TYWD

CODE-C

15/07/2015

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

UNIT TEST

MM : 360

Time : 1 Hrs.

(TWO YEARS COURSE FOR MEDICAL-2017)

Test-1
Topics covered :
Physics

Mathematical Tools, Physical World, Units and Measurements

Chemistry

Some basic concepts of Chemistry

Botany

Living World, Kingdom System of Classification, Economic Importance of Bacteria, Protista Upto General Characters

Zoology

Animal Kingdom - General account and Non chordates Incl. Protozoa : General basis of
classification General introduction ; Porifera; Cnidaria; Ctenophora; Platyhelminthes; Life
cycle of Taenia solium; Aschelminthes

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1.

2.

4.

The exchange particle involved in Electromagnetic

force is
(1) - meson

(2) Boson

(3) Photons

(4) Graviton

n
= constant
u

(3) nu = constant

(2)

(4) Shake

The dimensional formula of magnetic field is

(4) Weak nuclear force

(1)

(3) Angstrom

6.

(3) Both (1) and (2)

If n is the numerical value of a physical quantity in
the system is which its unit is u, then which of the
following relation is correct.

(2) Light year

In a new system of units, let the units of force,

energy and velocity be 10 N, 0.1J and 100 m/s
respectively. In this system, the unit of length is
(1) 0.50 m
(2) 1.00 m
3
(3) 10 m
(4) 102 m

(1) Electromagnetic force

3.

(1) Parsec
5.

Which of the following forces is/are example of

central force ?
(2) Gravitational force

Which unit is not for length ?

7.

(1) [M1L0T2A1]

(2) [M2L1T2A1]

(3) [M1L1T1A2]

(4) [M2L0T2A3]

The energy E of a particle varies with time t

according to the equation E = Eo sin(t)e

t
x

where x is the displacement from mean position,

Eo is the energy at infinite position and are
constants. The dimensional formula of is

u
= constant
n

(4) n2u = constant

(1)

(1) [M1L0T0]

(2) [M0L1T0]

(3) [M0L0T1]

(4) [M0L0T0]

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

8.

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

Pascal - second has dimension of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Force
Energy
Pressure
Coefficient of viscocity

17. If sin =

24
4
(2)
25
5
5
4
(3)
(4)
4
15
18. The value of tan (1110) is

(1)

9.

The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The

time of 20 oscillation of pendulum is measured to
be 25 second. The maximum percentage error in
measurements will be
(1) 0.2%
(2) 0.4%
(3) 0.8%
(4) 0.6%
10. If the error in measurement of momentum of a
particle is 10% and the mass is known exactly,
then the maximum possible error in the
measurement of kinetic energy is
(1) 20%
(2) 5%
(3) 21%
(4) 10%
11. The error in the measurement of radius of sphere
is 2%, then what will be the maximum possible
error in calculation of its surface area ?
(1) 4%
(2) 2%
(3) 6%

(3)
16. The value of (0.998)3 is
(1) 0.994
(3) 0.996

(4)

1
2

(1) 20

x
(2,0)
(2) 10

(3) 5

(4) 2
dy
at x = 1
dx

(2) 5
(4) 5

22. The value of

1
1
1
+
+
+ ........ + is
4
16 64
4
(4)
3

2
3

(1) 10
(3) 0

(2) 2
(4) 4

(2) 1

(3)

3
2

is
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) Zero
2
21. Let y = 50t 5t , then the value of y is maximum
when t equal to

(4)

(1) 4

(2)

20. If y = x4 + 4x + 2, then the value of

4
3
14. The length of intercept of line 3x + 6y = 6 at x-axis
will be

15. The value of 1 +

1
3

12. The number of significant figures in the value of

2.50 1010 m is
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Ten
(4) Five
13. The v alue of sum of roots of equation
x2 3x 4 = 0 is
(1) 3
(2) 4

(1) 1
(3) 3

(1)

19. The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 5x2.

The slope of graph at point p is
y
y=5x2

(4) 5%

(3) 12

3
, then the value of sin2 will be
5

sinx dx is

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 5

23. The co-ordinates of a particle moving in x y plane

vary with time t as x 4t and y = 2t then the
equation of curve traced by particle is
(1) y2 = 4x
(2) x = 2y2
(3) x = 4y2

(2) 0.999
(4) 0.992

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

(4)

y2
4
x2

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

CHEMISTRY
31. [Na+] in a solution prepared by mixing 30 ml of
0.12 M NaCl with 70 ml of 0.15 M Na2SO4 is

