Control Systems Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Preparation for Competition exams pdf

Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers 1. In an open loop control system (a) Output is independent of control input (b) Output is dependent on control input (c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output (d) None of the above Ans: a 2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) Less expensive (b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output (c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy (d) Errors are caused by disturbances Ans: b 3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as (a) Closed loop system (b) Semiclosed loop system (c) Open system (d) None of the above Ans: a 4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will (a) decrease (b) increase (c) be unaffected (d) any of the above Ans: a 5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ? (a) Field controlled D.C. motor (b) Ward leonard control (c) Metadyne (d) Stroboscope Ans: a 6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ? (a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action (b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning (c) Less expensive

(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities Ans: b 7. In open loop system (a) the control action depends on the size of the system (b) the control action depends on system variables (c) the control action depends on the input signal (d) the control action is independent of the output Ans: d 8 has tendency to oscillate. (a) Open loop system (b) Closed loop system (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) Ans: b 9. A good control system has all the following features except (a) good stability (b) slow response (c) good accuracy (d) sufficient power handling capacity Ans: b 10. A car is rtyining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element for the driver ? (a) Clutch (b) Eyes (c) Needle of the speedometer (d) Steering wheel (e) None of the above Ans: c 11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called (a) Transient response (b) Error response (c) Dynamic response (d) Either of the above Ans: a 12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called (a) computer control system (b) digital data system (c) stochastic control system (d) adaptive control system Ans: c 13. (a) (b) An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system. open closed

(c) partially closed (d) any of the above Ans: a 14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a (a) feedback (b) stimulus (c) signal (d) gain control Ans: b 15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ? (a) Servomechanism (b) Feedback (c) Output pattern (d) Input pattern Ans: b 16 is a part of the human temperature control system. (a) Digestive system (b) Perspiration system (c) Ear (d) Leg movement Ans: b 17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ? (a) Brain (b) Hands (c) Legs (d) Eyes Ans: d 18 is a closed loop system. (a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft (6) Direct current generator (c) Car starter (d) Electric switch Ans: a 19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ? (a) Vernistats (b) Microsyns (c) Resolvers (d) Any of the above Ans: d 20. (a) Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ? The gain of the system should be decreased

(b) The gain of the system should be increased (c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased (d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased Ans: b 21 increases the steady state accuracy. (a) Integrator (b) Differentiator (c) Phase lead compensator (d) Phase lag compensator Ans: a 22. A.C. servomotor resembles (a) two phase induction motor (b) Three phase induction motor (c) direct current series motor (d) universal motor Ans: a 23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ? (a) Band width (b) Overall gain (c) Distortion (d) Instability Ans: a 24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with (a) oscillations (b) step input (c) negative sign (d) positive sign Ans: d 25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of (a) reference and output (b) reference and input (e) input and feedback signal (d) output and feedback signal Ans: a 26 is an open loop control system. (a) Ward Leonard control (b) Field controlled D.C. motor (c) Stroboscope (d) Metadyne Ans: b 27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from (a) saturation in amplifying stages

(b) loss of gain (c) vibrations (d) oscillations Ans: a 28. Zero initial condition for a system means (a) input reference signal is zero (b) zero stored energy (c) ne initial movement of moving parts (d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components Ans: d 29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ? (a) The order of the system (b) The time constant (c) The output for any given input (d) The steady state gain Ans: c 30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier. (a) remains unaffected (b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase (c) increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease (d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease Ans: c 31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and load disturbances depend ? (a) Frequency (b) Loop gain (c) Forward gain (d) All of the above Ans: d 32. The transient response, with feedback system, (a) rises slowly (b) rises quickly (c) decays slowly (d) decays quickly Ans: d 33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ? (a) The time constant of the system (b) Damping of the system (c) The gain of the system (d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations (e) None of the above Ans: d 34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?

(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value (6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero (c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value (d) None of the above Ans: c 35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ? (a) The system is relatively stable (b) The system is highly stable (c) The system is highly oscillatory (d) None of the above Ans: c 36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be avoided ? (a) It leads to slow speed of response (b) It leads to low relative stability (c) Noise is proportional to band width (d) None of the above Ans: c 37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ? (a) Underdamping (b) Overdamping (c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain (d) Low-level oscillations Ans: d 38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ? (a) Error detector (b) Final control element (c) Sensor (d) Oscillator Ans: d 39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to (a) final control element (b) amplifier (c) comparator (d) sensor (e) none of the above Ans: a 40. A controller, essentially, is a (a) sensor (b) clipper (c) comparator (d) amplifier Ans: c

41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ? (a) Servo signal (b) Desired variable value (c) Error signal (d) Sensed signal Ans: 42. The on-off controller is a _____ system. (a) digital (b) linear (c) non-linear (d) discontinuous Ans: 43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to (a) momentum (b) velocity (c) displacement (d) mass Ans: d 44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to (a) voltage (b) current (c) capacitance (d) charge (e) none of the above Ans: a 45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to (a) velocity (b) pressure (c) air flow (d) air flow rate Ans: d 46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to (a) head (b) liquid flow (c) liquid flow rate (d) none of the above Ans: a 47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to (a) charge (b) resistance (c) reciprocal of inductance (d) reciprocal of conductance

(e) none of the above Ans: b 48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to (a) current (b) charge (c) inductance (d) capacitance Ans: a 49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to (a) heat flow (b) reciprocal of heat flow (c) reciprocal of temperature (d) temperature (e) none of the above Ans: d 50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to (a) charge (b) current (c) inductance (d) resistance Ans: c 51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to (a) inertia forces (b) internal forces (c) stored energy (d) friction Ans: c 52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal. (a) Input (b) Actuating (c) Feedback (d) Reference Ans: b 53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is known as (a) disturbance (b) command (c) control element (d) reference input Ans: a 54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ? (a) Linear and time-in variant systems (b) Linear and time-variant systems

(c) Linear systems (d) Non-linear systems (e) None of the above Ans: a 55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ? (a) Signal flow graph (b) Analogous table (c) Output-input ratio (d) Standard block system (e) None of the above Ans: a 56 is the reference input minus the primary feedback. (a) Manipulated variable (b) Zero sequence (c) Actuating signal (d) Primary feedback Ans: c 57. The term backlash is associated with (a) servomotors (b) induction relays (c) gear trains (d) any of the above Ans: 58. With feedback _____ increases. (a) system stability (b) sensitivity (c) gain (d) effects of disturbing signals Ans: a 59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ? (a) Ramp input signal (b) Sinusoidal input signal (c) Unit impulse input signal (d) Exponentially decaying signal Ans: c 60. In a system zero initial condition means that (a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components (b) The system is working with zero stored energy (c) The system is working with zero reference signal Ans: a 61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates (a) reduced velocity lag error (b) increased velocity lag error

(c) increased speed of response (d) reduced time constant of the system Ans: a 62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of (a) amplidyne set (b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit (c) motor-generator set (d) any of the above Ans: 63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to (a) capacitance (b) reciprocal of capacitance (c) current (d) resistance Ans: b 64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following? (a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral (b) Laplace Transform (c) Fourier Integral (d) Either (b) or (c) Ans: a 65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to (a) smaller damping ratio (b) larger damping ratio (c) constant damping ratio (d) none of the above Ans: a 66. Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems for specified ________ input signal. (a) acceleration (b) velocity (c) position (d) all of the above Ans: d 67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at (a) low frequencies (b) reduced values of open loop gain (c) increased values of open loop gain (d) none of the above Ans: b 68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin. (a) no pole (b) net pole

(c) simple pole (d) two poles (e) none of the above Ans: a 69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin. (a) no pole (b) net pole (c) simple pole (d) two poles Ans: c 70. The type 2 system has (a) no net pole (b) net pole (c) simple pole (d) two poles Ans: d at the origin.

71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are (a) constant, constant (b) constant, infinity (c) zero, constant (d) zero, zero Ans: c 72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _______ function. (a) parabolic (b) ramp (c) impulse (d) step Ans: b 73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is (a) unity (b) infinity (c) zero (d) 10 Ans: b 74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain level for all the time, the system is (a) not necessarily stable (b) stable (c) unstable (d) always unstable (e) any of the above Ans: a

75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ? (a) Root locus (b) Bode plot (c) Nyquist plot (d) None of the above Ans: a 76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ? (a) Frequency response (b) Absolute stability (c) Relative stability (d) Time response Ans: c 77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ? (a) Lead-compensation (b) Lag-compensation (c) Lead-lag compensation (d) None of the above Ans: b 78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ? (a) Nyquist Criterion (b) Quasi linearization (c) Functional analysis (d) Phase-plane representation Ans: a 79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ? (a) Phase-lead (b) Phase-lag (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Either (a) and (b) (e) None of the above Ans: a 80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays (a) is independent of frequency (b) is inverseh'proportional to frequency (c) increases linearly with frequency (d) decreases linearly with frequency Ans: c 81. (a) (b) (c) (d) In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ? Low-level oscillations High-level oscillations Conditional stability Overdamping

Ans: a 82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ? (a) Acceleration (b) Speed (c) Speed and acceleration (d) Displacement (e) None of the above Ans: b 83 is not a final control element. (a) Control valve (b) Potentiometer (c) Electro-pneumatic converter (d) Servomotor Ans: b 84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ? (a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum (b) The range of measured variables from set value (c) The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to minimum (d) Any of the above (e) None of the above Ans: c 85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts (a) pressure signal to electric signal (b) pressure signal to position change (c) electric signal to pressure signal (d) position change to pressure signal (e) none of the above Ans: b 86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ? (a) Differential bellows and straingauge (b) Selsyn (c) Strain gauge (d) Strain gauge and potentiometer Ans: a 87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ? (a) Microsyn (b) Selsyn (c) Synchro-resolver (d) Synchro-transformer Ans: c 88. The effect of error damping is to (a) provide larger settling lime

(b) delay the response (c) reduce steady state error (d) any of the above (e) none of the above Ans: c 89 technique gives quick transient and stability response (a) Root locus (b) Bode (c) Nyquist (d) Nichols Ans: a 90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output (a) lag at all frequencies (b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies (c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies (d) none of the above Ans: c 91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ? (a) Static friction (b) Backlash (c) Saturation (d) None of the above Ans: c 92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ? (a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods (b) Transfer functions (c) Root locus design (d) State model representatives Ans: d 93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is (a) at rest without any energy stored in it (b) working normally with reference input (c) working normally with zero reference input (d) at rest but stores energy Ans: d 94. Which of the following is an electromechanical device ? (a) Induction relay (b) Thermocouple (c) LVDT (d) Any of the above (e) None of the above Ans: c

95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it (a) reduces damping (b) reduces the gain margin (c) increases input noise (d) increases error Ans: c 96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as (a) oscillatory (b) critically damped (c) overdamped (d) underdamped (e) none of the above Ans: d 97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ (a) increases (b) minimizes (c) does not have any effect on (d) any of the above Ans: b 98. With feed back _____ reduces. (a) system stability (6) system gain (c) system stability and gain (d) none of the above Ans: b 99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ? (a) Constant current (b) Constant voltage (c) Constant current as well as constant voltage (d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power (e) None of the above Ans: d 100. Which of the following can be measured byLVDT? (a) Displacement (b) Velocity (c) Acceleration (d) Any of the above Ans: d 101 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) directly converts temperature into voltage. Thermocouple Potentiometer Gear train LVDT None of the above steady state error

Ans: a 102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following conditions ? (a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities (b) Systems having stability problems (c) Systems having multiple input disturbances (d) All of the above Ans: d 103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ? (a) Alternating current (b) Direct current (c) A.C. voltage (d) D.C. voltage (e) None of the above Ans: d 104. A.C. servomotor is basically a (a) universal motor (b) single phase induction motor (c) two phase induction motor (d) three phase induction motor Ans: c 105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a (a) small bandwidth (b) negative time constant (c) large negative transfer function pole (d) none of the above Ans: c 106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ? (a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values (b) The bandwidth of the system (c) The response of a system to a step input (d) The frequency response of a system (e) None of the above Ans: a

Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries - Electrical engineering multiple choice questions and answers for competitive exams
Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers

1. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity". The above statement is associated with

(a) Newton's law (b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic (c) Faraday's law of electrolysis (d) Gauss's law

Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as ______ constant (a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman

Ans: b
3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell (a) its voltage increases (b) it gives out energy (c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour (d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

Ans: a
4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its (a) temperature (b) rate of charge (c) rate of discharge (d) quantity of active material

Ans: b
5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) becomes zero

Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are (a) lead and lead peroxide (b) lead sulphate and lead (c) lead peroxide and lead

(d) none of the above Ans: c 7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is (a) dark grey (b) brown (c) dark brown (d) none of above Ans: c 8. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are (a) nickel hydroxide (6) powdered iron and its oxide (c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above Ans: d 9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is (a) just one (b) always greater than one (c) always less than one (d) none of the above. Ans: b 10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by (a) output voltage (b) temperature of electrolyte (c) specific gravity of electrolyte (d) none of the above Ans: c 11. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is (a) nickel-cadmium battery (b) zinc-carbon battery (c) lead-acid battery (d) none of the above Ans: c 12. The output voltage of a charger is (a) less than the battery voltage (b) higher than the battery voltage (c) the same as the battery voltage (d) none of the above Ans: b 13. Cells are connected in series in order to (a) increase the voltage rating (6) increase the current rating (c) increase the life of the cells (d) none of the above

Ans: a 14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is (a) 1 V (6) 1.5 V (c) 1.75 V (d) 2 V Ans: d 15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of (a) current rating (b) voltage rating (e) ampere-hour rating (d) none of the above Ans: c 16. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell (a) corrosive fumes are produced (b) water is neither formed nor absorbed (c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit (d) its e.m.f. remains constant Ans: b 17. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of (a) reducing time of charging (b) increasing cell capacity (c) both (a) and (b) (d) avoiding excessive gassing Ans: c 18. A dead storage battery can be revived by (a) adding distilled water (6) adding so-called battery restorer (c) a dose of H2SO4 (d) none of the above Ans: d 19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its (a) compactness (b) lower e.m.f. (c) small quantity of electrolyte used (d) higher internal resistance Ans: d 20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to (a) maintain proper electrolyte level (b) increase its reserve capacity (c) prevent sulphation

