SAMPLE PAPER

NATIONAL

TALENT HUNT EXAM

2012
Science & Mathematics Mental Ability & General Knowledge

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456

Sample Paper

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

Time : 2 Hours

Part I

MM : 480

Science & Mathematics

SECTION - A : SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer : 1. The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given below. If all the four resistors are of the same length and same material, then the resistor having the minimum cross-sectional area is 3. Bio-gas is rich in (1) Methane (3) Ethane 4. (2) Propane (4) Butane

A B I C D

_______ between the different layers of water in the ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants. (1) Tidal energy (3) Waves (2) Temperature difference (4) Depth

5. (1) A (3) C 2.

V (2) B
(4) D

An AC generator can be converted into a DC generator by replacing (1) Its armature with a coil (2) Its concave magnets (3) Its slip rings with split rings (4) Two brushes with four brushes

A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the figure given below. 6.

If an alternating current changes its direction after every

1 s, then its frequency is 120 (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz

V P Q A
7.

(3) 60 Hz

(4) 70 Hz

V If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of cross-section halved, then the reading of the ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
(1) Increases, increases (2) Increases, remains the same (3) Decreases, remains the same (4) Remains the same, remains the same

In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is

1.5 A

1.5 3

1 3 2

B (1) 1.5
(3) 6
Space for Rough Work

(2) 3 (4) 2

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 8. The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in a region. Which of the following is the correct relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields BA, BB and BC?

Sample Paper 12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to be (1) 4 (3) 10 (2) 8 (4) 13

BA

BB

BC

13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on heating in air. When hydrogen gas is passed over this black surface, it turns (1) Brown (3) Red (2) Green (4) White

(1) BA = BB < BC (3) BA = BB > BC 9.

(2) BA = BB = BC (4) BA < BB < BC

14. 3MnO2 + bAl 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat The values of a and b for the above reaction are (1) 4, 2 respectively (3) 2, 2 respectively (2) 2, 4 respectively (4) 4, 3 respectively

The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then resistivity of the material is

V (V) 30 20 10 5 10 15
(1) 10 m (3) 4 m

15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode is made up of (1) Pure copper (3) Graphite (2) Impure copper (4) Pure tin

I (A)

16. Apart from sodium, which element among the following is kept immersed in kerosene oil? (1) Magnesium (3) Potassium (2) Zinc (4) Lead

(2) 2 m (4) 5 m

10. Which of the following is correct? (1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge (2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current (3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge (4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge 11. Anode mud is formed during (1) Anodising (3) Galvanization (2) Electrolytic refining (4) Corrosion

17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are present in one molecule of gypsum? (1) 10 (3)
1 2

(2) 2 (4) 5

18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore? (1) Haematite (3) Cinnabar
Space for Rough Work

(2) Bauxite (4) Magnetite

Sample Paper 19. xPb(NO3)2 xPbO + yNO2 + zO2 The values of x, y and z respectively are (1) 2, 2, 4 (3) 2, 4, 2 (2) 2, 4, 1 (4) 1, 2, 1

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the (1) Formation of ATP and NADPH (2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose (3) Photolysis of water (4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll 26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells (1) Swell up due to endosmosis

20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range of the solution is (1) 1 - 2 (3) 8 - 9 (2) 5 - 6 (4) 7 - 8

21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases and nutrients due to the deposition of (1) Lignin (3) Pectin (2) Suberin (4) Oxalic acid

(2) Shrink due to exosmosis (3) Swell up due to exosmosis (4) Shrink due to endosmosis 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in food, is secreted by (1) Pancreas (3) Small intestine (2) Gastric glands (4) Salivary glands

22. A cell organelle X, responsible for synthesis of proteins is produced by a structure Y, which is located inside another organelle Z. Identify X, Y and Z. (1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria (2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus (3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER (4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus 23. Which of the following elements is necessary to prevent goitre? (1) Calcium (3) Iodine (2) Iron (4) Copper

28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent (1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure (2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure (3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure (4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the (1) Vagina (3) Ovary (2) Uterus (4) Fallopian tube

24. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood (2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys (3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder (4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at the same height

30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is unable to maintain the balance and posture of his body? (1) Cerebrum (3) Cerebellum (2) Medulla (4) Pons

