16-06-2024

5001CMD303001240008 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If then -

(1) is parallel to
(2)
(3)
(4) and are mutually perpendicular

2) The vector and are perpendicular to each other. The positive value
of a is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 13

3) The angles which a vector makes with X, Y and Z axes respectively are :

(1) 60°,60°,60°
(2) 45°,45°,45°
(3) 60°,60°,45°
(4) 45°,45°,60°

4) Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in
the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relation is true ?

(1) P = 2Q
(2) P = Q
(3) PQ = 1
(4) None of these

5) Five equal forces of 20 N each are applied at one point and all are lying in one plane. If the angles
between them are equal, the resultant of these forces will be

(1) Zero
(2) 10N
(3) 20 N
(4)

6) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then magnitude of difference is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 1/
(4) 1

7) Find the angle between the vectors and :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

8) Determine a vector which when added to the resultant of and gives

unit vector along negative y direction:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9)

1– + – + – +....... = ?

(1) 3/2
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) None of these

10) The slope of straight line AB :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) For a spherical balloon, the rate of change of radius with respect to time is 2/π cm/s Find the

rate of change of volume in cm3/s when radius is cm.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 7

13) If equation of ellipse is find its area.

(1) 12π
(2) 24π
(3) 36π
(4) 128π

14) Evaluate the integral :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) Find the value of 5[sin 100o cos27o + cos27o sin100o] :–

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 0
(4) None

16) If y = sinx + ex then is equal to :

(1) sin x + ex
(2) ex – sin x
(3) ex + cos x
(4) ex – cos x

17)

(1) 1
(2) 0

(3)

(4)

18)

If logex = 0.5 and logey = 0.2 then. What is the value of loge(x2 y3)

(1) 2.3
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.6
(4) None

19) If tanθ = and θ lies in the first quadrant, the value of cos θ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The radius of the circle x2 + y2 = 36 is :-

(1) 36
(2) 6
(3) 0
(4)

21) If , ; then vector having the same magnitude as that of & parallel to is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) For the vectors and shown in figure if A = 15 N, B = 15 N, then = ..........

(1) 15 N
(2)
(3) 30 N

(4)

23) For vector, identify CORRECT statement :

(1) is a unit vector

(2)
m/s is a unit vector
(3) is a vector if & are not mutually perpendicular
(4)

24)

The value of x on solving this quadratic equation is 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 :-

(1)
and 1

(2)
and 1

(3)
and 1
(4)
and – 1

25) Which of the following is not equal to zero ?

(1) sin 0°
(2) sin 180°
(3) cos 0°
(4) cos 90°

26) Find the value of sin 74°

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Find the value of cotβ in given figure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

28)

The number of significant figures in 6.59 × 1014 kg is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 18

29) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

30) The number of significant figures in 432000 m is:

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

31) The significant digits in 200.40 are –

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

32) A physical quantity where percentage error in a,b,c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Then find out percentage error in P is :-

(1) 14%
(2) 10%
(3) 4%
(4) 7%

33) The temperatures of two bodies measured by a thermometer are t1 = 20 °C 0.5 °C and t2 = 50
°C ± 0.5 °C. The temperature difference and the error there in is:

(1) 30 °C 1 °C
(2) 70 °C 0.5 °C
(3) 30 °C 0.5 °C
(4) 70 °C 1 °C

34) One full rotation of the cap of a screw gauge is equivalent to 5 mm linear shift. The cap has 100
circular divisions. Find the least count.

(1) 0.5 m
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 m
(4) 5 × 10–4 m

35) The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is :-

(1) [M2L2T]
(2) [ML2T–2]
 0
(3) [M L–1]
(4) [ML2T]

SECTION-B

1) The component of a vector along the vector is :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 10

2) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors and
. What is the area of parrelogram?

(1) 8
(2)
(3)
(4) 192

4) If Then the value of is :-

(1) 3
(2)
(3) 1
(4)
5) In the shown diagram arc length (ℓ) in cm will be:

(1) 18π
(2) 6π
(3) 9π
(4) 12π

6) =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

Which of the following equation is the best representation of the given graph's ?