(d) keep it fresh and fully charged Ans: d 21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence produce electricity during charging or discharging are known as______materials. (a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert Ans: b 22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following (a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4 (b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4 (c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4 (d) all H2S04 Ans: c 23. It is noticed that durmg charging (a) there is a rise in voltage (6) energy is absorbed by the cell (c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased (d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb) (e) all of the above Ans: e 24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen (a) both anode and cathode become PbS04 (b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases (c) voltage of the cell decreases (d) the cell absorbs energy Ans: d 25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between (a) 20 to 30% (b) 40 to 50% (c) 60 to 70% (d) 90 to 95% Ans: d 26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between (a) 25 to 35% (b) 40 to 60% (c) 70 to 80% (d) 90 to 95% Ans: c

27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in (a) amperes (b) ampere-hours (c) watts (d) watt-hours Ans: b 28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on (a) rate of discharge (b) temperature (c) density of electrolyte (d) quantity of active materials (e) all above Ans: e 29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____ appearance (a) dull (b) reddish (c) bright (d) milky Ans: d 30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly (a) 1.4 V (b) 1 V (c) 0.9 V (d) 0.8 V Ans: a 31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five Ans: d 32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about (a) 1 V (b) 1.2 V (c) 1.7 V (d) 2.1 V Ans: c 33. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about (a) 40% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80% Ans: d

34. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is (a) silver oxide (b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder Ans: a 35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges (a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250 Ans: d 36. Life of the Edison cell is at least (a) five years (b) seven years (c) eight years (d) ten years Ans: a 37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is _____ that of Edison cell (a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to (d) none of the above Ans: a 38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is (a) NaOH (b) KOH (c) HC1 (d) HN03 Ans: b 39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is (a) NaOH (b) onlyH2S04 (c) only water (d) dilute H2SO4 Ans: d 40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of (a) copper (b) lead (c) iron (d) silver oxide Ans: c 41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon

(a) its chemical constituents (b) on the strength of its electrolyte (c) its temperature (d) all above Ans: d 42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by (a) manometer (6) a mechanical gauge (c) hydrometer (d) psychrometer Ans: c 43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in (a) charged state (b) discharged state (c) both (a) and (b) (d) active state Ans: b 44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or minimum value (a) two rate charge control (b) trickle charge (c) floating charge (d) an equalizing charge Ans: a 45. Over charging (a) produces excessive gassing (b) loosens the active material (e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates (d) all above Ans: d 46. Undercharging (a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte (b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte (c) produces excessive gassing (d) increases the temperature Ans: a 47. Internal short circuits are caused by (a) breakdown of one or more separators (b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: c

48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of the above Ans: a 49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of (a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time (b) topping up with electrolyte (c) persistent undercharging (d) low level of electrolyte (e) all above Ans: e 50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are called ______ materials (a) active (b) passive (c) inert (d) dielectric Ans: a 51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as (a) positive active material (b) negative active material (c) passive material (d) none of the above Ans: b 52. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond (a) 1.8 V (b) 1.9 V (c) 2 V (d) 2.1 V Ans: a 53. On overcharging a battery (a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials (b) it will increase the capacity of the battery (c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte (d) none of the above will occur Ans: d 54. Each cell has a vent cap (a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge (b) to add water to the cell if needed (c) to check the level of electrolyte (d) to do all above functions Ans: d

55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates (a) capacity of the cell is reduced (b) life of the cell is reduced (c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate (d) all above Ans: d 56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged condition (a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) none of the above Ans: a 57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of (a) 48 amperes for 1 hour (b) 24 amperes for 2 hours (c) 8 amperes for 6 hours (d) 6 amperes for 8 hours Ans: d 58. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged condition (a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) none of the above Ans: b 59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed (a) in well ventilated location (b) in clean and dry place (c) as near as practical to the battery being charged (d) in location having all above features Ans: d 60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23. (a) Loss of capacity (b) Loss of life (c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate (d) All above Ans: d 61. Batteries are charged by (a) rectifiers (b) engine generator sets (c) motor generator sets (d) any one of the above methods

Ans: d 62. Cell short circuit results in (a) low sp. gravity electrolyte (b) abnormal high temperature (c) reduced gassing on charge (d) all above Ans: d 63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by (a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge (b) increasing the plate area (c) putting plates very close together (d) all above methods Ans: d 64. Capacity of dry cells is (a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods (b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods (c) unaffected by the type of discharge (d) none of the above Ans: a 65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of (a) glass (b) plastic (c) wood (d) all above Ans: d 66. Sulphated cells are indicated by (a) the loss of capacity of the cell (6) the decrease of the specific gravity (c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge (d) all above conditions Ans: d 67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3 (a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water (b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water (c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water (d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water Ans: c 68. Local action in a battery is indicated by (a) excessive gassing under load conditions (b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

Ans: d 69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high (a) excessive gassing will occur (b) temperature rise will occur (c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur (d) all above will occur Ans: d 70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to (a) resistance of electrolyte (b) electrode resistance (c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte (d) all above Ans: d 71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen (a) current delivered by the battery will be high (b) current drawing will be nil (c) current drawing will be very small (d) current drawing will be very high Ans: d 72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be (a) lowered (b) raised (c) undisturbed (d) displaced sideways Ans: a 73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen. (a) Capacity of cell will reduce (b) Sulphation of plates will occur (c) Internal resistance will increase (d) All above will occur Ans: d 74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order. (a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell (b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell (c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell (d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell Ans: a 75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear (a) goggles or other face shield (b) rubber (c) rubber boots and gloves (d) all above safety devices Ans: d

76. Excessive charging a battery tends to (a) produce gassing (b) increase the internal resistance of the battery (c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically (d) bring about all above changes Ans: d 77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is (a) equal to that of large dry cell (6) less than that of large dry cell (c) more than that of large dry cell (d) none of the above Ans: b 78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of (a) ions (b) holes (c) electrons (d) none of the above Ans: a 79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates (a) below (b) equal to (c) above (d) none of the above Ans: c 80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to (a) Pb (b) Pb02 (c) PbO (d) PbS04 Ans: d 81 of electrolytelndicates the state of charge of the battery (a) colour (b) mass (c) viscosity (d) specific gravity Ans: d 82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge (a) colour of electrode (b) gassing (c) specific gravity (d) all above Ans: d

83. Dry cell is modification of (a) Deniell cell (b) Leclanche cell (e) Lead-acid cell (d) Edison cell Ans: b 84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in (a) Ah (b) Vh (c) Wh (d) kWh Ans: a 85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is (a) dilute sulphuric acid (b) concentrated sulphuric acid (c) NaOH (d) KOH Ans: d 86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ Edison cell. (a) equal to (b) less than (c) more than (d) much more than Ans: b 87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours discharge rate. (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 24 Ans: a 88. The body of Edison cell is made of (a) bakelite (b) rubber (c) nickel plated steel (d) aluminium Ans: c 89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is (a) 0.8 (b) 0.95 (c) 1.1 (d) 1.21 Ans: d

90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by (a) thin aluminium wires (b) thin copper wires (c) rigid cables (d) flexible cables Ans: d 91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state to fully discharged state. (a) 1.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.4 (d) 2.9 Ans: c 92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material of the cell into (a) Pb02 (6) PbSC-4 (c) PbO (d) Pb Ans: b 93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat. (a) no (b) very little (c) less (d) more Ans: d 94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than (a) 2% (b) 4% (c) 6% (d) 8% Ans: d 95. Weston standard cell at 20C has voltage of ____ volts. (a) 0.8 (b) 0.9 (c) 1.0187 (d) 1.5 Ans: c 96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon (a) amount of moisture (b) type of metals (c) type of soil chemicals (d) all above factors Ans: d

97. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ? (a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve (6) High power to weight ratio (c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity (d) All of the above Ans: d 98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in (a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing (b) warping of plates (c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature (d) all above Ans: d 99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused (a) buckling of plates (b) faulty separators (c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates (d) excessive accumulation of sediment (e) any one of above Ans: e 100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container. This is done (a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte (b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte (c) to discharge both of the above functions (d) to discharge none of the above functions Ans: c 101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ? (a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each other (b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes (c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting (d) All above three conditions are necessary Ans: d 102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ? (a) Lithium (b) Zinc-chloride (c) Mercury (d) Carbon-zinc Ans: c 103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ? (a) Manganese-alkaline (6) Carbon-zinc

(c) Lithium (d) Mercury Ans: c 104. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery (a) water is poured into acid (b) acid is poured into water (c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical Ans: b 105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ? (a) Lead-acid battery (b) Nickel-iron battery (c) Dry cell battery (d) Silver oxide battery Ans: b 106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ? (a) Lead-acid (b) Mercury oxide (c) Carbon-zinc (d) Silver-oxide Ans: a 107. Which of the following is incorrect ? (a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction (b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged (c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life (d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction Ans: c 108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V (a) Dilute H2S04 (6) Concentrated H2SO4 (c) Water (d) Any of the above Ans: c 109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be (a) 10% of capacity (b) 20% of capacity (c) 30% of capacity (d) 40% of capacity Ans: a 110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that (a) they have same e.m.f. (b) they have same make (c) they have same ampere-hour capa-city (d) they have identical internal resistance

Ans: a 111. A typical output of a solar cell is (a) 0.1V (b) 0.26 V (c) 1.1 V (d) 2 V Ans: b 112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery (a) prevent local heating (b) prevent short-circuiting (c) reduce path resistance (d) prevent corrosion Ans: d 113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be maximum ? (a) Current (b) Efficiency of the circuit (c) Power in the load resistance (d) Voltage across the load resistance Ans: c 114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is (a) chlorine (b) dust particles (c) lead crystals (d) iron Ans: d 115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of (a) charged ions (b) chemical energy (c) electrostatic energy (d) electromagnetic energy Ans: b 116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery ? (a) Brake light (b) Self starter (c) Parking lights (d) Spark plugs Ans: b 117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ? (a) Temperature of surroundings (b) Specific gravity of electrolyte (c) Rate of discharge (d) All of the above

Ans: d 118. Cells are connected in parallel to (a) increase the efficiency (b) increase the current capacity (c) increase the voltage output (d) increase the internal resistance Ans: b 119. A constant-voltage generator has (a) minimum efficiency (b) minimum current capacity (c) low internal resistance (d) high internal resistance Ans: c 120. Satellite power requirement is provided through (a) solar cells (b) dry cells (c) nickel-cadmium cells (d) lead-acid batteries Ans: a
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Electrostatics - electrical multiple choice questions and answers pdf

1. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the force will be (a) 60 N (b) 30 N (c) 40 N (d) 15 N

Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be (a) 400 N/C (b) 600 N/C (c) 800 N/C (d) 1200 N/C

Ans: c

3. The lines of force due to charged particles are (a) always straight (b) always curved (c) sometimes curved (d) none of the above

Ans: b
4. (a) (b) (c) (d) The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is proportional to d inversely proportional to d inversely proportional to d none of the above

Ans: b
5. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a 6. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is away from the charge towards the charge both (a) and (6) none of the above .

A field line and an equipotential surface are always parallel always at 90 inclined at any angle 0 none of the above

7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of (a) electrons (b) protons (c) neutrons (d) electric field Ans: d 8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will (a) decrease (b) increase (c) remains unchanged (d) become zero Ans: b 9. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is

(a) 0.024 F (b) 0.12 F (c) 0.6 F (d) 0.8 F Ans: a 10. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having (a) low permittivity (b) high permittivity (c) permittivity same as that of air (d) permittivity slightly more than that of air Ans: b 11. The units of capacitance are (a) volts/coulomb (b) coulombs/volt (c) ohms (d) henry/Wb Ans: b 12. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is (a) 5 uF (6) 30 uF (c) 45 uF (d) 50 uF Ans: a 13. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is (a) 20 uF (b) 30 uE (c) 40 uF (d) 50 uF Ans: b 14. A dielectric material must be (a) resistor (b) insulator (c) good conductor (d) semi conductor Ans: b 15. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for (a) D.C. only (b) AC. only (c) both D.C. as well as A.C. Ans: a 16. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by (a) distance between plates (6) area of plates

(c) thickness of plates (d) all of the above Ans: c 17. Which of the following is not a vector ? (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Electric field (d) Electric potential Ans: b 18. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the (a) Voltage across the plates increases (b) voltage across the plates decreases (c) charge on the capacitor decreases (d) charge on the capacitor increases Ans: b 19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit because (a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents (b) of high peak value (c) charging current can flow (d) discharge current can flow Ans: a 20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ? (a) 50 (6) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200 Ans: b 21. Which of the following statements is correct ? (a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil (6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity (c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity (d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF Ans: b 22. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of (a) 0.0002 (b) 0.002 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.2 Ans: a 23. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the

amount oflcharge enclosed". The above statement is associated with (a) Coulomb's square law (b) Gauss's law (c) Maxwell's first law (d) Maxwell's second law Ans: b 24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be obtained by using them (a) all in series (b) all in parallel (c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination (d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination Ans: c 25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains unaffected ? (a) Distance between plates (b) Area of the plates (c) Nature of dielectric (d) Thickness of the plates Ans: d 26. Which of the following statement is true ? (a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly (b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially (c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially (d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly Ans: b 27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ? (a) E = D/E (b) E = D2/t (c) E = jtD (d) E= nD2 Ans: a 28. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in (a) metal plates (b) dielectric (c) both (a) and (6) (d) none of the above Ans: b 29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant? (a) Glass (b) Vacuum (c) Ceramics (d) Oil

Ans: c 30. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c 31. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ? Paper capacitor Ceramic capacitor Silver plated mica capacitor None of the above

Which of the following statements is incorrect ? The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors

Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ? Mica capacitor Electrolytic capacitor Ceramic capacitor Paper capacitor

