches

infinity, become  , where α is equal to

(a) 0.25 (b) 1.00 (c) 2.05 (d)

4.00

6. A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to twisting moment T at its ends. The

maximum normal stress acting at its cross-section is equal to

(a) zero (b) (c) (d)

7. If the characteristic strength of concrete fck is defined a the strength below which
not more than 50% of the test results are expected to fall the expression for f ck in
terms of mean strength fm and standard deviation S would be
(a) fm0.1645S (b) fm1.645S (c) fm (d)
fm+1.645S

8. The range of void ratio between which quick sand conditions occurs in cohesion
less granular soil deposits is
(a) 0.40.5 (b) 060.7 (c) 0.80.9 (d)
1.01.1

9. Figure given below shows a smooth vertical gravity retaining wall with
cohesionless soil backfill having an angle of internal friction  In the graphical
representation of Rankine's active earth pressure for the retaining wall shown in
figure, length OP represents

(a)

vertical stress at the base

(b) vertical stress at a height H/3 from the base
(c) lateral earth pressure at the base
(d) lateral earth pressure at a height H/3 from the base

10. Which of the following statement is NOT true in the context of capillary pressure
in soils ?
(a) Water is under tension in capillary zone
(b) Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone
(c) Effective stress increases due to capillary pressure
(d) Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils

11. A channel with a mild slope is followed by a horizontal channel and then by a
steep channel. What gradually varied flow profiles will occur ?
(a) M1, H1,S1 (b) M2,H2,S2 (c) M1,H2,S3 (d) M1,H2,S2

12. To provide safety against piping failure, with a factor of safety of 5, what should
be he maximum permissible exit gradient for soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and
porosity of 0.35 ?
(a) 0.155 (b) 0.176 (c) 0.195 (d)
0.213

13. Identify the FALSE statement from the following : The specific speed of the pump
increases with
(a) increase in shaft speed (b) increase in discharge
(c) decrease in gravitational acceleration (d) increase in head

14. For steady flow to a fully penetrating well in a confined acquifer, the drawdowns
at radial distances of r1 and r2 from the well have been measured as s1 and
 s2 respectively, for a pumping rate of Q. The transmissivity of the aquifer is equal
to

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

15. To determine the BOD5 of a wastewater sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the

wastewater were diluted to 300 mL and incubated at 20C in BOD bottles for 5
days.
Sl. No. Wastewater Volume, Initial DO, mg/L DO After 5 days, mg/L
1. 5 9.2 6.9
2. 10 9.1 4.4
3. 50 8.4 0.0

Based on the data, the average BOD5 of the wastewater is equal to

(a) 139.5 mg/L (b) 126.5 mg/L (c) 109.8 mg/L (d)
72.2 mg/L

16. The cumulative noise power distribution curve at a certain location is given
below.

The value of
L40 is equal
to
(a) 90
dBA
(b) 80
dBA (c) 70 dBA (d) 60 dBA

17. A synthetic sample of water is prepared by adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay

minerla), 200 mg glucose, 168 mg NacI, 120 mg MgSO4, and 111 mg CaCI2 to 1
liter of pure water. The concentrations of total solids (TS) and fixed dissolved
solids (FDS) respectively in the solution in mg/L are equal to
(a) 699 and 599 (b) 599 and 399 (c) 699 and 199 (d)
699 and 399

18. If aggregate size of 5040 mm is to be tested for finding out the portion of
elongated aggregates using length gauge, the slot length of the gauge should be
(a) 81 mm (b) 45 mm (c) 53 mm (d) 90
mm

19. Name the traffic survey data which is plotted by means of "Desire lines".
(a) Accident (b) Classified volume
(c) Origin and Destination (d) Speed and Delay

20. In case of governing equations for calculating wheel load stresses using
Wesergaard's approach, the following statements are made.
 I. Load stress are inversely proportional to wheel load
II. Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for load stress calculation
(a) Both statements are TRUE (b) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
(c) Both statements are FALSE (d) I is FALSE AND II is TRUE

