ECETHIC - EL

Final Compilation
Joshua James M. Perocho 10940847 Bachelor of Science in Electronics and Communications Engineering

De La Salle University - Manila 1st Term AY 2013-2014

Table of Contents I. Laws a. Department Orders (DO) i. DO 11 ii. DO 88 b. Executive Orders (EO) i. EO 47 ii. EO 59 iii. EO 109 iv. EO 546 c. Memorandum Circular (MC) i. MC No. 11-89 ii. MC No. 2013-01 d. Republic Acts (RA) i. RA 7925 ii. RA 8293 iii. RA 8439 iv. RA 9292 v. RA 10372 e. BECE 03-75 f. Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Matrix 38 47 65 80 90 91 93 99 100 103 107 36 37 7 12 17 22 1 5

g. House Bill 2836 h. Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) Resolution No. 217 i. j. II. Ethics a. Ethics b. ECE Code of Ethics c. Manual of Practice d. Compensation III. Obligations and Contracts a. Obligations and Contracts Standards Jurisprudence

110 114 117 120

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Department Order No. 11 Establishment of Radio Stations 1. Where can you obtain an approval for you to start a Franchise? a. Congress of the Philippines b. Supreme Court of the Philippines c. Jueteng Lords of the Philippines d. At least two of the choices 2. TRUE or FALSE. Does change in power or change in antenna system require a permit? TRUE 3. What department of the government will you apply for construction of radio/TV stations? a. Department of Public Works and Communications b. Department of Foreign Affairs c. Commission on Higher Education d. National Telecommunications Commission 4. How can a Station be revoked of its License? a. FALSE statement of material facts b. Licensee fails to operate the station substantially c. Wilful violations of the radio laws d. All of the above 5. When was DO 011 enacted? October 10, 1950 6. What is DO 011 all about? DO 011 is simply a compilation of several rules and regulations governing everything from the construction to the operation of a radio station. 7. What is needed in order to install another transmitter, to change in radio station, or to increase existing power of the station? A construction permit is needed in order to install, change or increase. 8. The license to operate is to be given before or after the installation or construction of a radio station? The license will only be granted by the Secretary of Public Works and Communication after the completion of the radio station.

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9. How long will the license to operate last? The license will only last for three years. 10. How long before the expiration date that a renewal of license can be applied? The licensee should be able to submit a renewal application two months before the permit expires. 11. What is the rule on the posting of license? The license should be posted conspicuously inside the station where everybody can see it. 12. What happens to radio transceivers and transmitters that are not working when bought or in working condition when bought but become unserviceable? Those transceivers and transmitters should be condemned and registered to the radio control office. 13. How much power should a station maintain? The license of a station should maintain communication with the least possible power that is necessary to provide its listeners with satisfactory service and under no condition shall it exceed the licensed power except in cases of distress or emergency. 14. What is the special provision under DO 011? It indicates that any broadcasting service whether local or international shall each be assigned its own call sign 15. What is a person or a company holding a certificate of owning or constructing transmitter or radio station called? Permitee 16. What is a person or a company in the business of buying and selling transmitters/transceivers called? Dealer 17. A _____ authorizes a person or a company to possess radio transmitters or transceivers. Permit to Possess 18. A _____ certifies the ownership of a person or a company of radio transmitters or transceivers. Permit to Own 19. A _____ authorizes a person or a company to transfer a transmitter from one person or company to the other. Permit to Transfer

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20. A _____ is used by a person/company that is engaged in buying/selling radio transmitter/transceivers. Dealers Permit 21. A _____ authorizes a person or a company to purchase radio transmitters or transceivers. Purchase Permit 22. A license used by a person/company that is authorized to operate a radio station? Radio Station License 23. An apparatus capable of transmitting/emitting signals by radio, electronics or other electromagnetic system? Transmitting Station 24. A station in the fixed service? Fixed Station 25. A station in the broadcasting service? Broadcasting Station 26. A station in mobile service not intended for operation while in motion? Land Station 27. A station used by an amateur? Amateur station 28. A low powered radio station operated by radio training schools? Radio Training Station 29. A service/radio communication between specified fixed points? Fixed Service 30. A fixed service relating to air navigation? Aeronautical Fixed Service 31. Where will you post the license of your radio station? Front side of your transmitter 32. What will you record in the log books while the station is transmitting? a. Power b. Frequency c. Modulation d. All of the Above

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33. How many years you will keep your log book records? Two Years. Provided that you do not have any violations. 34. TRUE or FALSE. Separate construction permit is needed, if both transmitting and receiving station are to be installed in one location only? FALSE 35. How long is the period of the construction permit? a. 30 days only b. 60 days only c. 90 days only d. Either a , b, and c 36. How long is the duration of a station license? 3 years 37. When to apply for renewal of station license? 2 months before the expiration date 38. Who can perform actual operation tests, and adjustments of apparatus? Licensed Operators (Note: In case of a remote-controlled station, licensed operators shall also be required.) 39. What should be the case in which SEC. 28 cannot apply? a. If the message was used by the recipient for his own benefit b. If the message was used by the President for the state c. If the contents of any message are used by the general public relating to ships in distress 40. TRUE or FALSE. Each frequency, for any broadcasting and fixed services shall be assigned a uniform call sign and considered a station. FALSE 41. When do the International Radio Regulations govern regulations? When those regulations are not covered in Philippine regulations

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Department Order No. 88 Rules and Regulations Requiring the Services of Duly Registered Electronics and Communications Engineer in the Planning and Designing, Installation or Construction, Operation and Maintenance of Radio Stations, and in the Manufacture and/or Modification of Radio Communications Equipment. 1. When was Department Order No. 88 promulgated? December 28, 1973 2. What is D.O. 88 all about? Rules and regulations requiring the services of duly registered Electronics and Communications Engineering. 3. What is required for the establishment/construction of a radio station? Construction Permit 4. As per amended by EO 546, where should a person/company apply for a construction permit? NTC 5. What is the maximum coverage area of the exempted radio stations? 5 km radius 6. What is/are required for one to be eligible for License to Operate? Certification by a registered Electronics and Communication engineer to the effect that the station was constructed / installed in accordance with the approved specifications & that the construction was under his supervision. 7. Who should supervise the operation & maintenance of a radio station communication system and any broadcasting system or network? Duly registered Electronics and Communications engineer. 8. What is required for the manufacture and/or modification of radio communication equipment? Permit to Manufacture 9. TRUE or FALSE. Any previous order, circular or instruction or part thereof that is inconsistent w/ D.O. will continue to take effect. FALSE. All such instructions are superseded upon promulgation of this order. 10. What documents are needed to get construction permit? Design, specifications and justifications of the project or system, signed and sealed by a registered ECE. 11. Who is authorized to approve radio station construction permit applications? Radio Control Office

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12. TRUE or FALSE. The applicant doesnt have to be a franchise owner? FALSE. 13. Who can supervise the installation/construction of radio station? A registered ECE. 14. What is needed for the radio station to legally operate, issued to the compliant radio station by Radio Control Office? License to operate 15. What do you need to have to be able to erect a radio station? a. Building Permit b. Student Permit c. Business Permit d. Construction Permit 16. For a radio station, what is the minimum number of land radio stations of any type must it have so a registered electronics and Communications Engineer is needed to supervise it? Six (6) 17. What is the maximum carrier power allowed for an AM station? 1 kilowatt 18. YES or NO. Is the construction permit needed only for construction of new radio stations? No, it is also needed when you modify anything in the radio station. 19. What does the engineering plan and designs contain? Specifications of the Radio station

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Executive Order No. 47 Reorganizing, Renaming and Transferring the Commission on Information and Communications Technology and Its Attached Agencies to the Department of Science and Technology, Directing the Implementation Thereof and for Other Purposes 1. What is ICTO? Information and Communications Technology Office 2. Under what law was the Commission on Information and Communications Technology (CICT) renamed as the Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO) and states that the former Commission on Information and Communications Technology will be transferred from the Office of the President to the Department of Science and Technology? Executive Order No. 47 3. The Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO) is placed under the policy, technical and administrative supervision of what department? Department of Science and Technology (DOST) 4. The ICTO shall be headed by whom? Executive Director, with the rank of an Undersecretary who shall report directly to the DOST Secretary. 5. Which of the following are areas of ICTOs primary thrusts for 2011-2016: a. ICT Industry Development b. E-Government c. ICT Policy Development d. ICT Infrastructure and Cybersecurity e. All of the above 6. Who has the power and control over executive departments, bureaus and offices, as well as the continuing authority under existing laws to reorganize such executive departments, bureaus and agencies? The President 7. TRUE or FALSE. One of the functions of ICTO is to formulate, recommend and implement an appropriate policy and program framework that will promote the rapid development and improve global competitiveness of our countrys information and communications technology industry through research and development and through effective linkages to industry. TRUE

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8.

NTC ensures the provision of efficient and effective information and communications technology infrastructure, information systems and resources to support efficient, effective, transparent and accountable governance and, in particular, support the speedy and efficient enforcement of rules and delivery of accessible public services to the people FALSE, ICTO is in charge of it.

9.

How does ICTO able to improve the quality of Information and Communications Technology (ICT) education and the production of globally competitive ICT manpower? By continuing research and development in partnership with academic institutions

10.

How can ICTO help in building the capacities of public sector institutions and their personnel? By using ICT for the improvement in planning, management, delivery of mission, critical functions and monitoring and evaluation.

11.

TRUE or FALSE. The NTC is in charge of the formulation of the Government Information System Plan and administering the E-Governance Fund. FALSE, ICTO is in charge of it.

12.

What is transferred to DOST and will form part of the internal structure of ICTO? National Computer Center (NCC) and Telecommunications Office (TELOF)

13.

TRUE or FALSE. The National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) and the Philippine Postal Corporation (PHILPOST) are under DOST. FALSE. NTC and PHILPOST are under the Office of the President.

14.

What are the strategic plans of ICTO? a. ICT Industry Development b. E-GOVERNMENT c. ICT Infrastructure Management d. ICT Planning And Policy e. All of the above

15.

What strategic plan is used to ensure that ICT access and internet opportunities are available for the entire country by developing effective and sustainable and strategic ICT infrastructures? a. E-GOVERNMENT b. ICT Industry Development c. ICT Infrastructure Management d. ICT Planning And Policy

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16. What strategic plan is used to create interactions between the government and citizens which allows citizens to have easy access to information and services by strategically engaging them through digital channels? a. ICT Planning And Policy b. E-GOVERNMENT c. ICT Industry Development d. ICT Infrastructure Management 17. What strategic plan is used for the development and implementation of comprehensive programs to ensure the continuous growth and competitiveness of ICT industry sectors? a. E-GOVERNMENT b. ICT Industry Development c. ICT Infrastructure Management d. ICT Planning And Policy 18. What strategic plan is used to help ICTO in formulating ICT policies, implementing plans and programs that could help provide research support for e-Government, e-Business and e-Society concerns? a. ICT Planning And Policy b. E-GOVERNMENT c. ICT Industry Development d. ICT Infrastructure Management 19. What is not part of the projects of ICTO? a. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) b. Government Fiber Core Network c. Upgrade of National Microwave Network d. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools e. Bluetooth Technology for Medical Applications f. 20. Internet TV Testbed

What kind of Cloudtop project of ICTO in cooperation with DOST - Technological Research Center (TRC) is used to aim in the reduction of hardware acquisition costs for computers? Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

21.

The Cloudtop project is able to reduce hardware acquisition costs by using which of the following? a. Thin client and cloud computing for educational use

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b. Government cloud applications c. Sustainable energy solutions. d. All of the Above 22. What Project of ICTO aims to use the unused frequencies for television for data connection? a. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) b. Government Fiber Core Network c. Upgrade of National Microwave Network d. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools e. Internet TV Testbed 23. It is the essential component of ICTOs E-Government that will utilize existing government assets. a. Internet TV Testbed b. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools c. Upgrade of National Microwave Network d. Government Fiber Core Network e. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) 24. What Project of ICTO is used to upgrade microwave network links between existing government-owned and private sector source data networks by using microwave links to be able to provide redundancy between these networks? a. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) b. Government Fiber Core Network c. Upgrade of National Microwave Network d. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools e. Internet TV Testbed 25. In cooperation with partners in Industry and Academe, what project of ICTO that will be used to deliver digital contents and will be a key for public applications? a. Internet TV Testbed b. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools c. Upgrade of National Microwave Network d. Government Fiber Core Network e. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

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26. What are the primary concerns of the ICTO? ICT Industry Development, E-Government, Infrastructure and Cybersecurity. 27. ICT Policy Development, ICT

The Philippine Governments plans are to actively leverage ICTS wherein they promote transparent and effective government services. TRUE

28.

Every Philippine Citizen does not have the rights to access the electronic government. FALSE

29.

Effective ICT policy and planning is the backbone of effective E-Governance. TRUE

30.

Minority of ICTOs initiatives is to have an online component that requires reliable connectivity between and among government agencies as well as with the general public. FALSE

31.

The meaning of ICT is Information Corporation Technology FALSE

32.

The president of the Philippine has nothing to do in the development, monitoring and advocacy of ICT-related plans, programs, projects and standards, and providing research support for e-Government, e-Business and e-Society concerns. TRUE

33.

ICT access and internet opportunities are not available for the entire country. FALSE

34.

They intended to bond political participation in the E-Goverment. FALSE

35.

It is the use of information and communications technologies (ICT) to enhance access of information and improve delivery, efficiency and effectiveness of service to the public. a. E-Government b. ICTO c. Pinoy Exchange d. None of the above

36.

The DOST-ICTOs primary thrusts for the medium term are in line with the Philippine Digital Strategy as long as. 2011 2016

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Executive Order No. 59 Prescribing the Policy Guidelines for Compulsory Interconnection of Authorized Public Telecommunications Carriers In Order To Create a Universally Accessible and Fully Integrated Nationwide Telecommunications Network and Thereby Encourage Greater Private Sector Investment in Telecommunications 1. When was EO 59 created? a. February 24, 1994 b. February 24, 1993 c. February 29, 1993 d. February 14, 1993 2. TRUE or FALSE. It is compulsory for public telecommunications carriers to provide interconnection. TRUE. Telecommunications carriers should be interconnected to allow one carrier to access a subscriber of another carrier. 3. What are the requirements when establishing and maintaining interconnection between carriers? There should be sufficient capacity and in sufficient number to meet traffic demands. 4. TRUE or FALSE. Interconnection of other telecommunications services such as radio paging, trunking radio, store and forward systems, etc., shall be mandatory TRUE. Interconnection is mandatory for telecommunications services that the NTC determines to be in the interest of the public and allows for a universally accessible, fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network. 5. How long do two parties have to negotiate interconnection terms before the NTC intervenes? Negotiation between parties have ninety (90) days from the date of notice to the NTC before the NTC intervenes. After this time, the NTC will be the one to determine the terms and conditions for aspects that the parties did not agree upon so as to have a workable interconnection and traffic settlement. 6. When is the rerouting of calls from an international gateway operator to another international gateway allowed? In the event of strikes, lock-outs, disasters, calamities and similar causes, calls are permitted to be rerouted to another international gateway operator that is still operative. 7. How are the connection rates determined? A per minute rate shall be evolved with day and night differential. The rate is based on the principle of recognizing recovery of the toll related cost and return of the investment of the facilities used to make the tall call exchange.

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8. In what manner do telecommunication companies interconnect? Non-discriminatory. 9. Who is responsible for detailing, assigning and approving of costs and division of income from the Interconnection of telecommunications networks using Points of Connection (PC) between public telecommunication carriers? a. Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH) b. President of the Philippines c. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) d. Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster ng Pilipinas (KBP) 10. Who must share with the interconnection cost, maintain and operate their facilities in accordance with their obligation as approved by the NTC? a. Interconnecting Parties b. President of the Philippines c. Citizens of the Philippines d. Supplier 11. What may be revoked, revised or amended by the NTC as it deems fit in the public service interest? Interconnection and revenue-sharing agreements 12. Who may impose penalties, i.e. administrative fines or sanctions, when any of the provisions is violated? a. Department of Defence (DoD) b. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) c. Department of Justice (DOJ) d. Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) 13. Who withholds any government loan or credit accommodation of the violating carrier or operator from government financial or lending institutions? President of the Philippines 14. Who, from the violating carrier or operator, cannot be disqualified from being employed in any enterprise or entity supervised by the NTC? a. Employees b. Officers c. Lawyer d. Directors

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15. Whose services cannot be disrupted even if there is a suspension of authorized rates from any violating carrier or operator? a. Public b. Private c. Voluntary Services 16. From section 14 of EO 59, it states that NTC is directed to promulgate the implementing rules to this Executive Order within how many days from the date of effect? 90 days 17. What is Executive Order 59? EO 59 is a guideline for compulsory interconnection of Public telecommunications carriers. 18. What are the essences of this order? To be aware of the importance of telecommunications vital role in nation building. To promote the emergence of telecommunications structures suitable to a balanced flow of information whether within, into or out of the country as well as further expansion of telecommunication services and facilities. To maximize the use of telecommunications facilities. To encourage investments in relation of telecommunications infrastructure by service providers To ensure all public telecommunications user have interconnections to other users nationwide at an acceptable standard service and reasonable cost.

19.

Does telecommunications service provider opt not to follow the interconnection order? No, it is compulsory to have interconnections (by means of wire, radio, satellite, etc.) between authorized telecommunications carrier.

20.

Where should be the interconnection be established? Preferably at the local exchange level or trunk exchange junctions and must have reasonable time frame, sufficient capacity and number to be able to manage all information traffic demands.

21.

Do customers have the freedom to choose his/her call be routed regardless of which system provides the exchange line connecting to the local exchange? YES. This can be done by using distinct carrier access code.

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22. Is re-routing permitted? YES. Re-routing of calls from an inoperative international gateway operator to another international gateway operator is allowed provided its subsidiaries shall not be given a permit to operate another international gateway. 23. What agencies should the technical/operational rules is conformed from? The technical/operational rules should be conformed from the Consultative Committee on International Telegraph and Telephone (CCITT) and International Telecommunications Union (ITU). 24. What type of traffic considerations will be used for interconnection? Meet-on-the-air and midpoint circuit interconnection. 25. What considerations are used for junction exchange point of interconnection? Short haul (not exceeding 150km), Long haul (greater than 150km) connection, and day and night differential 26. TRUE or FALSE. Revenue agreement sharing approved or prescribed by NTC may not be revoked, revised or amended. FALSE, it may still be revoked, revised or amended. 27. In case of violations, NTC may imposed the following: 28. Fines, penalties and sanction based on existing laws. Suspension of further actions on pending and future applications of permits and licenses. Withhold the release of loans or credit accommodation with approval form the president of the Philippines. Disqualification of being an employee, officer, or director of that enterprise from being employed. Suspension of rates for any services provided without disruption of service to the customer.

What are Executive Order 59s main objectives? To create a universally accessible and fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network and encourage greater private sector investment in telecommunications.

29.

Advancement in the field of telecommunications and expansion of telecommunications services and facilities in all areas of the Philippines are necessary in _____. Nation-building

30.

What does Interconnection mean? It is the linkage of two or more existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another by wire, radio, satellite or other means.

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31. Why is interconnection compulsory telecommunications facilities? between NTC authorized public

To allow or enable subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of other carriers or operators. 32. Preferably, where should interconnection be established and maintained at? I. II. Local exchanges level Junction side of trunk exchanges

III. Central office a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. III 33. It is an assistance to the unprofitable rural telephone development, remote pay stations, etc., thereby assuring the universal service obligation of the PSTN operators. a. Operator assisted calls b. Access charge c. All of the above d. None of the above 34. TRUE or FALSE. Access charge will result in a charge that will be passed on to the management of the PSTN. FALSE. Access charge will result in a charge that will be passed on to the SUBSCRIBERS of the PSTN. 35. Can NTC revise the interconnection and revenue-sharing agreements they had already approved? YES.