33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a (a) capacitor in parallel with contacts (6) capacitor in series with each contact (c) resistance in line (d) none of the above Ans: a 34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be (a) small (b) very small (c) large (d) zero Ans: c 35. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is (a) zero (6) proportional to applied voltage (c) proportional to value of capacitance (d) both (b) and (c) above Ans: a 36. In a capacitive circuit (a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge (b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge (c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge (d) none of the above Ans: b

37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference between plates will (a) remain uncharged (b) decrease (c) increase (d) become zero Ans: b 38. Capacitance increases with (a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates (b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates (c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage (d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates Ans: a 39. A capacitor consists of (a) two insulators separated by a conductor (b) two conductors separated by an insulator (c) two insulators only (d) two conductors only Ans: b 40. A gang condenser is a (a) polarised capacitor (6) variable capacitor (c) ceramic capacitor (d) none of the above Ans: 41. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of (a) tubes (b) rolled foil (c) disc (d) meshed plates Ans: b 42. Air capacitors are generally available in the range (a) 10 to 400 pF (b) 1 to 20 pF (c) 100 to 900 pF (d) 20 to 100 pF Ans: a 43. The unit of capacitance is (a) henry (b) ohm (c) farad (d) farad/m Ans: c

44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be (a) 10 F (6) 10 uF (c) 100 nF (d) 1000 uF Ans: b 45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections, which type of capacitor it could be ? (a) Paper capacitor (b) Ceramic capacitor (c) Electrolytic capacitor (d) Any-of the above Ans: c 46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of voltage V is equal to joules (a) CV2 (b) C2V (c) CV2 (d) CV Ans: a 47. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by (a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m) (6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m) (c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m (d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m Ans: b 48. The relative permittivity of free space is given by (a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 1000 Ans: a 49. Electric field intensity is a quantity (a) scalar (b) vector (c) both (a) and (6) (d) none of the above Ans: b 50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of (a) 2 joules (b) 4 joules (c) 6 joules (d) 8 joules

Ans: d 51. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is (a) air capacitor (b) mica capacitor (c) electrolytic capacitor (d) none of the above Ans: b 52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of (a) kW (b) kVA (c) kVAR (d) volts Ans: c 53. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is (a) short-circuited (b) open circuited (c) alright (d) leaky Ans: d 54. If a 6 (iF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be (a) 800 uC (b) 900 uC (c) 1200 uC (d) 1600 uC Ans: c 55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ? (a) Ceramic capacitor (b) Paper capacitor (c) Both will be of equal size (d) None of the above Ans: a 56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ? (a) 50 pF (b) 100 pF (c) 150 pF (d) 200 pF Ans: b 57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which will have more value of capacitance ? (a) Ceramic capacitor

(b) Mica capacitor (c) Both will have identical value of capacitance (d) It depends on applied voltage Ans: a 58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ? (a) Ceramics (b) Oil (c) Glass (d) Paper Ans: b 59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ? (a) Mica (b) Paper (c) Ceramic (d) Electrolytic Ans: d 3.73. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually (a) 20 to 60 volts (b) 200 to 1600 volts (c) 2000 to 3000 volts (d) more than 10000 volts Ans: 60. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly (a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 3 to 8 (d) 1 to 2 Ans: c 61. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as (a) zero (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 10 Ans: b 62. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ? (a) Air (b) Paper (c) Mica (d) Electrolytic Ans: d 63. (a) (b) Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ? Air capacitor Ceramic capacitor

(c) Paper capacitor (d) None of the above Ans: b 64. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown rating for a capacitor . (b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance value of 500 pF (c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the combination (d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors Ans: b 65. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of (a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20% Ans: b 66. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ? (a) Paper capacitor (b) Mica capacitor (c) Ceramic disc capacitor (d) None of the above Ans: b 67. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance of 0.5 m will be (a) 36 x 10fa (b) 36 x 107 N (c) 36 x 108 N (d) 36 x 109 N Ans: d 68. The units of volume charge density are (a) Coulomb/metre (b) Coulomb/metre (c) Coulomb/metre (d) Coulomb/metre Ans: c 69. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface". The above statement is associated with (a) Gauss's law (b) Kirchhoff s law (c) Faraday's law (d) Lenz's law

Ans: a 70. Dielectric strength of mica is (a) 10 to 20 kV/mm (6) 30 to 50 kV/mm (c) 50 to 200 kV/mm (d) 300 to 500 kV/mm Ans: c 71. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4 (b) 0.5 to 1.0 (c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100 Ans: d 72 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning. (a) Paper (b) Air (c) Mica (d) Electrolytic Ans: b 73. capacitors can be used only for D.C. (a) Air (b) Paper (e) Mica (d) Electrolytic Ans: d 74. capacitors are used in transistor circuits. (a) Ceramic (b) Paper (c) Air (d) Electrolytic Ans: a 75. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning. (a) Air (b) Mica (c) Plastic film (d) Ceramic Ans: b 76. The inverse of capacitance is called (a) reluctance (b) conductance (c) susceptance (d) elastance Ans: d

77. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is (a) uniform (b) non-uniform (c) zero (d) any of the above Ans: a 78. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of high permittivity. (a) smaller (b) greater (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: b 79. ________field is associated with the capacitor. (a) Electric (b) Magnetic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans: a 80. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is (a) 50 joules (b) 150 joules (c) 200 joules (d) 250 joules Ans: d 81. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is (a) 62 x 105 V/m (b) 72 x 105 V/m (c) 82 x 105 V/m (d) 92 x 105 V/m Ans: b 82. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is (a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2 (b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2 (c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2 (d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2 Ans: d 83. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as (a) current (b) voltage

(c) potential gradient (d) charge Ans: d 84. The relative permittivity has the following units (a) F/m (b) m/F (c) Wb/m (d) no units Ans: c 85. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged body is known as (a) pholoelectric effect (b) chemical effect (c) magnetic effect (d) induction Ans: d 86. A unit tube of flux is known as (a) Newton (b) Faraday (c) Michale (d) None of the above Ans: b tube

87. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called (a) electric flux (6) electric flux density (c) magnetic flux density (d) electric charge density Ans: a 88. The unit of electric instensity is (a) N/C2 (b) Wb/m2 (c) N/C (d) N2/C Ans: 89. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of Faraday's laws Kirchhoff s laws Coulomb's laws none of the above

90. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit cross section at that point.

(a) Electric intensity (6) Magnetic flux density (c) Electric flux (d) None of the above Ans: a 91. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point. (a) electric flux (b) magnetic flux density (c) potential gradient (d) none of the above Ans: c 92. Electric displacement is a______quantity. (a) scalar (b) vector (c) both of the above (d) none of the above Ans: b 93. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point. (a) Electric intensity (6) Electric flux (c) Magnetic flux (d) Magnetic flux density Ans: a 94. The unit of dielectric strength is given by (a) V/m (b) V2/m (c) m/V (d) m/V2 Ans: a 95. Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains unaltered (d) none of the above Ans: b 96. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its (a) capacitance (b) charge (c) energy (d) none of the above Ans: a 97. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it. (a) Inductance

(b) Capacitance (c) Potential gradient (d) None of the above Ans: b 98. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 2. The time constant of the circuit is (a) 0.2 s (b) 0.4 s (c) 0.6 s (d) 0.8 s Ans: d 99. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient ismaximum at the surface of the (a) earth (b) conduction (c) sheath (d) insulator Ans: b 100. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its______value. (a) 37, initial (b) 63.2, initial (c) 63.2, final (d) 37, final Ans: c 101. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the charging current falls to ______ percent of its initial maximum value, (a) 37 (b) 42 (c) 63 (d) 73 Ans: a 102. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by (a) plate area (b) plate separation (c) nature of dielectric (d) none of the above (e) all of the above Ans: 103. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d A capacitor consists of two ceramic plates and one mica disc insulators separated by a dielectric silver-coated insulators conductors separated by an insulator

104. Permittivity is expressed in (a) Farad/sq-m (b) Farad/metre (c) Weber/metre (d) Weber/sq-m Ans: b 105. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: d Dielectric strength of a material depends on moisture content temperature thickness all of the above none of the above

106. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is applied on it ? (a) It will become magnetic (b) It will melt (c) It will get punctured or cracked (d) Its molecular structure will get changed Ans: c 107. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ? (a) Paraffin wax (b) Quartz (c) Glass (d) Air Ans: d 108. 1 volt/metre is same as (a) 1 metre/coulomb (6) 1 newton metre (c) 1 newton/metre (d) 1 joule/coulomb Ans: c 109. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a One volt is the same as one joule/coulomb one coulomb/joule one coulomb one joule

110. The capacitance between two plates increases with (a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage (6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them (c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage (d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates

Ans: d 111. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging circuit is given by (a) CIR (b) 1/RC (c) RC (d) RIC Ans: c 112. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is Wien's bridge Wheatstone bridge Schering bridge Hay's bridge

113. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is (a) charged (b) short-circuited (c) lossy (d) satisfactory Ans: b 114. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest dimensions ? (a) Aluminium foil capacitor (b) Mica capacitor (c) Ceramic capacitor (d) Paper capacitor Ans: c 115. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then (a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction (6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging body (c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction (d) it remains as such Ans: b 116. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the (a) charge of the charged conductor (6) capacity of the charged conductor (c) potential of the charged conductor (d) all of the above Ans: b 117. Paper condenser is (a) always polarised

(6) usually of fixed value (c) electrolytic condenser (d) a variable condenser Ans: b 118. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except (a) stable operation (b) accurate value (c) low leakage reactance (d) low losses Ans: c 119. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The strength of electric field is (a) 100 kV/m (b) 10 kV/m (c) 5 kV/m (d) 2 kV/m Ans: a 120. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should (a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance (6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance (c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there (d) not move at all Ans: a 121. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is (a) infinity (b) few kilo ohms (c) few megaahms (d) zero Ans: d 122. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Which of the following statements is correct ? Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity

123. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ? (a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above Ans: c 124. (a) An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide low capacitance

(b) fixed capacitance (c) variable capacitance (d) large value of capacitance Ans: d 125. In order to remove static electricity from machinery (a) construct insulated cabins (b) insulate the machinery (c) ground the framework (d) humidify the surroundings Ans: c 126. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then this third charge will (a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges (b) remain in stable equilibrium (c) not be in equilibrium (d) be in unstable equilibrium Ans: b 127. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a A region around a stationary electric charge has an electric field a magnetic field both (a) and (b) none of the above

128. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in (a) insulation (b) conductor (c) outer sheath (d) uniformly all over Ans: a 129. Dielectric strength of medium (a) increases with rise in temperature (b) increases with moisture content (c) is same for all insulating materials (d) none of the above Ans: d 130. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force of 9 x 10 N, is known as (a) milli-coulomb (b) micro-coulomb (c) pico-coulomb (d) coulomb Ans: b 131. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in

(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm Ans: c 132. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be (a) 5 times smaller than before (b) 5 times greater than before (c) 10 times greater than before (d) 25 times larger than before Ans: d 133. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ? (a) Air (b) Glass (c) Bakelite (d) Paper Ans: c 134. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength (a) decreases (b) increases (c) reduces to zero (d) remain unchanged Ans: a 135. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather surface is moistened conductive dressing is done oil compound dressing is done talcum powder is sprayed on the surface

136. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ? (a) Mica capacitor (b) Paper capacitor (c) Electrolytic capacitor (d) Ceramic capacitor Ans: c 137. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit (a) current (b) voltage (c) impedance (d) none of the above Ans: a 138. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d

metallic plate variable gang condenser metallic paper capacitor oil impregrated paper condenser poled aluminium electrolytic condenser

139. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in (a) metal plates (b) dielectric (c) dielectric as well as metal plates (d) none of the above Ans: b
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Rectifiers and Converters Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Preparation for Competition exams pdf
Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers 1. Which of the following are the applications of D.C. system ? (a) Battery charging work (b) Arc welding (c) Electrolytic and electro-chemical processes (d) Arc lamps for search lights (e) All of the above Ans: e 2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system to D.C. ? (a) Rectifiers (b) Motor converters (c) Motor-generator sets (d) Rotary converters (e) All of the above Ans: e 3. In a single phase rotary converter the number of slip rings will be (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) six (e) none Ans: a 4. A synchronous converter can be started (a) by means of a small auxiliary motor (b) from AC. side as induction motor (c) from D.C. side as D.C. motor

(d) any of the above methods (e) none of the above methods Ans: d 5. A rotary converter is a single machine with (a) one armature and one field (b) two armatures and one field (c) one armature and two fields (d) none of the above Ans: a 6. A rotary converter combines the function of (a) an induction motor and a D.C. generator (b) a synchronous motor and a D.C. generator. (c) a D.C. series motor and a D.C. generator (d) none of the above Ans: b 7. Which of the following is reversible in action ? (a) Motor generator set (b) Motor converter (c) Rotary converter (d) Any of the above (e) None of the above Ans: c 8. Which of the following metals is generally manufactured by electrolysis process ? (a) Load (b) Aluminium (c) Copper (d) Zinc (e) None of the above Ans: b 9. With a motor converter it is possible to obtain D.C. voltage only upto (a) 200-100 V (6) 600800 V (c) 10001200 V (d) 17002000 V Ans: d 10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a large-scale conversion from AC. to D.C. power is required ? (a) Motor-generator set (b) Motor converter (c) Rotary converter (d) Mercury arc rectifier Ans: d 11. (a) A rotary converter in general construction and design, is more or less like a transformer

(b) an induction motor (c) an alternator (d) any D.C. machine Ans: d 12. A rotary converter operates at a (a) low power factor (6) high power factor (c) zero power factor (d) none of the above Ans: b 13. In which of the following appUcations, direct current is absolutely essential ? (a) Illumination (b) Electrolysis (c) Variable speed operation (d) Traction Ans: b 14. Which of the following AC. motors is usually used in large motor-generator sets? (a) Synchronous motor (b) Squirrel cage induction motor (c) Slip ring induction motor (d) Any of the above Ans: a 15. In a rotary converter armature currents are (a) d.c. only (b) a.c. only (c) partly a.c. and partly d.c. Ans: c 16. In which of the following equipment direct current is needed ? (a) Telephones (b) Relays (c) Time switches (d) All of the above Ans: d 17. In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C. generator of the same size will be (a) same (b) less (c) double (d) three times Ans: b 18. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted towards (a) anode (b) cathode