Space for Rough Work

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

Sample Paper

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS
31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 6x3 + 5x2 + 4x 1, then the value of k1 + l1 + m1 is (1) (3) 37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1? (1) 0.01 (3) 0.0001 (1) 15 (3) 25 (2) 0.001 (4) 1 (2) 20 (4) 30

1 4

(2)

5 6

38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is

4 (4) 4 6 32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60% subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net profit made by them after offering the discount is

(1) 7.5% (3) 12%

(2) 10% (4) 15% 2x2,

39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is 45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is 40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then the weight of Mohan is (1) 31 kg (3) 35 kg (2) 34 kg (4) 38 kg

33. If (1 + cotA cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = then the possible value of x is (1) 0 (3) 1 (2) (4) 2

1 2

40. In an acute angled ABC, if sin(A + B C) = then angle C is equal to (1) 30 (3) 60 (2) 45 (4) 90

3 , 2

34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD is (1) 11 : 16 (3) 9 : 16

1 BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 4

(2) 7 : 9 (4) 13 : 16

41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible by (1) 9 (3) 45 (2) 18 (4) All of these

35. The number of different positive integers lying between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is equal to 2 is (1) 16 (3) 36 (2) 24 (4) 64

42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product of the three numbers taken together is (1) 2592 (3) 31426 (2) 46656 (4) 239904

36. For getting a less than Ogive, we plot the graph of (1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits (2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits (3) Cumulative frequency with classmark (4) Cumulative frequency with range

43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of them at least, how many numbers may be greater than zero? (1) 0 (3) n/2 (2) 1 (4) n 1

Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper 44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x 2 6x + 8, then the value of
a 1 b 1 a 1 a 1 b 1 b 1

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = 3 and f( 2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is (1) 4
5 (2) 2

is

(2) 7 (4) 3

3 (1) 2

(3) 6

(3) 5

(4)

10 3

50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of quad BRDC and ar( BAP) (1) 1 : 5 (3) 8 : 3 (2) 4 : 2 (4) 7 : 2
2p p2 1

45. Two ogives for a particular data, one less than type and other more than type, intersect each other at a point P(a, b). The value of b is (1) Median of the data (2) Frequency of the data (3) Half the frequency of the data (4) Half the median of the data

51. If 0 < < 90, sin + cos = p and q then q is equal to (1) sin cos (2) cos + sec (4) cosec cos

46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of two numbers? (1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 (2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008 (3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252 (4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422 47. If cos + sin = to
2 cos , then cos sin is equal

(3) sec + cosec

52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD intersect at O such that perimeter of AOB = 30 cm and perimeter of COD = 15 cm, then is (1) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
, then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to 2

ar( AOB ) ar( COD )

(1) (3)

(2) (4)

2 sin

2 tan

2 cot

53. If A B

48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles 1 and 2 with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively, then the ratio of areas of 1 to 2 is (1) 7 : 3 (3) 6 : 49 (2) 6 : 7 (4) 36 : 7

(1) cosecA secA (2) 2 + cosecA + secA (3) 2 cosecA secA (4) 2 + cosecA secA

Space for Rough Work

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 54. The value of (1) 2/cosec (3) 2cosec
sec 1 sec 1 is sec 1 sec 1

Sample Paper 58. If p

1 q , then for p > 0 p

(2) cosec (4) sin

(1) q = 0 (2) q 0 (3) 2 < q < 2 (4) q 2 59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is equal to (1) 4 AC2 (3) 6 AC2 (2) 5 AC2 (4) AC2

55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the cost price of the watch is (1) Rs. 80 (3) Rs. 84 (2) Rs. 88 (4) Rs. 83

56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 1 (3) 2 (2) 0 (4) 3

57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of the following is also divisible by the same number? (1) 296 + 1 (3) 216 + 1 (2) 216 1 (4) 7 233

60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an equilateral triangle is (1) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 5 (2) 1: 2 (4)
2: 3

Part II

Mental Ability & General Knowledge

SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as (1) 100 (3) 25 (2) 50 (4) 75 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following sequence? 2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50 (1) 18 (3) 37 (1) OMLI (3) OKLI (2) 26 (4) 50 (2) OMPI (4) OMKI

