(5001CMD303001230004) NURTURE COURSE PHASE- I

R NEET(UG)
(MND11,12,13,14,15EM, MNF10,11,12EM) MINOR
07-05-2023
This Booklet contains 28 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
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2. The test is of 3 hrs. 20 Minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will
be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all questions
are mandatory) and Sections B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question
out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attepmts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions
will be considered for making.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any questions, the best correct option will be considered as answer.
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Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

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Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent :

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
Indore Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, Agrawal Palace, Plot. 02, Opp. Bhoraskar Hospital, Nath Mandir Road,
South Tukoganj, Indore (MP) - 452001 +91-731-4728500
.
 SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : TRIGONOMETRY, COORDINATE GEOMETRY, ALGEBRA,DIFFENTIATION,
INTEGRATION, GRAPHS, VECTORS UP TO ADDITION N SUBTRACTION.

SECTION-A 6. Magnitude of slope of the shown graph :-

Attempt All 35 questions
1. If y = 3 sin x + 4 cos x then find the maximum
value of y
(1) –5 (2) +5 (3) 7 (4) 1
2. Find angle between minute hand and hour hand (1) First increases then decreases
for 2:00 PM.
(2) First decreases then increases
(1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 90º (4) 60º
(3) Increases
3. 11π
Find value of θ = rad in degree :– (4) Decreases
3
(1) 760º (2) 560º (3) 660º (4) 460º 7. If y = x10 then find rate of change of y with
4. Range of cosθ will be:– respect to x at x = 1 :-
(1) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 0 (2) 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ –1 (1) 10x9 (2) 10 (3) x9 (4) 9
(3) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1 (4) –∞ ≤ cos θ ≤ ∞ 8. dy
If y = √ 6x then, find :-
dx
5. x2 y2
If + = 1 then graph between x & y :– (1) 6 (2) √ 6 (3) 2 √x
36 4 (4) √ 6
2 √x 2 √x 6
(1)
(2) 9. dy
If y = ex log x. Then =?
dx
(1) 1 (2) 1 1
ex ( + log x) ( + log x)
x2 ex x
(3) 1 (4) 1
ex ( + log x) ex ( + log x)
(3) (4) x3 x
10. If y = x sinx then dy/dx is :-
(1) xsinx + cos x (2) sinx + xcosx
(3) xcosx (4) cosx

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11. 1 dy 18.
If y = , then find :- ∫ (4 cos t + t2 )dt is equal to -
x 7 dx
(1) 7 (2) −7 (3) 7 (4) −7 (1) (2)
x6 x6 x8 x8
12. d (3) (4)
The value of (cos2 45∘ ) is:-
dt
(1) 1 (2) 1 19.
(3) 1 (4) 0 ∫ ( x1/2 + x−1 + π) dx =
√ 2 2
13. The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is :- (1) 1 − 12
x + ln x + C
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 3
(2) 2x 2 + ln x + πx + C
5 5 5 5
14. The equation of a function is given by y = 2x2. (3) 1 − 12
x − x−2 + C
The slope of graph of function at point P(1, 2) is 2
(4) 2 32
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 x + ln x + πx + C
3
15. Equation of following curve is y = 3x2 + 1 then 20. Evaluate ∫ 2x3/2 dx:-
area under curve between x = 1 to x = 2 is :
(1) 4 5/2 (2) 2 5/2
x +C x +C
5 5
(3) 4 3/2 (4) 0
x +C
5
21. In an equation y = 4x2 + 10x – 24 have :-
(1) Real and different roots
(2) Real but equal roots
(1) 8 units (2) 16 units (3) Imaginary roots
(3) 4 units (4) 1 unit (4) None of these
16. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + . . . . . . 20 terms is equal to- 22. Find value of x if x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
(1) 400 (2) 200 (3) 100 (4) 50 (1) 2 (2) –2 (3) 1 (4) –1
17. d 1
e =
23. If y = 1 + 1 + 1 1
+ +. . . . +∞ then the value of
dx 2 4 8
(1) e1 (2) e0 y is equal to :
(1) ∞ (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
(3) zero (4) None of these