24. The atomic mass of two elements A and B are 30

and 90 respectively. If a g of element A contains
b atoms, then number of atoms of B in 2 a g is
2b
(1)
3

b
(2)
3

(2) 1.5

(3) 2.5

(4) 2.0

(2) 0.141 M

(3) 0.210 M

(4) 0.246 M

32. The weight of single atom of oxygen is

b
b
(3)
(4)
4
2
25. The equivalent mass of a metal is double that of
oxygen. The ratio of masses of metal oxide and
mass of the metal is

(1) 2

(1) 0.135 M

(0.02 equivalent H2SO 4),

then the value of a is

(3) 0.8 mole

(4) 0.88 mole

(2) 1.1 moles C3H8O3

(3) 1.5 moles C6H8O6

(4) 4.0 moles C2H4O2

(2) 21.42

(3) 20.0

(4) 14.21

(1) 0.40

(2) 0.60

(3) 11.11

(4) 0.167

(1) 2.46

(2) 3.82

(3) 4.36

(4) 4.96

(1) 22 1023

(2) 9.91 1023

(3) 11 1023

(4) 44 1023 H atoms

36. 40 g of a sample of carbon on combustion left

10% of it unreacted. the volume of oxygen required
at STP for this combustion reaction is

28. Concentrated HNO3 is 63% HNO3 by mass and

has a density of 1.4 g/ml. How many millilitres of
this solution are required to prepare 250 ml of a
1.2 M HNO3 solution ?
(1) 18.0

(4) 4.538 1023 g

35. The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 g

of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has molar mass of
342.3 g is

27. Which of the following contains the largest mass

of hydrogen atoms ?
(1) 5 mol C2H2O4

(3) 2.658 1023 g

34. The oxide of an element contains 67.67% of

oxygen and the vapour density of its volatile
chloride is 79. Equivalent weight of element is

a = 49g H2SO4 + (3 1023 molecule H2SO4)

(2) 0.99 mole

(2) 3.556 1023 g

33. Molality of 40% (by mass) urea solution is

26. Find the value of a

(1) 0.9 mole

(1) 1.057 1023 g

(1) 22.4 L

(2) 67.2 L

(3) 11.2 L

(4) 44.8 L

37. Number of moles in 1.8 g H2O is equal to number

of moles in

29. When 6g of monobasic acid is disolved in 100 ml

solution, it is 1N. What is equivalent mass of the
acid ?

I : 18g glucose

II : 6g urea

III : 34.2g sucrose

(1) 60

(2) 20

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II

(3) 40

(4) 30

(3) I, III

(4) II, III

30. How many gram of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) would

be needed to neutralise 100 g of Mg(OH)2 ?
(1) 66.7 g

(2) 252 g

(3) 112.68 g

(4) 168 g

38. Mass of one atom of the element X is

1.66 10 24g number of atoms in 1g of the
element is
(1) 1.66 1024

(2) 1.66 1024

(3) 1.66 1024 N0

(4) 6.00 1023

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(3)

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

39. Mixture of CO2 and CO is passed over red hot

graphite when 1 mol mixture changes to 33.6 L
(converted to STP). Hence mol fraction of CO2 in
the mixture is
(1) 0.5

(2) 0.33

(3) 0.66

(4) 0.25

(2) 1.5

(3) 1.0

(4) 0.25

(2) 17

(3) 18

(4) 19

(3) 9 M

(4) 4.50 M

(1) CH4

(2) C2H6

(3) C2H4

(4) C2H2

44. BaCl2 + Na3PO4 Ba3(PO4)2 + NaCl. Maximum

moles of Ba3(PO4)2 formed when 2 moles each of
Na3PO4 and BaCl2 react is

41. Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 .xH 2 O has 48.7% water by mass.

Calculate value of x.
(1) 16

(2) 36 M

43. A hydrocarbon has 75% carbon by weight. Thus,

hydrocarbon is

40. 2g mixture of H2 and He gases have mole fraction

of H2 as 0.5. Hence mole fraction of He is
(1) 0.5

(1) 18 M

(1) 4

(2) 1

(3) 2/3

(4) 1/3

45. Equal moles of H2O and NaCl are present in a

solution. Hence, molality of solution is

42. H2SO 4 solution is 500 molal (d = 1.8 g ml 1)

hence, its molarity is

(1) 0.55

(2) 55.5

(3) 1.00

(4) 0.18

BIOLOGY
46. Which of the following are the defining features of
life forms ?
(1) Metabolism, reproduction
(2) Cellular organisation, consciousness
(3) External growth, consciousness
(4) External growth, reproduction
47. Which of the following organisms are involved in
symbiotic nitrogen fixation in legumes ?
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Pseudobacteria
48. Growth can be reversed and extrinsic in
(1) Planaria
(2) Trypanosoma
(3) Snow mountains
(4) More than one option is correct
49. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation ?
(1) Herbarium
(2) Museum
(3) Botanical Garden