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Executive Order No. 109 Policy to Improve the Provision of Local Exchange Carrier Service 1. When was EO 109 implemented? a. July 12, 1993 b. March 10, 1990 c. December 1, 1996 d. November 1, 1992 2. All of these are targets of the National Telecommunication Development Plan (NTDP) of the Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC) except for: a. To ensure the orderly development of the telecommunication sector through the provision of service to all areas of the country b. To generate adequate funds in order to further extend the provision of local exchange services c. To satisfy unserviced demand for telephones d. To provide healthy competition among authorized service providers 3. In order to subsidize funds for the development of the local exchange service, funds may be generated from: a. National, international long distance and other telecommunications services b. Local and international sponsorships c. Fund Raising activities d. Cellular Mobile Telephone Systems (CMTS) only 4. Refers to a telecommunications service, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service, within a contiguous geographic area are furnished to individual. a. Basic Telecommunication Service b. Local Exchange Service c. Both a and b d. None of the above 5. Refers to local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph service without additional features. a. Basic Telecommunication Service b. Local Exchange Service c. Both a and b d. None of the above

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6. Refers to a system of pricing in which the actual cost of providing service establishes the basic charge to which a fixed mark-up is added to collect a standard charge to all users without discrimination. a. Value based pricing b. Cost based Pricing c. Actual Pricing d. Neutral Pricing 7. Refers to a system of pricing where cost of service establishes the minimum charge and a variable mark-up is added to collect revenue from those who value the service more highly. a. Value based pricing b. Cost based Pricing c. Actual Pricing d. Neutral Pricing 8. Refers to the availability of reliable and affordable telecommunications service in both urban and rural areas of the country. a. Global Mobility b. International Accessibility c. Basic Telecommunication Service d. Universal Access 9. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 2, the objective of this policy is to improve the provision of local exchange service in UNSERVED AREAS ONLY as defined by the National Telecommunications Commission (NTC). FALSE. Unserved and underserved areas are both improved as stated by the NTC. 10. Section 3 includes what policy that covers the ownership and operation of telecommunication facilities and services? a. Policy of Telecommunications b. Policy of Democratization c. Policy of Nation Alliance d. Policy of Communism 11. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 4, local exchange service shall continue to be cross subsidized by other telecommunication services within the same company as long as universal access telecommunications service is achieved and such service is priced to reflect the actual cost. TRUE

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12. How many local exchange lines per international switch termination must an authorized gateway operator should provide? a. A minimum of 300 lines b. A minimum of 5000 lines and a maximum of 500,000 lines c. 10 (per subscriber) d. 10 million lines both for local and international services 13. For every rural exchange line, how many urban exchange lines must be installed? a. 40 b. 20 c. 30 d. 10 14. TRUE or FALSE. The establishment of Public Calling Offices at rural barangay level need the appropriate credit by NTC in order to provide local exchange service. TRUE 15. TRUE or FALSE. Carriers already providing local exchange service in accordance to sections 5.a, 5.b and 5.c shall be authorized to operate an international gateway. TRUE 16. Authorized international gateway operators may also be authorized to provide? Cellular Mobile Telephone telecommunications service 17. System (CMTS) services and non-basic

TRUE or FALSE. A subsidiary of a public telecommunications carrier that is operating an authorized international gateway is allowed to operate another gateway. The subsidiaries of a public telecommunication carrier operating an authorized international gateway shall not be allowed to operate another gateway in accordance with Executive Order No. 59 (1993)

18.

Authorized providers of non-basic telecommunications service shall be required to provide local exchange carrier service in accordance with guidelines rules and regulations prescribed by the: a. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) b. National Telecommunication Commission (NTC) c. Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster ng Pilipinas (KBP) d. National Broadcasters Association (NAB)

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19. TRUE or FALSE. Telecommunications service providers shall provide equivocal financial reports. FALSE. Telecommunications service providers shall provide EXPLICIT financial reports. 20. How many years does an existing telecommunications service provider have to comply with the above requirements in order to provide local exchange services? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years 21. TRUE or FALSE. International Gateway Facility, Cellular Mobile System (CMTS), and other Value added Services (VAS) pending and existing applications do not need to revise their applications. TRUE 22. Who was the president when this executive order 59 and 109 were promulgated? a. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo b. Joseph Ejercito Estrada c. Fidel Ramos d. Ferdinand Emmanuel Edralin Marcos 25. TRUE of FALSE. Is Executive Order No. 109 the policy to improve LEC services? TRUE 26. TRUE or FALSE. Value Service Pricing is equivalent to Value Based Pricing. TRUE 27. What does the acronym PPA stand for? a) Philippine Ports Authority b) Philippine Ports Administration c) Philippine Ports Association d) None of the above 28. TRUE or FALSE. The PPA is in charge of implementing programs for proper zoning, planning, development and utilization of the port. TRUE 29. TRUE or FALSE. If a certain provision mentioned in EO 109 is invalid, all other sections will also be considered invalid. FALSE

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30. After issuance, when is the deadline for pending telecommunications companies given to apply for local exchange services? a) 2 months b) 3 months c) 4 months d) 5 months 31. What is required with financial reports of telecommunications service providers? a) Congressional Franchise b) CPCN c) Internal subsidy d) All of the above 35. What is fundamental to providing universal access to basic and other telecommunications services? Local exchange service 36. TRUE or FALSE. In cost-based pricing, a fixed mark-up is added to the basic charge? TRUE. 37. TRUE or FALSE. In value-based pricing, a variable mark-up is added to a variable charge. FALSE. In value-based pricing, a variable mark-up is added to a basic/standard charge. The mark-up is added to collect revenue from those who value the service more highly 38. Which of the following is in the scope of Local Exchange Carrier Service? a. Telecommunications service, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service b. Service in one contiguous geographical area b. Individual subscribers under one common local exchange rate service c. All of the above 39. What is a carrier that serves as an interconnection to international networks? International Gateway Facility (IGF) Carrier 40. Who can provide Cellular Mobile Telephone System service and other nonbasic telecommunications services for local exchange carrier service? a. International Gateway Operators 41. Authorized providers of non-basic telecommunication services are required to provide local exchange carrier service according to the _____. NTC

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Executive Order No. 546 Creating a Ministry Of Public Works and a Ministry Of Transportation and Communications 1. What is EO 546 about? EO 546 is about the creation of the Ministry of Transportation and Communications, and other agencies under the Ministry, including NTC. It also describes the Organization of each agency and defines its functions and responsibilities. 2. When was EO 546 issued? EO 546 was issued by President Ferdinand Marcos on July 23, 1979. 3. Where are the NTC offices located? There are thirteen regional offices around the Philippines and a central office located at BIR Road, East Triangle, Diliman, Quezon City. 4. What is the agency of the Philippine government under the Department of Transportation and Communications that responsible for the supervision, adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout the Philippines? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 5. It is the government organization that is responsible for the supervision, adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout the Philippines? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 6. According to Section 16 of EO 546, the commission shall be composed of? A Commissioner and two Deputy Commissioner (Preferably a lawyer and an economist) 7. What must be issued for the operation of communications utilities and services, radio communication systems, wire or wireless telephone or telegraph systems, radio and television broadcasting system? Certificate of Public Convenience 8. When the Armed Forces of the Philippines used _____ that were allowed/assigned by the Commission; they can be considered not a subject to the provisions of EO 546. Frequencies 9. TRUE or FALSE. The NTC sub-allocate series of frequencies of bands for specific services? TRUE

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10. TRUE or FALSE. When abolished the Board of Communications and the Telecommunications Control Bureau and their functions are transferred to the National Telecommunications Commission? TRUE 11. What Republic Act has effectively liberalized the telecommunications services and has demonstrated its commitment to healthy and sustainable competition by allowing multiple operations by local service providers in partnership with firms of varying nationalities in most segments of the domestic and international telecommunications markets? Republic Act No. 7925 12. According to Executive Order No. 47, is NTC under the Department of Science and Technology or the office of the President? According to Executive Order No. 47, which was created on June 23, 2011, NTC is under the Office of the President as an Other Executive Office (OEO). 13. The functions of the NTC can be classified to three broad areas, what are those? Telecommunications, broadcast undertakings, and radio spectrum. 14. TRUE or FALSE, NTC sub-allocates frequencies within bands allocated by the ITU to specified services? TRUE 15. Is there anyone exempted from acquiring a radio operator license issued by the NTC? No one is exempted from acquiring a license. Even amateur radio operators can be issued a license as long as they pass the exam. 16. Does the NTC regulate the ownership and operation of radio and TV stations? YES 17. Does the NTC grant permits for the use of radio frequencies for radio and television stations only? NO. NTC also grant permits for the use of radio frequencies for wireless telephone and telegraph systems and radio communications systems, including amateur radio stations. 18. Does NTC have the power to set the rates of services of private entities, such as Globe and Smart Telecommunications? No to a certain extent. One of NTCs responsibilities is to maintain effective competition among private entities. 19. What is the composition of the NTC? And what attributes should they possess? The NTC should be composed of a Commissioner and two deputy commissioners, preferably one of whom shall be a lawyer and the other an economist. They shall

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be of unquestioned integrity, of proven competence, and recognized as experts in their fields, related as much as possible, to communications. 20. In the instance that there would be a case/hearing, does the head commissioner have the absolute power to decide to outcome of the case? NO. A three-way vote amongst the commissioner and the two deputy commissioners. The one with the majority of votes would win. This is according to the Rules of Procedure and Practice promulgated by the Board of Communications and applicable to the NTC. 21. What are the divisions of NTC? Common Carrier Authorization Department, Telecommunications Planning and Development Department, Broadcast Division, and Radio Regulation/Licensing Department. 22. Which division is in-charge of disposing and confiscating radio equipments such as transmitters and transceivers? Radio Regulation and Licensing Department. 23. Which division is responsible for planning, programming and project development as well as the radio frequency spectrum management program; also responsible for the standardization of telecommunications equipment and facilities? Telecommunications Planning and Development Department. 24. Which division is responsible for the development, formulation and implementation of policies, programs and operational standards relating to the regulation and authorization of domestic and international telecommunications carriers? Common Carrier Authorization Department 25. Which division undertakes functions relating to the issuance of Certificates of Public Convenience and Licenses for Radio and Television Broadcasting Stations as well as the monitoring and enforcement to ascertain compliance with laws and the terms and conditions of Commission decisions and orders? Broadcast Division 26. According to MC 03-11-2005, Are VoIP services also under supervision of NTC? YES. 27. MO No. 03-11-2005. What are needed to be submitted by the Voice Over IP service providers? Certified TRUE copy of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or Department of Trade and Industry (DTI) permit, showing that at least 60% is owned by a Filipino citizen and that the paid capital is at least 10M. Lease agreement Agreement between the local exchange network, cellular network, trunk radio network and broadband access network

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28. Destination of implementation Filing fee of 180 pesos and Registration fee of 50K pesos per year

MO No. 03-11-2005. Can there be resellers of Voice Over IP providers? YES, but they need to coordinate and register with the commission as a reseller.

29.

MO No. 03-11-2005. What are the additional payments and documents needed to be submitted by the resellers? Certified TRUE copy of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or Department of Trade and Industry (DTI) permit, showing that at least 60% is owned by a Filipino citizen Reseller agreement from the provider Filing fee of 180 pesos and Registration fee of 5K pesos per year as an additional There will be a certificate that will be given upon registration which is called the (COR) Certificates of Registration and will be valid for 1 year, it can be renewable thereafter

30.

MO No. 03-11-2005. What is a Performance Band? A performance band is a registered insurance or surety from the (GSIS) or Government Service Insurance System to guarantee that the service is being delivered to the public, for VOIP the amount is 5M.

31.

MO No. 03-11-2005. What is the prefix being provided by VOIP? 09XX which can be seen in mobile subscribers such as Globe, Smart, Sun, Talk N Text, TM etc.

32.

Can foreign VoIP service providers register under the NTC? Foreign VoIP service providers cannot register unless the company is at least 60% owned by Filipino citizens.

33.

YES or NO. Do I still need to register even if I am only a reseller of VoIP services? YES.

34.

According to MC 03-11-2005, how much do VoIP service provider and/or resellers have to pay for the registration? VoIP service providers are required to pay a registration fee of PhP 50,000.00 per year. VoIP service resellers are required to pay PhP 5000.00 per year. Both are also required a PhP 180.00 filing fee.

35.

A certificate of registration will be given to VoIP service provider and/or reseller. Until when is this certificate valid? According to Section 4 of MC 03-11-2005, a Certificate of Registration is valid for one year, and is renewable thereafter.

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36.

According to MC 10-11-2005, how should Cable TV stations prevent the abuse of chat room channels? Cable TV stations should use an Automated Filter Dictionary which is supervised by an Administrator.

37.

MO No. 10-11-2005. Which circular is responsible for the interactive displays and chat rooms seen on television? NTC MO NO. 10-11-2005 is the one responsible in the guidelines and provisions of the channels which has chat rooms and interactive media with the use of SMS coordination.

38.

MO No. 10-11-2005. What are some of the provisions that this agreement have? There should be an (AFD) Automated Filter Dictionary to ban or not deliver or not display words that are not appropriate. To preview all messages prior to cable casting. To edit or delete messages that were sent using SMS whenever there is duplication. To automatically block messages from banned numbers.

39.

TRUE or FALSE. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, not all Cable TV (CATV) stations cablecasting channels with chat room formats are required to employ the use of Automated Filter Dictionary (AFD)? FALSE.

40.

According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, the software for the Automatic Filter Dictionary (AFD) has the capability to? Automatically mask pre-determined words or phrases not suitable for cablecasting Preview all messages prior to cablecasting Provide the operator to edit or delete messages

41.

According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, Cable TV (CATV) channels with chat room formats refer to interactive channels that enable viewers to interact and send messages via what? SMS

42.

According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, the sharing of head-end facilities by two or more CATV systems shall require the approval of? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC).

43.

According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, aside from the petition, motion or application, what else should be submitted to the Commission to officially file an intent of sharing/consolidation of head-end facilities of cable television stations?

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MOA and technical feasibility report 44. TRUE or FALSE. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, existing CATV operator serving adjoining/contiguous municipalities/cities is not allowed to consolidate its individual head-end facilities into a single head-end station. FALSE 45. MO No. 11-11-2005. How do cable subscribers of our country compete and improve their services? The NTC MO No. 11-11-2005 is the one responsible in giving the cable providers the disposition to optimize the use of resources and to further improve their service. 46. YES or NO. According to MC 11-11-2005, are cable TV companies allowed to share head-end facilities? YES. 47. According to MC 11-11-2005, what are the requirements for companies to share head-end facilities? Notification of intent to the NTC, filing of motion with a Provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority, memorandum of agreement, and a technical feasibility shall be required by the NTC. 48. According to MC 01-03-2006, what are the general objectives of NTC in creating standards for radio and television broadcast? NTC adopted the standards set by KBP to implement responsible television and radio broadcasting and to avoid abuse of broadcast facilities. 49. TRUE or FALSE. According to MC 14-7-2000 PTEs should result into a universally accessible and fully integrated nationwide telecom network for public. TRUE. 50. A service that is not ordinarily provided by PTE (Public Telecom Entity) and added with feature or value to basic phone services. Enhanced services 51. YES or NO. Should a subscriber of a PTE be able to access service provided by any other PTE either directly or indirectly? YES. Also, there should be an additional burden to subscriber and on a nondiscriminatory basis. 52. MC No. 14-7-2000. YES or NO. Section 14. Can an access seeker request or demand an access of interconnection to an access provider? What are the requirements? YES, provided they give the Commission a copy of their said notice to the other party and have their request contain the following: Access seekers legislative franchise and CPCN/PA

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53. System configuration Proposed point/s of interconnection Trunk requirements and signalling system Proposed traffic routing and numbering scheme Traffic forecast and assumptions used for a period of at least 5 years Traffic types and systems covered Proposed interface Proposed implementation schedule List of existing exchanges which are suitable for interconnection including the number lines available Compensation scheme, proposed access charge or settlement procedure

MC No. 14-7-2000. Section 14. How many days does the access provider have to send its counter-proposal or reply to the access seeker? The access provider has 10 days from the receipt of request for interconnection to send its reply.

54.

MC No. 14-7-2000. Section 14. After the access provider has provided its reply, how many days do the seeker and provider have to submit their interconnection agreement to the Commission? From the time the Commission has received a copy of the access seekers request for interconnection, they are provided 90 days to submit their agreement to the commission (NTC). After which the Commission, within 30 days shall notify the parties of its approval or disapproval on the agreement.

55.

MC No. 14-7-2000. Section 14. What happens if the Commission fails to notify the parties of its approval or disapproval within 30 days? The agreement then shall be deemed approved.

56.

MC No. 14-7-2000. Section 14. In case two public telecommunications entities (PTEs) refuse to negotiate for the interconnection of their networks, who will then exercise power over the matter? The Commission (NTC), upon the complaint of any interested party or upon its own initiative, may intervene and assume jurisdiction over the matter.

57.

MC No. 14-7-2000. How many candidate areas are available for local interconnection? 32 candidate areas are available. 11 out of the 32 candidate areas for local interconnection have been accommodated by PLDT for activation.

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58.

MC No. 14-7-2000. Does the NTC have the power to set rates charged by local firms? No. The government has no power to set the rates charged by local firms on their subscribers in the countrys deregulated telecom sector.

59.

MC No. 14-7-2000. YES or NO. Can a Public Telecommunication Entity request another PTE to which it is interconnected an additional interconnection capacity? If so, what information should suffice the request? YES. The number of interconnection capacity required to meet additional demand; The approximate date the additional interconnection capacity required must be activate; and A traffic study

60.

MC No. 14-7-2000. What are some interconnect service charging guidelines? Interconnect service charges shall be set so as to promote efficient and sustainable competition for the benefit of the public and promote economic and efficient network use. Charges in Interconnection Agreements shall respect the principles of objectivity, transparency, reciprocity and non-discrimination. Interconnection services interconnection service. shall be classified into basic or ancillary

61.

MC No. 14-7-2000. How should the interconnecting parties maintain and operate their facilities in accordance with their respective obligations in their interconnection agreement? Cooperate and provide facilities in their respective system for testing Agree on standard procedures and see to it that the information are shared between them to facilitate the efficiency of routing messages over all points of connection Exchange traffic and facility forecasts on a semi-annual basis Provide additional circuits based on traffic measurements and studies to be conducted covering a period of thirty days

62.

MO No. 11-11-2005. What are documents needed for the improvement of their services? First it must be approved by the Commission There should be a purpose and a grantee from (PA/CA) Provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority to server their purpose.

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63. A (MOA) memorandum of agreement and technical feasibility report shall be submitted together with the petition. Failure of compliance will forfeit the application

MO No. 01-03-2006. Which act is responsible for the phrase of the parental guidance seen on television? The NTC MO NO. 01-03-2006 is the one responsible in providing the standards for radio and TV broadcast as well as cable TV stations.

64.

MO No. 01-03-2006. YES or NO. Is NTC going against the Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster ng Pilipinas (KBP) in terms of guidelines and procedures? NO. They are not going against nor issuing new set of guidelines rather they are complying with it. They are supporting the KBPs strict injunction for broadcast stations not to allow their facilities to be used for advocating the overthrow of government by force or violence, and to not allow the broadcast of materials which tend to propose/incite treason, rebellion, sex or pose a clear and present danger to the state.