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24. Figure shows graph and slope relationship :- 26. The slope of straight line 3y = √ 3x + 3 is :-
Column-I Column-II (1) 1 (2) 1
√ 3 3
(A) (P) Positive (3) √ 3 (4) 3
27. Find cos(74°) = ?
(1) 24 (2) 7
(B) (Q) Negative
25 25
(3) 16 (4) 7
− −
25 25
(C) (R) Zero 28. dy
y = ecosx ; =?
dx
cosx sinx
(1) – sinx.e (2) – sinx.e
(D) (S) Can not define (3) esinx (4) e–sinx
29. If y = 5x2 – 2x then value of x for which, y is
Constant in
(T) minimum is :-
magnitude
(1) 2 (2) 1
(1) A→QT, B→R, C→PT, D→P 5 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
(2) A→Q, B→R, C→P, D→P
5 5
(3) A→QT, B→RT, C→PT, D→P 30. dy
y = e–3x + logex3 + sin 2x ; = .......... ?
(4) A→RT, B→QT, C→P, D→T dx
(1) e–3x + 1 + cos 2x
25. For the given figure which is true ? x3
(2) 3e–3x + 3 + cos 2x
x
(3) –3e–3x + 3 + 2cos 2x
x
(1) sinθ = 3 4 (4) None of these
, cosθ =
5 5
31. d2y
(2) sinθ = 5
, cosθ = 5 If y = x3 + x2 + x + 1, then =?
4 3 dx2
(3) sinθ = 4 3 (1) 3x2 + 2x + 1 (2) 6x + 2
, cosθ =
5 5
(3) 6 (4) 6x2 + 2x2
(4) tanθ = 4 5
, secθ =
5 4
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32. R2
SECTION -B
KQ1 Q2
Evaluate ∫ dr This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
r2
R1
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
Where KQ1Q2 is a constant.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(1) KQ1Q2 [
1
−
1
]
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
R1 R2
questions will be considered for marking.
(2) KQ Q 1 1
1 2 [ − ]
R2 R1 36. d d
(sec2 x) – (tan2x) =..... :-
(3) KQ1Q2 1 1
dx dx
−
[
R2 2 R1 2
]
(1) 0 (2) sec x tan x
(4) KQ1Q2 [
1
+
1
] (3) sec x tan x – 2tanx (4) None of these
R1 R2

33. 37. x2 dy
Value of ∫ (1 − √x)xdx is :- If y = then ?
(x3 + 2) dx
(1) 2 3/2 2 5/2 (1) 4x − x4 (2) 2x4 + 4x − 3x2
(x) − (x) + c
3 5 2 2
(x3 + 2) (x3 + 2)
x 2
(2) 2
− (x)5/2 + c (3) (x3 + 2)2 − x2
2 5 (4) None of these
(3) 2 (x3 + 2)2
x − (x)3/2 + c
3 38. If radius of circle decreases as 0.2 cm/sec., then
2
(4) x rate of change of its area (when radius of circle
− 2x1/2 + c
2 is 1cm) will be :-
34. Maximum value of 5sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-
(1) 0.6π cm2/sec (2) 0.4π cm2/sec
(1) 13
(3) 0.4 cm2/sec (4) 0.2 cm2/sec
(2) 5
39.
(3) 12
(4) None
35. 1 1 1
The sum of the series + + +. . . . . . . ∞ 40
4 16 64
is :- Value of ∫ ydx is :-
(1) 4 (2) 1 0

3 3 (1) 500 (2) 300

(3) 3 (4) 1
4 4 (3) 400 (4) 100

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40. Match the columns :- 44. dy
If y = 4x2 + 2x then graph between and x is :-
3√
dx
(i) sin 210° (a) – (2)
2 (1)
(ii) cos 120° (b) – √3
1
(iii) tan 300° (c) –
2
1
(iv) cot 150° (d) – (3) (4)
√ 3
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-b
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
45. dy
(3) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c y = cos2 x, is :-
dx
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-d (1) sin 2x (2) – sin 2x

41. Which is correct :- (3) 2 sin 2x (4) 2 cos 2x

(1) sin 300° = 1/2 46. If y = 2x + 4
Find the average value of y in the interval 1 ≤ x ≤ 2
(2) tan (180° + θ) = – tanθ
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 4
(3) cos (270° – θ) = – sinθ
47. Which of the following can be the equation of an
(4) All of the above ellipse :
42. The equation of shown sinusoidal graph is– (1) x2 + y2 = 5 (2) x2 y 2
+ =1
9 9
(3) 2x2 + 3y2 = 5 (4) 2x + 2y = 5
48. ds
If s = 3t3 – 2t2 + 2t – 7 then at t = 3, =
dt
(1) 71 (2) 72 (3) 73 (4) 74
49. 2 π
∫ 3x2 . dx+ ∫ sin x. dx = ......?
(1) y = sinx (2) y = 5sinx 0 0

(3) y = 10sinx (4) y = sin2x (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 2 + π

43. Value of tan θ is positive in which quadrants ? 50. 2

∫ 3x2 dx = ??
(1) I and II (2) II and III 1

(3) II and IV (4) I and III (1) 9 (2) 7 (3) x3 + 6 (4) 3

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : ATOMIC STRUCTURE ( UP TO BOHR'S ATOMIC MODEL COMPLETE ).