(c) shell bottom (d) mercury pool Ans: b 19. Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode because (a) its ionization potential is relatively low (b) its atomic weight is quite high (c) its boiling point and specific heat are low (d) it remains in liquid state at ordinary temperature (e) all of the above Ans: e 20. The ionization potential of mercury is approximately (a) 5.4 V (b) 8.4 V (c) 10.4 V (d) 16.4 V Ans: c 21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier, varies (a) 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc (b) 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc (c) 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc (d) none of the above Ans: d 22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a mercury arc rectifier comprises of the following (a) anode drop and cathode drop (b) anode drop and arc drop (c) cathode drop and arc drop (d) anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop Ans: d 23. Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of D.C. output (maximum continuous rating) of (a) 100 A at 100 V (b) 200 A at 200 V (c) 300 A at 300 V (d) 400 A at 400 V (e) 500 A at 500 V Ans: e 24. The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is due to (a) self restoring property of mercury (b) high ionization potential (c) energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field (d) high temperature inside the rectifier Ans: c

25. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on (a) voltage only (b) current only (c) voltage and current (d) r.m.s. value of current (e) none of the above Ans: a 26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are inter changed (a) the rectifier will not operate (b) internal losses will be reduced (c) both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction (d) the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency Ans: a 27. The cathdde voltage drop, in a mercury arc rectifier, is due to (a) expenditure of energy in ionization (b) surface resistance (c) expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field (d) expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the mercury Ans: d 28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier (a) anode is heated (b) tube is evacuated (c) an auxiliary electrode is used (d) low mercury vapour pressures are used Ans: c 29. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is that (a) it is light in weight and occupies small floor space (b) it has high efficiency (c) it has high overload capacity (d) it is comparatively noiseless (e) all of the above Ans: e 30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its electrodes (a) is directly proportional to load (b) is inversely proportional to load (c) varies exponentially with the load current (d) is almost independent of load current Ans: d 31. In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each anode conducts for (a) one-third of a cycle (b) one-fourth of a cycle (c) one-half a cycle (d) two-third of a cycle Ans: a

32. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is due to (a) colour of mercury (b) ionization (c) high temperature (d) electron streams Ans: b 33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least undulating current? (a) Six-phase (b) Three-phase (c) Two-phase (d) Single-phase Ans: a 34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is restricted to (a) 2000 A (b) 1500 A (c) 1000 A (d) 500 A Ans: d 35. In a mercury arc rectifier______ flow from anode to cathode (a) ions (b) electrons (c) ions and electrons (d) any of the above Ans: a 36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following voltage drops take place ? (a) Voltage drop in transformer reactance (6) Voltage drop in resistance of transformer and smoothing chokes (c) Arc voltage drop (d) All of the above Ans: d 37. On which of the following factors the number of phases for which a rectifier should be designed depend ? (a) The voltage regulation of the rectifier should be low (b) In the output circuit there should be no harmonics (c) The power factor of the system should be high (d) The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to the best ad-vantage (e) all of the above Ans: e 38. A mercury arc rectifier possesses ________ regulation characteristics (a) straight line (b) curved line (c) exponential (d) none of the above

Ans: d 39. It is the_______of the transformer on which the magnitude of angle of overlap depends. (a) resistance (b) capacitance (c) leakage reactance (d) any of the above Ans: c 41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid is made positive relative to cathode, then it the electrons on their may to anode. (a) accelerates (b) decelerates (c) any of the above (d) none of the above Ans: a 42. In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be struck between anode and cathode only when the grid attains a certain potential, this potential being known as (a) maximum grid voltage (b) critical grid voltage (c) any of the above (d) none of the above Ans: b 43. In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by varying the (a) magnitude (b) polarity (c) phase (d) any of the above (e) none of the above Ans: c of grid voltage.

16.44. In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift between anode and grid voltages can be achieved by means of (a) shunt motor (6) synchronous motor (c) induction regulator (d) synchronous generator Ans: c 45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of the following advantages ? (a) They are mechanically strong (b) They do not require any voltage for filament heating (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans: c 46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(a) Copper oxide rectifier is a linear device (b) Copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect rectifier (c) Copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency (d) Copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits (e) Copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early life Ans: a 47. The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom exceeds (a) 90 to 95% (b) 85 to 90% (c) 80 to 85% (d) 65 to 75% Ans: d 48. Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to operate above (a) 10C (b) 20C (c) 30C (d) 45C Ans: d 49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as high as (a) 25C (b) 40C (c) 60C (d) 75C Ans: d 50. In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ______ to ______ percent are attainable (a) 25, 35 (b) 40, 50 (c) 60, 70 (d) 75, 85 Ans: d 51. Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the output voltage by (a) 5 to 10 per cent (b) 15 to 20 per cent (c) 25 to 30 per cent (d) none of the above Ans: a 52. The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually limited to potential of (a) 10 V (b) 30 V (c) 60 V (d) 100 V (e) 200 V Ans: d

53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in supplying direct current for electroplating ? (a) Copper oxide rectifiers (b) Selenium rectifiers (c) Mercury arc rectifiers (d) Mechanical rectifiers (e) None of the above Ans: b 54. A commutating rectifier consists of commutator driven by (a) an induction motor (b) a synchronous motor (c) a D.C. series motor (d) a D.C. shunt motor Ans: b 55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of low voltage batteries from AC. supply ? (a) Mechanical rectifiers (b) Copper oxide rectifiers (c) Selenium rectifiers (d) Electrolytic rectifiers (e) Mercury arc rectifiers Ans: d 56. The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is nearly (a) 80% (b) 70% (c) 60% (d) 40% Ans: c 57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber ? (a) Voltage drop in arc (6) Voltage drop at the anode (c) Voltage drop at the cathode (d) All of the above Ans: d 58. The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc rectifiers (a) operate on low temperatures (b) can operate on high voltages (c) can operate on heavy loads (d) give poor regulation (e) none of the above Ans: a 59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of (a) copper (b) aluminium

(c) silver (d) graphite (e) tungsten Ans: d 60. The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is made of (a) graphite (b) boron carbide (c) aluminum (d) copper Ans: b

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Current Electricity - electrical multiple choice questions and answers pdf

1. The S.I. unit of power is (a) henry (b) coulomb (c) watt (d) watt-hour

Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called (a) resistance (b) power (c) voltage (d) energy

Ans: c
3. The substances whfch have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are called (a) insulators (b) inductors (c) semi-conductors (d) conductors

Ans: d

4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ? (a) Cast iron (b) Copper (c) Carbon (d) Tungsten

Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ? (a) Copper (b) Gold (c) Silver (d) Paper Ans: d 6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called (a) resistance (b) reluctance (c) conductance (d) inductance Ans: c 7. Conductance is reciprocal of (a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance Ans: a 8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as (a) length (6) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity Ans: b 9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals (a) increases (b) decreases (c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant Ans: a 10. (a) (b) (c) (d) With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors decreases increases first increases and then decreases remains constant

Ans: a 11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around (a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m (c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m Ans: c 12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel. The total resistance of the combination is (a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms Ans: 13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as (a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer Ans: d 14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is (a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V Ans: b 15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light bulb is (a) 400 Q (b) 600 Q (c) 800 Q (d) 1000 Q Ans: c 16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ? (a) 18 Q (b) 36 Q (c) 48 Q (d) 64 Q Ans: b

17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be (a) 1 Q (b) 2 Q (c) 3 Q (d) 4 Q Ans: d 18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is (a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A Ans: b 19. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Current velocity through a copper conductor is the same as propagation velocity of electric energy independent of current strength of the order of a few ^.s/m nearly 3 x 108 m/s

20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance? (a) Manganin (b) Porcelain (c) Carbon (d) Copper Ans: a 21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect (a) two in parallel (b) two in parallel and one in series (c) three in parallel (d) three in series Ans: b 22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when (a) same current passes in turn through both (b) both carry the same value of current (c) total current equals the sum of branch currents (d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f. Ans: a 23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit? (a) Elements have individual currents

(b) Currents are additive (c) Voltages are additive (d) Power are additive Ans: d 24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance? (a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass Ans: c 25. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a Ohm's law is not applicable to vacuum tubes carbon resistors high voltage circuits circuits with low current densities

26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ? (a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon Ans: b 27. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ? (a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy Ans: b 28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except (a) (amperes) ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt Ans: d 29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a (a) metallic resistor (b) carbon resistor (c) wire wound resistor (d) variable resistor Ans: c 30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ? (a) Aluminium

(b) Paper (c) Rubber (d) Mica Ans: a 31. Varistors are (a) insulators (6) non-linear resistors (c) carbon resistors (d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient Ans: b 32. Insulating materials have the function of (a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires (b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load (c) conducting very large currents (d) storing very high currents Ans: b 33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in (a) ampere-hours (b) ampere-volts (c) kWh (d) amperes Ans: d 34. The minimum charge on an ion is (a) equal to the atomic number of the atom (b) equal to the charge of an electron (c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero Ans: b 35. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d In a series circuit with unequal resistances the highest resistance has the most of the current through it the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop the lowest resistance has the highest current the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop

36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of (a) carbon (b) aluminium (c) tungsten (d) nickel Ans: c 37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of (a) 2 watts (b) 4 watts (c) 6 watts

(d) 8 watts Ans: c 38. Which of the following statement is true? (a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter (b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter (c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter (d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter Ans: c 39. The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is (a) practically zero (b) low (c) high (d) very high Ans: a 40. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current increases in the branch of the lowest resistance increases in each branch is zero in all branches is zero in the highest resistive branch

41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes (a) 0.4 ohm (b) 0.6 ohm (c) 0.8 ohm (d) 1.0 ohm Ans: a 42. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open there will be heavy current in the main line rest of the two bulbs will not light all three bulbs will light the other two bulbs will light

43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series wifti a battery across them, which of the following statement is true ? (a) The current through each bulb in same (b) The voltage across each bulb is not same (c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same (d) None of the above Ans: a 44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the voltage source where R2>Ri. The largest drop will be across (a) R2

(b) Ri (c) either Rl or Rz (d) none of them Ans: a 45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ? (a) 5 joules (b) 10 joules (c) 15 joules (d) 20 joules Ans: 46. A closed switch has a resistance of (a) zero (b) about 50 ohms (c) about 500 ohms (d) infinity Ans: a 47. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is (a) zero (b) negative (c) positive (d) about 2 ohms per degree Ans: c 48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to (a) reactance (b) capacitance (c) impedance (d) resistance Ans: 49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided (a) to prevent leakage of current (b) to prevent shock (c) both of above factors (d) none of above factors Ans: c 50. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a 51. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on the magnitude of voltage on the con-ductor the magnitude of current flowing through it both (a) and (b) none of the above

Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?

(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Power (d) Resistance Ans: b 52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will (a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain same (d) heater will burn out Ans: b 53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains (a) length of heating element should be decreased (b) length of heating element should be increased (c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water (d) none of the above Ans: a 54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from (a) D.C. supply only (b) A.C. supply only (c) Battery supply only (d) All above Ans: d 55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases (a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) none of the above Ans: b 56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces (a) magnetic effect (b) luminous effect (c) thermal effect (d) chemical effect (e) all above effects Ans: c 57. Resistance of a material always decreases if (a) temperature of material is decreased (6) temperature of material is increased (c) number of free electrons available become more (d) none of the above is correct Ans: c

58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ? (a) Input power (b) Losses (c) True component of power (d) kWh consumed (e) Ratio of output to input Ans: b 59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to (a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms (b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms (c) mutual collisions between metal atoms (d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons Ans: a 60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as (a) 4 : 25 (b) 25 : 4 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 5 : 2 Ans: c 61. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because it takes in proton its atoms are removed it gives away electrons it gives away positive charge

62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude of the current. (a) Reactor (b) Capacitor (c) Inductor (d) Resistor Ans: d 63. It becomes more difficult to remove (a) any electron from the orbit (6) first electron from the orbit (c) second electron from the orbit (d) third electron from the orbit Ans: d 64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will (a) reduce (b) increase (c) decrease

(d) become zero Ans: c 65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of the above Ans: b 66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter (c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse Ans: b 67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be (a) 4.84 Q (b) 48.4 Q (c) 484 ft (d) 4840 Q Ans: c 68. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a In the case of direct current magnitude and direction of current remains constant magnitude and direction of current changes with time magnitude of current changes with time magnitude of current remains constant

69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is (a) A.C. (b) D.C. (c) any of above two (d) none of the above Ans: b 70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases. (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of the above Ans: b 71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in (a) parallel

(b) series (c) series-parallel (d) end-to-end Ans: a 72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be (a) very low (b) low (c) high (d) any value Ans: c 73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching operation produces (a) arcs across separating contacts (b) mechanical noise of high intensity (c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts (d) none of the above Ans: a 74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high (a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) impedance Ans: b 75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes (a) 1/9 times (b) 3 times (e) 9 times (d) unchanged Ans: c 76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will (a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain constant (d) none of the above Ans: b 77. A field of force can exist only between (a) two molecules (b) two ions (c) two atoms (d) two metal particles Ans: b

78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called (a) semi-conductor (b) super-conducto (c) compound (d) insulator Ans: c 79. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of a column of mercury a cube of carbon a cube of copper the unit length of wire

80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be (a) 9 times (b) 1/9 times (c) 1/3 times (d) 3 times Ans: b 91. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ? Lorentz method Releigh method Ohm's law method Wheatstone bridge method

92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two corners ? (a) 3/2 Q (b 6 Q (c) 4 Q (d) 8/3 Q Ans: c 93. Ohm's law is not applicable to (a) semi-conductors (b) D.C. circuits (c) small resistors (d) high currents Ans: a 94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will be (a) 160 ohms (b) 80 ohms (c) 20 ohms