Q. 21 to Q.75 carry two marks each

21. For a given matrix A = , one of the eigenvalues is 3. The other two
eigenvalues are
(a) 2, 5 (b) 3, 5 (c) 2, 5 (d) 3, 5

22. The directional derivative of f(x,y,z) = 2x2+3y2+z2 at the point P : (2, 1, 3) in the
direction of the vector a = i – 2 k is
(a) 2.785 (b) 2.145 (c) – 1.789 (d)
1.000

23. A class of first year B. Tech. students is composed of four bathes A,B,C and D,
each consisting of 30 students. It is found that the sessional marks of students in
Engineering Drawing in batch C have a mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the marks for the entire class are 5.5 and
4.2, respectively. It is decided by the course instructor to normalize the marks of
the students of all batches to have the same mean and standard deviation as that
of the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a student in batch C are changed
from 8.5 to
(a) 6.0 (b) 7.0 (c) 8.0 (d)
9.0

24. A 2nd degree polynomial, f(x), has values of 1,4, and 15 at x = 0, and 2,

respectively. The integral dx is to be estimated by applying the trapezoidal

rule to this data. What is the error (defined as "true value – approximate value") in
the estimate?

(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)

25. What is the area common to the circles r =  and r = 2a cos ?

(a) 0.524 a2 (b) 0.614 a2 (c) 0.147 a2 (d)
1.228 a 2

26. Using Cauchy's integral theorem, the value of the integral (integration being

taken in counter clockwise direction) dz is

(a) (b) 6i (c) (d) 1

27. There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of hem are defective. Suppose 5
calculators are randomly picked for inspecion ((i.e., each has the same chance of
being selected), what is the probability that only one of the defective calculators
will be included in the inspection ?
 (a) (b) (c) (d)

28. A spherical naphthalene ball exposed to the atmosphere loses volume at a rate
proportional to is instantaneous surface area due to evaporation. If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months, the
ball completely evaporates in
(a) 6 months (b) 9 months (c) 12 months (d)
infinite time

29. The solution of the differential equation,

x2 + 2xy  x + 1 = 0 given that at x = 1, y = 0 is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 

30. A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram as shown in the
following figure.
The beam is possibly under the action of following loads :

(a)
Couples
of M at C
and 2M
at D
(b) Couples of 2M at C and M at D
(c) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/Lat D
(d) Concentrated load of M/L at C and couple of 2M at D.

31. For the section shown below, second moment of the area about an axis d/4
distance above the bottom of the area is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
32. Consider the beam AB shown in the figure below. Part AC of the beam is rigid
while Part CB has the flexural rigidity EI. Identify the correct combination of
deflection at end B and bending moment.

(a) ,
2PL

(b) , PL (c) , 2PL (d) , PL

33. A beam with the cross-

section given below is
subjected to a positive
bending moment (causing
compression at the top) of
16 kNm acting around the
horizontal axis. The tensile
force acting on the hatched
area of the cross-section is

(a) zero
(b) 5.9 kN
(c) 8.9 kN
(d) 17.8 kN

34. T-section of a beam is formed by gluing

wooden planks as shown in the figure below.
If this beam transmits a constant vertical
shear force of 3000 K, the glue at any of the
four joints will be subjected to a shear force
(in kN per meter length) of
 (a) 3.0
(b) 4.0
(c) 8.0
(d) 10.7

35. If a beam of rectangular cross-section is subjected to a vertical shear force V, the

shear force carried by the upper one-third of the cross-section is

(a) zero (b) (c) (d)

36. A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of inside radius r is subjected simultaneously

to internal gas pressure p and axial compressive force F at its ends. In order to
produce 'pure shear' state of stress in the wall of the cylinder, F should be equal
to
(a) pr2 (b) 2pr2 (c) 3pr2 (d) 4pr2

37. Vertical reaction developed

at B in the frame be-low due
to the applied load of 100
kN (with 150,
000mm2 cross-sectional
area and
3.125  109 mm4 moment of
inertia for both members) is