(1) y = x2
(2) x = y2
(3) y = ex
(4) y = x

8) In the figure shown the angle between & is:

(1) 225°
(2) 60°
(3) 15°
(4) 135°

9) If two vectors and are parallel to each other then value of λ be :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10)

Column I shows some vector equations. Match Column I with the value of angle between and
given in Column II.

Column I Column II

A. P. Zero

B. Q.

C. R.

D. and A + B = C S. π

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R

11) Find the value of

(1)
(2)
(3) 2
(4) 1

12) The order of magnitude of 6.67 × 10–34 is:

(1) –34
(2) –35
(3) –33
(4) 33

13) After rounding off the number 4621 to 2 significant digits the value becomes :-
(1) 4600
(2) 4500
(3) 4700
(4) 4720

14) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one division on vernier scale is ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.9 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

15) If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be :

(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = – 2

(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Atomic mass of carbon is -

(1) 12 amu
(2) 50 amu
(3) 300 amu
(4) 1 gm

2) Which of the following is a compound

(1) H
(2) Na
(3) CO2
(4) O

3) Which of the following is a mixture

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) Air
(4) P4
4) Molecular mass of nitrogen is

(1) 28 u
(2) 32 u
(3) 48 u
(4) 1 g

5) Number of moles in 11.2 CO2 gas at NTP

(1) 0.5 mol

(2) 6 mol
(3) 1 mol
(4) 12 mol

6) Same mass of H2 and He are present in closed container then ratio of their number of moles is

(1)

(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 5 : 2

7) 3 moles of ammonia (NH3) have mass

(1) 72 gram
(2) 8 gram
(3) 51 gram
(4) 100 gram

8) For the reaction A + B → 2C if 3 moles of A and 5 moles of B are taken then which of the
following is limiting reagent

(1) B
(2) A
(3) C
(4) both A and B

9) Volume of Hydrogen required to completely react with 30 litre of Nitrogen for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(1) 20 litre
(2) 40 litre
(3) 200 litre
(4) 90 litre

10) Which of the following is excess reagent in the given reaction if 2 moles of A and 5 moles of B
taken
A + 2B → C

(1) B
(2) A
(3) both A and B
(4) None

11) If a hydrocarbon contains 80% by mass of carbon and 20% by mass of hydrogen then simplest
formula of compound is (Given : simplest formula is empirical formula)

(1) CH
(2) CH4
(3) CH3
(4) CH5

12) If atomic mass of X and Y are 10 u and 20 u respectively then molecular mass of X2Y3 will be

(1) 80 u
(2) 10 u
(3) 190 u
(4) 300 u

13) Atomicity of S8 molecule is

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 50
(4) 70

14) Number of moles of Hydrogen present in 0.1 mol NH3 is

(1) 0.3
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 5

15) When 1000 gram of ethylene polymerises to polythene according to equation

The weight of polyethylene produced will be:

(1) 10 gram
(2) 2000 gram
(3) 4000 gram
(4) 1000 gram

16) A chemical equation is balanced according to

(1) Le chhattlier principle
(2) Law of conservation of mass
(3) Gauss law
(4) Henry's law

17) 10 gram of CaCO3 decompose to form 4.4 gram CO2 find mass of CaO formed during the reaction
CaCO3(s) → CaO (s) + CO2(g)

(1) 5.6 gram

(2) 20 gram
(3) 2 gram
(4) 1 gram

18)

Emprical formula of glucose (C6H12O6) and Acetic acid (CH3COOH)

(1) same
(2) different
(3) CO
(4) CH

19) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it its. Empirical formula is

(1) SO2
(2) S2O3
(3) H2S
(4) S2O

20) 26 ml of CO2 passed over red het coke. The volume of co evolved is
C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)

(1) 52 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 100 ml

21) Modern atomic weight scale is based on

(1) H -1
(2) C - 12
(3) O - 16
(4) N - 14

22) If molecular mass for a gas is x the it's vapour density will be
(1) x
(2) x/2
(3) x/4
(4) 2x

23) Calculate molecular mass for a gas having vapour density 1

(1) 4
(2) 40
(3) 3
(4) 2

24) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is:

(1) 24 g
(2) 16 g
(3) 2 g
(4) 40 u

25) The vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3 their molecular masses are in the ratio of
:

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 4 : 1

26) In a compound of A and B if 25 g of A and 75 g of B is present Calculate it's empirical formula