(d) 10 ohms Ans: d 95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be (a) 80 m (b) 60 m (c) 40 m (d) 20 m Ans: a 96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of (a) ohms/C (b) mhos/ohmC (e) ohms/ohmC (d) mhos/C Ans: c 97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ? (a) Zinc (b) Lead (c) Mercury (d) Copper Ans: 98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because (a) current through supply line flows at slower speed (b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer (c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires (d) supply wires are made of superior material Ans: c 99. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that resistance must be uniform current should be proportional to the size of the resistance resistance must be wire wound type temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end

100. Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and an insulator (b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity of metal and insulator (c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage (d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator Ans: a

101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it (a) has lower wantage rating (b) has higher wattage rating (c) has large number of turns (d) offers large number of tappings Ans: b 102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150% Ans: a 103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads (a) zero (b) infinite (c) high but within tolerance (d) low but not zero Ans: b 104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much greater than that of typical insulators. (a) Varistors (b) Thermistor (c) Semi-conductors (d) Variable resistors Ans: c 105. All good conductors have high (a) conductance (b) resistance (c) reluctance (d) thermal conductivity Ans: a 106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from (a) charcoal (b) silicon carbide (c) nichrome (d) graphite Ans: c 107. Voltage dependent resistors are used (a) for inductive circuits (6) to supress surges (c) as heating elements (d) as current stabilizers Ans: b

108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly (a) 1840 (b) 1840 (c) 30 (d) 4 Ans: a 109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 Ans: b 110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power supplied by the voltage source equals (a) 10 W (b) 20 W (c) 40 W (d) 60 W Ans: d 111. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c A thermistor has positive temperature coefficient negative temperature coefficient zero temperature coefficient variable temperature coefficient

112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law heat produced will be proportional to (a) I2Rt (b) I2Rf (c) I2R2t (d) I2R2t* Ans: a 113. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Nichrome wire is an alloy of lead and zinc chromium and vanadium nickel and chromium copper and silver

114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is (a) 1 n-mho (b) 106 mho (c) 1 milli-mho

(d) none of the above Ans: a 115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ? (a) Compounds of silver (6) Liquid metals (c) Metallic alloys (d) Electrolytes Ans: d 116. Conductance : mho :: (a) resistance : ohm (b) capacitance : henry (c) inductance : farad (d) lumen : steradian Ans: a 117. 1 angstrom is equal to (a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m Ans: c 118. One newton metre is same as (a) one watt (b) one joule (c) five joules (d) one joule second Ans: b
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Network Theorems - electrical multiple choice questions and answers pdf

1. Kirchhoff s current law states that (a) net current flow at the junction is positive (b) Hebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero (c) no curreht can leave the junction without some current entering it. (d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero

Ans: b
2. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always

(a) (b) (c) (d)

negative positive determined by battery e.m.fs. zero

Ans: d
3. (a) (b) (c) (d) Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only junction in a network closed loops in a network electric circuits electronic circuits

Ans: a
4. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Kirchhoffs voltage law is related to junction currents battery e.m.fs. IR drops both (b) and (c) none of the above

Ans: d
5. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having (a) resistive elements (b) passive elements (c) non-linear elements (d) linear bilateral elements Ans: d 6. The concept on which Superposition theorem is ba ed is (a) reciprocity (b) duality (c) non-linearity (d) linearity Ans: d 7. Thevenin resistance Rth is found (a) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances (6) by short-circuiting the given two terminals (c) between any two 'open' terminals (d) between same open terminals as for Etk Ans: d 8. (a) An ideal voltage source should have large value of e.m.f.

(b) small value of e.m.f. (c) zero source resistance (d) infinite source resistance Ans: c 9. (a) (b) (c) Ans: b For a voltage source terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f. terminal voltage cannot be higher than source e.m.f. the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal

10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know (a) value of current through the resistor (b) direction of current through the resistor (c) value of resistor (d) e.m.fs. in the circuit Ans: b 11. "Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal to the output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load". The above statement is associated with (a) Millman's theorem (b) Thevenin's theorem (c) Superposition theorem (d) Maximum power transfer theorem Ans: d 12. "Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by a single current source whose current is the algebraic sum of individual source currents and source resistance is the parallel combination of individual source resistances". The above statement is associated with (a) Thevenin's theorem (b) Millman's theorem (c) Maximum power transfer theorem (d) None of the above Ans: b 13. "In any linear bilateral network, if a source of e.m.f. E in any branch produces a current I in any other branch, then same e.m.f. acting in the second branch would produce the same current / in the first branch". The above statement is associated with (a) compensation theorem (b) superposition theorem (c) reciprocity theorem (d) none of the above Ans: c 14. Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter ?

(a) Inductance (b) Condenser (c) Wire wound resistor (d) Transistor Ans: a 15. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c A capacitor is generally a bilateral and active component active, passive, linear and nonlinear component linear and bilateral component non-linear and active component

16. "In any network containing more than one sources of e.m.f. the current in any branch is the algebraic sum of a number of individual fictitious currents (the number being equal to the number of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is due to separate action of each source of e.m.f., taken in order, when the remaining sources of e.m.f. are replaced by conductors, the resistances of which are equal to the internal resistances of the respective sources". The above statement is associated with (a) Thevenin's theorem (b) Norton's theorem (c) Superposition theorem (d) None of the above Ans: c 17. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d 18. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Kirchhoff s law is applicable to passive networks only a.c. circuits only d.c. circuits only both a.c. as well d.c. circuits

Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits with lumped parameters passive elements distributed parameters non-linear resistances

19. Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits with (a) nonlinear elements only (b) linear elements only (c) linear, non-linear, active and passive elements (d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-variant elements Ans: d 20. The resistance LM will be (a) 6.66 Q (b) 12 Q

(c) 18Q (d) 20Q Ans: a 21. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be equal to the load resistance less than the load resistance more than the load resistance none of the above

22. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power c xurs is (a) 100% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 50% Ans: d 23. If resistance across LM in Fig. 2.30 is 15 ohms, the value of R is (a) 10 Q (6) 20 Q (c) 30 Q (d) 40 Q Ans: c 24. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be (a) equal to load resistance (b) less than the load resistance (c) greater than the load resistance (d) none of the above Ans: a 25. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms the source will be (a) a voltage source (b) a current source (c) both of above (d) none of the above Ans: a 26. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as (a) unilateral circuit (b) bilateral circuit (c) irreversible circuit (d) reversible circuit Ans: b 27. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in (a) series with each other (b) parallel with each other

(c) series with the voltage source.' (d) parallel with the voltage source Ans: a 28. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit will be known as (a) non-linear circuit (b) linear circuit (c) bilateral circuit (d) none of the above Ans: a 29. A non-linear network does not satisfy (a) superposition condition (b) homogeneity condition (c) both homogeneity as well as superposition condition (d) homogeneity, superposition and associative condition Ans: c 30. An ideal voltage source has (a) zero internal resistance (b) open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load (c) terminal voltage in proportion to current (d) terminal voltage in proportion to load Ans: a 31. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known as linear network non-linear network passive network active network

32. The superposition theorem is applicable to (a) linear, non-linear and time variant responses (b) linear and non-linear resistors only (c) linear responses only (d) none of the above Ans: c 33. Which of the following is not a nonlinear element ? (a) Gas diode (b) Heater coil (c) Tunnel diode (d) Electric arc Ans: 34. (a) (6) Application of Norton's theorem to a circuit yields equivalent current source and impedance in series equivalent current source and impedance in parallel

(c) equivalent impedance (d) equivalent current source Ans: a 35. Millman's theorem yields (a) equivalent resistance (6) equivalent impedance (c) equivalent voltage source (d) equivalent voltage or current source Ans: d 36. The superposition theorem is applicable to (a) voltage only (b) current "only (c) both current and voltage (d) current voltage and power Ans: d 37. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes (a) non-linear constraints (b) linear constraints (c) no constraints (d) none of the above Ans: b 38. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d A passive network is one which contains only variable resistances only some sources of e.m.f. in it only two sources of e.m.f. in it no source of e.m.f. in it

39. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as (a) node (b) terminus (c) combination (d) anode Ans: a 40. Which of the following is the passive element ? (a) Capacitance (b) Ideal current source (c) Ideal voltage source (d) All of the above Ans: a 41. (a) (b) (c) Which of the following is a bilateral element ? Constant current source Constant voltage source Capacitance

(d) None of the above Ans: c 42. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as (a) branch (b) loop (c) circuit (d) junction Ans: b 43. A linear resistor having 0 < R < o is a (a) current controlled resistor (6) voltage controlled resistor (c) both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor (d) none of the above Ans: c 44. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be (a) R/6 (b) fi? (c) 2R (d) 4R Ans: b 45. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of star circuit with be (a) RIG (b) R/3 (c) 2R (d) 3R Ans: a 46. In Thevenin's theorem, to find Z (a) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are open circuited (b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are short circuited (c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited (d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are open circuited Ans: d 47. While calculating Rth in Thevenin's theorem and Norton equivalent (a) all independent sources are made dead (b) only current sources are made dead (c) only voltage sources are made dead (d) all voltage and current sources are made dead Ans: a 48. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to

(a) the number of chords (b) the number of branches (c) sum of the number of branches and chords (d) sum of number of branches, chords and nodes Ans: a 49. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are (a) sources, nodes and meshes (b) sources and nodes (c) sources (d) nodes Ans: c 50. Choose the incorrect statement. (a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit. (b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of a short circuit. (c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit. (d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the characteristic of resistor R. Ans: a
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Measurement and Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Preparation for Competition exams pdf
Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers 1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as standardizing instruments. (a) absolute (b) indicating (c) recording (d) integrating (e) none of the above Ans: a 2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being measured at the time at which it is being measured ? (a) Absolute instruments (b) Indicating instruments (c) Recording instruments (d) Integrating instruments Ans: b 3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a

particular time. (a) Absolute (b) Indicating (c) Recording (d) Integrating Ans: d 4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ? (a) Ammeters (b) Voltmeters (c) Wattmeters (d) Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters Ans: d 5. Resistances can be measured with the help of (a) wattmeters (b) voltmeters (c) ammeters (d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges (e) all of the above Ans: d 6 According to application, instruments are classified as (a) switch board (b) portable (c) both (a) and (b) (d) moving coil (e) moving iron (f) both (d) and (e) Ans: c 7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ? (a) Deflecting device (b) Controlling device (c) Damping device (d) All of the above Ans: d 8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to reach its final position quickly (a) deflecting (b) controlling (c) damping (d) any of the above Ans: c 9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property. (a) Should be non-magnetic (b) Most be of low temperature co-efficient (c) Should have low specific resistance

(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue (e) All of the above Ans: e 10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ? (a) Must be a good insulator (b) Should be non-evaporating (c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane (d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature (e) All of the above Ans: e 11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt. (a) ammeter (b) voltmeter (c) flux-meter (d) ballistic galvanometer Ans: a 12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter (a) by using a low resistance shunt (b) by using a high series resistance (c) by eliminating the control springs (d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia Ans: c 13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments ? (a) Shunts (b) Multipliers (c) Current transformers (d) Potential transformers (e) All of the above Ans: e 14. An induction meter can handle current upto (a) 10 A (b) 30 A (c) 60 A (d) 100 A Ans: d 15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction with (a) potential transformers (b) current transformers (c) power transformers (d) either of the above (e) none of the above Ans: b

16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in (a) kW (b) Wh (c) kWh (d) VAR (e) None of the above Ans: c 17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial installations are (a) mercury motor meters (b) commutator motor meters (c) induction type single phase energy meters (d) all of the above Ans: c 18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits (a) Mercury motor meters (b) Commutator motor meters (c) Induction meters (d) None of the above Ans: c 19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor meter ? (a) An operating torque system (b) A braking device (c) Revolution registering device (d) All of the above Ans: d 20. A potentiometer may be used for (a) measurement of resistance (b) measurement of current (c) calibration of ammeter (d) calibration of voltmeter (e) all of the above Ans: e 21 is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one another, (a) Tangent galvanometer (b) Meggar (c) Current transformer (d) None of the above Ans: b 22. The household energy meter is (a) an indicating instrument (b) a recording instrument (c) an integrating instrument

(d) none of the above Ans: c 23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be (a) very light (b) very heavy (c) either (a) or (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: a 24. The chemical effect of current is used in (a) D.C. ammeter hour meter (b) D.C. ammeter (c) D.C. energy meter (d) none of the above Ans: a 25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by (a) fluid friction (b) spring (c) eddy currents (d) all of the above Ans: c 26. An ammeter is a (a) secondary instrument (b) absolute instrument (c) recording instrument (d) integrating instrument Ans: a 27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by (a) spring (b) gravity (c) eddy currents (d) all of the above Ans: a 28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping should be of (a) conducting and magnetic material (b) non-conducting and magnetic material (c) conducting and non-magnetic material (d) none of the above Ans: c 29. The switch board instruments (a) should be mounted in vertical position (6) should be mounted in horizontal position (c) either (a) or (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Ans: a 30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to (a) by pass the current (b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter (c) increase the resistance of ammeter (d) none of the above Ans: a 31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in (a) series (b) parallel (c) series-parallel (d) none of the above Ans: a 32. A moving iron instrument can be used for (a) D.C. only (b) A.C. only (c) both D.C. and A.C. Ans: c 33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is (a) linear (b) non-linear (c) either (a) or (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: a 34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use (a) moving iron instrument (b) electrostatic instrument (c) thermocouple instrument (d) none of the above Ans: c 35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be (a) almost zero (b) low (c) high (d) none of the above Ans: c 36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for (a) both D.C. and A.C. (b) D.C. only (c) A.C. only (d) any of the above Ans: a