65.

MC No. 01-03-88. YES or NO. Can an Amateur Radio Enthusiast purchase a radio transceiver from abroad? YES. Provided that the person has been granted a Permit to Purchase from NTC. If purchasing locally, the other party should have a Permit to Sell from NTC and the equipment has been legally acquired (registered with the Commission).

66.

MC No. 09-04-94A. Suppose an Amateur Radio Operator wants to renew his/her license. What are the requirements for him/her to be granted license renewal? A form is to be submitted by the applicant and needs to be endorsed by a duly recognized Amateur Radio Club or a Class A Radio Amateur License Holder. They should be able to present proofs on any of the ff: DX Technical Experimentation Emergency Communications Active membership in an Amateur Radio Club Field Expedition

67.

MC No. 09-04-94A. An Amateur Radio Consultative Panel (ARCP) is created under Memorandum Circular No. 06-02-1994 for Amateur Radio Service. How should ARCP be composed? ARCP shall have 5 members: 2 representatives from the Commission 2 class A amateurs (recommended by PARA Philippine Amateur Radio Association) 1 class A amateur with unquestionable reputation

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68.

MC No. 09-04-94A. Who shall be authorized to be responsible in endorsing the approval of renewing the amateur licenses? A Class A licensed amateur radio operator or an Amateur Radio Club, recommended by the Chairman of ARCP to the Commission, shall be responsible to endorse the approval of the renewal of amateur licenses.

69.

MC No. 03-08-2012. What are the provisions for licensing foreign amateur radio operators? The NTC may authorize a person who is: A resident and citizen of a foreign country to operate his amateur station while temporarily in the Philippines provided he is a holder of an appropriate amateur station license and an operators license or certificate issued by the government of the country of which he is a citizen and provided that same country has a formal or an informal reciprocal agreement with the Philippines. He should be encouraged to affiliate with a local amateur club for better camaraderie and fellowship.

70.

MC No. 03-03-1996. NTC attends to the collection, consolidation and updating of statistical data and other related information on telecommunication services or stations, including operational statistics within the region. Give an example on how data is consolidated by NTC. An example is the National Radio Frequency Allocation Table issued by the National Telecommunications Commission.

71.

MC No. 02-01-2001. What are the provisions that refer to Customer Premises Equipment (CPE)? Give examples of these equipment. A CPE is tested and evaluated by undergoing laboratory tests to determine its operational compatibility with the public telecommunications network and to guarantee that when connected will not cause harm and will assure adequate safety for: The end-users, regarding their lives, health and properties; The public telecommunication networks and employees, from malfunction and damage; and The users of the frequency spectrum, from interference and spurious emissions.

72.

MC No. 01-03-2010. How much frequency band is allocated by the NTC for 3G? 10MHz paired frequency band is allocated by NTC for 3G.

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73. MC No. 01-03-2010. Who can apply to NTC for the assignment of frequency band for 3G? Only applicants with existing authorizations or pending applications for authorization to Install, Operate and Maintain Cellular Mobile Telephone System (CMTS) or Mobile Telecommunications Networks Proof that there are no unpaid fees to the NTC Certification of equity and/or company net worth of at least THREE BILLION PESOS (PhP3,000,000,000.00).

74.

MC No. 01-03-2010. How does NTC choose who will be qualified to have the frequency band for 3G? NTC chooses applicants by referring to the policies stated in and (f) of R.A. No.7925. Sections 4(a),(b), (c),

75.

MC No. 01-03-2010. Can there be more than one qualified applicants chosen by the NTC? If there is more than one number of qualified applicants chosen by the NTC, bidding pursuant to Section 15 of R.A. No. 7925 will take place among the qualified applicants The qualified bidders shall bid for the annual spectrum user fees (SUF). The minimum bid price shall be PhP 65 Million for the paired 10MHz.

76.

MC No. 01-03-2010. What are the obligations of the winning bidder? Some obligations under Section 8: The assignee/winning bidder shall pay an annual SUF Cover at least 80% of the provincial capital municipalities and 80% of all cities within sixty (60) months from the date of the award

77.

MC No. 01-03-2010. What are the Sanctions for the winning bidder? Failure to pay the annual SUF after a reasonable period of time from due date thereof, shall be a ground for the recall of the assigned 3G radio frequency bands. The winning bidder is prohibited from selling, leasing, encumbering, alienating or conveying in any manner the frequency assigned to it.

78.

MC No. 2-05-88. What are needed in order to sell, manufacture, or purchase radio communication equipment? People who want to engage in the sales of radio communication equipment must get certain permits issued by the NTC.

79.

MC No. 04-89. What specific violations are stated in the MC No. 04-89? Illegal purchase/possession of radio transmitter/transceiver (per unit)

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80. Operating a radio training school without a certificate of recognition from the NTC Operating beyond the authorized working hours Illegal Sale of units

MC No. 10-8-91. What kind of applicants for private radio communication network does the NTC choose? Services or activities that include agriculture, food production, logging, mining, oil exploration, public utilities, land transportation, public safety services, press and mass media, financial institutions, construction companies, religious organizations.

81.

MC No. 10-8-91. Can a foreigner who is living in the Philippines be qualified by the NTC to have his or their own private radio communication network? Applicants must be 100% Filipino or there are at least 60% Filipino shareholders and 40% foreign shareholders in their company.

82.

According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, for a company to register as a VoIP service provider, the company should pay a registration amount of: PhP 50,000.00/year

83.

According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, Certificates of Registration (COR) issued to VoIP Providers and Resellers is only valid for how many years? 1 year

84.

TRUE or FALSE. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, KBP program standards are being adopted by the NTC. TRUE.

85.

TRUE or FALSE. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, the members of the KBP are allowed to include information that may identify the location of troops even if its a highly sensitive issue. FALSE.

86.

According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, what branch of the KBP is duly recognized by the NTC to consider and adjudicate all complaints against any KBP member? KBP Standard Authority.

87.

TRUE or FALSE. According to the NTC MO No. 14-07-2000 Section 4, it is mandatory for all duly authorized PTEs to interconnect with one another. TRUE.

88.

Say, PLDT allows its users to connect to all networks except Bayantel. Are they allowed to do this, limiting the connection of their users only to selected PTEs? NO. All public telecommunications entities should be connected for a fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network to benefit the public.

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89. Say, Globe constructed a telecommunications tower at a province to increase their network coverage. For this reason, they increase their landline fees to their end users. Is Globe allowed to do this? NO. Only reasons such as long distance calls can a PTE charge their users for extra fees. 90. What division of NTC is responsible for aiding an increase of power as well as broadcast authorization process? Broadcast Service Division 91. What division of NTC is responsible for assignment of radio frequency spectrum as well as maintenance of an up-to-date radio frequency spectrum database of all radio network operators? Radio Regulations Management) 92. Licensing Department (Radio Frequency Spectrum

What division of NTC is responsible for the development, formulation and implementation of policies and guidelines for the licensing of Renewal and Additional radio stations in the maritime and aeronautical services? Radio Regulations Licensing Department (Safety and Special Radio Services)

93.

What division of NTC is responsible for the issuance of radio operators Certificates for holders and operators of radio stations in the Land Mobile Radio Services? Radio Regulations Licensing Department (Radio Operator)

94.

What division of NTC is responsible for applications for radio station permits and licenses are handled thereof including assignment of call-signs and frequencies? Radio Regulations Licensing Department (Fixed and Land Mobile Radio Services)

95.

What division of NTC is responsible for the accreditation of all customer premises equipment? Equipment Standards Division

96.

What division of NTC is responsible for setting standards and rules regarding the rates of the services provided by telecommunication companies? Common Carrier Authorization Department

97.

This division of the NTC is responsible for the development, formulation and implementation of policies programs and operational standards relating to the regulation and authorization of domestic and international telecommunications carriers. Common Carrier Authorization Department

98.

This department of the NTC is responsible for planning, programming and project development as well as the radio frequency spectrum management program; also responsible for the standardization of telecommunications equipment and facilities. Telecommunications Planning and Development Department

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99. This department under the NTC undertakes functions relative to the registration of radio transmitter / transceiver equipment, licensing of all radio stations, issuance of Safety Radiotelegraphy / Radiotelephony Certificates for ships, recognition of radio training schools. Radio Regulation/Licensing Department 100. Originally a part of RRLD, the _____ of the NTC has been elevated to Division status, per DBM approval in 1988. It undertakes functions relating to the issuance of Certificates of Public Convenience and Licenses for Radio and Television Broadcasting Stations. Broadcast Division

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Memorandum Circular No. 11-89 Radio Telephone Operators Examination 1. Who shall conduct the Commercial Radiotelephone Operators Examination? The Commission specifically, the National Telecommunications Commission 2. What do the Radio Control Law and Department Order No. 5 require radio operators to have to be able to operate radio stations? Commercial Radiotelephone Operator's Certificate 3. According to NTC MC No. 11-89, who are allowed to take the Commercial Radiotelephone Operator's Examination? ECE graduates (with valid Special Order No. from CHED) 4. TRUE or FALSE. The applicant who is an Electronics and Communications Engineering graduate should have undergone a training/seminar on radio laws and regulations. TRUE 5. TRUE or FALSE. A certification from the applicants employer that he/she is performing the duties of a radio operator is not one of the requirements to be able to take the exam. FALSE 6. What is NTC Memorandum Circular No. 11-89? Allowing ECE Graduates to take the commercial radiotelephone operators exam 7. When was NTC Memorandum Circular No. 11-89 issued? a. April 23, 1989 b. August 23, 1989 c. September 23, 1989 d. November 23, 1989 8. What laws cover the radiotelephone operators exam? Radio Control Law, Act No. 3846, Department Order No. 5 9. What are the requirements before the examination is given? ECE graduate with a valid Special Order Number Training/seminar on radio laws and regulations Certification from employer

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Memorandum Circular No. 2013 01

1. 2.

When was the Memorandum Circular No. 2013-01 promulgated? January 4, 2013 What Government Department is concern with the implementation of the Memorandum Circular? a. b. c. d. DILG DOST DEPED DOH

3.

TRUE or FALSE: Local Governments share the responsibility of developing and nurturing competent, productive and well-rounded PECEs. FALSE, this act is focused on developing and helping Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronic Engineers and Electronics Technicians.

4.

Which among the following Local Government officials is NOT concern with the Memorandum Circular? a. b. c. City Mayor Municipal Mayor Baranggay Captain

5.

Only PECEs should supervise, manage and administer electronics services as defined under Section 5 of the Republic Act No. 9292? FALSE, also Electronics Engineers

6.

The Memorandum Circular ensures the position requiring the services of PECEs, ECEs and ECTs if; a. They hold a bachelors degree

b. They are Registered Engineers c. d. They are working for the Government They have 2 years of working experienced

7.

The memorandum circular desires to assign PECEs, ECEs, and ECTs on government offices, divisions and department to implement what specific projects? E-Government Projects, E-Government includes large scale use of telephones, surveillance system and other electronic applications.

8.

Should PECE or ECE be part of the staff of the office of the provincial, city or municipal building official to evaluate electronics engineering plans? YES

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Republic Act No. 7925 An Act to Promote and Govern the Development of Philippine Telecommunications and the Delivery of Public Telecommunications Services 1. It is a process which enables to transfer various types of information with other telecommunications entity by means of wires, radio or other electromagnetic, spectral, optical or technological means Telecommunications 2. Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, engaged in provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation. Public Communications Entity 3. Transmission of data through the over-the-air commercial radio or television messages for the reception of broad audience over a specific geographical area. Broadcasting 4. It is the Privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by congress, authorizing them to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service. Franchise 5. It is an entity providing the transmission and switching of telecommunications services Local Exchange Operator 6. It is an entity often referred to as the national backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services. Inter-exchange Carrier 7. It is an Entity engaged in the business of providing transmission and switching of any telecommunications service between Philippines and other points in the world to which it has an existing correspondent or prospective interconnection agreements. International Carrier 8. It is an Entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided for by such carriers. Value-added Service Provider (VAS)

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9. It is a non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages. Public Toll Calling Station 10. It is a wide are mobile radio telephone system with its own switch, base stations and transmission facilities capable of providing high capacity mobile telecommunications by utilizing radio frequencies Mobile Radio Telephone System 11. It is the linkage, by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carriers or operators. Interconnection 12. What is the title given to R.A. 7925? Public Telecommunications Policy Act of the Philippines. 13. To whom or to what is this Act is addressed? To all the public telecommunications entities in the Philippines. 14. I. II. III. What is/are the fundamental objective/s of the government Develop and maintain a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunication infrastructure. Use the best available and affordable technologies, as a vital tool to nation building and development. Develop and produce professional engineers that may help in improving, not only the technology, but also the socio-civic and economy of the country. a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. All of the above 15. Who will allocate the radio frequency spectrum to service providers? a. Government b. Enterprise c. President d. Congress 16. TRUE or FALSE: Regulation of telecommunications entities shall rely principally on an administrative process that is stable, transparent and fair. TRUE

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17. I. II. III. Rates and tariff charges shall be fair, just, and reasonable and for this purpose, the regulatory body shall develop a tariff structure that is/are based on what? Socio-economic factors Financial, technical and commercial criteria Business factors a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. All of the above 18. Public telecommunications services shall be provided by whom? a. Government b. Private Enterprises c. All of the above 19. TRUE or FALSE. A healthy competitive environment shall be fostered, one in which telecommunications carriers are free to make business decisions and to interact with one another in providing telecommunications services, with the end in view of encouraging their financial viability while maintaining affordable rates. TRUE 20. TRUE or FALSE. A fair and reasonable interconnection of facilities of authorized public network operators and other providers of telecommunications services is necessary in order to achieve a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunications services. TRUE 21. TRUE or FALSE. The government shall give some of the assistance and encouragement to Philippine international carriers in order to establish interconnection with other countries so as to provide access to international communications highways on a competitive basis. False, ALL 22. For efficiency, practicability, and convenience, but with due regard to the observance of due process at all times, regulation of telecommunications entities shall rely principally on a/an _____ process that is stable, transparent and fair, giving due emphasis to technical, legal, economic and financial considerations. Administrative 23. TRUE or FALSE. Any single franchise shall authorize an entity to engage in both and broadcasting, either through the airwaves or by cable. FALSE, NO single franchise shall authorize.

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24. TRUE or FALSE. Ownership of public telecommunications entities to as wide a number of people as possible, preferably to its customers, in order to encourage efficiency and public accountability and to tap personal savings shall be encouraged. TRUE 25. Who supports the development of telecommunications? Human Resources skills and Manufacturing industry 26. Who is the principal administrator of RA 7925? The principal administrator of RA 7925 is the National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 27. What are the responsibilities of NTC in accordance to RA 7925? Adopt an administrative process which would facilitate the entry of qualified service providers and adopt a pricing policy which would generate sufficient returns to encourage them to provide basic telecommunications services in unserved and underserved areas. Ensure quality, safety, reliability, security, compatibility and inter-operability of telecommunications facilities and services in conformity with standards and specifications set by international radio and telecommunications organizations to which the Philippines is a signatory. Mandate a fair and reasonable interconnection of facilities of authorized public network operators and other providers of telecommunications services through appropriate modalities of interconnection and at a reasonable and fair level of charges, which make provision for the cross subsidy to unprofitable local exchange service areas so as to promote telephone density and provide the most extensive access to basic telecommunications services available at affordable rates to the public. Foster fair and efficient market conduct through, but not limited to, the protection of telecommunications entities from unfair trade practices of other carriers. Promote consumers welfare by facilitating access to telecommunications services whose infrastructure and network must be geared towards the needs of individual and business users. Protect consumers against misuse of a telecommunications entity's monopoly or quasi-monopolistic powers by, but not limited to, the investigation of complaints and exacting compliance with service standards from such entity. In the exercise of its regulatory powers, continue to impose such fees and charges as may be necessary to cover reasonable costs and expenses for the regulation and supervision of the operations of telecommunications entities. TRUE or FALSE. The Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC) should exercise its power to influence the Commissions quasi-judicial functions. FALSE

28.

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29. What are responsibilities of the Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC)? Foster fair and efficient market conduct through, but not limited to, the protection of telecommunications entities from unfair trade practices of other carriers. 30. A _____ shall provide universal basic telephone service to all subscribers who applied for, within a reasonable period and at such standards as may be prescribed by the Commission and at such tariff as to sufficiently give it a fair return on its investments. Local exchange operator 31. How many telecommunications categories can an entity operate in? More than one. Provided it is covered by its franchise. 32. The number of entities allowed to provide inter-exchange national long distance services may be limited, but as a matter of policy, where it is economically viable, at least _____ carrier/s, shall be authorized. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 33. _____ shall interconnect with other networks in the same category and with local exchange carriers or other telecommunications entities, upon application and within a reasonable time period, and under fair and reasonable level charges, in order that domestic and international long distance services are made possible. Inter-exchange carrier 34. TRUE or FALSE. Inter-exchange carrier shall have the right to establish and operate its own tandem switching facilities to which international calls or overseas carriers have to course their messages or signals. TRUE 35. What entities shall be allowed to operate as an international carrier? Those which provide local exchange services. Those which can demonstrably show technical capability. Those which has the financial capability to install and operate and international gateway. The entity so allowed shall be required to produce a firm correspondent or interconnection relationships with major overseas telecommunications authorities or carriers within _____ year/s from the grant of the authority. One

36.

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37. TRUE or FALSE. Provided that it does not put up its own network, a VAS (Valueadded Service) provider need not secure a franchise. TRUE 38. The operator of a mobile radio telephone system shall comply with its obligations within _____ year/s from the grant of the authority shall be a cause to cancel its authority or permit to operate a mobile radio telephone system. Three 39. What are the terminal equipment that are allowed to be used by the telecommunications subscribers within their premises? Telephones PABX Facsimile Data Record Message Other special purpose or multifunction telecommunication terminal equipment; provided that the equipment is type-approved by the commission How can the radio frequency spectrum be allocated and assigned to telecommunication operators? It shall be subjected to periodic review, therefore, shall also be subjected to reasonable spectrum user fees. 41. TRUE or FALSE: Every person can commence or conduct the business of being a public telecommunications entity even without first obtaining a franchise. FALSE. No person shall commence or conduct the business of being a public telecommunications entity without first obtaining a franchise. 42. What is called to the certificate that states the duration and termination of the privilege, standard or technical aspects of the equipment, rates, or service? Certificate of Public and Necessity or CPCN 43. How long is the life or validity of the CPCN? 5 years or shorter, or not longer than the life of the franchise. 44. TRUE or FALSE. The upgrading of existing plant and network facilities in order to improve the grade of service requires an approval from the Commission. FALSE (it is not required as long as the provider satisfactory complied with its commitments to the Commission to provide service with quality) 45. What happens when an entity has failed to satisfactorily comply with its commitments on to the Commission to provide particular service in the original area coverage under an earlier authorization? They shall not be granted a subsequent CPCN for another segment of service or extend the area of service coverage.

40.

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46.

TRUE or FALSE. The Commission shall exempt any specific telecommunications service from its rate or tariff regulations if the service has sufficient competition to ensure fair and reasonable rates or tariffs. TRUE. However, the Commission shall retain its residual powers to regulate rates or tariffs when ruinous competitions results or when a monopoly or a cartel or combination in restraint of free competition exists and the rates or tariffs are distorted or unable to function freely and the public is adversely affected.