(a) 5.9 kN
(b) 302 kN
(c) 66.3 kN
(d) 94.1 kN

38. Consider the beam ABCD and the influence line as shown below. The inflience
the pertains to

(a)
reaction
at A, RA
(b)
shear
force at B, VB
 (c) shear force on the left of C,

(d) shear force on the right of C,

39. Carry-over factor CAB for the beam shown in the figure below is

(a) (b)

(c) (d) 1

40. Assuming concrete below the neutral axis to be cracked, the shear stress across
the depth of a singly-reinforce rectangular beam section
(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops suddently to
zero value.
(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant over
the remaining depth
(c) increases linearly to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to the
tension steel
(d) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant up
to the tension steel.

41. As per IS : 456-2000, consider the following statements

I. The modular ratio considered in the working stress method depends on
the type of steel used
II. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even
withshear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in
diagonal compression.
III. A rectangular slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-
way slab for some support conditions.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d) , II
and III

42. In the design of welded tension members, consider the following statements :
I. The entire cross-sectional area of the connected leg is assumed to
contribute to the effective area in case of angles.
II. Two angles back-to-back and tack-welded as per the codal requirements
may be assumed to behave as a tee section.
III. A check on slenderness ratio may be necessary in some cases.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d)
I, II and III
43. Consider the following statements
I. Effective length of a battened column is usually increased to account for
the additional load on battens due to the lateral expansion of columns.
II. As per IS: 800-1984, permissible stress in bending compression depends
on both Euler buckling stress and the yield stress of steel.
III. As per IS: 800-1984, the effective length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends but not restrained against rotation, is taken to be
greater than that in the ideal end conditions.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d) I, II and III

44. When the triangular section

of a beam as shown below
becomes a plastic hinge, the
compressive force acting on
the section (with σy denoting
the yiield stress) becomes

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

45. Consider the following statements :

I. The width-thickness ratio limitations on the plate elements under
compression in steel members are imposed by IS: 800-1984 in order to
avoid fabrication difficulties.
II. In a doubly reinforced concrete beam, the strain in compressive
reinforcement is higher than the strain in the adjoining concrete.
III. If a cantilever I-section supports slab construction all along its length with
sufficient friction between them, the permissible bending stress in
compression will be the same as that in tension.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III
(c) only I and III (d) I, II and III

46. List – I below gives the possible types of failure for a finite soil slope and List – II
gives the reasons for these different types of failure. Match the items in List – I
with the items in List – II.
List – I List-II
P Base failure 1. Soils above and below the toe have same
strength
Q Face Failure 2. Soil above the toe is comparatively weaker
 R Toe failure 3. Soil above the toe is comparatively
stronger
(a) P-1 Q-2 R-3 (b) P-2 Q-3 R-1
(c) P-2 Q-1 R-3 (d) P-3 Q-2 R-1

47. For the soil profile

shown in figure below,
the minimum number
of precast concrete
piles of 300 mm
diameter required to
safety carry the load for
a given factor of safety
of 2.5 (assuming 100%
efficiency for the pile
group) is equal to

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25

48. In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist soil was filling the mould (volume =
944 cc) after compaction. A soil sample weighing 23 g was taken from the mould
and overdried for 24 hours at a temperature of 1100C. Weight of the dry sample
was found to be 20 g. Specific gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7. The theoretical
maximum value of the dry unit weight of the soil at that water content is equal to
(a) 4.67 kN/m3 (b) 11.5 kN/m3 (c) 16.26 kN/m3 (d)
8.85 kN/m3

49. A sample of saturated cohesionless soil tested in a drained triaxial compression

test showed an angle of internal friction of 30. The deviatoric stress at failure for
the sample at a confining pressure of 200 kPa is equal to
(a) 2000 kPa (b) 400 kPa (c) 600 kPa (d)
800 kPa

50. The thickness of the laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2 cm
and at a point B, 1m downstream of A, is 3 cm. What is the distance of A from the
leading edge of the plate ?
(a) 0.50 m (b) 0.80 m (c) 1.00 m (d)
1.25 m
51. The velocity field for flow is given by

and the density varies as  = 0 exp (-2t). In order that the mass is conserved, the
value of  should be
(a) -12 (b) -10 (c) -8 (d) 10