37. An induction wattmeter can be used for (a) both D.C. and A.C. (6) D.C. only (c) A.C. only (d) any of the above Ans: b 38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil when (a) load impedance is high (b) load impedance is low (c) supply voltage is low (d) none of the above Ans: a 39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected (a) to the supply side of the current coil (b) to the load side of the current coil (c) in any of the two meters at connection (d) none of the above Ans: b 40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected (a) in series with current coil (b) in parallel with current coil (c) in series with pressure coil (d) in parallel with pressure coil Ans: c 41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had identical readings. The power factor of the load was (a) unity (6) 0.8 lagging (c) 0.8 leading (d) zero Ans: a 42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load must be (a) unity (b) 0.5 (c) 0.3 (d) zero Ans: b 43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide (a) friction compensation (b) creep compensation (c) braking torque (d) none of the above

Ans: a 44. An ohmmeter is a (a) moving iron instrument (b) moving coil instrument (c) dynamometer instrument (d) none of the above Ans: b 45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity position. This shows that capacitor is (a) short-circuited (b) all right (c) faulty Ans: b 46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use (a) Kelvin's double bridge (b) Wheat stone bridge (c) Meggar (d) None of the above Ans: c 47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by (a) battery (b) permanent magnet D.C. generator (c) AC. generator (d) any of the above Ans: b 48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by (a) spring (b) gravity (c) coil (d) eddy current Ans: c 49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about (a) 6 V (b) 12 V (c) 40 V (d) 100 V Ans: d 50. Murray loop test can be used for location of (a) ground fault on a cable (b) short circuit fault on a cable (c) both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault (d) none of the above Ans: c

51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ? (a) Small range moving coil voltmeter (b) D.C. potentiometer (c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter (d) None of the above Ans: b 52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is (a) D.C. voltmeter (b) Ammeter and a known resistance (c) D.C. potentiometer (d) None of the above Ans: c 53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured (a) directly by a D.C. potentiometer (b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box (c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance (d) none of the above Ans: b 54. A direct current can be measured by (a) a D.C. potentiometer directly (b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance (c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box (d) none of the above Ans: b 55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is (a) necessary to standardise the potentiometer (b) not necessary to standardise the potentiometer (c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the potentiometer (d) none of the above Ans: b 56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with (a) D.C. potentiometer (b) Drysdale potentiometer (c) A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer (d) Crompton potentiometer Ans: b 57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for (a) comparing two voltages (b) measuring a current (c) comparing two currents (d) measuring a voltage (e) none of the above

Ans: a 58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be (a) as long as possible (b) as short as possible (c) neither too small not too large (d) very thick Ans: a 59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the potentiometer in taken (a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage (b) from a battery (c) from the same source as the unknown voltage (d) any of the above Ans: c 60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually has a (a) single-phase winding (b) two-phase winding (c) three-phase winding (d) any of the above Ans: b 61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be (a) out of phase by 90 (6) out of phase by 60 (c) out of phase by 30 (d) out of phase by 0 (e) out of phase by 180 Ans: a 62. A universal RLC bridge uses (a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance (b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De Santy's bridge for measurement of capacitance (c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of capacitance (d) Any of the above. Ans: b 63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is (a) Wein bridge (b) Modified De Santy's bridge (c) Schering bridge (d) Any of the above (e) None of the above

Ans: c 64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of (a) known inductance and resistance (b) known capacitance and resistance (c) known resistance (d) known inductance Ans: b 65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to (a) electrostatic coupling (b) electromagnetic coupling (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: a 66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use (a) Anderson bridge (b) Maxwell's bridge (c) Heaviside bridge (d) Any of the above Ans: c 67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use (a) Maxwell's bridge (b) Maxwell Wein bridge (c) Hay's bridge (d) Any of the above Ans: c 68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle of the capacitor is (a) 10 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 170 Ans: a 69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is (a) a few volts only (6) 1 kV (c) 5 kV (d) 10 kV Ans: a 70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use (a) magnetic screening (b) Wagner earthing device (c) wave filters (d) any of the above Ans: a

71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three arms (a) the bridge can always be balanced (b) the bridge cannot be balanced (c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values Ans: b 72. A power factor meter has (a) one current circuit and two pressure circuits (b) one current circuit and one pressure circuit (c) two current circuits and one pressure circuit (d) none of the above Ans: a 73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have (a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns (b) the same dimension but different number of turns (c) the same number of turns but different dimensions (d) none of the above Ans: a 74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two pressure coils is (a) exactly 0 (b) approximately 0 (c) exactly 90 (d) approximately 90 Ans: c 75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at (a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 120 Ans: d 76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a difference of (a) 0.1 Hz (b) 0.25 Hz (c) 0.5 Hz (d) 1.5 Hz Ans: c 77. (a) (b) (c) (d) In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are parallel perpendicular inclined at 60 inclined at 120

Ans: b 78. A Weston frequency meter is (a) moving coil instrument (b) moving iron instrument (c) dynamometer instrument (d) none of the above Ans: b 79. A Weston synchronoscope is a (a) moving coil instrument (b) moving iron instrument (c) dynamometer instrument (d) none of the above Ans: c 80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across (a) bus-bars (b) incoming alternator (c) a lamp (d) none of the above Ans: b 81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across (a) bus-bars (b) incoming alternator (c) fixed coils (d) any of the above Ans: a 82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are (a) one voltmeter and one ammeter (b) one voltmeter, one ammetqr and one wattmeter (c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter (d) any of the above Ans: b 83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are (a) accuracy and reproducibility (b) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility (c) drift and dead zone (d) static error Ans: b 84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is called (a) static sensitivity (b) dynamic deviation (c) linearity

(d) precision or accuracy Ans: c 85. Systematic errors are (a) instrumental errors (b) environmental errors (c) observational errors (d) all of the above Ans: d 86. Standard resistor is made from (a) platinum (b) maganin (c) silver (d) nichrome Ans: b 87. Commonly used standard capacitor is (a) spherical type (b) concentric cylindrical type (c) electrostatic type (d) multilayer parallel plate type Ans: b 88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are (a) deflecting and control (b) deflecting and damping (c) deflecting, control and damping (d) vibration and balancing Ans: c 89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are (a) induction (b) moving coil or iron (c) rectifier (d) electrostatic Ans: a 90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to (a) get first deflection large (b) make the system oscillatory (c) make the system critically damped (d) get minimum overshoot Ans: a 91. (a) (b) (c) (d) If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows square law logarithmic law uniform law none of the above

Ans: b 92. Volt box is a component to (a) extend voltage range (6) measure voltage (c) compare voltage in a box (d) none of the above Ans: a 93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by (a) electrostatic voltmeter (b) hot wire voltmeter (c) isothermal voltmeter (d) electrodynamic voltmeter Ans: a 94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to (a) balancing weight (b) deflection angle (c) sine of deflection angle Ans: c 95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a (a) small value of current (b) large value of current (c) large value of power (d) large value of voitage (e) none of the above Ans: a 96. A multirangq instrument has (a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter (b) multicoii arrangement (c) variable turns of coil (d) multi range meters inside the measurement system (e) any of the above Ans: a 97. The rectifier instrument is not free from (a) temperature error (b) wave shape error (c) frequency error (d) all of the above Ans: c 98. Alternating current is measured by (a) induction ammeter (b) permanent magnet type ammeter (c) electrostatic ammeter (d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter

Ans: a 99. Most sensitive galvanometer is (a) elastic galvanometer (b) vibration galvanometer (c) Duddlb galvanometer (d) spot ballistic galvanometer Ans: d 100. Instrument transformers are (a) potential transformers (b) current transformers (c) both (a) and (b) (d) power transformers Ans: c 101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of (a) induction instrument (b) electrostatic instrument (c) moving coil instrument (d) any of the above Ans: a 102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of (a) electrostatic instrument (b) thermocouple instrument (c) moving iron instrument (d) electrodynamic instrument Ans: c 103. In an energymeter braking torque is produced to (a) safe guard it against creep (b) brake the instrument (c) bring energy meter to stand still (d) maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque Ans: d 104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include (a) light load or friction (b) lag and creep (c) overload and voltage compensation (d) temperature compensation (e) all of the above Ans: e 105. (a) (b) (c) (d) The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of (n - 1) wattmeter elements n wattmeter elements (n + 1) wattmeter elements 2n wattmeter elements

Ans: a 106. Two holes in the disc of energymeter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to (a) improve its ventilation (b) eliminate creeping at no load (c) increase its deflecting torque (d) increase its braking tcrque Ans: b 107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ? (a) Amplifier gain and phase shift (b) Filler transfer functions (c) Complex insersion loss (d) All of the above Ans: d 108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is (a) that it works on the principle of complex variation (b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage (c) same as digital meter (d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the same time measures their phase difference Ans: d 109. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency meter is (a) Weston frequency meter (b) reed vibrator frequency meter (c) hetrodyne frequency meter (d) electrical resonance frequency meter Ans: c
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Electromagnetic Induction - Electrical engineering multiple choice questions and answers for competitive exams
Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers

1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the coil changes is known as (a) self-inductance (b) mutual inductance (c) series aiding inductance (d) capacitance

Ans: a

2. As per Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor whenever it (a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux (b) lies in a magnetic field (e) cuts magnetic flux (d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field

Ans: c
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ? (a) Inductance (b) Condenser (c) Variable resistor (d) Resistance

Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except (a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided (6) when the number of turns of the coil increase (c) when more area for each turn is provided (d) when permeability of the core increases

Ans: a
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil, (a) lesser its weber-turns (b) lower the e.m.f. induced (c) greater the flux produced by it (d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it Ans: d 6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance of the coil will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain the same (d) initially increase and then decrease Ans: b 7. An open coil has (a) zero resistance and inductance (b) infinite resistance and zero inductance (c) infinite resistance and normal inductance (d) zero resistance and high inductance Ans: b

8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled. Its self-inductance will be (a) unaffected (b) doubled (c) halved (d) quadrupled Ans: b 9. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will (a) aid the increasing current (b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent (c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current (d) aid the applied voltage Ans: c 10. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by (a) Laplace's law (b) Lenz's law (c) Fleming's right hand rule (d) Kirchhoff s voltage law Ans: b 11. Air-core coils are practically free from (a) hysteresis losses (b) eddy current losses (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: c 12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the (a) flux density of the magnetic field (b) amount of flux cut (c) amount of flux linkages (d) rate of change of flux-linkages Ans: d 13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on (a) permeability of the core (b) the number of their turns (c) cross-sectional area of their com-mon core (d) all of the above Ans: d 14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because (a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil (b) the laminations are insulated from each other (c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core (d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally Ans: b

15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due to (a) Faraday (b) Lenz (c) Newton (d) Coulomb Ans: b 16. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ? (a) Henry (b) Coulomb/volt ampere (c) Volt second per ampere (d) All of the above Ans: b 17. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to (a) voltage across the inductance (b) magnetic field (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: b 18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ? (a) Capacitance (b) Inductance (c) Resistance (d) All of the above Ans: b 19. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ? (a) Apparent power is zero (b) Relative power is.zero (c) Actual power of the circuit is zero (d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged Ans: c 20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ? (a) Ohm (b) Henry (c) Ampere turns (d) Webers/metre Ans: b 21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must be (a) 64 A/s (b) 32 A/s (c) 16 A/s (d) 4 A/s

Ans: d 22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be (a) 3 mH (b) 12 mH (c) 24mH (d)48mH Ans: a 23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is (a) 4 mH (b) 5 mH (c) 6 mH (d) 12 mH Ans: c 24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be (a) 32 mH (b) 38 mH (c) 40 mH (d) 48 mH Ans: b 25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400 turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be (a) 6 mH (b) 14 mH (c) 24 mH (d) 48 mH Ans: d 26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be (a) 6 H (b) 8 H (c) 12 H (d) 24 H Ans: c 27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling will be (a) 2.0 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.5 (d) zero Ans: b

28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is (a) 50 ohms (b) 500 ohms (c) 1000 ohms (d) 5000 ohms Ans: d 29. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be (a) 10 V (6) 15 V (c) 25V (d) 50V Ans: c 30. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of (a) induced current (b) charge (c) energy (d) induced e.m.f. Ans: c 31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60 to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The force on the conductor will be nearly (a) 50 N (b) 120 N (c) 240 N (d) 480 N Ans: b 32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla. (a) 100 N (b) 400 N (c) 600 N (d) 1000 N Ans: a 33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on (a) self-inductance of two coils only (b) mutual inductance between two coils only (c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils (d) none of the above Ans: c 34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is (a) 20 Wb (b) 2 Wb

(c) 0.2 Wb (d) 0.02 Wb Ans: d 35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ? (a) 0.01 s (b) 0.1 s (c) 0.5 s (d) 5 s Ans: c 36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ? (a) Air core (b) Laminated iron core (c) Iron core (d) Powdered iron core Ans: a 37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of inductance is (a) 3500 mH (b) 350 mH (c) 250 mH (d) 150 mH Ans: b 38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of (a) 300 uH (b) 600 uH (c) 150 uH (d) 75 uH Ans: b 39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil. The value of inductance is (a) 5 mH (b) 10 mH (c) 5 H (d) 10 H Ans: c 40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ? (a) Resistance only (b) Inductance only (c) Capacitance only (d) Inductance and capacitance Ans: b 41. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in

(a) unchanged inductance (b) increased inductance (c) zero inductance (d) reduced inductance Ans: d 42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is not affected by (a) variation in coil current (b) variation in voltage to the coil (c) change of number of turns of coil (d) the resistance of magnetic path Ans: b 43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: 44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: a 45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: b 46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: a 47. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: b 48. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: b

A.C. Fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit Theory - Electrical engineering multiple choice questions and answers for competitive exams

Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers

1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is _______ radian/second. (a) 100 n (b) 50 jt (c) 25 jt (d) 5 n

Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes_____ohms. (a) 2.5 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15

Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is (a) the same as frequency (6) time required to complete one cycle (c) expressed in amperes (d) none of the above

Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of (a) peak value to r.m.s. value (6) r.m.s. value to average value (c) average value to r.m.s. value (d) none of the above

Ans: b
5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds. Its frequency is (a) 20 Hz (b) 30 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 50 Hz