47.

Who/what is responsible for approving the rates for interconnections between telecommunication carriers? The Commission

48.

What is taken into consideration when interconnecting telecommunication carriers? The costs of the facilities needed to complete the interconnection, the need to provide the cross subsidy to local exchange carriers to enable them to fulfill the primary national objective of increasing telephone density in the country and assure a rate of return on the local exchange network investment that is a parity with those earned by other segments of the telecommunications industry.

49.

TRUE or FALSE. The Commission shall require telecommunications entities to set up a different system of accounts which shall be one of the bases in establishing rates and tariffs. FALSE. The Commission shall require telecommunications entities to set up a uniform system of accounts which shall be one of the bases in establishing rates and tariffs.

50.

TRUE or FALSE. A single entity spans more than one category of telecommunications service, a separate book of accounts shall be maintained for each category or specialized classification. TRUE

51.

TRUE or FALSE. Entitlement of utility service which is non-discriminatory, reliable and conforming with minimum standards set by the Commission. TRUE

52.

Right to be given the first single-line telephone connection or the first party-line connection _____ months of application for service, against deposit; or _____ months after targeted commencement of service in the barangay concerned per the original schedule of service expansion approved by the Commission, whichever deadline comes later. Within 2; within 3;

53.

What shall be made by all telecommunications entities with regulated types of services to democratize ownership of public utilities? Bona Fide Public Offering

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54. How many percent can all telecommunications entities with regulated types of services make a bona fide public offering through the stock exchanges? At least 30%. 55. To where shall it comply with it rules and regulations? Securities and Exchange Commission 56. How long will privatize all telecommunications facilities currently owned and/or operated by the government for public use, plus those facilities currently being planned under various bilateral funding arrangements? Within 3 years 57. How can privatization of telecommunications facilities as well as construction of telephone infrastructure shall be made? Public Bidding 58. YES or NO. Shall any advantage, favour, privilege, exemption, or immunity granted under existing franchises, or may hereafter be granted, become part of previously granted telecommunications franchises? YES 59. YES or NO. Shall the foregoing apply to or affect provisions of telecommunications franchises concerning the territory by, life span of or type of service by the franchise? No 60. What shall be submitted to the Commission to review their access charging/revenue sharing formula in order to comply with the guidelines on the access/revenue sharing formula in Section 18? Permit, Contract or Amendment? Amendment 61. Until when all telecommunications services deregulated hereby and which are operating at the effectivity of this Act, may continue to have their rates and tariffs approved by the Commission? Until the end of the calendar year of the effectivity of this Act. 62. What will happen to the Existing franchises that are not operating or without pending applications for certificates of public convenience at the time of effectivity of this Act? They will be revoked. 63. YES or NO. Can any portion or provisions of this Act that may be declared unconstitutional or invalid shall not have the effect of nullifying other portions or provisions hereof as long as such remaining portions or provisions can still subsist and be given effect in their entirety? YES

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64. YES or NO. Can all laws, ordinances, rules, regulations, and other issuances or parts thereof, which are inconsistent with this Act are repealed or modified? YES 65. How long this Act shall take effect from its publication in at least 2 newspaper newspapers of general circulation? 15 days

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Republic Act No. 8293 An Act Prescribing the Intellectual Property Code and Establishing the Intellectual Property Office, Providing For Its Powers and Functions, and for Other Purposes 1. What do you call the government organization that administers and implements the State policies declared in the Intellectual Property Act? Intellectual Property Office of the Philippines (IPOPHL) 2. What bureau has the function to register utility models, industrial designs and integrated circuits? Bureau of Patents 3. What do you call a technical solution of a problem in any field of human activities which is new, is industrially applicable, and involves an inventive step? Patentable Invention 4. Which of the following are excluded from patent protection? a. Discoveries, scientific theories and mathematical methods b. Program for computers c. Aesthetics creations d. Anything which is contrary to public order or morality e. All of the above 5. TRUE or FALSE. An invention shall be considered new if it forms part of a prior art. FALSE. It shall not be considered. 6. TRUE or FALSE. A prior art shall not consist of everything which has been made available to the public anywhere in the world, before the filing date or the priority date of the application claiming the invention and the whole contents of an application for a patent, utility model, or industrial design registration published in accordance with this Act. FALSE. It shall consist all of the above. 7. The disclosure of information contained in the application during the twelve months preceding the filing date or the priority date of the application shall not prejudice the applicant on the ground of lack of novelty if such disclosure was made by: a. The inventor b. A foreigner c. A third party which obtained the information directly or indirectly from the inventor d. Both A and C e. All of the above

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8. TRUE or FALSE. The right to a patent belongs to the inventor or his heirs. TRUE 9. When two or more people have jointly made an invention, to whom does the right to a patent belong to? Both of them jointly 10. Authorship of the works is attributed to the author, in particular, the right that his name, as far as practicable, be indicated in a prominent way on the copies, and in connection with the public use of his work. This right is referred to as? Moral Rights 11. If two or more persons have made the invention separately and independently of each other, the right to the patent shall belong to the person who filed an application for such invention. In case there are two or more applications filed for the same invention, who will have the right to the patent? a. The inventor who has a more socially relevant invention. b. The inventor who has the earliest filing date. c. The inventor who has more experienced. d. The inventor who is younger. e. None of the above 12. The person who commissions the work shall own the patent, unless otherwise provided in the contract. In case the employee made the invention in the course of his employment contract, the patent shall belong to the employee if and only if: a. The invention is the result of the performance of his regularly-assigned duties, unless there is an agreement express or implied to the contrary b. The inventive activity is not a part of his regular duties even if the employee uses the time, facilities and materials of the employer c. Both A and B d. None of the above 13. On the other hand, the patent shall belong to the employer if and only if: a. The inventive activity is not a part of his regular duties even if the employee uses the time, facilities and materials of the employer b. The invention is the result of the performance of his regularly-assigned duties c. Both A and B d. None of the above

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14. An application for patent filed by any person who has previously applied for the same invention in another country which by treaty, convention, or law affords similar privileges to Filipino citizens, shall be considered as filed as of the date of filing the foreign application, provided that: a. The local application expressly claims priority. b. It is filed within twelve months from the date the earliest foreign application was filed. c. A certified copy of the foreign application together with an English translation is filed within six months from the date of filing in the Philippines. d. All of the above 15. The patent application shall be in _____. (32.1) a. Filipino only b. English only c. Filipino or English d. None of the above 16. The patent application shall contain the following: (32.1) a. A request for the grant of a patent b. A description of the invention with drawing c. An abstract d. All of the above e. None of the above 17. No patent may be granted unless the application identifies the inventor. If the applicant is not the inventor, the Office may require him to submit said _____. (32.2) a. Abstract b. Authority c. Request d. Claim e. None of the above 18. An application for patent may still be granted even if it DOES NOT identify the inventor FALSE 19. The _____ shall consist of a concise summary of the disclosure of the invention as contained in the description, claims and drawings in preferably not more than one hundred fifty words. It shall merely serve for technical information. a. Abstract

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b. Authority c. Request d. Claim e. None of the above 20. To have a unity of invention, the application shall relate to one invention only or to a group of inventions forming a single general inventive concept. Who can require the application to be restricted to a single invention if several independent inventions which do not form a single general inventive concept are claimed in one application? a. Patent owner b. Director c. Lawyer d. President e. None of the above 21. The filing date of a patent shall be based on the receipt date of the Office, of which of the following element/s? a. An express or implicit indication that a Philippine patent is sought b. Information identifying the applicant c. Description of the invention with one or more claims in Filipino or English. d. Both A and B e. All of the above 22. TRUE or FALSE. The Director General, subject to the approval of the Secretary of Budget and Management, may prohibit or restrict the publication of an application, if in his opinion, to do so would be prejudicial to the national security and interests of the Republic of the Philippines. FALSE. Secretary of Trade and Industry. 23. TRUE or FALSE. A patent application, which has not yet been published, and all related documents, shall not be made available for inspection without the consent of the applicant. TRUE 24. TRUE or FALSE. An applicant may amend the patent application during examination, provided that such amendment shall not include new matter outside the scope of the disclosure contained in the application as filed. TRUE 25. TRUE or FALSE. If the application meets the requirements of this Act, the Office shall grant the patent even if all the fees are not paid on time.

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FALSE. The fees should be paid on time 26. TRUE or FALSE. The grant of the patent together with other related information shall be published in the IPO Gazette within the time prescribed by the Regulations. TRUE 27. The patent shall be issued in the name of the Republic of the Philippines under the seal of the Office and shall be signed by the _____, and registered together with the description, claims, and drawings, if any, in books and records of the Office. a. Patent owner b. Director c. Lawyer d. President e. None of the above 28. From the filing date of the application, for how long does the term of a patent last? a. 10 years b. 15 years c. 20 years d. 25 years e. None of the above 29. To maintain the patent application or patent, an annual fee shall be paid upon the expiration of _____. (55.1) a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years e. None of the above 30. TRUE or FALSE. If the annual fee is not paid, the patent application shall be deemed withdrawn. (55.2) TRUE 31. A grace period of _____ shall be granted for the payment of the annual fee, upon payment of the prescribed surcharge for delayed payment. (55.3) a. 1 week b. 3 month c. 6 months d. 1 year

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e. None of the above 32. The _____ shall have the power to correct, without fee, any mistake in a patent incurred through the fault of the Office. a. Patent owner b. Director c. Lawyer d. President e. None of the above 33. TRUE or FALSE. The owner of a patent do not have the right to request the Bureau to make the changes in the patent in order to limit the extent of the protection conferred by it and to correct obvious mistakes or to correct clerical errors. FALSE. The owner shall have the right. 34. TRUE or FALSE. An amendment or correction of a patent shall be accomplished by a certificate of such amendment or correction which is authenticated by the seal of the Office and signed by the patent owner. FALSE. It should be signed by the Director. 35. Among the following choices, which is NOT within the grounds that one may petition to cancel a patent? a. The invention is not new or cannot be considered patentable. b. The patent does not disclose sufficient information for it to be carried out by any person skilled in the art. c. The patent is contrary to public order or morality. d. The patent is not helpful to society. 36. Which of the following is NOT a requirement when filing for a petition for Cancellation of Patents? a. Verification by the petitioner or any person who knows the facts b. Specification of the grounds for which the petition was made c. A statement of facts for reference d. A petition list signed by at least five experts. 37. In patent cancellation cases involving highly technical issues, how many persons with experience on expertise of the technology can the Director of Legal Affairs appoint (along with himself) as part of the committee that will be hearing and deciding on the case? 2 members (plus the Director). The decision shall be appealable to the Director General.

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38. Upon that a case for cancellation is proven correct; the Committee may order the patent to be cancelled. There are cases wherein the patent is not totally cancelled. Which of the choices are grounds for retaining the patent? a. The patentee makes an amendment during the cancellation proceedings, which meet the requirements of RA 8293. b. The patentee agrees to pay the person filing the complaint. c. The patentee defends his invention to the committee. d. None of the above 39. TRUE or FALSE. The court can change the owner of the patent or cancel the patent if it is found out that the patentee was not the TRUE and actual inventor? TRUE 40. If the patent subject matter is a product, what right is conferred to the owner? (71.1a) The right to restrain prohibit and prevent any unauthorized person or entity from making, using, offering for sale, selling or importing that product. 41. If the patent subject matter is a process, what right is conferred to the owner? (71.1b) The right to restrain prevent or prohibit any unauthorized entity from using the process and from manufacturing, dealing in, using, selling or offering for sale, or importing any product obtained directly or indirectly from such process. 42. Which of the following is an exception to the patent rights of a patent owner? a. The patent is infringed for private and non-commercial use provided that it does not significantly prejudice the economic interests of the owner of the patent. b. The patent is infringed for the purpose of experimentation in the same field. c. The invention is used in a vessel of another country entering Philippine Territory temporarily or accidentally provided that the invention only serves the vessel. d. All of the above 43. TRUE or FALSE. A person, who is not the owner of a patent, using the patented invention may continue to use it provided he was using the invention before the filing date and priority date of the application on which a patent is granted. TRUE 44. The government may exploit the invention even without authorization from the patent owner given which of the following circumstances? a. It is required for public interest, in particular, national security, nutrition, health or the development of other sectors.

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b. A judicial or administrative body has determined that the manner of exploitation by the owner of the patent or his licensee is anti-competitive. c. Both A and B d. None of the above 45. If you invented a cure for Dengue in the Philippines and patented it under your authorization, is the NGO Health Action Information Network allowed to exploit it without your consent? No, only Government agencies can. 46. The making, using, offering for sale, selling, or importing a patented product or a product obtained directly or indirectly from a patented process, or the use of a patented process without the authorization of the patentee constitutes as _____? Patent Infringement 47. TRUE or FALSE. In every sale or lease of work, the author or his heirs shall have an inalienable right to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale or lease to the extent of 50%. FALSE 48. TRUE or FALSE: In the case of compulsory licensing of patents involving semiconductor technology, licenses can only be granted in cases of commercial use. FALSE, non-commercial use only 49. TRUE or FALSE. Patents or applications for patents and their inventions can be assigned or transmitted by inheritance or bequest or may be subject of a license contract? TRUE 50. Which is NOT allowed for an assignment of a Patent? a. The assignment may be limited to a specific territory. b. The assignment may be the entire right, title or interest in and to the patent and the invention. c. The assignment may be done through a verbal agreement only. d. The assignment may be an undivided share of the entire patent and invention. 51. Two or more persons may jointly own a patent and invention through issuance of the patent in their joint favor or by assignment of an undivided share. Which of the owners is/are entitled to personally make, use, sell or import the invention for his/their own profit? a. The original owner of the patent only. b. The newest owner of the patent only. c. All of the owners.

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d. None of the owners. 52. Any composition of lines or colors or any three-dimensional form that gives a special appearance to and can serve as pattern for an industrial product is called a _____? Industrial Design 53. TRUE or FALSE? An industrial design that is not new or not original may benefit from the protection provided by RA 8293? FALSE. An industrial design must be new or original. 54. How long is the registration of an industrial design? 5 years from the date of filing of the application 55. TRUE or FALSE. A well known trademark is financially significant for a business TRUE 56. What can be considered as a Mark? Any visible sign capable of distinguishing the goods or services of an enterprise and shall include a stamped or marked container of goods. 57. A visible sign used to identify the goods or services of an enterprise. It can be a word, phrase, logo or design that distinguishes the products or services of one business from another. Trademark 58. The following are conditions that will not allow a mark to be registered EXCEPT a. The mark consists of immoral, deceptive or scandalous matter. b. The Consists of the flag or coat of arms or other insignia of the Philippines or any political subdivisions. c. The mark consists of color alone defined by a given form. d. The mark is identical with a registered mark belonging to a different proprietor with an earlier filing date. 59. Where is the application for a trademark filed? Bureau of trademarks and intellectual property office 60. The filing date of an application shall be the date on which the Office received the following indications and elements in English or Filipino EXCEPT a. An express or implicit indication that the registration of a mark is sought b. The identity of the applicant c. Indications sufficient to contact the applicant or his representative, if any d. A reproduction of the mark whose registration is sought; and e. A sample of the product for which the registration is sought.

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f. 61. The list of the goods or services for which the registration is sought.

TRUE or FALSE. A person is allowed to file an opposition to the application of a mark. TRUE given that he files the opposition within thirty days after the publication of the application of the opposed mark.

62.

Can corrections be made for mistakes made in registration through the fault of the Intellectual Property Office? a. YES, the office will provide a certificate stating the fact and nature of the mistake without charge, to be attached to each printed copy of the registration. b. YES, the office will provide a certificate stating the fact and nature of the mistake upon payment of the prescribed fee. c. No, the applicant will have to apply for another registration for the same mark. d. No, the office will withdraw the registration of the mark due to the mistakes incurred.

63.

Can corrections be made for mistakes made in registration through the fault of the Applicant? a. YES, the office will provide a certificate stating the fact and nature of the mistake without charge, to be attached to each printed copy of the registration. b. YES, the office will provide a certificate stating the fact and nature of the mistake upon payment of the prescribed fee. c. No, the applicant will have to apply for another registration for the same mark d. No, the office will withdraw the registration of the mark due to the mistakes incurred.

64.

How long shall a certificate of registration remain in force? Ten years provided that the registrant shall file a declaration of actual use.

65.

TRUE or FALSE. A certificate of registration may be renewed for periods of 10 years at its expiration. TRUE upon payment of the prescribed fee and filing of a request.

66.

What rights are conferred to the owner upon registering a mark? The owner has the right to prevent all third parties from using the identical or similar signs or containers for goods or services which are identical or similar to those which the trademark is registered.

67.

Within how many years can a petition to cancel a registration of a mark be considered? (151.1a) Within 5 years from the date of registration of the mark.

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68. After how many years will a mark be cancelled if the owner fails to use the mark within the Philippines without legitimate reason? (151.1c) Uninterrupted period of three years or longer 69. TRUE or FALSE. Lack of funds is one reason to be excused for not using the trademark. FALSE 70. TRUE or FALSE. Infringement only occurs when there is an actual sale done using the infringing material. FALSE 71. In cases where actual intent is to mislead the public, the damages may be _____. Doubled 72. Which of the following is the owner of a trademark can legally do? A. Kill the person who infringed your trademark B. Claim payment for damages C. Seize all of his properties D. Both B and C 73. TRUE or FALSE. The owner of the registered mark is entitled to recover profits if it causes confusion to the consumer. TRUE 74. TRUE or FALSE. The remedies of the owner of the right infringed as against the publisher or distributor of such newspaper, magazine or other similar periodical or electronic communication shall be limited to an injunction against the newspaper, magazine or other similar periodical or electronic communication in general FALSE - limited to presentation of such advertising matter 75. Who may determine the right to registration, order the cancellation, and rectify the register with respect to the registration? The Court 76. What would be the action by any person who shall procure registration in the Office of a mark by a FALSE or fraudulent declaration or representation, whether, oral or in writing, or by any FALSE means? Civil action 77. Which of the following is TRUE about Trade Names or Business Names? a. A name or designation can be used as a trade name if its nature is contrary to public orders or morals. b. Any change in the ownership of a trade name shall not be made with the transfer of the enterprise identified by that name

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c. Any subsequent use of the trade name by a third party, whether as a trade name or a mark, likely to mislead the public shall be deemed unlawful. d. All of the above 78. TRUE or FALSE. It is allowed for imported merchandise to copy or simulate any domestic product or manufacturer, or dealer. FALSE 79. TRUE or FALSE. The Court can no longer cancel the registration of a collective mark if it was used for deceiving trade circles. FALSE 80. Which of these defines unfair competition? a. Any person who is selling his goods and gives them the general appearance of goods of another manufacturer or dealer b. Any person who employs any other means calculated to induce the FALSE belief that such person is offering the services of another who has identified such services in the mind of the public c. Any person who shall make any FALSE statement in the course of trade or who shall commit any other act contrary to good faith of a nature calculated to discredit the goods, business or services of another. d. All of the above 81. Misleading representation refers to? a. Causing confusion or to cause mistake by a person to another person b. Represents the nature, characteristics, qualities or geographic origin of one's goods or services. 82. What are the penalties for breaking the Law on Trademark? 2-5 years imprisonment and 50,000 - 200,000 pesos 83. A bundle of rights relative to the attribution of ownership, acknowledgement and remuneration to a creative literary or artistic work is referred to as? a. Trademark b. Copyright c. Patent d. None of the Above 84. Where should the works be registered for copyright? a. Sandiganbayan b. National Library c. Congress Library

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d. Supreme Court Library e. All of the above 85. Who authorizes copyright assignment? a. Supreme Court b. Senate c. Congress d. Author/Owner 86. Enumerate some examples of Literary and Artistic Works. Books, pamphlets, articles and other writings Periodicals and Newspaper Lectures, sermons, addresses, dissertations prepared for oral delivery, whether or not reduced in writing or other material form Letters Dramatic or dramatico-musical entertainment in dumb shows compositions choreographic works or

Musical compositions, with or without words Works of drawing, painting, architecture, sculpture, engraving, lithography or other works of art, models or designs for works of art Original ornamental designs or models for articles of manufacture whether or not registrable as an industrial design and other works of applied art Illustrations, maps, plans, sketches, charts and three-dimensional works relative to geography, topography, architecture or science Drawings or plastic works of a scientific or technical character Photographic works including works produced by a process analogous to photography and lantern slides Audiovisual works and cinematographic works and works produced by a process analogous to cinematography or any process form making audiovisual recordings Pictorial illustrations and advertisements Computer programs Other literary, scholarly, scientific and artistic works PRO3 will

87.