62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when will Friday be? (1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today (3) Tomorrow (4) Day after tomorrow

64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as

Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper 65. If JAIPOR is coded as 019658, then PIAJRO is coded as (1) 690185 (2) 691805 (3) 691080 (4) 691085 66. In a certain code, "Beautiful I peacock saw" is given by "ACDE", "girl beautiful nature" is given by "AFB", "worship saw peacock" is given by "GEC" and "Saw I beautiful" is given by "EDA". Which of the following is the code for "Peacock I beautiful"? (1) AEG (3) GDA (2) GAE (4) CDA

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Directions (Q.70 & Q.71) : (i) P + Q means P is the son of Q (ii) P Q means P is the wife of Q (iii) P Q means P is the brother of Q (iv) P Q means P is the mother of Q (v) P = Q means P is the sister of Q 70. What does A + C B mean? (1) B is the father of A (2) B is the son of A (3) B is the uncle of A (4) B is the brother of A 71. What does A = C + B mean? (1) A is the aunt of B (2) A is the daughter of B

67. A clock is showing 3:30 pm. If at that instant, the minute hand of the clock is pointing in the North-East direction, then the hour hand is pointing towards (1) North (3) North-West (2) West (4) South-West

(3) A is the niece of B (4) A is the sister of B 72. If A is 60 m South-West of B and C is 60 m South-East of the B, then C is in which direction w.r.t. A? (1) East (3) North-East (2) West (4) South

68. In a row of trees, a tree is the fifteenth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row? (1) 28 (3) 30 (2) 29 (4) 31

69. How many squares does the following figure contain?

73. In the following number sequence, how many such even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by their immediate preceding number but not exactly divisible by their immediate following number? 4782679365024681 (1) 17 (3) 21 (2) 19 (4) 27 (1) 0 (3) 3
Space for Rough Work

(2) 2 (4) 1

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Directions (Q.74 & Q.75) : Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure from among the four given alternatives.

Sample Paper 76. Rajesh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 49. If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Rajesh's rank from the start? (1) 14th (3) 26th (2) 24th (4) 27th

74.

Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are based on the diagram given below :

25

15 11 7 2 5 12 13

(1)

(2)

16

21

(i) Rectangle represents males (3) (4) (ii) Triangle represents engineers (iii) Circle represents urban (iv) Square represents doctors 77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is not an urban resident? (1) 16 (3) 7 (2) 5 (4) 13

75.

78. Who among the following is an urban male doctor? (1) (2) (1) 7 (3) 12 (2) 11 (4) 13

79. Who among the following is only a doctor but not a male nor hails from urban area? (3) (4) (1) 13 (3) 15
Space for Rough Work

(2) 11 (4) 12

Sample Paper 80. Find the missing number.

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 84. DTP : FWT : : STD : ? (1) UWH (2) V WI (4) UWF

7 286 16

(3) UVE

142 ?
(1) 68 (3) 66

34

85. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'PRAKASHAN' each of which have as many letters between them as in the English Alphabet? (1) None (2) One (4) Three

(2) 70 (4) 62

(3) Two 86. Find the odd one out. (1) Mango (3) Apple 87. Complete the series.

Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : Insert the correct missing number from the choices given below : 81.

(2) Banana (4) Carrot

3 6 7 39
(1) 61 (3) 72 82.

4 7 8 52

5
?

8 9 ?
(2) 67 (4) 84 (2) (1)

2 3 8

4 5 24

6 ? 54

(3) (1) 7 (3) 9 (2) 8 (4) 12

83. Weaver : Cotton : : Tailor : ? (1) Fibre (3) Clothes (2) Thread (4) Food
Space for Rough Work

(4)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Directions (Q.88 to Q.90) : Given below are three positions of the same cube having numbers 1 to 6 written on its six faces. Answer questions 88 to 90 after a careful study of the three positions of the cube.
4 1 3 6 4 6 1 4

Sample Paper 93. The missing value in given arrangement is

3 8 12 5 4
(1) 50 (3) 42 88. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? (1) 2 (3) 4 (2) 3 (4) 1 94. Find the missing number. 15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195 (1) 115 (3) 90 (2) 110 (4) 105

16 21

40 ?