Ans: d

6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to (a) average voltage (b) r.m.s. voltage (c) peak voltage (d) none of the above Ans: b 7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant is (a) a sinusoid of the same frequency (b) a sinusoid of half the original frequency (c) a sinusoid of double the frequency (d) not a sinusoid Ans: a 8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is (a) 127.4 V (b) 141.4 V (c) 282.8 V (d)200V Ans: a 9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of JT radians, then (a) both will reach their minimum values at the same instant (b) both will reach their maximum values at the same instant (c) when one wave reaches its maximum value, the other will reach its minimum value (d) none of the above Ans: c 10. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents (a) mean value (b) r.m.s. value (c) peak value (d) average value Ans: a 11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the phase angle between them is (a) 360 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) 0 Ans: b 12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between the current and voltage is (a) 180" (b) 90 (c) 60

(d) 0 Ans: b 13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of (a) triangular wave (6) sine wave (c) square wave (d) half wave rectified sine wave Ans: c 14. For the same peak value which of the following wave will 'have the highest r.m.s. value ? (a) square wave (b) half wave rectified sine wave (c) triangular wave (d) sine wave Ans: a 15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the least mean value ? (a) half wave rectified sine wave (b) triangular wave (c) sine wave (d) square wave Ans: a 16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is (a) 0.5 Imax (b) 0.707 (c) 0.9 (d) 1.414 Lmax Ans: b 17. Form Factor is the ratio of (a) average value/r.m.s. value (b) average value/peak value (e) r.m.s. value/average value (d) r.m.s. value/peak value Ans: c 18. Form factor for a sine wave is (a) 1.414 (b) 0.707 (c) 1.11 (d) 0.637 Ans: c 19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the average value is (a) 0.636 Emax (b) 0.707 Emax (c) 0.434 EWc (d) lAUEmax

Ans: a 20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be (a) 0.05 s (b) 0.005 s (c) 0.0005 s (d) 0.5 s Ans: b 21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through a circuit element is given as 30. The essential condition is that (a) both waves must have same frequency (b) both waves must have identical peak values (c) both waves must have zero value at the same time (d) none of the above Ans: a 22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value at an angle of______degrees. (a) 90 (b) 60 (c) 45 (d) 30 Ans: c 23. Capacitive reactance is more when (a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less (b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more (c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less (d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more Ans: a 24. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is (a) minimum (b) maximum (c) zero (d) none of the above Ans: a 25. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to (a) R/Z (b) cosine of phase angle difference between current and voltage (c) kW/kVA (d) ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I (e) all above Ans: e 26. The best place to install a capacitor is (a) very near to inductive load (b) across the terminals of the inductive load

(c) far away from the inductive load (d) any where Ans: b 27. Poor power factor (a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system (b) results in more power losses in the electrical system (c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines (d) results in more voltage drop in the line (e) results in all above Ans: e 28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in (a) kW (b) kVA (c) kV (d) kVAR Ans: d 29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance to its half value (a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance (6) will change the resonance frequency (c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency (d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit Ans: d 30. Pure inductive circuit (a) consumes some power on average (b) does not take power at all from a line (c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other part of the cycle (d) none of the above Ans: c 31. Inductance affects the direct current flow (a) only at the time of turning off (b) only at the time of turning on (c) at the time of turning on and off (d) at all the time of operation Ans: c 32. Inductance of a coil Varies (a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core (b) directly as square of number of turns (c) directly as the permeability of the core (d) inversely as the length of the iron path (e) as (a) to (d) Ans: e

33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit containing (a) capacitance only (b) inductance only (c) resistance only (d) all above Ans: c 34. Time constant of an inductive circuit (a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance (b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance (c) increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance (d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance Ans: a 35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in (a) parallel (b) series (c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of the above Ans: a 36. In a highly capacitive circuit the (a) apparent power is equal to the actual power (b) reactive power is more than the apparent power (c) reactive power is more than the actual powetf (d) actual power is more than its reactive power Ans: c 37. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero (a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) both (b) and (c) Ans: d 38. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity (a) inductance (b) capacitance (c) resistance (d) both (a) and (b) Ans: c 39. Power factor of the system is kept high (a) to reduce line losses (b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers (c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line (d) due to all above reasons Ans: d 40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time during which voltage

(a) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value (b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value (c) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value (d) none of the above Ans: c 41. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is (a) oscillating (b) square wave (c) sinusoidal (d) non-oscillating Ans: c 42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by steady (D.C.) current which when flowing through a given circuit for a given time produces (a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit (b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit (c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the same circuit (d) none of the above Ans: b 43. The square waveform of current has following relation between r.m.s. value and average value. (a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value (b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value (c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value (d) none of the above Ans: a 44. The double energy transient occur in the (a) purely inductive circuit (b) R-L circuit (c) R-C circuit (d) R-L-C circuit Ans: d 45. The transient currents are associated with the (a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors (b) impedance of the circuit (c) applied voltage to the circuit (d) resistance of the circuit Ans: a 46. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is (a) zero (b) 0.08 lagging (c) 0.8 leading (d) unity Ans: d

47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value must always be taken over (a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form (b) the quarter cycle (c) the half cycle (d) the whole cycle Ans: d 48. In a pure resistive circuit (a) current lags behind the voltage by 90 (b) current leads the voltage by 90 (c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90 (d) current is in phase with the voltage Ans: d 49. In a pure inductive circuit (a) the current is in phase with the voltage (b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90 (c) the current leads the voltage by 90 (d) the current can lead or lag by 90 Ans: b 50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in (a) C only (b) L only (c) R only (d) all above Ans: c 51. Inductance of coil (a) is unaffected by the supply frequency (b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency (c) increases with the increase in supply frequency (d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency Ans: c 52. In any A.C. circuit always (a) apparent power is more than actual power (b) reactive power is more than apparent power (c) actual power is more than reactive power (d) reactive power is more than actual power Ans: a 53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in the circuit voltage ? (a) Inductance (b) Capacitance (c) Conductance (d) Resistance Ans:

54. In a purely inductive circuit (a) actual power is zero (b) reactive power is zero (c) apparent power is zero (d) none of above is zero Ans: a 55. Power factor of electric bulb is (a) zero (b) lagging (c) leading (d) unity Ans: d 56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line when (a) applied voltage decreases but current increases (b) applied voltage increases but current decreases (c) both applied voltage and current increase (d) both applied voltage and current decrease Ans: a 57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the application of voltage to each (a) 25% of maximum value (b) 50% of maximum value (c) 63% of maximum value (d) 90% of the maximum value Ans: c 58. Time constant of an inductive circuit (a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance (b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance (c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance (d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance Ans: a 59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit (a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance (b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance (c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance (d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance Ans: d 60. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit (a) depends upon the magnitude of R (b) depends upon the magnitude of L (c) depends upon the magnitude of C (d) depends upon the magnitude of R, LandC Ans: a

61. In a R-L-C circuit (a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R (b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line (c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line (d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line (e) all above are correct Ans: e 62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency can be changed by changing the value of (a) R only (b) L only (c) C only (d) L or C (e) R,L or C Ans: d 63. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the (a) current is maximum (b) current is minimum (c) impedance is maximum (d) voltage across C is minimum Ans: a 64. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by (a) R/C (b) RC2 (c) RC (d) R2C Ans: c 65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L series circuit, then time constant of this circuit will be (a) 0.001 s (b) 0.1 s (c) 10 s (d) 100 s Ans: b 66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ? (a) A coil with large resistance (b) A coil with low resistance (c) A coil with large distributed capacitance (d) A coil with low distributed capacitance Ans: c 67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s. current which of the following equation represents this wave ? (a) 42.42 sin 3141 (b) 60 sin 25 t

(c) 30 sin 50 t (d) 84.84 sin 25 t Ans: a 68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more than 3 second is (a) 4 mA (b) 9 mA (c) 15 mA (d) 25 mA Ans: b 69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This consumption can be attributed to (a) the big size of the inductor (b) the reactance of the inductor (c) the current flowing in the inductor (d) the statement given is false Ans: d 70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 40 kVA The power drawn by the circuit is (a) 12 kW (b) 22 kW (c) 32 kW (d) 64 kW Ans: c 71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on ordinary supply frequency is more than its true resistance because of (a) iron loss in core (b) skin effect (c) increase in temperature (d) capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns Ans: a 72. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates (a) low efficiency (b) high power factor (c) unity power factor (d) maximum load current Ans: b 73. In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used in order to (a) reduce eddy current loss (b) increase heat radiation (c) make assembly cheap and easier (d) reduce circuit permeability Ans: a 74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor.

(a) demand (b) load (c) power (d) form Ans: c 75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except (a) ratio of net reactance and impedance (b) ratio of kW and kVA (c) ratio of J and Z (d) ratio of W and VA Ans: a 76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit is (a) 4 kVAR (b) 6 kVAR (c) 8 kVAR (d) 16 kVAR Ans: b 77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is at zero value ? (a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 90 (d) 180 Ans: c 78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify (a) current (b) voltage (c) power (d) frequency Ans: b 79. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in (a) resistance only (b) inductance only (c) capacitance only (d) none of the above Ans: a 80. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied voltage (a) lags (b) leads (c) remains in phase with (d) none of the above Ans: b

81. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely (a) resistive (b) inductive (c) capacitive (d) none of the above Ans: c 82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at _____ frequencies. (a) very low (b) low (c) medium (d) high Ans: d 83. At ______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive. (a) low (b) very low (c) high (d) very high Ans: d 84. In a sine wave the slope is constant (a) between 0 and 90 (b) between 90 and 180 (c) between 180 and 270 (d) no where Ans: d 85. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of (a) electronic equipment (b) transformers (c) current transformers (d) auto transformers Ans: a 86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of (a) reactive power in a circuit (b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit (c) a purely capacitive circuit's ability to pass current (d) a purely capacitive circuit's ability to resist the flow of current Ans: c 87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only ? (a) can dissipate considerable amount of power (6) can act as energy storage devices (c) connecting them in parallel increases the total value (d) oppose sudden changes in voltage Ans: a 88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?

(a) The current through each element is same (b) The voltage across element is in proportion to it's resistance value (c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors (d) The current through any one element is less than the source current Ans: d 89. Aphasoris (a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an alternating quantity (b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating quantity (c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of a 3-phase supply (d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3-phase load Ans: a 89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will (a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section (b) have a high impedance (c) act like a resistor of low value (d) have current in each section equal to the line current Ans: b 90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies because they (a) create more electrical noise (b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat (c) consume more power (d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects Ans: d 91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by (a) increasing core length (b) decreasing the number of turns (c) decreasing the diameter of the former (d) choosing core material having high relative permeability Ans: d 92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to (a) high voltage across the load (b) low voltage across the load (c) unequal line voltages across the load Ans: c 93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor ? (a) Square wave (b) Sine wave (c) Half wave rectified sine wave (d) Triangular wave Ans: c 94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is (a) 200 Hz (b) 100 Hz

(c) 60 Hz (d) 50 Hz Ans: d 95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be (a) 282.8 V (b) 141.4 V (c) 111 V (d) 100 V Ans: a 96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is (a) 0.5 of peak value (b) 0.707 of peak value (c) same as peak value (d) zero Ans: b 97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except (a) inductive reactance (b) capacitive reactance (c) resistance (d) capacitance Ans: d 98. The series ;nd parallel resonance on L-C circui' differs in that (a) series resistance needs a low-resistance ource for sharp rise in current (b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp increase in current (c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp increase in impedance (d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in line current Ans: a 99. The phasors for which of the following pair are 180 out of phase for VL, VC and VR? (a) Vc and VR (b) VL and VR (c) Vc and VL (d) none of the above Ans: c 100. The frequency of an alternating current is (a) the speed with which the alternator runs (b) the number of cycles generated in one minute (c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second (d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second Ans: c 101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50 W. This is due to (a) the capacitive reactance in ohms (b) the current flowing in capacitor

(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big (d) the statement is incorrect Ans: d 102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always (a) less than unity (b) unity (c) greater than unity (d) zero Ans: b 103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and current is (a) true power (b) reactive power (c) volt-amperes (d) instantaneous power Ans: a 104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s. value of 60 A is (a) 60 sin 25 t (b) 60 sin 50 t (c) 84.84 sin 3141 (d) 42.42 sin 314 t Ans: c 105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms, (a) the current through the resistance is more (b) the current through the resistance is less (c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents (d) none of the above Ans: c 106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will (a) be reduced by half (b) be doubled (c) be four times as high (d) be reduced to one fourth Ans: b 107. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will (a) be reduced by half (b) be doubled (c) be four times at high (d) be reduced to one fourth Ans: a 108. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electrical power converted into heat is

(a) apparent power (b) true power (c) reactive power (d) none of the above Ans: b 109. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ? (a) 220 V (b) 220V3V (c) 220/V3 V (d) none of the above Ans: a
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Magnetism and Electromagnetism - electrical multiple choice questions and answers pdf
Labels: Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers

4.1. Tesla is a unit of (a) field strength (b) inductance (c) flux density (d) flux

Ans: c
4.2. A permeable substance is one (a) which is a good conductor (6) which is a bad conductor (c) which is a strong magnet (d) through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily

Ans: d
4.3. (a) (b) (c) (d) The materials having low retentivity are suitable for making weak magnets temporary magnets permanent magnets none of the above

Ans: b

4.4. A magnetic field exists around (a) iron (b) copper (c) aluminium (d) moving charges Ans: d 4.7. Ferrites are materials. (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic (c) ferromagnetic (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.8. Air gap has_______eluctance as compared to iron or steel path (a) little (b) lower (c) higher (d) zero Ans: b 4.9. The direction of magnetic lines of force is (a) from south pole to north pole (b) from north pole to south pole (c) from one end of the magnet to another (d) none of the above Ans: b 4.10. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b Which of the following is a vector quantity ? Relative permeability Magnetic field intensity Flux density Magnetic potential