(Atomic weight of A = 12.5)
(Atomic weight of B = 37.5)

(1) AB
(2) A3B2
(3) A2B3
(4) AB2

27) Ideal gas equation is given by

(1) PV = nRT
(2) P = F/A
(3) P = RT
(4) All of the above

28) If 3 moles of NaOH is present in 6 litre of solution then molarity is :

(1) 20 M
(2) 10 M
(3) 2.5 M
(4) 0.5 M

29) Number of moles of H2SO4 required to prepare 5 litre of 0.1 M H2SO4

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 0.5
(4) 2.5

30) Current form of periodic table have

(1) 10 groups and 10 periods

(2) 7 periods and 18 groups
(3) 50 elements
(4) 14 elements

31) Helium (He) is_____ element

(1) f block
(2) h block
(3) d block
(4) s block

32)

longest period in present form of periodic table have

(1) 2 elements
(2) 12 elements
(3) 32 elements
(4) 15 elements

33) Group 17 elements are also known as

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Halogens
(3) Noble gases
(4) Aerogens

34) s block elements are those whose last electron enters in

(1) p subshell
(2) f subshell
(3) s subshell
(4) d subshell

35) The 14 elements collectively placed in 7th period separately at the bottom of periodic table called

(1) Actinides
(2) d block elements
(3) coinage metals
(4) typical elements

SECTION-B

1) One mole is equal to

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 5 × 1020
(3) 1010
(4) 10

2) Unit of molar mass is

(1) amu
(2) g mol-1
(3) milligram
(4) cm

3) Which of the following is not concentration term

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) % W/w
(4) Gram

4) Assertion (A): Elements are made up of only one type of atoms.

Reason (R): Atomic mass of oxygen is 124.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

5) Which of the following is correct for H2O

(1) mole of H = 2 × mole of H2O

(2) mole of O = 10 × mole of H2O
(3) mole of N = 3 × mole of H2O
(4) mole of H = 5 × mole of H2O

6) Atomic number 7, 15, 33, 51 represent the

(1) carbon family

(2) sodium family
(3) nitrogen family
(4) halogen family

7) IUPAC name of the element having Z = 112.

(1) Unununium (Uuu)

(2) Unnilunium (Unu)
(3) Unnilennium (Une)
(4) Ununbium (Uub)

8) The newly discovered noble gas have atomic number (Z)

(1) Z = 98
(2) Z = 8
(3) Z = 111
(4) Z = 118

9) Which of the following are not consider as a transition elements

(1) Zn, Cd, Hg

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Pt, Pd, Ni

10) Electronic configuration of the element having atomic number 118.

(1) [Ar] 4s2

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(3) [Xe] 6s2 4f14 5d10
(4) [Rn] 7s2 5f14 6d10 7p6

11) Which block contains mostly gaseous elements

(1) s block
(2) p block
(3) f block
(4) d block

12) Group number of f block elements is

(1) 18
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 10

13) General electronic configuration of s block elements is {n = period number}

(1) ns1-2
(2) ns2 (n-1) d10
(3) ns2 (n-1) d1-10
(4) ns2 np6

14) Elements after uranium are called

(1) noble gases

(2) Transuranic elements
(3) d block elements
(4) Alkali metals

15) Molar mass of Nitrogen gas

(1) 28 gram/ mole

(2) 380 gram/ mole
(3) 250 gram/ mole
(4) 150 gram/ mole

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) All of the following are considered to be the event concerned with cell division except

(1) DNA replication

(2) Glucose synthesis
(3) Cytoplasmic increase
(4) Genome duplication

2) The approximate time taken to divide once by a typical human cell in culture is

(1) 24 hours
(2) 38 minutes
(3) 90 minutes
(4) 30 hours

3) In a culture medium typical human cell and yeast cell are placed for division. How many more
cycle of division yeast cell complete than human cell in same time period-

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 15
(4) 24

4) If a human cell takes X unit time to complete its cell cycle then, what would be the duration of its
M phase?

(1) More than 95% of X

(2) X/2 unit time
(3) 95% of X
(4) Less than 5% of X

5) M phase of a cell ends with

(1) Separation of chromosomes

(2) Replication of DNA
(3) Division of cytoplasm
(4) Condensation of chromatin

6) Protein synthesis occur in

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S - phase
(4) All

7) Which of the following sequences regarding different phase of a cell is acceptable?