50. Match the following and select the correct option.

Column I
Column II
(A) Genus
(i) Carnivora
(B) Order
(ii) Solanaceae
(C) Kingdom
(iii) Homo
(D) Family
(iv) Plantae
(1) A(i), B(iii), C(iv), D(ii)
(2) A(iii), B(i), C(iv), D(ii)
(3) A(iii), B(ii), C(iv), D(i)
(4) A(ii), B(iii), C(iv), D(i)
51. The statement, simple in structure and complex in
behaviour is related to kingdom.
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) More than one option is correct
52. Which of the following contains actual account of
habitat and distribution of plants of a given area ?
(1) Manual
(2) Flora
(3) Monograph
(4) Catalogue

(4) More than one opotion is correct

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(4)

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

53. ______ is used as quick referral system in

taxonomic studies.
(1) Monograph
(2) Manual
(3) Museum
(4) Herbarium
54. Halophiles and thermoacidophiles are similar with
respect to
(1) Cyclosis
(2) Linear ssDNA
(3) Branched chain lipids in cell wall
(4) Non-cellulosic cell wall
55. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Generic name starts with capital letter
(2) Specific name starts with small letter
(3) Both names are separately underlined to
indicate their Latin origin
(4) Author citation should be printed in italics
56. In
W hittakers
classif ication
system,
chemosynthetic autotrophic organisms are found in
kingdom(s).
(1) Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Monera and Protista
57. Which of the following option represents taxa at
three different category levels ?
(1) Plants, Dicots, Monocots
(2) Plants, Dicots, Rice
(3) Plants, Dicots, Animals
(4) Rice, Wheat, Maize
58. Frankia can perform N2 fixation in
(1) Leguminous plant by forming root nodule
(2) Non-leguminous plant by forming root nodule
(3) Leguminous plant by forming stem nodule
(4) Non-leguminous plant by forming stem nodule
59. Eubacteria are different from Archaebacteria with
respect to
(1) Ribosome
(2) Linear DNA
(3) Cell wall
(4) Nuclear organisation
60. Key is an important taxonomic aid for identification
of plants and animals. Each statement of key is
called
(1) Taxon
(2) Couplet
(3) Lead
(4) Category

61. Division in plant taxonomy ends with the suffix

(1) Opsida
(2) Phyta
(3) Ales
(4) Aceae
62. Mango belongs to the family
(1) Anacardiaceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Solanaceae
63. Identify the shape of bacteria in the given diagram.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

(1) Spirilla
(2) Vibrio
(3) Cocci
(4) Bacilli
Protista includes
(1) Multicelled prokaryotes
(2) Unicelled eukaryotes
(3) Unicelled prokaryotes
(4) More than one option is correct
Two kingdom classification did not distinguish
between
(1) Unicelled and multicelled organisms
(2) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(3) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic
organisms
(4) More than one option is correct
Family comprises a group of related
(1) Species
(2) Order
(3) Class
(4) Genera
The last kingdom, which was proposed by
Whittaker is
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae
Which of the following taxonomical category does
not relate to plants ?
(1) Division
(2) Phylum
(3) Order
(4) Variety

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(5)

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

69. Which three features are the characteristics of

protostome ?
(1) Schizocoelic coelom, spiral and determinate
cleavage
(2) Enterocoelic coelom, radial and indeterminate
cleavage
(3) Schizocoelic coelom, spiral and indeterminate
cleavage
(4) Schizocoelic coelom, radial and determinate
cleavage
70. Cell aggregate plan is found in
(1) Hydra, Sycon
(2) Sycon, Leucololenia
(3) Sycon, Obelia
(4) Sycon, Adamsia
71. Tapeworm does not have digestive system because
(1) It lives in the intestine
(2) It is an endoparasite
(3) It does not need food
(4) It absorbs food from general body surface
72. Embryonated egg of Ascaris contains
(1) An egg with a gastrula
(2) An egg with a 3rd stage juvenile
(3) An egg with a second stage juvenile
(4) An egg with blastula
73. Among the following which has the largest number
of species ?
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Porifera
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Coelenterate
74. All sponges
(1) Are marine
(2) Have spicules
(3) Have spongin fibres
(4) Have spongin fibres or spicules or both
75. Indicate the correct statement related to Taenia
solium
(1) Male reproductive organs are found in the
posterior proglottids
(2) Female reproductive organs are found in the
anterior proglottids