4.11. The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal current I in opposite directions. The force on each conductor is (a) proportional to 7 (b) proportional to X (c) proportional to distance between the conductors (d) inversely proportional to I Ans: b 4.12. A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field is known as (a) ferromagnetic material (b) diamagnetic material (c) paramag>etic material (d) conducting material Ans: b

4.13. When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field (a) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to go away from the piece (b) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to pass through the piece (c) the magnetic field will not be affected (d) the iron piece will break Ans: b 4.14. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Fleming's left hand rule is used to find direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductor direction of flux in a solenoid direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field polarity of a magnetic pole

4.15. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is known as (a) flux density (b) susceptibility (c) relative permeability (d) none of the above Ans: b 4.16. Magnetising steel is normals difficult because (a) it corrodes easily (6) it has high permeability (c) it has high specific gravity (d) it has low permeability Ans: d 4.17. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d The left hand rule correlates to current, induced e.m.f. and direction of force on a conductor magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor self induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor

4.18. The unit of relative permeability is (a) henry/metre (b) henry (c) henry/sq. m (d) it is dimensionless Ans: d 4.19. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be (a) zero (b) BLI (c) B2LI

(d) BLI2 Ans: a 4.20. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to (a) radius of conductors (b) current in one conductor (c) product of current in two conductors (d) distance between the conductors Ans: d 4.21. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: b Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have large area oiB-H loop high permeability and low hysteresis loss high co-ercivity and high reten-tivity high co-ercivity and low density

4.22. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism permanently. (a) Soft iron (b) Stainless steel (e) Hardened steel (d) None of the above Ans: a 4.23. The main constituent of permalloy is (a) cobalt (b) chromium (c) nickel (d) tungsten Ans: c 4.24. The use of permanent magnets is. not made in (a) magnetoes (6) energy meters (c) transformers (d) loud-speakers Ans: c 4.25. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: c Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability slightly less than uuity equal to unity slightly more than unity equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials

4.26. Degaussing is the process of (a) removal of magnetic impurities (b) removing gases from the materials (c) remagnetising metallic parts (d) demagnetising metallic parts

Ans: 4.27. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of free space are known as (a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) diamagnetic (d) bipolar Ans: c 4.28. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum anf' separated 1 metre between centres >rhen a current of 1 ampere flows thn. ugh each conductor, produce on each otLer a force of (a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m) (b) 2 x KT3 N/m (c) 2 x 10"5 N/m (d) 2x 1(T7 N/m) Ans: d 4.29. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents (a) voltage (b) current (c) magnetic field (d) direction of force on the conductor Ans: c 4.30. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material ? (a) Tungsten (b) Aluminium (c) Copper (d) Nickel Ans: d 4.31. Ferrites are a sub-group of (a) non-magnetic materials (6) ferro-magnetic materials (c) paramagnetic materials (d) ferri-magnetic materials Ans: d 4.32. Gilbert is a unit of (a) electromotive force (6) magnetomotive force (c) conductance (d) permittivity Ans: b 4.33. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet. In order to protect the meter functioning from stray magnetic fields (a) meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields

(b) a soft iron shielding is used (c) a plastic shielding is provided (d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used Ans: b 4.34. Reciprocal of permeability is (a) reluctivity (b) susceptibility (c) permittivity (d) conductance Ans: a 4.35. The relative permeability is less than unity is case of (a) ferromagnetic materials (b) ferrites (c) non-ferrous materials (d) diamagnetic materials Ans: d 4.36. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ? (a) weber (b) lumens (c) tesla (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.37. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as (a) permeance (b) residual magnetism (c) susceptance (d) reluctance Ans: b 4.38. Which of the following is not a unit of flux? (a) Maxwell (b) Telsa (c) Weber (d) All of the above Ans: b 4.39. Which of the following is expected to have the maximum permeability ? (a) Brass (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Ebonite Ans: d 4.40. One telsa is equal to (a) 1 Wb/mm2 (b) 1 Wb/m

(c) 1 Wb/m2 (d) 1 mWb/m2 Ans: c 4.42. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement is not true ? (a) The electric intensity is a vector quantity (b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force exerted upon a charge placed at that point (c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric charge would experienc* a force (d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a charge of one coulomb Ans: b 4.43. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not depend upon (a) resistance of the coil (b) motion of the magnet (c) number of turns of the coil (d) pole strength of the magnet Ans: a 4.44. One maxwell is equal to (a) 10 webers (b) 10 webers (c) 10 webers (d) 10 webers Ans: d 4.46. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a battery, the field at the centre of the circle (a) will be zero (b) will be infinite (c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied (d) will depend on the radius of the circle Ans: d 4.47. Susceptibility is positive for (a) non-magnetic substances (b) diamagnetic substances (c) ferromagnetic substances (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.48. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by 20 mm, the force per metre of length of each conductor will be (a) 100 N (b) 10 N (c) 1 N (d) 0.1 N

Ans: d 4.49. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is situated at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T ; the force on the conductor will be (a) 240 N (6) 24 N (c) 2.4 N (d) 0.24 N Ans: c 4.50. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10 mm is pivoted in a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the coil will be (a) 4.8 N-m (b) 0.48 N-m (e) 0.048 N-m (d) 0.0048 N-m [Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-m] Ans: c 4.51. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through the coil. If the length of the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field strength ? (a) 2500 AT/m (b) 250 AT/m (c) 25 AT/m (d) 2.5 AT/m Ans: b 4.52. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length of a pair of conductors of a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 mm apart ? (a) 22 x 10"8 N (b) 22 x 10"7 N (c) 22 x 10-6 N (d) 22 x 10"5 N Ans: d 4.53. A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb and cross sectional area of 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in air ? (a) 63.38 N/Wb (b) 633.8 N/Wb (c) 6338 N/Wb (d) 63380 N/Wb Ans: c 4.56.. The unit of flux is the same as that of (a) reluctance (b) resistance (c) permeance (d) pole strength

Ans: d 4.57. Unit for quantity of electricity is (a) ampere-hour (b) watt (c) joule (d) coulomb Ans: d 4.58. The Biot-savart's law is a general modification of (a) Kirchhoffs law (b) Lenz's law (c) Ampere's law (d) Faraday's laws Ans: c 4.61. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft iron is by (a) placing it inside a coil carrying current (b) induction (c) the use of permanent magnet (d) rubbing with another magnet Ans: a 4.62. The commonly used material for shielding or screening magnetism is (a) copper (b) aluminium (c) soft iron (d) brass Ans: c 4.63. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle, the magnetic needle shall start rotating with a velocity (a) less than that of disc but in opposite direction (b) equal to that of disc and in the same direction (c) equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction (d) less than that of disc and in the same direction Ans: d 4.64. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a 4.65. (a) (b) (c) (d) A permanent magnet attracts some substances and repels others attracts all paramagnetic substances and repels others attracts only ferromagnetic substances attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others

The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for the construction of permanent magnets transformers non-magnetic substances electromagnets

Ans: a 4.66. The relative permeability of materials is not constant. (a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) ferromagnetic (d) insulating Ans: c 4.67. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air. (a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) diamagnetic (d) dielectric Ans: c 4.68. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in shape as compared to magnetically soft materials. (a) circular (b) triangular (c) rectangular (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.69. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece of same length, the magnetic moment of each piece will be (a) M (6) M/2 (c) 2 M (d) M/4 Ans: b 4.70. A keeper is used to (a) change the direction of magnetic lines (b) amplify flux (c) restore lost flux (d) provide a closed path for flux Ans: d 4.71. Magnetic moment is a (a) pole strength (6) universal constant (c) scalar quantity (d) vector quantity Ans: d 4.72. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect (a) reluctance of conductor (b) resistance of conductor (c) (a) and (b) b >th in the same way

(d) none of the above Ans: c 4.73. The uniform magnetic field is (a) the field of a set of parallel conductors (b) the field of a single conductor (c) the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and equidistant (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.74. The magneto-motive force is (a) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil (b) the flow of an electric current (c) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field (d) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil Ans: c 4.75. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored coil when number of turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 Ans: b 4.76. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 2 cm length in magnetic field of 200 AT/m ? (a) 2 AT (b) 4 AT (c) 6 AT (d) 10 AT Ans: b 4.77. Which of the following statements is correct ? (a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface (6) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero (e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside surface (d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside surface Ans: d 4.78. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed number of turns. How does the mag netic induction B varies inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without dimensional change of coil ? (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains same (d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron insertion Ans: b

4.79. The magnetic reluctance of a material (a) decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material (6) increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of material (c) does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material (d) any of the above Ans: a 4.80. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d The initial permeability of an iron rod is the highest permeability of the iron rod the lowest permeability of the iron rod the permeability at the end of the iron rod the permeability almost in non-magnetised state

4.82. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field ? (a) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field (b) It starts rotating (c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux (d) None of the above Ans: c 4.83. In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet flux (a) is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field (6) increases continuously from initial value to final value (c) decreases continuously from initial value to final value (d) first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero Ans: d 4.84. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as a line vertical to the flux lines the mean length of a ring shaped coil a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path

4.85. The bar magnet has (a) the dipole moment (b) monopole moment (c) (a) and (b) both (d) none of the above Ans: a 4.86. Which of the following materials are dia-magnetic ? (a) Silver (b) Copper (c) Silver and copper (d) Iron Ans: c 4.87. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for engineering

applications ? (a) Ferromagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Diamagnetic (d) None of the above Ans: c 4.88. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between (a) KT3 and 1CT6 (b) 1CT3 and 1CT7 (c) KT4 and KT8 (d) 10"2 and KT5 Ans: a 4.89. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest ? (a) Ferromagnetic materials (6) Paramagnetic materials (c) Diamagnetic materials (d) Ferrites Ans: d 4.90. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: c The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetisation because of orbital motion of electrons spin of electrons spin of nucleus either of these all of the above

4.91. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero ? (a) Diamagnetic materials (b) Ferrimagnetic materials (c) Antiferromagnetic materials (d) Antiferrimagnetic materials Ans: c 4.92. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if the (a) core length increases i (b) core area increases (c) flux density decreases (d) flux density increases Ans: d 4.93. Which of the following statements is correct ? (a) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials (b) The conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is better than ferrites (c) The conductivity of ferrites is very high (d) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials Ans: a

4.96. Temporary magnets are used in (a) loud-speakers (b) generators (c) motors (d) all of the above Ans: d 4.97. Main causes of noisy solenoid are (a) strong tendency of fan out of lami-nations at the end caused by repulsion among magnetic lines of force (b) uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between moving and stationary parts (c) both of above (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.99. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by increasing the cross-sectional area increasing the number of turns increasing current supply all above methods

4.100. Core of an electromagnet should have (a) low coercivity (6) high susceptibility (c) both of the above (d) none of the above Ans: c 4.101. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by (a) heating (b) hammering (c) by inductive action of another magnet (d) by all above methods Ans: d

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Magnetic Circuit - electrical multiple choice questions and answers pdf

1. (a)

An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to increase m.m.f.

(b) (c) (d)

increase the flux prevent saturation none of the above

Ans: c
2. (a) (b) (c) (d) The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is less than one more than one more than 10 more than 100 or 1000

Ans: d
3. The unit of magnetic flux is (a) henry (b) weber (c) ampereturn/weber (d) ampere/metre Ans: b 4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to______ (a) resistance (b) resistivity (c) conductivity (d) conductance Ans: c 5. Point out the wrong statement. Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it (a) lowers their power efficiency (b) increases their cost of manufacture (c) leads to their increased weight (d) produces fringing Ans: a 6. Relative permeability of vacuum is (a) 1 (b) 1 H/m (c) 1/4JI (d) 4n x 10-' H/m Ans: a 7. Permanent magnets are normally made of (a) alnico alloys (b) aluminium (c) cast iron (d) wrought iron in an electric circuit.

Ans: a 8. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by (a) 25 (b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100 Ans: c percent.

9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have____permeability and_______hystersis loss. (a) high, high (b) low, high (c) high, low (d) low, low Ans: c 10. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum (a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value (b) at the start of the current flow (c) after one time constant (d) near the final maximum value of current Ans: b 11. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of time constant remains unchanged initial rate of rise of current is doubled final steady current is doubled time constant is halved

12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is_______Vs (a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500 Ans: b 13. A material for good magnetic memory should have (a) low hysteresis loss (b) high permeability (c) low retentivity (d) high retentivity Ans: d 14. Conductivity is analogous to (a) retentivity (b) resistivity (c) permeability

(d) inductance Ans: c 15. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to rapid reversals of its magnetisation flux density lagging behind magnetising force molecular friction it high retentivity

16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have______retentivity and _______coercivity. (a) low, high (b) high, high (c) high, low (d) low, low Ans: b 17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material will be (a) zero (b) small (c) large (d) none of the above Ans: c 18. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: a Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because it has good residual magnetism its hysteresis loop has large area its mechanical strength is high its mechanical strength is low

19. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has (a) low co-ercivity (b) low retentivity (c) low hysteresis loss (d) high co-ercivity Ans: c 20. Conductance is analogous to (a) permeance (b) reluctance (c) flux (d) inductance Ans: a 21. as (a) The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known reluctivity

(b) magnetomotive force (c) permeance (d) reluctance Ans: d 22. The unit of retentivity is (a) weber (b) weber/sq. m (c) ampere turn/metre (d) ampere turn Ans: b 23. Reciprocal of reluctance is (a) reluctivity (b) permeance (c) permeability (d) susceptibility Ans: b 24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of electrical circuit ? (a) E.m.f. (b) Current (c) Current density (d) Conductivity Ans: b 25. The unit of reluctance is (a) metre/henry (b) henry/metre (c) henry (d) 1/henry Ans: d 26. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: d A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because ferrites have high resistance ferrites are magnetic ferrites have low permeability ferrites have high hysteresis

27. Hysteresis loss least depends on (a) volume of material (b) frequency (c) steinmetz co-efficient of material (d) ambient temperature Ans: d 28. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce (a) copper loss

(b) eddy current loss (c) hysteresis loss (d) all of the above Ans: b