SECTION-A 54. Assertion (A):- Bohr's model is not applicable

Attempt All 35 questions for He atom.
Reason (R):- He atom is multielectron species.
51. If in periodic table mass of C12 is assumed is
150 unit then what will be mass of O16 ? (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(1) 150 unit (2) 200 unit
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(3) 100 unit (4) 50 unit correct explanation of (A)
52. Which of the following having maximum value (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
of frequency among electromagnetic wave ?
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) γ-ray (gama) (2) Infra red wave
55. Calculate ionisation energy of He+ ions :-
(3) Radio wave (4) Visible rays
(1) 2.25 eV (2) 5.2 eV
53. STATEMENT-1 : Emitted radiation will fall in
visible range when an electron jump from n = 4 (3) 1.7 eV (4) 54.4 eV
to n = 2 in H-atom. 56. Which of the following graph is incorrect ?
STAEMENT-2 : Balmer series radiations belong (1) (2)
to visible range for hydrogen atom.
(1) If both the statement are TRUE, and
STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation
of STATEMENT-1 (3) (4)
(2) If both the statements are TRUE but
STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct
explanation of STATEMENT-1
57. Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom
(3) If STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and
releases the greatest amount of energy :-
STATEMENT-2 is FALSE
(1) n = 3 → n = 2 (2) n = 5 → n = 3
(4) If STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and
STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. (3) n = 6 → n = 5 (4) n = 3 → n = 6

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58. Correct order of radius of the 1st orbit H, He+, 63. The value of the energy of electron for the first
Li2+, Be3+ is :- excited state of hydrogen atom will be :-
(1) H > He+ > Li2+ > Be3+ (1) –13.6 eV (2) –3.40 eV
(2) Be3+ > Li2+ > He+ > H (3) –1.51 eV (4) –0.85 eV
(3) He+ > Be+3 > Li2+ > H 64. Minimum number of photon of λ = 4000Å,
(4) He+ > H > Li2+ > Be3+ Which provide 496.5J energy :-

59. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state (1) 2 × 1023 (2) 1 × 1021
is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level (3) 2 × 1015 (4) 2 × 1020
corresponding to n = 5 is :- 65. Angular momentum of electron in M shell is :-
(1) –0.54 eV (1) h (2) 1.5h
(2) –5.40 eV 2π 2π
(3) 1.5h (4) h
(3) –0.85 eV π π
(4) –2.72 eV 66. An electron in excited hydrogen atom falls from
fifth energy level to second energy level. In
60. The first emission line of balmer series in He+-
which of the following regions, the spectrum line
spectrum has the wave number.
will be observed and is part of which series of
(1) 3R (2) 20R the atomic spectrum ?
4 36
(3) 5R (4) R (1) Visible, Balmer
36 6 (2) Ultraviolet, Lyman
61. The energies E1 & E2 of two radiations are 25
eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between (3) Infrared, Paschen
their wavelengths i.e λ1 & λ2 will be :- (4) Infrared, Brackett
(1) λ1 = λ2 (2) λ1 = 2λ2 67. Which of the following is correct sequence of
(4) 1 specific charge ?
(3) λ1 = 4λ2 λ1 = λ
2 2 (1) e– > Na+ > p > n
62. The energy of a radiation whose wavelength is
(2) e– > p > Na+ > n
2000 Å will be:-
(3) Na+ > e– > p > n
(1) 5.8 eV (2) 10.2 eV
(4) e– > n > p > Na+
(3) 7.2 eV (4) 6.2 eV

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68. Wavelength of electromagnetic wave having 74. Find the number of photons of light whose λ = 5000Å
frequency 3 × 1018 sec–1 is :- and provide 1 joule energy?
(1) 1Å (2) 10–9 m (1) 4 × 1018 photons
(3) 10–11 m (4) 10–10 Å (2) 4.5 × 1018 photons
69. If the velocity of e– in 1st shell of H atom is x, (3) 2.5 × 1016 photons
then velocity in 2nd shell of H is :-
(4) 2.5 × 1018 photons
(1) x
(2) 2x 75. An element has atomic number 10, calculate
2
(3) x (4) x kinetic energy of element in 3rd orbit ?
4
(1) –110 ev (2) +110 ev
70. Atomic weight of an element is 62.8. It is found
as two isotopes : X60 and X64. (3) –150 ev (4) +150 ev
What is % occurance of lighter isotope. 76. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(1) 10% (2) 20% as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
(3) 30% (4) 40%
Assertion (A) : The emission spectra of atoms in
71. Ratio of radius of two Bohr's orbit of Li+2 is 1 : 9. the gas phase show a continuous spread of
Find the nomenclature :- wavelength from red to violet.
(1) K & L (2) L & M Reason (R) : In line or atomic spectra, the
emitted radiation is identified by the appearance
(3) K & M (4) K & N
of bright lines in the spectra.
72. If total energy of electron of H-atom is –1.51
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
eV, then find PE :-
correct explanation of (A)
(1) 2.02 eV (2) –3.02 eV
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(3) 1.51 eV (4) + 3.02 eV correct explanation of (A)
73. On increasing radius, KE :- (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) increases (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) doubles 77. Deuterium nucleus contains :-
(3) decreases (1) 1p + 1n (2) 2p + 0n
(4) remains same (3) 1p + 1e– (4) 2p + 2n