(1) M → G1 → G0 → G1
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M
(3) M → S → G1 → G0
(4) G0 → G1 → G2 → S

8) Doubling of the amount of DNA in a cell occurs during

(1) The phase that occurs just after M phase

(2) Synthesis phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) The phase that occurs just after G2 phase

9) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) In human, mitotic cell division is only seen in the diploid somatic cell
(2) The cells in quiescent stage remain metabolically active
(3) In male honey bee, haploid cells do not divide by mitosis
(4) Plants can show mitotic division in both haploid and diploid cells

10) Mitotic division is also called equational division because

(1) Parent cell is divided into two daughter cells

(2) Number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same
(3) Size of parent cell and daughter cells is the same
(4) The daughter cells have just half of the number of chromosomes as that of parent cell

11) Prophase is marked by the

(1) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

(2) Duplication of centrosome
(3) Duplication of cell organelles
(4) Development of nuclear envelope

12) In prophase, each chromosome has two chromatids. These chromatids are attached together at
the

(1) Telomere
(2) Centriole
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

13) Mitotic apparatus is formed of

(1) Two centrosomes with chromatids

(2) Two asters together with spindle fibres
(3) Two chromatids with acrosome
(4) One primary constriction with two chromatids

14) The beginning of second phase of mitosis is marked by

(1) Complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope

(2) Attachment of spindle fibres with kinetochore
(3) Formation of nucleolus
(4) Formation of spindle fibres and asters

15) In which phase of cell cycle, chromosomes start to move to spindle equator?

(1) G2 phase
(2) Pro-metaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

16) If 60 chromosome are present in a typical diploid cell, calculate no. of chromatids in G2 - phase of
cell-

(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 30
(4) 15

17) Chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality during

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Interphase

18) Cytokinesis is

(1) Formation of cytoplasmic organelles

(2) Synthesis of cytoplasmic material
(3) Division of cell into daughter cells by separation of cytoplasm
(4) Disappearance of membrane bound organelles in the cytoplasm

19) During cell division in plants, the formation of new cell wall begins with the formation of a
simple precursor called

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Cell plate
(3) Microtubule
(4) Axoneme

20) Which of the following leads to the formation of syncytium?

(1) Nuclear division without DNA duplication

(2) Nuclear division without the disintegration of nuclear membrane
(3) Cell wall formation before the nuclear division
(4) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis

21) Meiosis involves

(1) Single cycle of nuclear division

(2) Single cycle of DNA replication
(3) Single cycle of cytoplasmic division
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication
22) Select the incorrect match.

(1) Leptotene - Compaction of chromosome

(2) Pachytene - Bivalents clearly appears as tetrads
(3) Zygotene - Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Diplotene - Appearance of chiasmata

23) In which stage of prophase I, recombinase mediated process is involved?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene

24) The stage of cell division in which terminalisation of chiasmata occurs is

(1) The final stage of prophase I

(2) The first stage of meiosis II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) The stage between pachytene and diplotene

25) Metaphase I is different from metaphase II as in the former

(1) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate

(2) Homologous chromosomes separate from each other
(3) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occur
(4) Metaphasic plate is not formed

26) The condition which is called as dyad of cells is seen after-

(1) Telophase
(2) Telophase II
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Telophase I

27) Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of a
chromosome in

(1) Prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis

(2) Metaphase I and metaphase II
(3) Metaphase of mitosis and metaphase II
(4) Prophase of mitosis and metaphase I

28) Given diagram represents life cycle of a cell showing the changes in DNA content during the
various periods as a function of time
Find the correct option.

(1) (e) - Gap - 1 stage, (a) - Synthetic phase

(2) (d) - G0 stage, (b) - Gap - 1 stage, (c) - M - stage
(3) (c) - Synthetic phase, (b) - M-phase
(4) (a) - Pre-mitotic phase, (d) - G1 stage

29) Though, the union of gametes results in doubling of chromosome number, which process
conserve specific chromosome number in such organisms?