TRUE or FALSE: The final thesis paper that you will submit for be automatically copyright-protected upon submission (and approval). TRUE

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88. TRUE or FALSE. A collection of works is considered to be protected as new works. TRUE 89. Who would have the right to reproduce a work with the typographical arrangement of the published edition of the work? a. Author b. Publisher 90. What are not protected by the Law of Copyright? 91. Ideas Procedure System Method of operation Concept Principle Discovery of mere date

TRUE or FALSE. For any work of the Government of the Philippines, copyright shall subsist. FALSE

92.

No copyright shall subsist in any work of the Government of the Philippines. However, for exploitation of such work for profit, what is needed? Prior approval of the government agency or office wherein the work is created

93.

Copyright of a work belongs to? (178.1) Author

94.

The author of a book is Alyas Bong. Does the IP code recognize him as the author even if he used his pseudonym? YES, provided that the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of the author

95.

In a Joint Authorship who would have the copyright? (178.2) Both authors, but if author of different parts of the work can be identified then that part will be copyrighted to him/her.

96.

If an employee created a work that is not part of his/her regular duties, the copyright belongs to? (178.3) The employee but if he did it because it was assigned to him/her then it belongs to the employer.

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97. In the case of anonymous and pseudonymous works, to whom does the copyright belong? The publishers shall be deemed to represent the authors of articles and other writings published without the names or under pseudonyms. 98. Does a transfer of copyright mean a transfer of the material object? No 99. TRUE of FALSE. The transfer or assignment of the copyright shall not itself constitute a transfer of the material object. Nor shall a transfer or assignment of the sole copy or of one or several copies of the work imply transfer or assignment of the copyright. TRUE 100. Which of these constitutes to infringement? a. Reproduction or communication to the public by mass media of articles on current political, social, economic, scientific or religious topic b. The making of ephemeral recordings by a broadcasting organization by means of its own facilities and for use in its own broadcast c. Both A and B d. None of the Above 101. The inclusion of a work in a publication, broadcast, or other communication to the public, sound recording or film, if such inclusion is made by way of illustration for teaching purposes and is compatible with fair use is NOT considered infringement of copyright provided that which information are mentioned? The source and name of author (if appearing in the work) 102. TRUE or FALSE. One copy of a copyrighted work is enough for classroom use. FALSE 103. According to section 187.1 private reproduction of a published work in a single copy, where the reproduction is made by a natural person exclusively for research and private study, shall be permitted, without the authorization of the owner of copyright in the work. However in section 187.2 the permission granted in 187.1 shall not extend to the reproduction of the following EXCEPT: a. A work of architecture in the form of building or other construction; b. An entire book, or a substantial part thereof, or of a musical work in graphic form by reprographic means; c. A compilation of data and other materials; b. A computer program except as provided in Section 189ve c. Any work in cases where reproduction would unreasonably conflict with a normal exploitation of the work or would otherwise unreasonably prejudice the legitimate interests of the author.

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d. None of the above 104. A library or archive that does not intend to profit from a created work can have at least how many copies of the work and in what manner? 1 by reprographic reproduction 105. If a legally owned computer program is destroyed, lost, or rendered unusable, how many copies or adaptation of the program is the person allowed to reproduce without the authorization of the author by the lawful owner of that computer program? Just one 106. The reproduction in one (1) back-up copy or adaptation of a computer program shall be permitted, without the authorization of the author of, or other owner of copyright in, a computer program, by the lawful owner of that computer program provided that the copy or adaptation is necessary for the following a. archival purposes b. replacement of a legal copy of program was lost, damaged, unusable c. all of the above 107. How many copies can someone bring to the country from other countries when the work said is not available in the Philippines? Not more than 1, under the authority of and for the use of the Philippine Government, and not more than 3 copies for religious, charitable or educational society. 108. In a published work, what must be seen in the copies? Copyright Owner, Year of its first publication, and if necessary year of death of the author 109. Authors of a work (i.e. Thesis, Dissertations, and Research Works) have the right to? a. Authorship of the Works be attributed to him/her b. Publish a new work in such alterations are going to be made c. Object any modification to his work that would be prejudicial to his honor or reputation d. Restrain the use of his name with respect to any work not of his own creation e. All of the above f. 110. None of the above

Is it allowed that one author in a collective work to have his particular contribution be expressed? YES

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111. Which of these is not a right of broadcasting organization? a. The rebroadcasting of their broadcasts b. Recording, in any manner, including making of films of video tape, for the purpose of communication to the public of television broadcasts c. Use of such record for fresh transmission or for fresh recording. d. All of the above e. None of the above 112. How many years do a copyright last? Life of the author + 50 years from the first day of January. 113. Joint Copyright Life of the authors and 50 years after the death of the last author to die. Anonymous works are protected for 50 years from the day it was published.

How long is the term of protection for rights on broadcasts? 20 years from the date the broadcast took place

114.

Which court has jurisdiction to receive complaints pertaining to copyright complaints? a. Regional trial court b. Court of Appeals c. Municipal trial court d. Sandiganbayan e. Supreme Court

115.

Under the IP Code, copyright infringement is _____ a. a Liability b. a Crime c. a Punishment d. at Par with Reclusion Perpetua

116.

The IP code provides penalties. Which among does not belong? a. Fines b. Imprisonment c. Preventive measures to control infringement while case is heard d. All of the above e. None of the above

117.

What is taken into account in determining the number of years of imprisonment and the relative amount to be paid? a. value of infringed material

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b. the damage incurred c. the monthly income of the author d. A and B e. A and C 118. TRUE or FALSE. The infringer shall pay all legal costs only. FALSE. The infringer must also pay all his/her profits that he may have made due to such infringement if there is sufficient proof of such profits. 119. According to Section 217, what would you be the punishment for infringing Part IV of the IPCP? 120. 1st offense - 1 - 3 years imprisonment 50,000 - 150,000 pesos 2nd offense - 3 years and 1 day to six years with 150,000 - 500,000 pesos 3rd offense - 6 years and 1 day to 9 years with 500,000 to 1.5M pesos But in such cases, penalties can still be considered by the court depending on the infringing materials.

TRUE or FALSE. The natural person whose name is indicated on a work in the usual manner as the author shall, in the absence of proof to the contrary, be presumed to be the author of the work. This provision shall be applicable even if the name is a pseudonym, where the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of the author. TRUE

121.

TRUE or FALSE. The provisions of the Intellectual Property Act regarding the protection of broadcasts apply only to broadcasts of broadcasting organizations whose headquarters are situated in the Philippines and broadcasts transmitted from the transmitters situated in the Philippines. TRUE

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Republic Act No. 8439 An Act Providing a Magna Carta for Scientists, Engineers, Researchers and Other Science and Technology Personnel in Government Section 1 1. Republic Act No. 8439 is also known as what? Magna Carta for Scientists, Engineers, Researchers and other S&T Personnel in Government 2. What is a Magna Carta? A document constituting fundamental guarantee of rights and privileges 3. When was RA 8439 approved? a. December 22, 1997 b. December 10, 1992 c. December 21, 1995 d. December 15, 1999

Section 2 4. What program was declared as a policy of the State in order to achieve and maintain the necessary reservoir of talent and manpower that will sustain its drive for total science and technology mastery? a. A program of human resources development in Engineering b. A program of human resources development in Science and Technology c. A program of human resources development in Medicine d. All of the above 5. What does the State recognize as an essential element for the attainment of national development and progress? a. Society b. Political science c. Science and Technology d. Economy 6. The state declared a program for Science and Technology, referred to as a program of Human Resources Development. What is its purpose? a. To maintain a necessary reservoir of talent and manpower so as to increase number of overseas Filipino workers, thus improving the economy.

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b. To sustain the drive for total science and technology mastery by achieving and maintaining a necessary reservoir of talent in manpower . c. A and B d. None of the Above 7. Which of the programs below are not covered by the RA. 8439? a. Science and engineering scholarship programs b. Improvement of the quality of science and engineering education c. Popularization of science culture d. Provision of incentives for pursuing careers in science and technology e. None of the above

Section 3 8. Under what department does EO 128 fall under? a. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) b. Department of Education (DepEd) c. Department of Science and Technology (DOST) d. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) 9. What refers to activities concerned with the generation, advancement, dissemination, and application of scientific and technical knowledge in all fields of natural science and technology? a. Scientific Activities b. Technological Activities c. All of the above d. None of the above 10. What are the broad groups of Science and Technology Activities? a. Research and Experimental Development (R & D) b. Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c. Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) d. All of the above 11. This refers to all systematic activities which are closely concerned with the generation, advancement, dissemination, and application of scientific and technical knowledge in all fields of natural science and technology. What is it? Scientific and Technological Activities (STA)

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12. The Scientific and Technological Activities (STA) is classified into three broad groups, which group refers to the systematic and creative work undertaken in the physical, natural, mathematical and applied sciences by using methods in order to increase the stock of knowledge, and the use of this knowledge in these fields to devise new applications? a. Research and Experimental Development (R&D) b. Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c. Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) 13. What STA group refers to the support of scientific research and development, dissemination and applications of scientific and technical knowledge? a. Research and Experimental Development (R&D) b. Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c. Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) 14. What STA group refers to all activities comprising higher education and training leading to a university degree, post-graduate and further training, organized lifelong training for scientists and engineers, and specialized non-university higher education? a. Research and Experimental Development (R&D) b. Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c. Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET)

Section 4 15. The DOST in coordination with the Civil Service Commission has a career system for science and technology personnel in the service of the government. What do you call this career system? a. Scientific Career System b. Science and Technology Career System (S&T Career System is patterned after Scientific Career System) c. Technical Career System d. Social Career System 16. Who formulates the career system for science and technology personnel in service of the government? a. DOST b. Civil Service Commission c. Both A and B d. None of the above

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17. Based from the Scientific Career System, what does the Science and Technology Career System does to help S and T personnels? a. Promote career progression/advancement based on qualification, merit and scientific productivity b. Develop career paths that allow scientists to develop within their respective areas of expertise without leaving their status as scientists c. Give incentives and rewards to insure attraction and retention of highly qualified manpower in the science and technology sector d. All of the above 18. What is the minimal number of years of managerial experience to be classified as S&T managers, supervisors, and planners? a. 4 b. 10 c. 8 d. 5 e. None of the above

Section 5 19. Who determines the appropriate trainings and provides support services to S&T personnel? a. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) b. Secretary of Department of Education (DepEd) c. Secretary of Department of Science and Technology (DOST) d. Secretary of Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) 20. I. II. III. IV. The following list are the classifications of Science and Technology Personnel except S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners Members of the Scientific Career System Scientists, Engineers and Researchers DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel a. I and IV b. II and III c. None of the above d. All of the above

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21. What classification of S&T personnel do graduate degree holders, have at least 10 years of managerial experience, or are performing executive, planning, and policy making functions to effectively carry out STA related activities fall under? a. S&T managers, supervisors, and planners b. Members of the scientific career system c. Scientists, engineers and researchers d. DOST technicians and related S&T personnel 22. What classification of S&T personnel do at least undergraduate degree holders in any of the natural science and engineering courses and are involved in research and development or other scientific and technological activities fall under? a. S&T managers, supervisors, and planners b. Members of the scientific career system c. Scientists, engineers and researchers d. DOST technicians and related S&T personnel 23. What classification do those who obtained at least 12 units in science, engineering and other related courses or any appropriate training as determined by the Secretary of the department and are providing support services to S&T personnel fall under? a. S&T managers, supervisors, and planners b. Members of the scientific career system c. Scientists, engineers and researchers d. DOST technicians and related S&T personnel

Section 6 24. Is there an existing law on salary scales of government employees? YES, there is. However, this is not applicable in determining the salary of the S&T personnel, defined in Section 5. The salary scales of government employees are stated in the Joint Resolution No.4 by the philippine congress (This was a consolidation of both House Joint Resolution No. 36 and Senate Joint Resolution No. 26 on June 1, 2009 and June 2, 2009, respectively) and was approved by former President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo on June 17, 2009. 25. Who is in charge with the development of the salary scale of science and technology personnel, to be approved by the president? a. Department in Consultation b. Department of budget and management c. Civil Service Commission

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d. None of the above e. All of the above

Section 7 26. Enumeration. What are the benefits that S&T personnel could receive, regardless of RA 6758 section 12? Honorarium - Received if scientists, technologists, researchers and technicians whose "broad and superior knowledge, expertise or professional standing in a specific field" has a contribution to productivity and innovativeness beyond his/her established irregular workload. - A voluntary payment / ex gratia payment. Share in Royalties - Scientists, engineers, researchers and other S&T personnel are entitled to receive a share in royalties prior to guidelines of the department. it shall be 60%-40% basis in favor of the gov't and the personnel. (patents, copyrights, and other intellectual properties) - For researcher who works with a private company, royalties shall be divided according to equity share in the project. (mutually agreed by parties concerned) Hazard allowance - Ranges from 10% to 30% of their monthly basic salary depending on the nature and extent of the hazard involved. Subsistence allowance - 3 meals a day (according to the criteria provided in the implementation of rules and regulations. per diem (allowance per day) shall be provided to the personnel if assigned out of their regular work stations. Laundry allowance - For those who are required to wear a prescribed uniform during office hours (not less than P 150.00 a month) Housing and Quarter Allowance - Personnel assigned on lab, R&D centres & other gov't facilities shall be entitled to free living quarters within the government facility PROVIDED that the personnel has their residence outside of the 50km radius of the facility. Longevity Pay - Five percent of the monthly basic salary for every 5 years of continuous and meritorious service (as determined by the Dept. sec) Medical exam - Compulsory free med exam once a year and immunization as the case may warrant. Complete physical exam Routine lab, chest X-ray and ECG Psychometric exam (which includes the measurement of knowledge, abilities, attitudes, personality traits, and educational measurement)

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Dental exam Other indicated exam When is an S&T personnel entitled with Honorarium? a. When an S&T personnel rendered services beyond the regular workload b. When an S&T personnel contributes to productivity and innovativeness in their own specific field c. Both A and B d. None of the above 28. S&T personnels benefit from share in royalties, excluding those who work in private companies. By how many percent is their share in the proceeds of royalty payments arising from patents, copyrights and other intellectual property rights? a. 70 to 30 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. b. 50 to 50 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. c. 90 to 10 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. d. 60 to 40 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. 29. TRUE or FALSE. S&T personnel involved in hazardous work shall be paid a hazardous allowance ranging from 20 - 40 percent of their monthly salary. FALSE, 10 percent to 30 percent only. 30. I. II. III. IV. V. Which of the following list are considered as hazardous workplace Radiation-exposed laboratories and service workshops Remote/depressed areas Areas declared under a state of calamity or emergency Strife-torn or embattled areas Laboratories and other disease-infested areas a. I and V b. II, III and IV c. III only d. All of the Above 31. TRUE or FALSE. S&T personnel are entitled to an allowance equivalent to two meals per day due to the subsistence allowance. FALSE, three meals per day 32. TRUE or FALSE. All S&T personnel are given laundry allowance of not less than P150 a month for their clothes. FALSE, only S&T personnel required to wear a prescribed uniform during work are subjected to the laundry allowance.

27.

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33. TRUE or FALSE. S&T personnel with residence outside of the fifty (50) kilometer radius from the government facility in which they are stationed are entitled to free living quarters within the facility. TRUE 34. TRUE or FALSE. A monthly longevity pay equivalent to ten percent (10%) of the monthly basic salary shall be paid to S&T personnel for every two (2) years of continuous and meritorious service. FALSE, only 5% of the monthly salary shall be paid and it is given every 5 continuous service years only. 35. I. II. III. IV. V. All S&T personnel shall be given a compulsory free medical examination every year, and these includes: Complete physical examination Routine laboratory, Chest X-ray and ECG Psychometric examination Dental examination Other indicated examination a. I, IV, and V b. I, II, and III c. None of the above d. All of the above 36. Enumeration. What are the workplaces considered to be hazardous? Radiation-exposed labs and services workshops Remote/depressed areas Areas declared under state of calamity or emergency Strife-torn or embattled areas Lab and other disease-infested areas

Section 8 37. YES or NO. Can non-DOST S&T personnel not employed by the department avail the benefits under the act? YES, provided that the department secretary approves and certifies it.

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Section 9 38. YES or NO. Are there scholarships and grants for S&T personnel in public and private sectors pursuing undergrad, grad, post-grad or training courses? YES. This is implemented by the department and grantees may study within the Philippines or abroad with strict measures to ensure their return in the country to render the service obligation. The service obligation in the government, after graduation, for the equivalent number of years that they availed of their scholarship is required Privileges include tuition fee, book allowance, transportation allowance, monthly stipend, dissertation grants, insurance, payment of regular salary, and other benefits. 39. S&T personnel are entitled to avail of scholarship grants for pursuing science and engineering education. Grantees are then required to render service up to how many years? Depends on how long they received the scholarship grants. (i.e. 4 years of study is equivalent to 4 years of service) 2 years of service They are free to work in private sectors if there are no vacant positions None, they are free to work in private sectors they want a. I and III b. II and III c. II only d. IV only 40. I. II. III. IV. V. VI. Scholarship grants include but not limited to: Tuition fee Book allowance Transportation allowance Monthly stipend Dissertation grants Insurance and the payment of regular salary a. I, II, and IV b. I, III, IV and V c. I, II, III and VI d. All of the above 41. Who implements the scholarship program and formulates the rules? a. Department of Budget and management b. Human resource and development council (Under RA 8248)

I. II. III. IV.

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c. Civil Service Commission d. All of the above

Section 10 42. TRUE or FALSE. S&T employees, engineers, scientists, etc. are allowed to give consultation to the private sectors and get payment for their services. TRUE, provided that the said consultancy/service does not jeopardize the researchers current work in his originating office. 43. YES or NO. Are S&T personnel untitled to receive honorarium for other services such as consultancy services? Are they allowed to render other services? NO. S&T are ENTITLED, not UNTITLED. S&T personnel shall be allowed to render consultancy services to private sector and are entitled to receive honorarium from the private entity concerned, which shall be above their salary from the govt., PROVIDED, consultancy work will not jeopardize or adversely affect his originating office and that the department secretary approves such consultancy.