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 −1
78. The number of electrons in [
40
19 K ] is:- 82. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiments
led to the conclusion that
(1) 19 (2) 20
(1) mass and energy are related
(3) 18 (4) 40
(2) the mass and the positive charge of an atom
79. Which one of the following is not the
are concentrated in the nucleus
characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of
radiation ? (3) neutrons are present in the nucleus
(1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in (4) atoms are electrically neutral.
whole number or multiple of quantum. 83. The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 × 107C kg–1,
(2) Radiation is associated with energy. then for an α-particle it will be -
(3) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed (1) 2.4 × 107C kg–1 (2) 4.8 × 107C kg–1
continuously but in the form of small (3) 19.2 × 107C kg–1 (4) 38.4 × 107C kg–1
packets called quanta
84. If the mass of neutron is assumed to be half of its
(4) This magnitude of energy associated with a original value where as that of proton is assumed
quantum is proportional to the frequency. to be twice of its original value then the atomic
80. Which of the following pair is isobar ? mass of 126 C will be –
14 23
(1) 6 C and 11 Na (1) Same (2) 25% more
(2) 24 Mg and 23 Na (3) 14.28% more (4) 28.5% less
12 11

(3) 4 He
2 and 16 O
8 85. If an electron makes a transition from 6th orbit to
(4) 14 14 ground state then calculate total number of lines
6 C and 7 N
obtained
81. The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be :-
[R0= 1.33 × 10–15m] (1) 15 (2) 30 (3) 10 (4) 20

(1) 1.2 × 10–15 m SECTION -B

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(2) 2.7 × 10–15 m
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(3) 10.8 × 10–15 m these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(4) 4 × 10–15 m more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.

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86. Assertion (A) : Line emission spectra is useful 89. Which of the following set is not isosters?
in identifying the element. (1) CO2 and NO+2 (2) CNO− and N2 O
Reason (R) : Different elements can show
exactly same line emission spectrum. (3) NO−2 and CNO− (4) N2 and CN −

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not 90. What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in first
correct explanation of (A) orbit to second orbit of H-atom?
(1) 4 (2) 1
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
1 8
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) 1 (4) 8
2 1
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
91. If the shortest wavelength of spectral line of H-
correct explanation of (A)
atom in Lyman series is x, then match the
87. Select the correct set of True or false for above following for Li2+.
statement :
I Bohr model is applicable of Be2+ ion.
Total energy coming out of any light
II source is integral multiple of energy of
one photon.
Number of waves present in unit length is
III
wave number.
e/m ratio in cathode ray experiment is
IV
independent of the nature of the gas.
(1) F F T T (2) T T F F
(3) F T T T (4) T F F F
88. The number of photons of light having wave
number 'x' in 10 J of energy source is :- (1) (A)-R, (B)-S, (C)-Q, (D)-P
(1) 10hcx (2) hc (2) (A)-Q, (B)-P, (C)-R, (D)-S
10x
(3) 10 (4) None of these (3) (A)-R, (B)-P, (C)-Q, (D)-S
hcx (4) (A)-S, (B)-R, (C)-P, (D)-Q

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92. Assertion (A):- When we give electron beam of 96. What is the maximum wavelength line in the
10.60 eV energy on hydrogen sample it will lyman series of He+ ion ?
excite to first excited state. (2) 1
(1) 3R
Reason (R):- The difference between n2 and n1 3R
is 10.20 eV only. (3) 4
(4) None of these
4R
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 97. A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and
then emitted 2 photons one photon is with
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the wavelength of 600 nm. What would be
correct explanation of (A) wavelength of second photon :-
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) 200 nm (2) 300 nm
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) 500 nm (4) 600 nm
93. For H– spectrum, electron transition takes place 98. The isotopes of Bromine Br79 and Br81 are in the
from n = 5, to n = 2, then emitted wave length of ratio 1 : 1. Then average atomic weight will be :-
photon is 434 nm. The wave length of photon in
electron transition from n = 4 to n = 2 will be :- (1) 70 (2) 80 (3) 82 (4) 78

(1) 586 nm (2) 49 nm 99. An electron in H atom jumps from the third
energy level to the first energy level. The change
(3) 486 nm (4) 400 nm in the potential energy of the electron is :-
94. Find out the distance between 2nd & 3rd orbit of (1) 12.09 eV (2) 6.04 eV
H-atom :-
(3) 24.18 eV (4) 3.01 eV
(1) 2.7 A° (2) 1.2 A°
100. If energy of 4th Bohr orbit of Li+2 ion is X eV,
(3) 4A° (4) None then calculate energy in 6th excited state of He+
95. The ionisation potential of an atom is 16 ev. ion in terms of X ?
what is the value of first excitation potential :- (1) 441 (2) 64
X X
(1) 10.2 ev (2) 12 ev 64 441
(3) 22 (4) 21
(3) 14 ev (4) 16 ev X X
21 22

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 SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : CELL UP TO RIBOSOME (EXCLUDING MITOCHONDRIA AND CHLOROPLAST)

SECTION-A 104. I. ER divide the intracellular space into two

Attempt All 35 questions distinct compartments.
II. SER is major site for synthesis of lipids.
101. Extrinsic proteins in Singer and Nicolson’s III. It is also called control center of cell.
model of cell membrane are IV. It modifies chemicals that are toxic to cell.
(1) Tightly attached to intrinsic proteins and V. The ER with ribosomes on their surface is
cannot be easily separated called RER.
(2) Tightly attached to intrinsic proteins and Which of the following statement is / are true
can be easily separated about ER.