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis
(3) Crossing over
(4) Recombination

30) A group of ten diploid male gamete mother cells are going to form male gametes. How many
cells of stage prophase-II will be seen during this process?

(1) Ten
(2) Twenty
(3) Forty
(4) Eighty

31) Which one of the following is the significance of meiosis?

(1) Production of identical daughter cells

(2) Cell repair
(3) Increase in the genetic variability in the population
(4) Continuous growth of plant body

32) Identify the different stages of cell cycle from the features given below and choose the correct
option.
(a) In oocytes of some vertebrates, this stage can last for months or years.
(b) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.
(c) The chromosomes cluster at pole, nucleolus and the nuclear membrane reappear.

A B C
(1) Diakinesis Metaphase-II Anaphase II
(2) Diplotene Metaphase-II Telophase-I
(3) Diakinesis Metaphase-II Telophase-I
(4) Diplotene Metaphase-I Telophase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage, this process occurs at
the end of

(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase

34) Chromosomes from A metaphasic plate(s) in metaphase I, and B metaphasic plate(s) in

metaphase II.
Choose the correct option for A and B.

(1) A - 2, B - 1
(2) A - 2, B - 2
(3) A - 1, B - 1
(4) A - 1, B - 2

35) The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(1) Post-mitotic gap phase → DNA synthesis → Pre-mitotic gap phase → Mitosis
(2) Post-mitotic gap phase → DNA synthesis → Post-mitotic gap phase → Mitosis
(3) DNA synthesis → Post-mitotic gap phase → Mitosis → Pre-mitotic gap phase
(4) Post-mitotic gap phase → Mitosis → DNA synthesis → Pre mitotic gap phase

SECTION-B

1) Cells remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate in which of the given phase/stage of
cell cycle?

(1) Mitotic phase

(2) Synthesis phase
(3) Quiescent stage
(4) Gap 1 phase

2) The stage of cell division in which exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes occurs is also characterised by

(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Clear appearance of chiasmata
(4) Involvement of recombinase enzyme

3) Shoot apex cell of mustard undergoes cell cycle. Which one is incorrect (w.r.t. synthesis phase for
the cell).

(1) Basic protein-Histone synthesis

(2) Doubling of chromatin material
(3) Duplication of centrosome
(4) None of the above

4) Select the wrongly matched pair.

Leptotene - Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres that gradually visualise under E.M.
(1)
(Electron microscope)
(2) Zygotene - Homologous chromosomes start pairing together
(3) Pachytene - Four chromotids of each bivalent become distinct and clearly appear as tetrads
(4) Diplotene - chiasmata appear

5) The number and ploidy level of cells formed from a diploid cell at the end of meiosis II is
respectively

(1) Two and diploid

(2) Four and haploid
(3) Two and haploid
(4) Four and diploid

6) G1 → S transition is carried out by

(1) Cyclins only

(2) Maturation promoting factor
(3) G1 cyclin and cdc2 kinase
(4) Mitotic cyclin and cdc2 kinase

7) Which one of the following structures is/are primarily responsible for cell plate mediated
cytokinesis in plant cells?

(1) Kinetochores
(2) Golgi derived vesicles
(3) Actin and myosin
(4) Centriole and centromere

8) At end of _______ Golgi complex, ER nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Telophase
(2) Prophases
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

9) The longest phase of meiotic cell division is

(1) Prophase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Prophase II
(4) Metaphase II

10) Special proteinaceous structure having one site for the attachment of DNA and another site for
the binding of microtubule is called as-

(1) Kinetoblast
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Chitosome
(4) Chromatophore

11) Yolk formation is associated with a special chromosome - Lampbrush chromosome in oocyte of
vertebrate. This event is associated to-

(1) Prophase
(2) Prophase-I
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase-I

12) Amount of DNA remain double in

(1) G2 - phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) All

13) How many below given statement are correct-

(i) At anaphase-I each sister chromatid attach to spindle fibre at kinetochores.
(ii) At metaphase-I kinetochore of each sister chromatid attach to microtubules of opposite poles.
(iii) Chromatids separate from each other in Anaphase-I
(iv) Chromatids separate from each other in Anaphase- II

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

14) If 8 pg DNA is present in cell at G2 - stage, find amount of DNA in each daughter cell after
meiosis-
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 16

15) If 10 bivalent are seen in metaphase, calculate no. of chromosome in each daughter cell after
meiosis-

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 20
(4) 40

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) In a polysaccharide the individual monosaccharides are linked by a

(1) Glycosidic bond

(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Ionic bond

2) Which of the following is not secondary metabolite.