52. In a cultivated area, the soil ahs porosity of 45% and field capacity of 38%. For a
particular crop, the root zone depth is 1.0 m, the permanent wilting point is 10%
and the consumptive use is 15 mm/d. If the irrigation efficiency is 60%, what
should be the frequency of irrigation such that the moisture content does not fall
below 50% of the maximum available moisture ?
(a) 5d (b) 6d (b) 9d (d) 15
d

53. A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular, horizontal, frictionless channel. What

would be the pre-jump depth if the discharge per unit width 2m 3/s/m and the
energy loss is 1 m?
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.3 m (c) 0.8 m (d)
0.9 m

54. During a 3 hour storm event, it was observed that all abstractions other than
infiltration are negligible. The rainfall was idealized as 3 one hour storms of
intensity 10 mm/hr, 20 mm/hr and 10 mm/hr respectively and the infiltration was
idealized as a Horton curve, f=6.8+8.7 exp (-t) (f in mm/hr and t in hr). What is
the effective rainfall ?
(a) 10.00 mm (b) 11.33 mm (c) 12.43 mm (d)
13.63 mm

55. A very wide rectangular channel is designed to carry a discharge of 5m 3/s per
meter width. The design is based on the Manning's equation with the roughness
coefficient obtained from the grain size using Strickler's equation and results in a
normal depth of 1.0 m. By mistake, however the engineer used the grain diameter
in mm in the Stickler's equation instead of in meter. What should be the correct
normal depth?
(a) 0.32 m (b) 0.50 m (c) 2.00 m (d)
3.20 m

56. The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity v = 5 ×10-4 m2/s) in an open channel is
to be modeled in a laboratory flume using water (v=10-6m2/s) as the flowing fluid.
If both gravity and viscosity are important, what should be the length scale (i.e.
ratio of prototype to model dimensions) for maintaining dynamic similarity ?
(a) 1 (b) 22 (c) 63 (d)
500

57. The mean indoor airborne chloroform (CHCI3) concentration in a room was
determined to be 0.4 g/m3. Use the following data : T = 293 K, P = 1
atmosphere, R = 82.05  10-6 atm.m3/ mol-K, Atomic weights : C = 12, H=1, CI=
35.5. This concentration expressed in parts per billion (volume basis, ppbv) is
equal to
(a) 1.00 ppbv (b) 0.20 ppbv
(c) 0.10 ppbv (d) 0.08 ppbv

58. The composition of a certain MSW sample and specific weights of its various
components are given below.
Component Percent by Weight Specific Weight (kg/m3)
 Food waste 50 300
Dirt and Ash 30 500
Plastics 10 65
Wood and Yard waste 10 125
Specific weight (kg/m3) of the MSW sample is
(a) 319 (b) 217
(c) 209 (d) 199

59. A subgrade soil sample was tested using standard CBR apparatus and the
observations are given below.
Load, kg Penetration, mm
60.5 2.5
80.5 5.0
Assuming that the load-penetration curve is convex throughout, the CBR value
(%) of the sample is
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.5 (c) 4.4 (d)
3.9

60. A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an ascending gradient of a highway has to come

to stop position to avoid collision with a stationary object. The ratio of lag to brake
distance is 6 : 5. Considering total reaction time of the driver as 2.5 Considering
total reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds and the coefficient of longitudinal
friction as 0.36, the value of ascending gradient (%) is
(a) 3.3 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.3 (d)
6.8

61. For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal at an intersection having North-South
and East-West road where only straight ahead traffic permitted, the following data
is available.
Parameter Design Hour North South East West
Flow (PCU/hr) 1000 700 900 550
Saturation Flow 2500 2500 3000 3000
(PCU/hr)
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle length (seconds) as per
Webster's approach is
(a) 67 (b) 77 (c) 87 (d)
91