(2) 52 (4) 36

89. The bottom face in the first figure is numbered (1) 6 (3) 5 (2) 2 (4) 1

90. The number on the face opposite to 1 is (1) 5 (3) 6 (2) 4 (4) 3

95. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Pinky. Manisha is to the right of Pinky. Anu is between Pinky and Manisha. Who would be second from right in the photograph? (1) Manisha (3) Shikha (2) Pinky (4) Anu

91. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days, B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C can do it in 18 days. If A, B and C work together, then the work would be finished in (1) 6 days (3) 8 days (2) 7 days (4) 4 days

96. If in a certain language: white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called violet, and violet is called orange. What would be the colour of human blood in that language? (1) Red (3) Yellow (2) Green (4) Blue

92. A clock is correctly set at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. When the clock indicates 3 p.m. on the following day, the actual time is (1) 2:50 p.m. (3) 2:48 p.m. (2) 3:10 p.m. (4) 2:40 p.m.

97. If 'p' stands for division, 'q' for multiplication, 'r' for addition and 's' for subtraction, then the value of 18p6q3r2s15p3 is (1) 15 (3) 8 (2) 11 (4) 6

Space for Rough Work

10

Sample Paper Directions (Q.98 to Q.99) : These questions follow a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Z shows the manner in which the folder paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by the four answer figures. Out of these four you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Z. 98. (3)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

99.

X
(1)

Z
(2)

(4)

Z
100. Having reached the place of meeting 20 minutes before 6:30 p.m., Prachi found herself 55 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. What was the scheduled time of meeting? (1) 7:00 p.m. (2) 7:05 p.m. (4) 7:25 p.m.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3) 7:15 p.m.

SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 101 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 101. Where is the National Physical Laboratory located? (1) Ahmedabad (3) New Delhi (2) Pune (4) Lucknow 104. The Parliament of USA is known as (1) Federal Assembly (3) Knesset (2) Diet (4) Congress

102. Which canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea? (1) Erie Canal (3) Panama Canal (2) Indira Gandhi Canal (4) Suez Canal

105. Kourou city is well known for (1) Port facilities (2) Racial problems (3) Satellite launching (4) Volcanic eruptions 106. Man passed from the food-gathering stage to the food-producing stage in the (1) Paleolithic age (3) Chalcolithic age (2) Neolithic age (4) Mesolithic age

103. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India? (1) Nadir Shah (2) Aurangzeb (3) Bahadurshah Zafar (4) Jehangir

Space for Rough Work

11

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 107. "Satyameva Jayate" has been taken from (1) Mundak upanishad (2) Rig veda (3) Katho upanishad (4) Atharva veda 108. The forest area known as 'silent valley' is in (1) Kerala (3) Nagaland (2) Uttarakhand (4) Karnataka

Sample Paper 114. During the British era, which city was the capital of India before Delhi? (1) Patna (3) Calcutta (1) Sitar (3) Tabla (1) 1911 (3) 1936 (1) B.R. Ambedkar (3) J.L. Nehru (2) Lucknow (4) Bombay (2) Shehnai (4) Bansuri (2) 1913 (4) 1935 (2) Mahatma Gandhi (4) S.C. Bose

115. Bismillah Khan was a legendary _______ Maestro.

116. Our national anthem was first sung in the year

109. Martyrs' day is celebrated on (1) 24 January (3) 28 January (2) 26 January (4) 30 January

117. The author of book "The Discovery of India" is

110. Angkor Wat temples are found in (1) Nilgiri Hills (3) Cambodia (2) Belgium (4) Palestine

118. Which Greek goddess of victory is depicted on the Olympic medals? (1) Athena (3) Nike (2) Aphrodite (4) Hera

111. The outermost layer of the Sun is (1) Corona (3) Medulla (2) Lithosphere (4) Photosphere

119. The first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal is (1) Vijender Singh (2) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (3) Abhinav Bindra (4) Khashaba Jadav 120. Who won the first Indian Grand prix Formula One world championship? (1) Jenson Button (2) Mark Webber

112. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema'? (1) Ramanand Sagar (2) Amitabh Bachchan

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) Prithviraj Kapoor 113. When is the Independence day of Pakistan celebrated? (1) January 25 (3) August 15 (2) August 14 (4) August 16

(3) Michael Schumacher (4) Sebestian Vettel

Space for Rough Work

12