(3) Superficially present but cannot be (1) None (2) All except III, IV
separated easily (3) All except III (4) All
(4) Superficially present and can be easily 105. Cell wall of Fungi(A), Bacteria(B) and Higher
separated. plants(C) is made up of ………….. ?
102. The golgi apparatus principally performs the function (1) A. Chitin, B.Peptidoglycan and C. Cellulose
(1) Packaging material Respectively.

(2) Modification of protein synthesised by (2) A.Protein, B. Peptidoglycan and C. Chitin

ribosomes Respectively.
(3) Formation of glycoprotein & glycolipid (3) A. Peptidoglycan, B.Protein and C. Protein
Respectively
(4) All of these
(4) A. Chitin, B. Peptidoglycan and C. Starch,
103. Which one of the following is incorrect in relation Hemicellulose Respectively
to difference between plant and animal cell-
106. Cell membrane is-
Character Animal cell Plant cell
(1) Selectively permeable
(1) Cell wall Absent Present
(2) Vacuole Absent or small Sap/True vacuole
(2) Permeable

(3) Cell Size Large Small (3) Impermeable

(4) Reserve food Glycogen Starch (4) Inelastic.

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107. Find out the incorrect statements- 112. George Palade observed granular structure under
(a) Blue green algae is a prokaryotic cell\ electron microscope which is composed of-
(b) W.B.C. are Ameboid in shape (1) RNA & DNA
(c) Mycoplasma is the largest cell.
(d) Microbodies are cell organells. (2) RNA & Carbohydrates
(e) Prokaryotes do not exhibit wide variety of (3) RNA & Proteins
shape. (4) RNA & Amino acids
(1) b, d and e (2) b, c and e
113. How many of the following cell organelle are
(3) c, d and e (4) c and e only bounded by single membrane-
108. Pits present in wall of plant cells helps to Mitochondria, Lysosome, Golgi body, Nucleus, ,
maintain protoplasmic continuation among cell. ER, Ribosomes, Centriole
The cytoplasmic channels present are- (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) Apoplast (2) Plasmodesmata (3) 6 (4) 3
(3) Osmosis (4) None of these 114. Cis and trans faces are present in-
109. Endomembrane System includes- (1) Endoplasmic
(2) Golgi body
(1) Nucleus- ER – Golgi – Vacuoles reticulum

(2) ER- Golgi – Mitochondria – Lysosomes (3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria

(3) ER – Golgi, Lysosomes, vacuole 115. Plasmodesmata has ER tubules called as-

(4) Only Mitochondria & Plastid. (1) Microfibril (2) Cisternae

110. Glycoproteins & Glycolipid formation site in (3) Desmotubule (4) Vesicles
cell is… 116. Unicellular organism are capable of-
(1) ER (2) Plastid (1) Existence independently & performing
(3) Mitochondria (4) Golgi bodies essential function of life.

111. ER Based detoxification of lipid soluble drugs (2) Existence in colony & performing essential
and other harmful substance is carried out by function of life with other colony member.
cytochrome- (3) Existence aerobically & essential function
(1) a1 – a3 (2) c possible in water only.

(3) b – f (4) P450 (4) Unicellular organism exists in tissues &

performs essential function together.
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117. Formation of acrosome is the function of- 122. Which one is incorrect (wrt. RER)
(1) Lysosome (2) ER (1) Participate in protein synthesis
(3) Ribosome (4) Golgi complex (2) Abundantly found in cells of adipose tissue
118. Find the correct statement- (3) Divide cytoplasm in two part
(1) Primary wall is capable of growth, which (4) help in assembly of nuclear envelop
gradually grow as cell matures 123. Which of the following is not the function of
(2) Middle lamella mainly made up of calcium SER-
pectate which holds primary wall and (1) Release and uptake Ca++ in muscular
secondary wall together coordination
(3) Cell wall not only gives shapes to the cell (2) Synthesis of steroidal hormone
but protect the cell from excess water entry
in cell (3) Formation of sphaerosome
(4) Algae have cell wall made up of cellulose, (4) Modification of protein
galactans, Mannans and calcium carbonate. 124. (A) As cell mature secondary cell wall
119. Correct sequence of protein (P) and lipid (L) in diminishes
(B) Cell wall is dead and selective permeable
cell membrane is (as per lamellar model) (C) Amount of phosphoglycerides and proteins
(1) L – P – L- P (2) L- P- P- L greatly vary from cell to cell
(D) Vesicles detached from convex face of
(3) P – L –L- P (4) P –P –L –L Golgibody may transform into lysosome
120. Animal cell contain non membrane bound (1) A and B correct (2) A, C and D correct
organelle called-
(3) Only C correct (4) Only B incorrect
(1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisomes
125. A → RER → C → D
(3) Centriole (4) ER Above line diagram represent biogenesis of
121. Ribophorins are…………which attach organelle, if ‘D’ is hydrolytic enzyme containing
Ribosomes over surface of ER vacuole, what is ‘C’-
(1) Glycoproteins (1) Cis-face of golgibody
(2) Proteins (2) Concave face of golgi body
(3) Alkaloid (3) Convex face of golgi body
(4) Carbohydrates (4) More than one correct