(1) Morphine
(2) Cellulose
(3) Gums
(4) Glut-4

3) All the following are composed exclusively of glucose except

(1) Lactose
(2) Amylose
(3) Maltose
(4) Cellulose

4) A triglyceride molecule has

(1) Three fatty acids with two glycerol molecules

(2) One fatty acid with three glycerol molecules
(3) Three fatty acids with one glycerol molecules
(4) Two fatty acids with two glycerol molecule
5) All the following statements about the structure of glycogen are true except

(1) It contains α , 1, 4 glycosidic linkage

(2) It contains α , 1, 6 glycosidic linkage
(3) It is a copolymer of glucose and galactose
(4) Branched chain structure

6) Match the following

Column – I Column – II
A. Glycogen P. Lipid
Intercellular ground
B. Steroid Q.
substance
C. Collagen R. Abrin
D. Toxins S. Storage product
(1) A – q, B – p, C – s, D – r
(2) A – s, B – q, C – p, D – r
(3) A – p, B – s, C – r, D – q
(4) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r

7) Which of the following statement is not correct

(1) Starch is a polymer of glucose

(2) Starch is made up of amylose and amylopectin
Amylose is linear structure consisting of several glucose residues joined by 1, 4 glycosidic
(3)
linkage
(4) Amylopectin is a straight chain with several glucose residues joined by 1, 4-glycosidic linkage

8) Select the secondary matabolites from the list given below:

I. Alkaloid II. Flavinoids
III. Rubber IV. Essential oils
V. Starch VI. Gums
VII. Abrin VIII. Monoterpenes
IX. Vinblastin X. Lectins
Choose the correct options:

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 9

9) Structure formula given below represents

(1) Ribose
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Deoxyribose

10) Unsaturated fatty acid palmitic acid has ___ carbon and saturated fatty acid arachidonic acid has
___ carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon

(1) 20, 16
(2) 16, 20
(3) 10, 16
(4) 16, 16

11) Which of the following has low molecular weight, is monomer and separates in acid insoluble
fraction.

(1) Protein
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Lipid
(4) Polysaccharide

12) Tissue of which system have complex branched chain lipids in them

(1) Nervous system

(2) Respiratory system
(3) Circulatory system
(4) Digestive system

13) Which protein is responsible for transport of glucose into the cell

(1) Collagen
(2) Insulin
(3) GLUT -4
(4) Glucagon

14) Select the correct statement

(1) Lecithin is found in cell wall

(2) Collagen is most abundant protein on earth
(3) Fats have higher melting point than oil
(4) Protein is a homopolymer

15) In a polypeptide chain, first amino acid on left end represents

(1) Reducing end

(2) Non reducing end
(3) C-Teimuinus
(4) N-Terminus

16) Linear polymer of N-acetyl D-glucosamine is-

(1) Chitin
(2) Inulin
(3) Glycogen
(4) Starch

17) Identify the correct sequence of elements present in living tissue (Biomass) from abundance
point of view and arrange them in decreasing order:

(1) H2O, protein, carbohydrate, lipids nucleic acid, ions

(2) H2O Nucleic acid, proteins, carbohydrate, lipids, ions
(3) H2O, protein, nucleic acid, carbohydrate, lipids, ions
(4) H2O, Protein, nucleic acid, lipid carbohydrate, ions

18) The primary structure of a protein molecules has

(1) Two ends

(2) One end
(3) Three ends
(4) Multiple ends

19) Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with

(1) Three carboxylic acid residues

(2) Two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group.
(3) One carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate group.
(4) Three phosphate groups.

20) Epimer of Glucose is-

(1) Mannose
(2) Galactose
(3) Fructose
(4) Both 1 & 2
21) The most abundant substance in living organism is

(1) Protein
(2) Water
(3) Sugar
(4) Nucleic acid

22) Fatty acid palmitic acid has ________ number of carbon, including carboxyl carbon.