62. On an urban road, the free mean speed was measured as 70 kmph and the
average spacing between the vehicles under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speed-
flow-density equation is given by

U = Usf and q = Uk
where U = space-mean speed (kmph); Usf = free mean speed (kmph); k = density
(veh/km); kj = jam density (veh/km); q = flow (veh/hr). The maximum flow
(veh/hr) per lane for this condition is equal to
(a) 2000 (b) 2500 (c) 3000 (d)
None of these

63. At a horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane undivided carriageway, a transition

curve is to be introduced to attain required superelevation. The design speed is
60 kmph and radius of the curve is 245 m. Assume length of wheel base of a
longest vehicle as 6 m, superelevation rate as 5% and rate of introduction of this
 superelevation as 1 in 150. The length of the transition curve (m) required, if the
pavement is rotated about inner edge is.
(a) 81.4 (b) 85.0 (c) 91.5 (d)
110.2

64. Using IRC : 37 – 1984 "Guidelines for the Design of Flexible Pavements" and the
following data, choose the total thickness of the pavement.
No. of commercial vehicles when construction is completed = 2723 veh/day
Annual growth rate of the traffic = 5.0%
Design life of the pavement = 10 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil = 5%
Data for 5% CBR value
No. of Standard Axels, msa Total Thickes, mm
20 620
25 640
30 670
40 700
(a) 620 mm (b) 640 mm (c) 670 mm (d)
700 mm

65. The observed magnetic bearing of a line OE was found to be 185. It was later
discovered that station O had a local attraction of + 1.5. The true bearing of the
line OE, considering a magnetic a magnetic declination of 3.5 E shall be
(a) 180 (b) 187 (c) 190 (d)
193

66. A Bench Mark (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) = 155.305 m has been established
at the floor of a room. It is required to find out the Rl of the underside of the roof
(R) of the room using Spirit Leveling. The Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been
observed as 1.500 m whereas the ForeSight (FS) to R has been observed as 0.575
m (Staff held inverted). The RL (m) of R will be
(a) 155.880 (b) 156.230 (c) 157.380 (d)
157.860

67. Consider the following figure, which is an extract from a contour map (scale =
1:20,000) of an area. An alignment of a road at a ruling gradient of 4% is to be
fixed from the point O and beyond. What should be the radius of the arc with O as
the center to get the point of a alignment on the next contour on the map.

(a) 0.025 cm (b) 0.25 cm

(c) 2.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
68. In the figure given below, lengths PQ(WCB:300) and QR (WCB:450) respectively
up to three places of decimal are

(a) 273.205, 938.186 (b) 273.205, 551.815

(c) 551.815, 551.815 (d) 551.815, 938.186

69. During a leveling work along a falling gradient using a Dumpy level and a Staff of
3m length, following successive readings were taken : 1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320.
What will be the correct order of booking these four readings in a level book ?
(BS : Back Sight, IS : Intermediate Sight, FS : Fore Sight)
(a) BS, FS, BS, FS (b) BS, IS, FS, FS
(c) BS, IS, IS, FS (d) BS, IS, BS, FS

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Question 70, 71 :
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out on a soil sample using a complete set of
standard IS sieves. Out of 500g of soil used in the test, 200g was retained on IS 600μ
sieve, 250g was retained on IS 500μ sieve and the remaining 50g was retained on IS
425 sieve.
70. The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is
(a) 0.9 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.1 (d)
1.2

71. The classification of the soil is

(a) SP (b) SW (c) GP (d) GW

Common Data for Questions 72,73 :

For a catchment, the S-curve (or S-hydrograph) due to a rainfall of intensity 1cm/hr is
given by Q =1 – (1+t) exp (-1) (t in hr and Q in m3/s).
72. What is the area of the catchment ?
(a) 0.01 km2 (b) 0.36 km2 (c) 1.00 km2 (d)
1.28 km2

73. What will be the ordinate of a 2-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment at t=3
hour ?
(a) 0.13 m3/s (b) 0.20 m3/s (c) 0.27 m3/s (d)
3
0.54 m /s