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126. Ribosomes are attached to ER by……………. 132. Cisternae are associated with which organelle-
subunit- (1) Ribosomes (2) ER
(1) 30S (2) 40S (3) Golgi Body (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) 50S (4) 60S 133. Match the following-
127. New cell arises from Column-I Column-II
(1) Bacterial fermentation (A) Golgi complex (i) Hydrolytic enzyme
(2) Regeneration of old cell (B) Rough ER (ii) Tonoplast
(3) Pre -existing cell Participate in
(C) Lysosome (iii)
(4) Non living material protein synthesis

128. The structure found between cell wall of two (D) Vacuole (iv) Cisternae
adjacent cell is- (1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(1) SER (2) Cytoplasm (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) Middle lamella (4) Cell membrane (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
129. One of the main function of Golgi body is (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
secretion, which occurs through the release of
134. Every living cell has a-
vesicles from-
(1) Chloroplast
(1) Cis face (2) Trans face
(2) Cell membrane
(3) proximal face (4) convex face
(3) Cell wall
130. The most abundant lipid in the cell membrane is-
(4) Food vacuole
(1) Cholestrol (2) cutin
135. Which of the following correctly matches an
(3) Cellulose (4) Phospholipid
organelle with its function-
131. Carbohydrate of the cell membrane participates in-
(1) RER - Synthesis of lipids
(1) Transportation of materials
(2) Golgi body - Protein synthesis
(2) Cell to cell recognition
(3) SER – Protein synthesis
(3) Catalysing reaction
(4) Mitochondria – Power house of cell
(4) All of these

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 SECTION -B 139. What is true for a prokaryotic cell ?
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) They are smaller in size
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (2) Multiply much rapidly than eukaryotes
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) Greatly vary in shape and size
questions will be considered for marking. (4) All of these
136. Formation of secondary cell wall occurs- 140. What is external to cell wall in some prokaryotic
(1) Inner side cell ?

(2) Toward primary wall (1) Glycocalyx layer

(3) Toward middle lamellae (2) Plasma membrane

(4) More than one correct (3) Both (1) and (2)
137. Fluidity of cell membrane is due to the- (4) None of these
(1) Lateral movement of protein within 141. In which of the following does active transport
confined domains take place ?
(2) Later movement of protein within over all (1) Pumps
phospholipid bilayer (2) Carrier protein transport
(3) Movement of lipids (3) Ion channels
(4) Flip-flop movement of phospholipid (4) Diffusion
138. Find correct statements- 142. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is called so due to
(A) Shape of cell may vary with the function the presence of-
they perform\ (1) Lysosome
(B) All eukaryotic cells are not identical
(2) Golgi granules
(C) Cell membrane is non-living boundary that
control in and out transportation (3) Ribosomes
(1) (A) and (C) (4) Protein granules
(2) (A), (B) and (C) 143. What is a thick, tough, layer of glycocalyx
known as ?
(3) (A) and (B)
(1) Slime layer (2) Capsule
(4) Only (C)
(3) Cell wall (4) Cell envelope
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144. Which one of the following is not considered as 148. Who proposed cell lineage /cell always arises
a part of the endomembrane system ? from pre-existing cell ?
(1) Golgi complex (1) Lamarck
(2) Peroxisome (2) Virchow
(3) Vacuole (3) Schwann
(4) Lysosome (4) Darwin
145. Which of the following structures is not found in 149. Select the incorrect statement from the following
a prokaryotic cell ? (1) An exception to cell theory is
(1) Ribosome Mycoplasma.
(2) Mesosome (2) Sedimentation coefficient of cytoplasmic
(3) Plasma membrane ribosomes of eukaryote cell is 60s + 40s.

(4) Nuclear envelope (3) polymorphic cell organellae is lysosome.

(4) Lysosomes are rich in Hydrolytic enzymes.
146. Smallest cell is that of-
(1) Virus 150. Ribosomes are present in-
(1) Prokaryotic cell
(2) PPLO
(2) Eukaryotic cell
(3) Acetabularia
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Chlamydomonas
(4) Only in mesokaryotic
147. Smaller cell is-
(1) Less active metabolically
(2) with smaller nucleus
(3) with larger nucleus
(4) More active metabolically

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 SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

Topic : ANIMAL TISSUE COMPLETE .