Section 11 44. If an Engineer/Scientist is originally working for the government, how long can the Engineer/Scientist be allowed to secondment to any private entity? a. Not exceeding 3 months year providing it will not hamper to activities of his originating office b. Not exceeding 6 months providing it will not hamper to activities of his originating office c. Not exceeding 3 year providing it will not hamper to activities of his originating office d. None of the above. Not exceeding 1 year providing it will not hamper to activities of his originating office 45. Which will provide payment to the employee during the period of secondment? a. Government b. Seconding private entity covered by contract c. Both A&B d. Its free free free 46. TRUE or FALSE. According to RA 8439, secondment is allowed for S&T personnel working in the government. TRUE, provided that the duration of stay on another company shall not exceed 1 year and with the consent of the head of the agency. It is also given that they must not hamper the operations or activities of his originating office.

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Section 12 47. TRUE or FALSE - The appointment of the S&T personnel for positions of research assistant and upwards will be covered by the Attrition Law and CSC rule on nepotism. FALSE. This is to consider the high technical nature of these positions

Section 13 48. Can a S&T personnel already receiving benefits avail of benefits under this law? a. No b. YES, only if they submit in writing their intention to withdraw the benefits already being received and opt for those provided. 49. If an S&T personnel is already receiving benefits from another law, what must he/she submit in order to receive benefits from this Act? a. Letter of application b. Letter of intent to withdraw other benefits c. Both a) and b) d. None of the above

Section 14 50. How much is granted to the S&T personnel upon retirement? One salary grade higher than his/her basic salary 51. What is the basis of computation of retirement benefits? Highest salary received

Section 15 52. TRUE or FALSE. This law may not be used to eliminate the benefits received by S&T personnel. TRUE 53. TRUE or FALSE. RA 8439 states that the benefits an S&T personnel have can be eliminated or diminished anytime when deemed necessary. FALSE, all benefits cannot be eliminated or diminished at the time of the effectivity of this Act. (Secondment - to work for another private company) (Nepotism Favouritism or patronage granted to relatives, as in business)(Attrition - The

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reduction of personnel as a result of resignation, retirement, dismissal in accordance with existing laws, death or transfer to another office)

Section 16 54. Can retired S&T personnel be rehired again? YES, provided that the personnel must be mentally, emotionally and physically fit as supported by a medical certificate. 55. If retired S&T personnel will be rehired again, will it be under a contractual or regular basis? Contractual basis

Section 17 56. Enumeration. What scholarship privileges are included in the rule? Tuition fee 57. Book allowance Transportation Allowance Monthly stipend Dissertation grants Insurance Payment of regular salary

Can the grantees study abroad? YES, provided that department will ensure their return to the country to render service obligation

58.

After being granted the scholarship, will the recipients be required to render service to the government? YES, the services the recipients will be rendering will be the equivalent to the number of years that they availed for a scholarship. If there are no available positions in the government, they will be allowed to work in a private sector.

59.

59. At least how many year(s) of CSC eligibilities will be given to the Graduates of the government S&T scholarships? a. 3 years b. 2 years c. 1 year d. 10 years

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Section 18 60. TRUE or FALSE. The Department of Science and Technology (DOST) must make an annual awarding ceremony for the outstanding achievements and excellence or original contribution to science and technology. FALSE, the Science and Technology Awards Committee shall be the one conducting it. 61. When should the committee be established and confer the awards for the outstanding achievements? a. Every 3 months b. Every 6 months c. Annually d. After 10 years

Section 19 62. The commission will be composed of how many members? a. Three members of the House of Representatives and three members of the senate b. Four members of the House of Representatives and four members of the senate c. Four members of the House of Representatives and five members of the senate d. Five members of the House of Representatives and five members of the senate 63. When should the congressional review be held? a. Once every five years b. Once every three years c. Annually d. Once every 6 months

Section 20 64. What does GAA stand for? a. General Assembly Act b. General Association Assembly c. General Appropriations Assembly d. General Appropriations Act

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65. TRUE or FALSE. The funding of this Act start will start when it is provided in the General Appropriations Act (GAA) of the year following its enactment into law under the budgetary appropriations of the DOST and concerned agencies. TRUE

Section 21 25 66. To which government commission shall the implementation be submitted to? a. National Telecommunications Commission annual report of the Act

b. Congressional Commission on Science and Technology (S&T COM) c. Commission on Elections d. None of the above 67. Who will and to who will submit an annual report regarding the status of the implementation of this act? a. The secretary of the department will submit to the congressional commission on science and technology b. The secretary of the department will submit to the Department of Education c. The secretary of the department will submit to the congressional commission on National Telecommunications d. The secretary of the department will submit to the congressional commission higher education. 68. Who can formulate the rules and regulations of this act? a. Department of Science and Technology b. The government c. Non-government agencies involved in STA d. All of the above e. None of the above 69. What if there are other laws that are inconsistent with this act? The specific provision can be amended or repealed. 70. YES or NO. If the act is inconsistent with another law would the whole act be repealed? No, only a specific article, section or provisions that are inconsistent shall be repealed. 71. TRUE or FALSE. If a provision from this Act is rendered unconstitutional, this Act will then be invalid and ineffective.

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FALSE, only the provision deemed unconstitutional shall be invalid, while the remaining provisions stays effective. 72. How will this act take effect? a. After the Office of the President approves it b. After the Act is approved by the congress c. After it is published in 2 newspapers of general circulation. d. None of the above

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Republic Act No. 9292 An Act Providing for a More Responsive and Comprehensive Regulation for the Registration, Licensing and Practice of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, Repealing Republic Act No. 5734, Otherwise Known as The "Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of The Philippines", and for Other Purposes 1. RA-9292 is also known as? RA-9292 Is also known as the ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING LAW OF 2004 Based on Article 1 Section 1 of RA 9292. 2. The Statement of Policy in Article 1 Section 2 states that? The State recognizes the importance of electronics engineering in nation-building and development. The State shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive and well-rounded Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians whose standards of practice and service shall be excellent, qualitative, world-class and globally competitive through inviolable, honest, effective and credible licensure examinations and through regulatory measures, programs and activities that foster their integrity, continuing professional education, development and growth. 3. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge: Electronics 4. A person who is duly registered and licensed under this Act and is to affix to his/her name the letters ECE. Electronics Engineer 5. A person who is duly registered and licensed under this Act and is to affix to his/her name the letters ECT. Electronics Technician 6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer and affix to his/her name the letters "PECE is called: Professional Electronics Engineer 7. A person who is duly registered and licensed under Republic Act No. 5734. Electronics and Communications Engineer 8. TRUE or FALSE: Aside from any activity relating to the application of engineering sciences, the nature and scope of practice of Electronics Engineers shall have the sole authority to provide consultation services TRUE

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9. Any variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or instructions, executing the programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results is called: Computer 10. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric is called: Information and Communications Technology 11. It is the process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium. Communications 12. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals by wire, radio or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means is: Telecommunications 13. Transmission of audio, video, text, messages or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means. Broadcast, Broadcasting 14. _____ is a/an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means. Commercial Establishment 15. _____ includes all manufacturing establishments and other business endeavours where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated Industrial Plant 16. Any building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronicallycontrolled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated is called: Commercial Establishment 17. What are the categories of engineering and technician that are covered in RA9292? Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE) Electronics Engineer (ECE) Electronics Technician (ECT)

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18. No person in the Philippines shall use the title, use any word, letter figure, or sign whatsoever, tending to convey the impression that he/she is a "Professional Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", without: 19. Valid Certificate of Registration Valid Professional Identification Card

What is the nature of practice of an Electronics technician? Consist of non-engineering work relating to installation, construction, operation, maintenance of electronic devices and apparatus including the teaching and training of technical and professional subjects given in the electronics technician curriculum and licensure examinations.

20.

What is the difference of the nature of practice of an Electronics Engineer and a Professional Electronics Engineer? Compared to an Electronics Engineer a Professional Electronics Engineer has the sole authority to provide consulting services as defined in this Act and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents prepared by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision.

21.

The seal of design of a Professional Electronics Engineer should have the following details: Registrant`s name Registration number Title (PECE,ECE)

22.

A type of organization that is in charge of promulgating the code of ethics and the code of technical standards or practice. Accredited Professional Organization

23.

Who shall promulgate the code of ethics for Electronics engineer and technician? Accredited Professional Organization (Article IV Section 30) The Board shall adopt a Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, which shall be promulgated by the Accredited Professional Organization.

24.

The Accredited Professional Organization can accredit other organizations or entities to provide continuing professional education TRUE

25.

TRUE or FALSE. No person shall offer himself/herself in the Philippines as, or use the title "Professional Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", as defined in RA-9292 without holding a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card? TRUE

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26. Only Professional Electronics Engineers are allowed to occupy existing and proposed positions in the local and national government which warrant the knowledge and understanding of an electronics engineer. FALSE 27. TRUE or FALSE. No firm, company, partnership, association or corporation may be registered or licensed as such for the practice of electronics engineering and electronics technician. TRUE 28. TRUE or FALSE. The Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering may grant registration without examination, subject to review and approval by the Commission, in accordance with the provisions of RA No. 9292. TRUE 29. TRUE or FALSE. A board member must be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card as a Professional Electronics Engineer, duly qualified to practice as a Professional Electronics Engineer of the Philippines. TRUE 30. The Board of Electronics Engineering composes of the following: 1 chairman, 2 members 31. TRUE or FALSE. The board member must be a resident of the Philippines for at least three (3) consecutive years prior to his/her appointment. FALSE, five (5) consecutive years 32. TRUE or FALSE. A board member can be member of a faculty of any school, academy, college, university or institution conferring an academic degree and/or certification/accreditation necessary for admission to the practice of Electronics Engineering and/or Electronics Technician or where review classes in preparation for the licensure examination are being offered or conducted. FALSE, the board member must NOT be a faculty member 33. TRUE or FALSE. The Regulatory Board can inspect educational institutions and based on their findings, recommend to CHED and/or the TESDA and/or other government entities concerned with the granting of school permits or authorization, the opening, improvement/upgrading or closure of colleges or schools and universities offering electronics engineering and electronics technician courses or programs. TRUE

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34. TRUE or FALSE. The Regulatory Board is exempted from adopting and administering a Code of Ethics and a Code of Technical Standards of Practice for Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in the Philippines. FALSE, the Regulatory Board MUST adopt and administer a Code of Ethics and a Code of Technical Standards. 35. What is included in the power and functions of the Board? 36. Administer/Implement the Provisions of this Act. Maintain the Roster of PECE, Electronics Engineers and Electronic Technicians. Issue, suspend or revoke Certificates of Registration and Identification Card.

What are the Qualifications of Board Members? Be of good moral character and integrity Be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card as a Professional Electronics Engineer Be a member of good standing of the Accredited Professional Organization

37.

How long is the term of office of the members of the Board? 3 years

38.

TRUE or FALSE. A board member must be in active practice of the electronics engineering profession for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment, either in self-practice, or employment in government service and/or in the private sector. TRUE

39.

Who can remove or suspend any members of the Board? President of the Philippines

40.

TRUE or FALSE. The Chairman and members of the Board are exempted from receiving compensation and allowances. FALSE, The Chairman and members of the Board SHALL receive compensation and allowances

41.

Article III of RA 9292 is about? Examination, Registration and Licensure

42.

To be eligible in the licensure examination, what are the qualifications? For ECE/Electronics Engineer: o o o A citizen of the Philippines With a good moral character A holder of degree in Bachelor of Science in ECE/Electronics Engineering

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For Electronics Technician: o o 43. A graduate of Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational Course in Electronics Completed at least the minimum 3rd year equivalent of BS in ECE/Electronics Engineering

What are the scopes of the examination (At least)? Mathematics, Applied Sciences Engineering Economics Laws and Ethics Electronics Communications Computers and Information & Communication Technology

44.

What should be the passing rate? 70% A removal exam is allowed if a candidate obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below _____ but not lower than _____. 70%, 60%

45.

How long will the result come out? Within 15 days after taking the board exam.

46.

Is taking the Professional Oath required? YES, based on Section 22 Article 3 of RA 9292

47.

The professional oath is required to all successful examinees and those who have qualified for registration without examination (Electronic Technicians) to have a certificate of registration and professional identification card. The professional oath must be taken in front of? Any member of the board Any person authorized by the commission

48.

In applying for PECE, what are the qualifications needed? A valid certificate of registration and professional identification card as electronics engineer. Valid/Current membership identification card from the Accredited Professional Organization.

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49. A certified experience of record of active self-practice and/or employment for at least 7 years

When can an applicant for PECE register? Applications for registration can be submitted anytime and will have an en banc oral interview scheduled by the Board.

50.

How many years after taking the oath as an ECE or Electronics Engineer will you be allowed to register as a PECE? At least 7 years, two years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work.

51.

To whom can the certificate of Registration & Professional Identification Card be issued? Examinees that passed the Electronics Engineer & Electronics Technician licensure examination. Registered PECE Registered Electronics Technicians without examination

(All subject to payment fees) 52. Can suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card & Cancellation of Special Permits happen? YES, if such actions violated any of the rules and regulations from the Act, Code of Ethics, and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. Also includes falsifying any documents used in practice, malpractice, incompetency and mentally ill. 53. What are the requirements for registration without examination for Electronics Technicians? Must be a graduate of at least a 2-year Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational course in Electronics. Completed at least the minimum 3rd year equivalent of Bachelors Degree of Science in ECE or Electronics engineering program Has at least 7 years of active self-practice and/or employment (All accompanied by 3 PECE signed certificates for factuality of record) 54. What may be the reasons for revocation and suspension of certificate of registration, professional identification card, and cancellation of special permits? Unprofessional or unethical conduct Malpractice Incompetence Violation of this act (RA 9292) and its implementing rules and regulations, Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice

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Fraud, deceit or FALSE statement was found in obtaining the said certificate of registration, professional identification card, and cancellation of special permits.

55.

Can I have my Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card reissued after being revoked? YES, 2 years after the revocation provided that no any illegal practice, violation of this Act, rules, codes, and policies were done during the time of revocation.

56.

What happens to lost, destroyed or mutilated certificate or registration card? It can be re-issued but subject to the rules promulgated by the Commission.

57.

How frequently should the Board prepare and maintain the roster of information of all registered PECEs, ECEs and ECTs? Every year

58.

TRUE or FALSE. Anyone who wishes to may acquire license information from PRC. TRUE

59.

YES or NO. May anyone be exempted from licensure examination and registration? YES, provided that: o o o o o o He/She is a foreign PECE, ECE or ECT license holder No Filipino for the job His/Her contract says temporary His/Her contract defines and limits the job He/She cannot have a private practice He/She secures a Special permit from Board

60.

TRUE or FALSE International treaties and agreements to which the Philippine Government is a signatory and is ratified can exempt foreign professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technician, who are temporarily employed in the Philippines, from examination and registration? TRUE

61.

TRUE or FALSE. A foreigner can take an examination to immediately become a professional electronics engineer, electronics engineer, or electronics technician in the Philippines. FALSE, they must undergo a specified process directed by the board.

62.

For every 1 foreign professional hired, how many Filipino counterpart/s should be there? At least 2 Filipinos

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63. The permit lasts no more than _____ & renewable every _____. 6 months; 6 months. 64. There should be 1 Accredited Professional Organization (APO) of PECEs, ECEs and ECTs in the country recognized by the PRC. What is this organization? IECEP 65. TRUE or FALSE. Registry with the commission ON or BEFORE the issuance of RA 9292 shall automatically become a member of the accredited professional organization. FALSE 66. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long (year/s) were the previously licensed PECEs, ECEs and ECTs given to register themselves as members of the APO? 3 years 67. TRUE or FALSE. A professional has the option to not study further but still keep his/her status provided that he/she wouldnt change his/her field. FALSE 68. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long was the local government given to fill out all its existing and proposed PECE, ECE and ECT positions? 3 years 69. Only _____ and _____ professional electronics engineers, electronics engineers and electronics technicians can fill up positions in both local and national government that require their service. Registered and Licensed 70. Who shall sign for any electronics engineering work and function of electronics engineering practice? Professional Electronics Engineer or Electronics Engineer in-charge 71. What are the punishable crimes listed under Section 35 of RA 9292? Giving wrong information to get a certification Permitting another person to use his/her license (valid or not) Presenting a revoked or suspended license Assuming the job of a professional when one is not Signing a document prepared by another person unless the signees work is specified (i.e. collaboration) Violating ones privacy rights: Electronic eavesdropping: o o Wiretapping Hacking

Violating ones intellectual property rights:

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o o o 72. Cracking Cloning Piracy

The fine to be paid for committing a crime against RA 9292 ranges: From not less than P100,000 to no more than 1,000,000.

73.

The duration of imprisonment for a committed felon ranges: From not less than 6 months to not more than 6 years.

74.

TRUE or FALSE. Upon the effectivity of RA 9292, ECEs with valid Certificates of Registration shall automatically be registered as Electronics Engineers. TRUE, in a sense that: o o o They dont need to take the exam. They shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and ID with the same license number. They pay the prescribed fees and submit other requirements.

75.

Can any person present as his/her own a Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card, membership identification card in the Accredited Professional Organization and/or seal issued to another person? No. This is penalized under Article VI, Section 35

76.

Can any person use a revoked or suspended Certificate of Registration as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician? No. This is penalized under Article VI, Section 35

77.

Can any person convey the impression that he/she is a registered Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, when in fact he/she is not duly registered with the Board? No. This is penalized under Article VI, Section 35

78.

The incumbent Board of Electronics and Communications Engineering shall complete all pending/unfinished works within what period of time, after which it shall cease to exist? Six (6)-month period

79.

Are Electronics and Communications Engineers holding a valid Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card are automatically registered and recognized as Electronics Engineers? YES, under Article VII, Section 38, Vested Rights

80.

Who is responsible for the inclusion of the implementation of the Appropriations Act in the Commission's program? Chairperson of the Professional Regulation Commission

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Republic Act No. 10372 An Act Amending Certain Provisions of Republic Act No. 8293, Otherwise Known as the "Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines", and for other Purposes 1. What law served as the amendment to certain provisions of RA 8293? RA 10372 2. TRUE or FALSE. According to the amendment of the RA8293, The Director General and Deputies Director General of the IPO need a SEARCH WARRANT to conduct visits on establishments and businesses violating the intellectual property rights and provisions of the said act. FALSE. It can be based only on reports, information or complaints received by the office 3. According to the new amendment of the RA8293, the IPO was already divided into 7 Bureaus (originally 6 bureaus). What was the name of the newly added bureau? The Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights.

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Board of Electronics and Communication Engineering (BECE 03-75) ECE practice in MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging, Background Music, Telephone and Computer Installations 1. Which of the following equipment/installations is not covered by the rules and regulations in BECE 03-75: a. Master Antenna Television b. Community Antenna Television c. Close Circuit Television d. Paging System e. Background Music System f. Alarm System

g. Telephone Installation h. Computer Installation i. 2. Alarm System

When does board resolution no. 3 become effective? a. February 21, 1975 b. March 21, 1975 c. May 3, 1975 d. May 21, 1975

3.

Who signs the required plans/specifications for the said equipment/installations? Duly registered ECE

4.

For telephone, PABX and PABX system, when is the services of an ECE required? a. < 3 b. = 3 c. No lines d. 3

5.