Common Data for Questions 74,75:

In a rapid sand filter, the time for reaching particle breakthrough (T B) is defined as the
time elapsed from start of filter run to the time at which the turbidity of the effluent from
the filter is greater than 2.5 NTU. The time for reaching terminal head loss (T H) is defined
as the time elapsed from the start of the filter run to the time when head loss across the
filter is greater than 3m.
74. The effect of increasing the filter depth (while keeping all other conditions same)
on TBand TH is
(a) TB increases and TH decreases (b) both TB and TH increase
(c) TB decreases and TH increases (d) both TB and TH decreases
75. The effect of increasing the filter loading rate (while keeping all other conditions
same) on TB and TH is
(a) TB increases and TH decreases (b) both TB and TH increases
(c) TB decreases and TH increases (d) both TB and TH decreases

Linked Answer questions : Q.76 to Q.85 Carry two marks each

Statement of Linked Answer Question 76 and 77
Consider a propped cantilever beam ABC under two loads of magnitude P each as shown
in the figure below. Flexural rigidity of the beam is EI.

76. The reaction at C is

(a) (upwards) (b) (downwards)

(c) (upwards) (d) (downwards)

77. The rotation at B is

(a) (clockwise) (b) (anticlockwise)

(c) (clockwise) (d) (anticlockwise)

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 and 79:

In the design of beams for the limit state of colapse in flexure as per IS : 456-2000, let
the maximum strain in concrete be limited to 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For this
situation, consider a rectangular beam section with breadth as 250 mm, effective depth
as 350 mm, area of tension steel as 1500 mm2, and characteristics strengths of concrete
and steel as 30Mpa and 250 MPa respectively.

78. The depth of neutral axis for the balanced failure is

(a) 140 mm (b) 156 mm (c) 168 mm (d)
185 mm

79. At the limiting state of collapse in flexure, the force acting on the compression
zone of the section is
(a) 326 kN (b) 389 kN (c) 424 kN (d)
542 kN

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 and 81

The average effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick homogeneous saturated clay
layer is 150 kPa. Consolidation test on undisturbed soil sample taken from the clay layer
showed that the void ratio decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the stress intensity
from 100 kPa to 300 kPa. (G=2.65)
80. The initial void ratio of the clay layer is
 (a) 0.209 (b) 0.563 (c) 0.746 (d)
1.000

81. The total consolidation settlement of the clay layer due to the construction of a
structure imposing an additional stress intensity of 200 kPa is
(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.25 m (c) 0.35 m (d)
0.50 m

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 and 83

An upward flow of oil (mass density 800 kg/m3, dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m-s) takes place
under laminar conditions in an inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as shown in the figure.
The pressures at section 1 and 2 are measured p1=435 kN/m2 and p2= 200 kN/m2

82. The
discharge in
the pipe is
equal to
(a)
0.100 m3/s (b) 0.127 m3/s (c) 0.144 m3/s (d) 0.161
m3/s

83. If the flow is reversed, keeping the same discharge, and the pressure at section
1 is maintained as 435 kN/m2, the pressure at section 2 is equal to
(a) 488 kN/m2 (b) 549 kN/m2 (c) 586 kN/m2 (d)
614 kN/m2

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 and 85

A water sample contains the following dissolved

ions. [Na+] = 56 mg/L;[Ca2+]
= 40 mg/L;Mg2+]
= 30mg/L;[A13+]
= 3mg/L; [HCO3]
= 190 mg/L; [Cl] = 165 mg/L; Water Ph is 7
Atomic weights : Ca:40; Mg: 24;AI:27;H:1, C:12; O:16; Na:23; CI:35.5

84. The total hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO3 is

(a) 484 (b) 450 (c) 242 (d)
225

85. The non-arbonate hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO 3 is

(a) 225 (b) 156 (c) 86 (d) 0
 ANSWER KEY GATE 2006
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (b)
51 (b) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 * 74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (b)
81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (d) 84 (c) 85 (c)

End of Question Paper