SECTION-A 154. Select incorrect option about given diagram :-

Attempt All 35 questions
151. "Linking & supporting other organs of body"
this statement refers to :-
(1) Tight Junctions
(2) Connective tissue (1) Cover inner lining of ducts of salivary
glands and pancreatic ducts
(3) Epithelial tissue
(2) Cover dry surface of skin
(4) Nervous tissue
(3) Main function is secretion and Absorption
152. This is commonly found in ducts of glands and
tobular parts of nephrons of kidneys is - (4) Cover moist surface of buccal cavity,
pharynx
(1) Simple cuboidal
155. The type of cell junction, which facilitates cell to
(2) Transitional epithelium cell communication is :-
(3) Stratified epithelium (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions
(4) Columnar epithelium (3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes
153. The diagram given below represent :- 156. Read the following statements and find out the
correct statement (s) :-
(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in
functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help
in secretion and absorption.
(1) Areolar tissue
(3) The function of ciliated epithelium is to
(2) Adipose tissue move particles or mucus in a specific
(3) Dense regular connective tissue direction over the epithelium.
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) All of the above

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157. In all connective tissues, except _____, the cells 161. Compound epithelium found in following places
secrete fibres of structural proteins called except :-
collagen or elastin :- (1) Dry surface of skin (2) Pharynx
(1) Blood (2) Bone (3) Duct of salivary glands (4) Stomach lining
(3) Cartilage (4) Areolar tissue 162. Which type of cell junction prevent leaking of
158. Which of the following connective tissue often substances across the tissues :-
serves as a support framework for epithelium? (1) Gap junction (2) Tight junction
(1) Areolar tissue (3) Adhering junction (4) Inter digitation
(2) Adipose tissue 163. Some of columnar or cuboidal cells get
(3) Dense regular connective tissue specialised for secretion and are called :-
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue (1) Ciliated epithelium and are of two types-
159. Select the option of location in which the given ciliated columnar and ciliated cuboidal
epithelia is found :- (2) Compound epithelium and are of three
types
(3) Glandular epithelium and are of two types
exocrine and endocrine
(4) Glandular epithelium and are of two types-
(1) PCT unicellular and multicellular
(2) Wall of blood vessels 164. The ground substance of connective tissue is
basically composed of :-
(3) Lining of stomach
(1) Lipids (2) Monosaccharides
(4) Fallopian tubes
(3) Phospholipids (4) Mucopolysaccharides
160. Transverse canals that connect Haversian canals
are : – 165. Mammalian bone differs from cartilage by
(1) Lacunae (1) Solid matrix
(2) Lamellae (2) Non pliable ground substance
(3) Volkmann's canals (3) Presence of chondrocytes
(4) Neural canal (4) Pliable ground substance

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166. In the given figure identify A, B C & D and 169. The inner lining of fallopian tube made up of:-
choose the correct option (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple columnar ciliated epithelium
(4) Simple squamous epithelium
170. Muscles are joined with skin with the help of
which tissue ?
A B C D (1) Areolar (2) Adipose

(1) Macrophage
Collagen
Mast cell Fibroblast
(3) Blood (4) Ligament
fibres
171. Hardest connective tissue of the body is :
Collagen
(2) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell (1) Cartilage
fibres

(3) Mast cells Fibroblast Macrophage

Collagen (2) Fibrous connective tissue
fibres
(3) Bone
Collagen
(4) Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage
fibres (4) Areolar connective tissue
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 172. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct regarding connective tissues?
167. Which cartilage is present on the ends of long (i) Connective tissues are most abundant and
bones? widely distributed in the body of complex
(1) Hyaline animals.
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(2) Elastic (iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone,
(3) Calcified cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose connective
tissues.
(4) White fibrous (iv) They form the internal and external lining of
168. Ligament consist of : many organs.
(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the
(1) White fibres cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
(2) Yellow fibres collagen or elastin.
(3) Both white & yellow fibres (1) (iv) only (2) (v) only
(4) Reticular fibres (3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (v)

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173. Mark the correct option :- 176. Pubic symphysis is an example of :
(I) Blood supply is absent in the matrix of (1) Hyalin cartilage
cartilage but present in perichondrium
(II) Matrix of hyaline cartilage is glass like clear (2) Elastic cartilage
(III) 2-6 chondrocytes are present in each lacuna (3) Calcified cartilage
(IV) Wall of eustachian tube is made up of (4) White fibrous cartilage
elastic cartilage
177. Which part of long bone helps in their
(1) Statement (I) & (III) are correct
elongation-
(2) Statement (II), (III) & (IV) are correct
(1) Epiphysis (2) Metaphysis
(3) Statement (I), (II) & (III) are correct
(3) Diaphysis (4) Epiphysed plates
(4) Statement (I), (II) & (IV) are correct
178. White fibrous connective tissue covering of
174. Consider the following statements (a-d) and muscle is called-
select option which includes all the correct one (1) Periosteum (2) Perimysium
only.
a. Bones have a hard and non pliable ground (3) Endomysium (4) Epimysium
substance. 179. Assertion :- All cells in epithelium are held
b. Bone matrix is rich in calcium salts and together with little intercellular material.
collagen fibres. Reason :- All animal tissue specialised junctions
c. Bone forming cells are osteocytes. provide both structural and functional links
d. Bones interact with visceral muscles attached between its individual cell.
to them to bring about movements.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Option -
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) Statements a and b Assertion.
(2) Statements c and d (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) Statements b and c Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(4) Statements a and d
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
175. Which of the following is an example of
unicellular gland- (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