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

(3) Both male and female reproductive organs are

found in all proglottids
(4) Gravid proglottids have only fertilized eggs
Onchosphere is the larval stage of
(1) Ascaris lumbricoides
(2) Aurelia aurita
(3) Taenia solium
(4) Schistosoma japanicum
Totipotent cells in sponges are
(1) Pinacocyte
(2) Choanocyte
(3) Myocyte
(4) Archaeocyte
The mesogloea in coelentrate is
(1) Gelatinous and non cellular layer
(2) Gelatinous and multicellular layer
(3) Gelatinous and unicellular layer
(4) Gelatinous and cellular layer
Gemmules in sponges are responsible for
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Producing water current
(4) Nutrition
Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(1) Sea pen, sea fan, sea anemone
(2) Cliona, Chalina, Hyalonema
(3) Euspongia, Spongilla, Poterion
(4) Hydra, Aurelia, Leucosolenia
Mark the correct set showing polymorphism.
(1) Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia
(2) Hydra, Velella, Porpita
(3) Hydra, Velella, Gorgonia
(4) Physalia, Velella, Porpita
Which of the larvae is of Wuchereria bancrofti
(1) Rhabditiform larva
(2) Planula larva
(3) Microfilaria larva
(4) Parenchymula larva
Blind sac plan is found in
(1) Trematodes and hydrozoans
(2) Trematodes and hyalospongians
(3) Trematodes and calcareans
(4) Hydrozoans and hyalospongians

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(6)

Two Years Course for Medical-2017

Unit Test-1 (TYWD)

84. All of the following are bisexual except

(1) Taenia
(2) Fasciola
(3) Sycon
(4) Obelia
85. Mesoderm is found as scattered pouches in
between the ectoderm and endoderm in
(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes
86. Canal system of Porifera is not associated with
(1) Respiratory gas exchange
(2) Food gathering
(3) Locomotion
(4) Removal of waste
87. The correct sequential larval developmental stage
in the life history of Fasciola hepatica is
(1) Miracidium larva sporocyst larva redialarva cercaria larva metacercaria larva
(2) Miracidium larva redia larva sporocyst
larva metacercaria larva cercaria larva

(3) Sporocyst larva miracidium larva redialarva cercaria larva metacercaria larva
(4) Redia larva sporocyst larva redia-larva
metacercaria larva cercaria larva
88. Pseudo-metameric segmentation is found in
(1) Fasciola
(2) Dugesia
(3) Taenia
(4) Hormiphora
89. Pseudocoelom is derived from
(1) Blastopore
(2) Blastula
(3) Blastocoel
(4) Morula
90. Metagenesis refers to
(1) The alternation of asexual and sexual phase,
and is found in the life history of Obelia.
(2) The alternation of larval and adult phase and is
found in the starfish.
(3) The alternation of asexual and sexual phase
and is found in the life history of poriferans.
(4) The alternation of asexual and sexual phase
and is found in the life history of Hydra.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(7)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(8)

TYWD
CODE - C

15/07/2015

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

UNIT TEST

MM : 360

Time : 1 Hrs.

(TWO YEARS COURSE FOR MEDICAL-2017)

Test-1 (TY)
ANSWERS
1.

(3)

19.

(1)

37.

(1)

55.

(4)

73.

(3)

2.

(3)

20.

(3)

38.

(4)

56.

(2)

74.

(4)

3.

(3)

21.

(2)

39.

(1)

57.

(2)

75.

(4)

4.

(4)

22.

(1)

40.

(1)

58.

(2)

76.

(3)

5.

(4)

23.

(3)

41.

(3)

59.

(3)

77.

(4)

6.

(1)

24.

(1)

42.

(1)

60.

(3)

78.

(1)

7.

(2)

25.

(2)

43.

(1)

61.

(2)

79.

(2)

8.

(4)

26.

(2)

44.

(3)

62.

(1)

80.

(4)

9.

(3)

27.

(4)

45.

(2)

63.

(1)

81.

(4)

10.

(3)

28.

(2)

46.

(2)

64.

(2)

82.

(3)

11.

(2)

29.

(1)

47.

(2)

65.

(4)

83.

(1)

12.

(2)

30.

(3)

48.

(3)

66.

(4)

84.

(4)

13.

(1)

31.

(4)

49.

(3)

67.

(3)

85.

(4)

14.

(2)

32.

(3)

50.

(2)

68.

(2)

86.

(3)

15.

(4)

33.

(3)

51.

(1)

69.

(1)

87.

(1)

16.

(1)

34.

(2)

52.

(2)

70.

(2)

88.

(3)

17.

(1)

35.

(2)

53.

(4)

71.

(4)

89.

(3)

18.

(1)

36.

(2)

54.

(4)

72.

(3)

90.

(1)