How long do the rules and regulations promulgated by the Board be effective after publishing in the Official Gazette under the provisions of R.A. 5734? a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. 1 year

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6. For all plans/specifications to be prepared/signed by a duly registered ECE, all equipment and installation costs of all MATV, CATV, CCTV in a commercial or industrial establishment must: a. Exceed P25,000 b. Exceed P15,000 c. Exceed P10,000 7. In commercial/industrial establishments, what amount should the cost of computer installations be, before its plans/specifications have to be signed by a duly registered ECE? An amount exceeding P100,000 8. For Background Music/Paging Systems, when is the services of an ECE required? a. When the cost of equipment & installation cost is above 20,000 in a commercial or industrial establishment. b. When the cost of equipment & installation cost is above 25,000 in a commercial or industrial establishment. c. When the cost of equipment & installation cost is above 30,000 in a commercial or industrial establishment. d. When the cost of equipment & installation cost is above 23,000 in a commercial or industrial establishment. 9. What should be provided in a commercial/industrial establishment when there are more than 3 telephone lines that will be installed? Service Entrance 10. Should a registered ECE prepare, sign and seal the plans/specifications of the said telephone installation? YES 11. What service of an ECE is required in Board Resolution No. 3? All plans/specifications for certain electronic and communication installations be prepared/signed by a duly registered ECE. 12. The enforcement of the provisions of the implementing rules and regulations under BECE 03-75 shall be the duty of _____, _____, _____, _____. National Government, provincial, city or municipal Government, duly constituted officers of the law 13. Who shall act as the legal adviser of the Board, and shall assist in upholding these rules and regulations? The Secretary of Justice

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Continuing Professional Education Matrix 1. In what year was the 5th resolution for RA 9292 promulgated? 2008 2. This is the inculcation, assimilation and acquisition of knowledge, skills, proficiency and ethical and moral values, after the initial registration of a professional. Continuing Professional Education (CPE) 3. There is one chairperson and three members in the PRC CPE Council. FALSE, 2 members 4. The PRC CPE Councils functions include the following except: a. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers b. Accept, evaluate and approve application for exemptions from CPE requirements c. Monitor the implementation by the CPE providers of their programs d. None of the Above e. All of the Above 5. Who submits the annual reports and minutes of regular meetings from the Council? a. Chairperson b. Secretariat 6. The secretariats rank should not be lower than _____. Division Chief 7. TRUE or FALSE. The Secretariat is allowed to participate in deliberation and vote. FALSE 8. How frequent should Council meetings be held? a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Quarterly 9. TRUE or FALSE. IECEP CPE Council is the counterpart of CPE Council, but is not allowed to ask for reimbursement of reasonably processing fess directly from the applicants. FALSE 10. To whom does a provider submits programs, activities, or sources to be approved and accredited for CPE units? PRC CPE Council

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11. It refers to the gathering of professionals which shall include, among others, workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-degree training courses and scientific meetings. Seminars 12. It refers to a gathering of professionals which shall include, among others, conferences, symposia or assemblies for round table discussions. Conventions 13. It refers to a graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related field from a recognized school, college or university. Masteral Degree 14. It refers to a post graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related field from a recognized school, college or university. Doctoral Degree 15. It refers to the ownership of intellectual property which includes technical or professional books, instructional materials and the like. Credits earned must be claimed within one (1) year from the date of publication. Authorship 16. It refers to learning which uses course manuals or accredited learning modules. Accredited Learning modules include self-instructional materials or programs which may be in the form of printed manual, audio and video cassette tapes, films, computer-assisted learning (CAL), study kits, learning aids and modules or the use of the information highway. These should include among others clearly defined objectives, adequate content and an evaluation component for each module. Self-Directed Learning Package 17. It is a training or specialization at the post graduate level for a minimum period of one (1) week. Post Graduate/In-Service Training 18. It refers to a professional who acts as discussion leader or lecturer in a convention or seminar or similar gathering. Resource Speaker 19. It refers to a professional who acts as an evaluator of a research paper, conference paper of journal article before it is presented or published. Peer Reviewer 20. It refers to a natural person or a juridical entity which includes among others, accredited or non-accredited professional organization, firm, partnership, corporation or institution which offers, organizes or arranges CPE programs, activities or sources for implementation and administration. CPE Provider

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21. It refers to a natural person or a juridical entity which includes among others, accredited or non-accredited professional organization, firm, partnership, corporation or institution which offers, organizes or arranges CPE programs, activities or sources for implementation and administration. a. Resource Speaker b. Peer Reviewer c. CPE Provider d. All of the Above 22. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the supporting documents needed by a participant in a seminar/convention? Certificate of Attendance with number of hours, seminar program, certified list of participants 23. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the supporting documents needed by a resource speaker in a seminar/convention? Photocopy of Plaque of Certification and Copy of Paper, Program Invitation 24. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the supporting documents needed by a Panelist/Reactor in a seminar/convention? Certification from sponsoring organization and copy of program 25. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the supporting documents needed by a Facilitator/Moderator in a seminar/convention? Certification from sponsoring organization and copy of programs. 26. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a Masters and Doctorals Degree program, what are the necessary supporting documents? University certification, diploma and transcript of records 27. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, for authorship of research/Innovative Programs/creative Projects what are the necessary supporting documents? Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper 28. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in an invention, what are the necessary supporting documents? Certified Copy of patent certificate 29. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a postgraduate/in-service training, which among the following is the supporting document needed? a. Certificate of Training and Training Description b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution

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c. Certificate of Grant or Appointment Paper d. Certificate from Council Secretary 30. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a study observation, what are the necessary supporting documents? Certificate from Sponsoring Institution 31. The total CPE credit units for registered ECE/PECE/ECT professional shall be: a. Seventy-five (75) credit units for three (3) years b. Seventy (70) credit units for three (3) years c. Sixty-five (65) credit units for three (3) years d. Sixty (60) credit units for three (3) years 32. Who observes the procedure for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs, activities, or sources? IECEP CPE Council 33. In case of natural persons, what are the basic information which should be included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider? 34. Full name, address and telephone number of the applicant-provider Relevant educational background Profession, principal area of professional work and number of years in the practice of profession. PRC license Number and date of expiration. Current employment

TRUE or FALSE: Applicant-provider shall submit a valid NBI clearance. TRUE

35.

In case of Juridical Entity, what are the basic information which should be included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider? Full name, address and telephone/fax number/s and e-mail address Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) original registration papers List of officers with their PRC license numbers and the expiry date if officer is a member of a regulated profession Plans for CPE programs or activities for the year applied Proof of past CPE-activities or programs conducted/arranged (immediate past year) for applicants renewing accreditation

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36. A CPE provider seeking accreditation of an organized or arranged CPE program, activity or source shall submit said program, activity or source (in triplicate) to this organization for its evaluation and recommendation for approval to the PRC CPE Council. Which organization is this? IECEP CPE COUNCIL 37. The CPE program, activity, or source shall cover a period not to exceed: a. One (1) year b. Two (2) years c. three (3) years d. 38. four (4) years The issuance of the certificate of accreditation shall take place within _____ from receipt of the application. a. Fifteen (15) days b. Twenty (20) days c. Twenty-five (25) days d. Thirty (30) days 39. How many days upon completion of the CPE program, activity or source shall the CPE provider submit a report to the PRC CPE Council? 15 days 40. In reference to the previous question, what should be included in the report? Name of CPE Provider Name of description of CPE program, activity or source Accreditation number and date of issuance of accreditation Certified list of participants indicating names and PRC professional license identification cards and expiry dates, resource speakers, lecturers, discussion leaders, panellist, moderators or facilitators who took part or participated in the CPE program, activity or source. Date and time of start and completion of the holding of the CPE program, activity or source. Venue/location of the holding of the program Summary of evaluation results of participants Name of secretariat representative who monitored the CPE program or activity

41.

Who can be exempted from passing CPE Requirements? Registered professional above 65 years old and registered professional practicing his profession abroad (2 years)

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42. Which data is not included in the application for exemption from CPE Requirements? a. Full name, residence address and phone number of applicant. b. Marital Status c. PRC License Number d. Employment History 43. What will be done to ECE/PECE/ECT upon 5 years of not their renewing professional license? A notice will be posted on the IECEP website or any newspaper of general circulation that the professional is dropped from the roster of ECE/PECE/ECT. 44. What shall be withdrawn from the CPE provider if found not complying with the given rules and regulation? Accreditation 45. When was the CPE Matrix approved? May 12, 2008 46. What is the name of the Chairman of the Board of Electronics Engineering whose signature is on the CPE Matrix? Sylvia Icasiano-Marcelo

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House Bill No. 2836

1.

This act is known as the National Building Code, as amended. a. House Bill 2836 b. Republic act 9292 c. Republic Act 6541 d. Republic act 8293

2.

Stated in House Bill No. 2836, along with the permits required during construction of a building, how many sets of plans and specifications are needed? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

3.

In applying for a building permit, what are the necessary five sets of signed and sealed plans and specifications required? Architectural and Structural Plans by an Architect or Civil Engineer Mechanical plans by a Mechanical Engineer Electrical Plan by an Electrical Engineer Electronic Plans by a Registered Professional Electronics Engineer Sanitary or Plumbing Installation Plans by a Licensed Sanitary Engineer

4. 5.

What code does a company conform to when dealing with electrical installation? Philippine Electronics Engineering Code The office of the Building Official created what section that deals with the rules and regulation regarding Electronics requirements Electronics Engineering Code

6.

What are the requirements of being the head of the Electronics section? Registered Professional Electronics Engineer A member in good standing of a duly accredited organization of his profession for a period of not less than five (5) years Was endorsed or recommended by the Accredited Professional Organization

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Professional Regulation Commission Resolution No. 217 Delisting of delinquent professionals from the Roster (Series of 1992) 1. What is PRC Resolution No. 217? Suspension of the certificate of registration and delisting of the names from the Rolls of registered professionals who have been remiss in the payment of the annual registration fee lapse of five (5) consecutive years 2. When was this law done? A. May 14, 1992 B. June 14, 1992 C. August 14, 1992 D. November 14, 1992 3. What does the Section 40 Article III of the Commission prescribed? Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation and Practice of Professionals 4. How many years will the professional regulatory board suspend the certificate of registration of registered professional who have been delinquent in the payment of annual registration fee? 5 continuous years from the year it was last paid 5. How many reasonable days can the delinquent have a valid justification that may warrant the deferment of the suspension and delisting? 30 days from the date of the Boards action on such determent 6. How many days will it take the Resolution to effect the following completion of the publication in any newspaper of general circulation? A. 12 days B. 15 days C. 16 days D. 21 days 7. If in the course of such suspension or prior to the reinstatement of their names they practiced their profession, those whose certificates of registration have been suspended and whose names have been delisted from the Rolls of Registered Professionals shall be held? Criminally liable for illegal practice of their profession 8. The delinquent professionals and the requirements and period to clear such delinquency prior to such suspension and delisting will be published in _____ of general circulation. Newspaper

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9. The name of the registered professional whose certificate of registration has been suspended shall be reinstated or re-enrolled Rolls of Registered Professional 10. The professional license shall be renewed upon filling of application compliance with: A. Continuing Education (CPE) requirement B. Payment of the annual registration fees C. Payment of surcharge of every calendar year D. All of the above 11. When will the certificate of registration of the registered professionals who have been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration be suspended? After the lapse of 5 consecutive years from the last year that the annual registration was paid. 12. TRUE or FALSE. The professional regulatory boards may delist the names of the said delinquent professionals from the Rolls of Registered Professionals with or without surrender of their certificate of registration. TRUE 13. Would a professional be notified of his suspension beforehand? YES 14. What are the forms of notification? 15. The delinquent registrant is notified about the commissions intention at his/her address on file with his/her records The details of the delinquent registrant are published in a newspaper of a general circulation.

TRUE or FALSE. The professional has the right to reason himself/herself from the said enforcement. TRUE

16.

How many days from the said notification shall be given for the submission of a valid justification of the delinquency of payment before the suspension and/or delisting of the said registrant? 30 days

17.

What can a delinquent do to make amends and have his/her name returned to the list of registered professionals? If practicable, in certain cases, substitute services by publication in the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation pursuant to the Rules of Court may be allowed.

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18. YES or NO. Would it be considered a crime when a professional skips annual registration to the point of the suspension of his certificate of registration? NO 19. TRUE or FALSE. The professional who has been suspended and delisted from the Rolls of Registered Professional list shall be held criminally liable for illegal practice of their profession if they practiced during the period of suspension. TRUE 20. When shall be the registered professionals name whose certificate has been suspended be reinstated or re-enrolled in the Rolls of Registered Professionals, his/her certificate be returned, and his/her license be renewed? Upon filing of application Compliance with the Continuing Education (CPE) requirement (unless exempted) Payment of the annual registration fees (professional license fee) and surcharge of every calendar year

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Group 10 : Standards 1. What is a standard? It is a written definition , limit or rule approved and monitored for compliance by an authorized agency or professional or recognized body as a minimum acceptable benchmark. 2. What is ISO 11446? ISO 11446 is the standard used for the electrical system between towing and towed vehicles. 3. How many pole connectors should be used and what should be the nominal voltage for the said connector? 13 pins and 12 Volts 4. In ISO/IEC/11801, what kind/s of cabling does it cover? Copper cabling and Optical Fiber Cabling 5. According to this standard, what is the standard link impedance? 100 6. ISO 14443 is an ISO standard that is used for _____? Proximity RFID 7. What is the frequency used by ISO/IEC 14443 to operate? 3.56 MHz 8. What is the operating distance and frequency of the vicinity cards (i.e. contactless cards) under ISO 15693? 13.56Mhz, 1 to 1.5meters 9. This is the basis for the Generic Cabling Terminology for TIA 862 TIA - 568-C 10. When was the TIA-568 first revised and updated? The first revision was released on 1991 and then it was updated on the year 1995. 11. Backbone cabling must use a _____ topology and meet the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B.1 installation requirements Star 12. What is the maximum horizontal distance for distributed BAS links? 90m 13. In TIA 568, for a single segment connecting only two computers you can provide the signal crossover by building what? Crossover Cables

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14. What are the two categories of specifications used in TIA 968? Mandatory requirements and recommendations. 15. This is the frequency band is for the voiceband for analog interface in TIA 968A. 200Hz to 3995Hz 16. When was TIA-570 published? August 2012 17. How many grades of cabling is supported by TIA 570? 2 18. Generic cabling system that meets the minimum requirements for basic telecommunication services such as telephone, satellite, community antenna television. Grade 1 Residential Cabling 19. Generic cabling system that meets the minimum requirements for basic advanced telecommunication services such as high-speed internet and in-home generated video. Grade 2 Residential Cabling 20. In TIA 598-A it consists of one or two fibers, reinforced and jacketed, and is intended for short distance applications such as intra-equipment jumpers or patch cords. Interconnect Cable 21. In TIA 598-A is made up of two or more stand-alone sub-cables assembled together under a common outer jacket so that each sub-cable can be separated from the main cable for routing to and termination at, various locations. Breakout Cable 22. According to TIA 942, what are the key functional areas that must be included in a data center? Entrance Room Main Distribution Area Horizontal Distribution Area Equipment Distribution Area Zone Distribution Area Backbone and Horizontal Cabling

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23. What are the recognized cabling media for permanent telecommunications cabling system generally specified in TIA-942, considering that TIA-568 & 569 already exists? 24. Standard Single-mode fiber 62.5 and 50um multimode fiber Laser-optimized 50um multimode fiber 75-ohm coaxial cable 4-pair Category 6 UTP and STP cabling

In reference to TIA-942, where should the entrance room be located? Outside the computer room

25.

What is the maximum backbone cabling distances based on the cabling media and applications to be supported in the data center? 300 meters

26.

In TIA 606-A a cabling support vessel that typically connects one space to another or runs the span of a common routing cable route, but resides in one space. Intrabuilding Pathway Element

27.

In TIA 606-A is a cabling support vessel that typically connects one building space to another building space. Interbuilding Pathway Element

28.

KBP stands for? Kapisanan ng mga broadcasters ng Pilipinas

29.

Which broadcast band uses the radio frequency spectrum from 88MHz to 108MHz and is divided into 100 channels? FM Broadcast Band

30.

What channel does FM broadcast station begin at and what is the bandwidth per station? 88.1 MHz, 200 KHz

31.

The antenna system should be _____-polarized. Horizontally or Elliptically

32.

Logs of FM broadcast stations shall be retained by the licensee for a period of _____ 2 years

33.

What is the maximum power allocation in metro manila and other areas? 50KW and 10KW respectively

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34. What is the frequency separation in Manila? 36KHz 35. Who issues licenses for both FM and medium frequency broadcasting stations? NTC (National Telecommunications Commission) 36. In what band can a television broadcast station operate? 54MHz to 72MHz, 76MHz to 88MHz, 174MHz to 216MHz and 470MHz to 890MHz 37. Who defines a television station in the broadcasting service employing a system of telecommunication for the transmission of transit images or moving objects? ITU

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Jurisprudence 1. It is called the philosophy or science of law. Jurisprudence 2. It is defined as a rule of conduct or procedure established by custom agreement, or authority. It is also a body of obligatory rules which is promulgated and established for the purpose of governing personal relationships in society. Law 3. TRUE or FALSE. Ignorance of the Law excuses no one from compliance? TRUE 4. What are the types of Laws? 5. Eternal Law Natural Law Human Law or Positive Law

This kind of law is infallible and prohibits all manners of sin? Eternal Law

6.

This kind of law is universal, immutable, applies everywhere regardless of race, beliefs, and traditions, and this is where moral obligations are derived from? Natural Law

7.

This kind of law is mutable, based on reason of men, influenced by tradition and custom, and promulgated to prevent doing of evil by imposing punishment. Human Law or Positive Law

8.

It is defined as standards which guide the behaviour of people in ways which have moral or legal consequence? Norms

9.

What are the types of human Law Civil Law Criminal Law

10.

It is any act or omission in violation of public law forbidding or commanding it. Crime

11.

Who files a criminal case? The state, through a prosecutor initiates the suit.

12.

Who files a civil case? The victim brings the suit.

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13. People convicted of crime can be punished by ways of? 14. Incarceration Paying a fine Incarceration and paying a fine

15.

Criminal Case : Civil Case is analogous to? a. Incarceration : Fine b. Homicide : Theft c. Human : Property d. Beyond Reasonable Doubt : Balance of Properties These are God-given universal privileges that are enjoyed by everyone regardless of age and race. Rights

16.

The Philippine legal system is comprised of what laws? Civil Law (Roman) Muslim Law (Islamic) Common Law (Anglo-American) Indigenous Law

17.

What are the sources of law? Statutes or Statutory Law (Enacted by the legislative branch of the government) Jurisprudence or Case Law ( Written Opinion by courts and by people performing judicial functions)

18.

Give examples of Statutes or Statutory Laws. Treaties Constitutions Enactments made by the Congress Municipal Charters and Municipal Legislation Court Rules Administrative Rules and Orders Presidential Issuance

19.

Give examples of Jurisprudence. All rulings in administrative and legislative tribunals such as decisions made by the Presidential or Senate or House Electoral Tribunals. Decisions of government agencies with Quasi-Judicial functions

20.

The legislative promulgates what kinds of laws? Acts Commonwealth Acts Republic Acts Mga Batas Pambansa

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21. What kind of Laws emanate from the Executive? 22. Administrative Orders Presidential Decrees Executive Orders Letters of Instructions Resolutions Department Orders Memorandum Orders Circulars Proclamations

What law originate from the Judiciary? Decisions from Lower Courts Decisions from Court of Appeals Supreme Court Decisions

23.

Where are the ECE Jurisprudence housed? Board of ECE NTC PRC House of Congress Office of the President LGU Criminal Courts

24.

It is term which means opposition or rejection? Veto

25.

It is defined as the power vested to the Commissions in the executive Branch to conduct hearing and impose penalties? Quasi-Judicial

26.