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 20

23) Phospholipids are arranged with in the cell membrane with the :-

(1) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the outer sides
(2) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the inner sides
(3) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the inner sides
(4) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the outer sides

24) Match the following

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

25) Monosaccharide

A B C
(1) Oligosaccharide Polysaccharide Glucose, Fructose
(2) Oligosaccharide Polysaccharide Maltose, Lactose
(3) Oligosaccharide Polysaccharide Starch, Glycogen
(4) Polysaccharide Oligosaccharide Starch, Insulin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Vinblastin and curcumins are ________

(1) Alkaloids
(2) Toxins
(3) Lectins
(4) Drugs

27) In given figure A and B is diagrammatic structure of ______

(1) Glucose and Amino acid

(2) Amino acid and glucose
(3) Glucose and Ribose sugar
(4) Ribose sugar and glucose

28) Which of the following group represents only essential amino acids?

(1) Alanine, Glutamine, Valine, Leucine

(2) Glycine, Histidine, Isoleucine, Serine
(3) Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Threonine
(4) Proline, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Aspartic acid

29) Amyloplast store -

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Starch

30) Glycosidic bonds are related to ---- which of the following biomolecules.

(1) Protein
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Polysaccharide
(4) 2 and 3

31) This from the following is not likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of
most of the proteins

(1) Hydrophobic interaction

(2) Electrostatic interaction
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Ester bonds

32) Pick the incorrect statement-

(1) Sucrose is a disaccharide

(2) Uracil is a pyrimidine
(3) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
(4) Cellulose is a polysaccharide

33) The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerization of-

(1) D - glucosamine
(2) Lipoglycans
(3) N - Acetyl glucosamine
(4) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate

34) Macromolecule chitin is

(1) Nitrogen - containing polysaccharide

(2) Phosphorous - containing polysaccharide
(3) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(4) Simple polysaccharide

35) This biomolecule is correctly characterized

(1) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
(2) Palmitic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(3) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane
(4) Adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

SECTION-B

1) Proteins are _________

(1) Homopolymers
(2) Heteropolymers
(3) Homocylic
(4) 1 and 2

2) α-amino acids are ________

(1) Methionine substitute

(2) Methane substitute
(3) Arginine substitute
(4) Carbohydrate substitute

3) Maltose gives rise to two molecules of

(1) Fructose
(2) Lactose
(3) Glucose
(4) Sucrose

4) Pick out the wrongly matched pair

(1) Primary metabolite - Ribose

(2) Secondary metabolite - Anthocyanin
(3) Protein - Insulin
(4) Cellulose - Heteropolymer

5) Chitin is a

(1) Polysaccharide
(2) Lipoprotein
(3) Nitrogenous polysaccharide
(4) Protein

6) Pentose and Hexose are common

(1) Monosaccharide
(2) Disaccharide
(3) Oligosaccharide
(4) Polysaccharide

7) Which of the following is simplest amino acids ?

(1) Tyrosine
(2) Glycine
(3) Aspargine
(4) Alanine

8) What does a protein lose when it denatures ?

(1) Its primary structure
(2) Its peptide bonds
(3) Its sequence of amino acids
(4) Its three dimensional shape

9) Which among the following is Heteropolymer?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Inulin
(3) Glycogen
(4) Proteins

10) Pick out the wrong statement

(1) Amino acids are substituted methanes

(2) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane
(3) Lecithin is a phospholipid
(4) Lysine is a neutral amino acid

11) One molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis gives

(1) One molecule of glucose and molecules of fructose

(2) One molecule of glucose and 1 molecule of fructose
(3) Two molecules of glucose
(4) Two molecules of fructose

12) Starch gives blue-black coloured compound on reacting with _____ in aqueous solution.

(1) Iodine
(2) Ketones
(3) Fructose
(4) K

13) α - D glucose and β - D glucose are ______ of D - glucose?

(1) Epimers
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Anomers

14) Which of the following on hydrolysis give only glucose.