(1) Pineal body (2) Paneth cell

(3) Goblet cell (4) Both (2) and (3)
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180. Assertion : Goblet cells of alimentary canal are 184. A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes
unicellular glands. and concludes the following characters :
Reason : Some columnar or cuboidal cells get (a) The cells are composed of a single layer of tall
specialised for secretions. and slender cells.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (b) Their nuclei are located at the base
Reason is a correct explanation of the (c) Free surfaces may have microvilli
Assertion. (d) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Base on the above features, identify the epithelium :
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (1) Cuboidal epithelium
Assertion.
(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(4) Glandular epithelium
181. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of :-
(1) Areolar connective tissue 185. Walls of blood vessels, Air sacs of lungs contain
______ :-
(2) Adipose tissue. (1) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Dense regular connective tissue (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Loose connective tissue (3) Simple columnar epithelium
182. Which of the following epithelium helps in (4) Compound epithelium
filtration and diffusion ?
SECTION -B
(1) Simple squamous epithelium. This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium. can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(3) Simple columnar epithelium. these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium. questions will be considered for marking.
183. Which epithelium is also called germinal
186. Dense irregular connective tissue consist of -
epithelium ?
(1) Parallel arrangement of fibroblast &
(1) Simple squamous epithelium collagen fibres
(2) Simple columnar epithelium (2) Tendon which connects bone to muscles
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium (3) Covering of organ without parallel
arrangement of fibroblast & collagen fibres
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium (4) Reticular fibres
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187. Read the following statements and find out the 190. Fill in the blanks :-
incorrect statement :- a. The ....1.... consists of two or more cell layers
(1) The structures of the cells vary according to and has protective function as it does in our skin.
their function. b. The ....2.... is composed of single layer of
cells and functions as a lining for body cavities,
(2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed ducts and tubes.
with little intercellular matrix.
(1) 1–squamous epithelium, 2–cuboidal
(3) Main function of compound epithelium is epithelium
secretion and absorption.
(2) 1–columnar epithelium, 2–squamous
(4) The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands epithelium
and of pancreatic ducts is covered by
compound epithelium. (3) 1–simple epithelium, 2–compound
epithelium
188. Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive
enzymes are secreted by :- (4) 1–compound epithelium, 2–simple
epithelium
(1) Exocrine glands
191. Most of the _A_ in vertebrate embryos are
(2) Endocrine glands replaced by _B_ in adults.
(3) Heterocrine glands A & B are respectively –
(4) Compound glands (1) Bones & Cartilages
189. Cartilage, bone and blood are example of :- (2) Cartilages and bones
(1) Loose connective tissue (3) Cartilages and Ligaments
(2) Dense regular connective tissue (4) Areolar & Connective
(3) Specialized connective tissue 192. Calcium gives rigidity to bones together with:-
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue (1) Sulphate
(2) Phosphate
(3) Chloride
(4) Carbonate

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193. How many statements are correct ? 196. Epiphysis part of long bones are the sites of :-
(A) The word morphology conventionally is (1) Production of salts
used for the study of internal organs in the
animals (2) Production of biles
(B) A group of similar cells along with (3) Production of RBC'S
intracellular substances perform a specific (4) Production of harmones
function called tissue
(C) Human body is composed of millions of 197. Structure present between adjacent bones of the
cells to perform various function vertebral column is :-
(D) Intercellular matrix are very little in (1) Specialised connective tissue
epithelial tissue
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Areolar tissue
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) Vascular connective tissue
194. Presence of "Semi-fluid ground substance" is a
198. Assertion :- Ciliated epithelium is mainly present
property of the :-
in the inner surface of hollow organ.
(1) Bone and Cartilage Reason :- Function of ciliated epithelium is
(2) Blood and Lymph move particles or mucus in specific direction.
(3) Fluid connective tissue (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) Areolar tissue & Adipose tissue Assertion.
195. Which of the following type of tissue found in (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
dermis of skin Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Dense Regular C.T. Assertion.
(2) Dense Irregular C.T. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Compound epithelium (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(4) Simple Columnar epithelium

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199. Assertion : Main function of compound 200. Match the following columns:-
epithelium is to provide protection against Column 'A' Column 'B'
chemical and mechanical stresses.
(i) Compact bone (a) Ribs
Reason : Compound epithelium is made up of
more than one layer (multi layered) of cells. (ii) Sesamoid bone (b) Collar bone
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (iii) Cartilaginous bone (c) Haversian canal
Reason is a correct explanation of the (iv) Membranous bone (d) Pisiform
Assertion.
(1) (i)– (c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (2) (i)– (c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a)
Assertion. (3) (i)– (d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) (i)– (b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

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