TRUE or FALSE. Laws are valid in a specific time frame only. TRUE

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Ethics 1. TRUE or FALSE. A person being ethical is the same as a person who is following the law. FALSE 2. TRUE or FALSE. Doing what is acceptable to society is the same as being ethical. FALSE 3. It is a discipline or area of study that deals with moral problems that involves systematizing, defending and recommending concepts of right and wrong? Ethics 4. Ethics prescribes what humans should do in terms of: 5. Rights Obligations Benefits to Society Fairness or Specific Virtues

What can be considered as wrong acts? Rape Stealing Murder Assault Slander Fraud

6.

It is the study of human behaviour as a consequence of beliefs about what is right or wrong? Descriptive Ethics

7.

It is the study of what is thought to be right and what the general public, group, culture or society would generally do, it also refers to social convention about what is right and wrong. Morality

8.

It arises from conscience or the sense of right or wrong, having psychological rather than physical or tangible effects, and based on strong likelihood or firm conviction, rather than on the actual evidence? Moral

9.

In what contexts can Morality be used? Individual Conscience Moral Values or Judgements Codes of Conduct

10.

These are habits that incline a person to do what is acceptable? Virtues

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11. These are habits that incline us to do what is unacceptable? Vices 12. What are the categories of moral action? 13. Moral Immoral Amoral

What are some kinds of Dilemma Paradigms? Truth versus Loyalty Individual versus Community Short-term versus Long-Term Justice versus Mercy

14.

What are the type of Ethics Virtue Ethics Duty Ethics Consequential Ethics Right Ethics

15.

It is the ethical approach whereby the ethical choice is the one that best reflects moral virtues in us and our communities. Virtue Ethics Approach

16.

It is the ethical approach whereby the ethical choice is the one that produces the greatest excess of benefits over harm? Utilitarian Approach

17.

It is the ethical approach whereby the ethical choice where everyone is treated as the same where no favouritism or discrimination is applied? Fairness Approach

18.

It is the ethical approach whereby the ethical choice is the one that advances the common good? Common Good Approach

19.

The utilitarianism approach can be described by? Teleogical Hedonism Result Oriented The ends justify the means

20.

The Respect-For-Persons approach can be described by? Deontological Act-Oriented Humans are ends in themselves and not means

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21. It is defined as doing what is likely to produce the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people? Utilitarianism The Utilitarian Approach can be divided into three tests. What are these tests? 23. Act Utilitarian Test Rule Utilitarian Test Cost/Benefit Test

22.

This Utilitarian test measures the consequence of a single act? Act Utilitarian Test

24.

This Utilitarian test considers the consequence of an action in the long run if it is repeated over and over? Rule Utilitarian

25.

This Utilitarian approach converts positive and negative utilities to monetary terms? Cost-Benefit Test

26.

The respect-for persons approach can be further divided into? The Golden Rule Self-defeating Test Rights Test

27.

What are the different versions of the Golden Rule are there? Christian Version Hindu Version Confucian Version Buddhist Version Jewish Version Muslim Version

28.

This test focuses on the deed itself and analyses if the consequence of the deed outweighs the deed itself? Self-Defeating Test (Kantian Ethics)

29.

What are the two types of Essential Rights? Rights to Freedom Rights to well-being

30.

What are the three levels of rights? First Tier (Right to life, physical integrity, mental health) Second Tier (Right not to be deceived or cheated, not to have possessions stolen, not to be defamed, not to suffer from broken promises) Third Tier (Right to property, self-respect, and non-discrimination)

31.

TRUE or FALSE. The right to life is considered less to the right to make a living. FALSE

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32. Consent is considered to be valid under certain circumstances which are: 33. The consent was given voluntarily The consent was based on the information presented in understandable form The consenter was competent and rational to process the information

These should be conformed with for an experiment to be considered as valid? The participants know all the pros and cons of the experiment The participants are not subjected to force, fraud or deception.

34.

Ethics is significant in a company for what reasons? To protect the organization and its employees from legal action To create an organization that operates consistently To produce good business To avoid unfavourable publicity To good the goodwill of the community

35.

It is a guide that highlights an organizations key ethical issues and identifies the overarching values that are important to the organization and that can help in decision making? Code of Conduct

36.

What are the fundamental canons in the Code of Ethics of the National Society of Professional Engineers? Hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public Perform services only in areas of their competence Issue public statements only in an objective and truthful manner Act for each employer or client as faithful agents or trustees Avoid deceptive acts Conduct themselves honourably, responsibly, ethically, and lawfully so as to enhance the honour, reputation, and usefulness of the profession.

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ECE Code of Ethics 1. What constitutes the foundation of ethics? 2. Honesty Justice Courtesy

An electronics engineer should observe the Code of Ethics in what way? As a set of dynamic principle guiding his conduct and way of life.

3.

What is considered to be the keystone in a persons professional conduct? Integrity

4.

How should an engineer perform his duties to the public, his employers, and his clients according to the Code of Ethics? With fidelity and unquestionable integrity

5.

How should an engineer perform his duties to everyone according to the Code of Ethics? With fairness and impartiality

6.

How should an engineer behave when he has to work with his fellow engineers aside from always giving credit to whom it is due? He should be fair and tolerant

7.

The Code of Ethics is divided into division relating to whom the ethics should be applied to. What are these division? Relations with the State Relations with the Public Relations with Clients, Employer and Labor Relations with Engineers Relations to the Profession

8.

An engineer should recognize which body as having the supreme power due to the laws it has implemented? The State

9.

What is above the well-being and interest of any individual? The well-being of the public and the interest of the State

10.

When will an engineer help the State in the interest of justice, national emergency, and good government? When his technology, skill, ability, and experience is needed for the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust, criminal, or unlawful acts

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11. In what interest should and engineer extend his assistance, guidance, and training to all of his subordinates? Social efficiency 12. An engineer should perform his work in what manner for the interest of the national economy and well-being? With optimum efficiency, economy, and safety 13. Who shall be given primary consideration for all an engineers inventions that are useful for national security and defense in the interest of national security? The State 14. An engineer must be conscious of what scenarios for the work that he is responsible in? Dangerous or threatening to life 15. An engineer should have due regard to what with respect to his responsibilities? Life and health of the public 16. By discouraging the spread of untrue, unfair and exaggerated statements regarding his profession, what does he maintain? Public confidence about his profession 17. What are the requirements for an engineer if he becomes a witness before court, commission and/or other tribunals? To express his opinions based on adequate knowledge and honest conviction 18. Engineers can only issue statements on matter connected with public policy, any ex-parte statements, criticisms, or arguments that are inspired or paid for by private interest unless? The engineer clearly identifies on whose behalf he is issuing the statements for 19. What should an engineer do if he is not fully familiar or1 knowledgeable about the subject whereby he is asks to give a public opinion? Refrain from expressing his opinion 20. How should an engineer act in professional matters? As a faithful or a trustee 21. An engineer should consider all matters and information concerning the business affairs, and technical processes of his clients and employers? He should treat them as confidential matters 22. YES or NO. Can an engineer accept compensation, financial or service or otherwise from another party without his partys consent? NO.

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23. How should an engineer deal with contracts between his clients or employers? With fairness and justice 24. What are the things that an engineer cannot accept from contractors, suppliers, and all other parties? Commissions and allowances 25. When and engineers is interested in business connection or affiliation, who should he inform? His clients or employers 26. What should and engineer do if the work he is responsible for is overruled by nontechnical authority? The clearly present the consequences to be expected from the deviations. 27. What kind of assignment should an engineer undertake? Only those whereby he is qualified 28. How can an engineer protect the profession? Individually or collectively with others in the profession by preventing misunderstanding and misinterpretations 29. What should an engineer do if he sees that another engineer has been unethical or illegal in his practices? Inform in writing the proper authorities for the appropriate action 30. Who should an engineer avoid association with? Those who do not conform to ethical practices 31. What should an engineer do when he sees flaws in another engineers work? Exercise due restraint in criticizing that engineers work 32. How can an engineer extend the effectiveness of the engineering profession? 33. By sharing or exchanging information and experience with other engineers, other professionals and students By contributing to engineering publications and schools and by participating in the activities of engineering societies

How can engineer uphold the integrity, dignity and honor of the profession? By avoiding all practices that will discredit the profession

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Standards and Guidelines for the Practice of Electronics Engineers in the Philippines 1. What are the fields that an electronics and communications engineer can apply his knowledge to? 2. Consultations Design Construction and installation Inspection, Appraisal, and Acceptance Operations Maintenance Research and Development Education Manufacturing

It is the field of an engineers where he gives advice and information to a client in the area of his proficiency? Engineering Consultation

3.

According to R.A. 9292, who can are the people authorized to give engineering consultation services? Professional Electronics Engineers

4.

What are the roles of an engineer giving engineering consultation? Give specific advice and technical specifications in the field. Represent the client in obtaining electronics permits, plans, specifications, among others from the government and other agencies. Serve as a technical witness/expert in matters involving the field

5.

What field requires an engineer to conceptualize, plan an electronic scheme, system, and facility along with other considerations? Design Services

6.

Who can render design services according to R.A. 9292? Registered Electronics Engineers

7.

YES or NO. Does the design service rendered by a Registered Electronics Engineer need to be reviewed by Professional Electronics Engineers? YES.

8.

What are included in the in a scope of work of an engineer who renders Design Services? System Design Survey Viability and Financing Studies Preparation of Electronics Plans, Specifications and Design Cost Estimate and Schedule Contract Documents

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9. Inspection/Appraisal Construction Coordination and Progress Meetings Supervisions Preparation of As-Built Plans Obtaining of regulatory permits from NTC and other concerned regulatory agencies, and electronics building permits from local government units.

This requires an engineer to critically view or investigate electronics items, installations, and projects? Inspection

10.

This requires an engineer to certify that a component or system has been properly designed, installed, and operates according to the standards? Acceptance

11.

This requires an engineer to estimate the amounts, quality, and conformity to the plans of an electronic work item? Appraisal

12.

What field of engineering requires and engineer to manage the process of running electronics systems, networks, services, and peripheral facilities? Operations

13.

What kinds of networks are included in the field of Operations? Communication network Broadcasting network Computer/microprocessor controlled network Electronics network

14.

What field of engineering is defined as the proper upkeep of electronics systems and equipment? Maintenance

15.

What is included in work done by a Maintenance Engineer? Preventive maintenance and periodic testing Corrective maintenance (repair/replacement of components, accessories, and equipment) Planning and developing preventive maintenance programs Analysing inspection and test reports for prescription of proper corrective measures Training maintenance personnel Determining spare parts, test and measuring equipment, and tool requirements Enforcing safety rules and practices

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16. What field or practice of engineering involves the investigations and evaluations of data leading to the design, manufacture, and production or development of new systems, techniques and procedures? Research and Development 17. What tasks are included in the work of a Research and Development Engineer? Formulation and development of new electronic products, and Development of electronic products System analyses, coordination and evaluation of quality control programs Research and development of new systems for information transmission and reception, robotics, computerized/aided work automation and manufacturing, and the application of electronics in education and information dissemination.

18.

It is the field of engineering that refers to the services rendered in the form of OJT, seminars, or part/full-time teaching related to electronics engineering? Educational Services

19.

What are services are included in the field of Educational Services? Lecturing and teaching electronics courses, tutorials, and refresher courses in Engineering schools, colleges, and review centers Serving as resource speakers Writing articles, pamphlets or books

20.

What field of engineering involves the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronics and related components? Manufacturing

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Compensation 1. What are the different methods for determining compensation? 2. Percentage of Construction Cost Unit Cost Basis Cost Plus Reasonable Profit Fixed Salary Basis Professional Fee Plus Expenses Cost Per Hour Basis Task Rate Basis

In engineering consultation, what determines the general rate of compensation? Experience and expertise of the engineer along with the importance and value of the activity covered

3.

How much should an engineer be paid for a conference and a court appearance? Not less than Php 500.00 per hour and not less than Php 1000.00 per appearance irrespective of whether the scheduled meeting or hearing is postponed or not

4.

How much should an engineer be paid for project consultations with a definite period? An hourly rate not less than one hundredth (0.01) of the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners

5.

How much should a consulting electronics engineer be paid? Not less than Php 1500.00 and an additional Php 100.00 per hour if his presence is needed away from his office

6.

What methods are used to determine how much the compensation for engineers for render design services? Percent of Total Project Cost (Group I, II, III 1%, 1.5%, 2%) Percent of Cost (Group I, II, III 10%, 8%, 6%) Unit cost Cost Plus Reasonable Profit Per Diem of Traveling Expenses Extra Sets of Contract Documents Government Taxes on Services Salaries Professional

7.

How is the compensation of a Salaried Professional or an engineer determined in the fields of construction and installation, inspection and appraisal, operations, maintenance, research and development, and manufacturing determined? For engineers working for up to 5 years; Php 2000.00 to Php 5000.00 per month For engineers working for up for 5 to 10 years; Php 5000.00 to Php 8000.00 per month

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For engineers working for up for 10 years and above; Php 8000.00 and above per month

The rates mentioned changes accordingly along with the economic conditions. 8. How much should an inspection and appraisal engineer be paid for performing piece work or task rate work? Not less than Php 1000.00 per day 9. How can the compensation of an electronics maintenance service engineer under a contract be determined? Based on the degree of experience of work defined in the contract 10. How much should an research and development engineer under a contract be paid for performing piece work or task rate work? Based on the engineers experience, expertise and monetary value of the project in determination 11. How much is the compensation for an engineer rendering full time basis educational services? For engineers working for up to 5 years; Php 2000.00 to Php 5000.00 per month For engineers working for up for 5 to 10 years; Php 5000.00 to Php 8000.00 per month For engineers working for up for 10 years and above; Php 8000.00 and above per month

The rates mentioned changes accordingly along with the economic conditions. 12. How much is the compensation for an engineer rendering part time basis educational services? For engineers working for up to 5 years; Php 1000.00 to Php 2500.00 per month For engineers working for up for 5 to 10 years; Php 2500.00 to Php 4000.00 per month For engineers working for up for 10 years and above; Php 4000.00 and above per month

The rates mentioned changes accordingly along with the economic conditions. 13. How much is the compensation for an engineer rendering educational services as a lecturer? For engineers working for up to 5 years; Php 500.00 to Php 1250.00 per month For engineers working for up for 5 to 10 years; Php 1250.00 to Php 2000.00 per month For engineers working for up for 10 years and above; Php 2000.00 and above per month

The rates mentioned changes accordingly along with the economic conditions.

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Obligations and Contracts 1. What is an obligation? A juridical necessity 2. What are the four requisites of an obligation? Active Subject o Entitled to demand to the fulfilment of the obligation o Also called a creditor or obligee Passive Subject o A person who is bound to the fulfilment of the obligation o Also called debtor or obligor Prestation o A payment or money or rendering of service Efficient Cause o Juridical or Legal tie

3.

What are the kinds of obligations? Civil Obligation Natural Obligation Moral Obligation

4.

Where does obligation arise from? Acts or omissions punished by law Contracts Law Quasi-Contracts Quasi-Delicts

5.

TRUE or FALSE. Obligations derived from law are presumed. FALSE. Only those expressly determined in this code or in special laws are demandable and shall be regulated by the precepts of the law which establishes them; and as to what has not been foreseen, by the provisions of this book.

6.

What are the obligations of a supplier from a contract? Quantity Price Inclusion Time Frame

7.

What are the obligations of a contractor/installer from a contract? Where and the extent of installation Cost Inclusions

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8. TRUE or FALSE. Obligations arising from contracts have the force of law between the contracting parties should be complied with in good faith. TRUE. 9. Quasi-Contracts are also known as? Implied Contracts 10. TRUE or FALSE. Is a criminally liable person also civilly liable? TRUE 11. What article states that every person obliged to give something is also obliged to take care of it with the proper diligence of a good father of a family? Article 1163 12. TRUE or FALSE. A creditor may compel the debtor to make the delivery of a determinate thing. TRUE 13. Aside from delivering a determinate thing, the debtor is also obliged to give _____ even though they may have not been mentioned? Accessions and Accessories 14. Tasks not accomplished shall be done at whose cost? Person obliged to do the task 15. People are in the performance of their obligations, will be held liable for the damages when found guilty of? 16. Fraud Negligence Delay Contravening the Tenor

It is a meeting of the minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give something or to render some service. Contract

17.

What are the five (5) characteristics of a contract? Binding force Autonomy Mutuality Relativity Consensuality

18.

It is the characteristics of a contract that requires the binding of both contracting parties whereby its validity or compliance cannot be left to the will of one of the parties. Mutuality

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19. When the third partys determination is obligatory and is evidently inequitable, what happens? The court intervenes and decides what is equitable under the circumstances. 20. It is the characteristic of a contract the bounds the fulfilment and consequences of what has been expressly stipulated in the contract. Consensuality 21. What are the requisites that must be concurred before a contract is developed? 22. Consent of the contracting parties Object certain which is the subject matter of the contract Cause of the obligation which is established

Who cannot give consent to a contract? Unemancipated minors Insane or demented persons, and deaf-mutes who do not know how to write

23.

What kinds of contracts are voidable? Contracts agreed to in a state of drunkenness Contracts agreed to during a hypnotic spell Contracts where consent is given through mistake Contracts where consent is given through violence Contracts where consent is given through intimidation Contracts where consent is given through undue influence Contracts where consent is given through fraud

24.

It is compelling by a reasonable and well-grounded fear of an imminent and grave evil upon his person or property, or upon the person or property of his spouse, descendants or ascendants, to hive his consent. Intimidation

25.

What shall be borne in mind to determine the degree of intimidation? Age Sex Condition

26.

What is present when a person takes improper advantage of another persons will of another, depriving the latter of a reasonable freedom of choice? Undue Influence

27.

It is inducing another person to enter a contract through insidious words or machinations. Fraud

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Whistleblowing 1. It is the act of informing the public or higher management of unethical or illegal behavior by an employer or supervisor? Or an open disclosure about significant wrongdoing made by a concerned citizen totally or predominantly motivated by notions of public interest, which has perceived the wrongdoing in a particular role and initiates the disclosure of her or his own free will, to a person or agency capable of investigating the complaint and facilitating the correction of wrongdoing? Whistleblowing 2. An employee, a former employee, or a member of an organization who engages in whistleblowing or, in other words, blows the whistle on wrongdoing or misconduct? Whistleblower 3. What are the key characteristics of whistleblowing? 4. Dissent Breach of Loyalty Accusations

What are the laws that are concerned with whistleblowing? False Claims Act (US) Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (US) Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 (UK)

5.

What are the 2 types of whistleblowing? Internal Whistleblowing External Whistleblowing Anonymous Whistleblowing Acknowledge Whistleblowing

6.

A type of whistleblowing whereby all levels of management are bypassed and the employee goes directly to the head of the company or he board of directors? Or whistleblowing that is kept within the company, government agencies or organization? Internal Whistleblowing

7.

A type of whistleblowing whereby when the employee goes outside the company or organization and reports wrongdoings to the media, newspapers and law enforcement External Whistleblowing

8.

Occurs when an employee blowing the whistle refuses to divulge his name when making accusations Anonymous Whistleblowing

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9. Occurs when the employee puts his name behind the accusations and is willing to withstand the scrutiny on by his accusations Acknowledge Whistleblowing 10. What are the conditions that are needed to be met before blowing the whistle? Need o Harm can be avoided o Need sense of proportion in deciding whether to go public o No need to tell about everything; just the important things Proximity o Hearsay is not adequate o Enough expertise in the area to make a realistic assessment of situation o Realistic assessment of the situation Capability o Chances of success o Completion o Risk on career, financial security Last Resort o No one else is capable or more proximate to blow the whistle. o Other lines of action w/in the context of the organization have been explored or shut down.

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