(1) Sucrose
(2) Chitin
(3) Maltose
(4) Galactose
15) Assertion (A): Starch can hold I2 molecules.
Reason (R): Starch is a linear structure and gives blue colour.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 1 1 2 4 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 2 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 1 1 1 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 1 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒ θ = 90°

2)

a2 – 2a – 3 = 0
on solving (a = 3, –1)

3)

Comparing the given vector with

and

4)
⇒ P = 2Q

5)

If N = 2, ,R=0

6)

(a + b)2 = 12 + 12 + 2(1)(1) cos θ

cos θ = -
(a - b)2 = 12 + 12 - 2(1)(1) cos θ
=

7)

⇒ θ = 90°

8)

Let is required vector, then

⇒
⇒

9)

10) Slope =

11)

12)

13)

comparing with standard equation of ellipse.

a = 4, b = 6
Area = πab.
= 24 π

14)

15)

5[sin(100 + 27º)] = 5sin(127º) = 5sin(90 + 37º) = 5 cos 37º = 4

 16) = cosx + ex

= (ex – sinx)

17)

18)

19)

20)

centre of circle
x2 + y2 = R2
is at origin (0, 0)
and the radius is R.

21) R = b = 5

22)

23)

Component of vector which has magnitude 1 can have magnitude greater than 1 because cos and sin
has value not more than 1

24)

2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0
2x2 – 5x – 2x + 5 = 0
x(2x – 5) – 1 (2x – 5) = 0
(x – 1) (2x – 5) = 0

x = 1 and

25)

sin 270° = –1

26)

y = sin 74° = sin 2 × 37 = 2 sin 37 cos 37

27)

28)

6.59 × 1014 kg has three significant figures as the power of 10 is not considered for significant
figures.

29)

by R – 4 & R-5

30)

Trailing zeroes will be counted if unit placed.

31)

Trailing zeros in a number with a decimal point are significant.

32)

= ± [3×1 + 2×2+3+4]
= ± 14%

33)
Here,
t1 = 20 °C 0.5 °C
t2 = 50 °C 0.5 °C
The temperature difference of two bodies is
t = t2 – t1 = 50 °C – 20 °C = 30 °C
The error in temperature difference is given by
Δt = (Δt1 + Δt2)
= (0.5 °C + 0.5 °C) = 1 °C
The temperature difference is 30 °C 1 °C.

34)
= 0.05 mm

35) dimensional formula for energy is [ML2T–2]

36)

37)

Unit vector of is →

38)

= i + 2j + 3k, = 3i – 2j + k

Area of parallelorgram =

39)

AB sin θ = AB cos θ ⇒ tan θ = ∴ θ = 60°

Now

=
=

40) ℓ = r θ
 ℓ = (6π) cm

41)

42)

43)

Angle between = 120° + 15° = 135°

44)

For parallel vectors,

45) (A)
(B)
but

(C)
 46)

sin(90 + ) = cos

sin2 + sin2(90 + )
sin2 + cos2 = 1

47)

Since 6.67 is more than 5 so power of 10 must be increased by 1.

48)

4621 = 4.621 × 103

≈ 4.6 × 103 = 4600

49)

10 V = 9M
1 M = 10V/9
L.C. = 1M - 1V
.1 mm = 10V/9 - 1V

.1 mm =
0.1 = V/9
1V = 0.9 mm

50)

[Force] = [MLT–2]
[Pressure] = [ML–1T–2]
[Velocity] = [LT–1]
[Acceleration] = [LT–2]

CHEMISTRY

55) 1×11.2 = × 22.4

= 0.5

56)

H2 He
mass : ω ω
mol : ω/2 ω/4
ratio : ω/2 : ω/4

or

57)

= 17×3g
= 51 g

58)

LR Excess
A + B → 2C
t=0: 3 5 0
t = t : (3 - x) (5 - x) 2x
x=3

59)

= 90 lit.

60)

LR Excess
A + 2B → C
t=0: 2 5 0
t = t : (2 -x) (5 -2x) x
x=2

61) C 1

H
So, EF = CH3

62)

MM = (2 × 10 + 3x 20) u
= (20 + 60) u
= 80 u

64)

nH = 3 ×
= 3 × 0.1
= 0.3 mol

67)
10 g =

69)

S 1

70)

or VCO = 52 ml

72)

V.D. =

73)

molecular mass = 2×(VD) = 2 × 1 = 24

75)

Ratio of molecular mass and ratio of V.D. are same

78)

M = 3/6 = 0.5 M

79)

= 0.5 mol

BOTANY

ZOOLOGY