PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Competitive Examination (October-2016)

( ) for Recruitment of Lecturer Architecture in
the Department of Technical Education and Industrial Training
Training, Govt. of Punjab
READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS
QUESTIONS.
Candidates Name
____________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
Fathers Name
____________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
Date of Birth Category Code*
DD MM YYYY (*as given in the admit card)
OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________
Roll No. _______________
__________ Booklet No.
Candidates Signature (Please sign in the box)

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do
INSTRUCTIONS 9. The candidates shall be responsible to ensure that the responses
so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the meantime, the are marked in correct manner and any adverse impact due to
candidate can read these instructions carefully and wrong marking of responses would be the responsibility of the
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in respective candidate. The following are some of the examples of
CAPITAL letters. The candidate
can may also fill the relevant wrong marking of responses on the OMR response sheet.
columns (other than the columns related to marking responses
to the questions) of the Optical Mark Reader(OMR) response
sheet, supplied separately
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant 10. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet,
columns on this page. Use of fountain pen may leave smudges are advised to check the booklet to confirm that the booklet has
which may make the information given by the candidate complete number of pages, the pages are printed correctly and
illegible. there are no blank pag
pages. In case there is any such error in the
question paper booklet the candidate should immediately bring this
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the fact to the notice of the invigilation Staff and obtain a booklet of the
information given above is wrong or illegible. same series.

4. The candidate must fill all the columns given

give above on this page 11. The serial number of the new booklet should be entered in the
and sign at the appropriate place. relevant column of the OMR. The candidate should request the
Invigilation Staff to authenticate the change in serial number of
5. Each candidate is required to attempt 100 questions in 120 question booklet by obtaining the initials of the Staff on the
minutes,, except for visually impaired candidates, who would be corrected serial number of the question booklet
given 40 minutes extra,, by marking correct responses on the
OMR sheet which would be supplied separately to the
candidates
6. The candidate must write the following on the OMRs sheet: 12. The question paper booklet has 15 pages.
(a)Serial number of OMR sheet supplied to him/her for
marking the responses to the questions. 13. Each question carr
carries three marks.
(b)Serial number of the question booklet
Failure to do so may lead to cancellation of
candidature or any other action which the
Commission may
ay deem fit.
7. The candidate should darken the most appropriate response 14. There are four options for each question and the candidate
to the question by completely darkening the relevant has to mark the most appropriate answer on the OMR
circle/oval according to his/her choice of response i.e. a, b, c or response sheet using blue or black ball point pen.
d in the manner shown in the example below.
a b c d

8. Partly darkening the circle/oval on the OMR response sheet or 15. There is no negative marking for wrong answers or questions not
using other symbols such as tick mark or cross would not result attempted by the candidate.
in evaluation of the response as the OMR scanner can only
interpret the answers by reading the darkened responses in the
manner explained in preceding paragraph. Darkening more than
one circle/oval as response to a question shall also be
considered as wrong answer.

P-1
1. As per SI units, a giga represents a value of 10 raised to the power of:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9

2. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychometric chart indicates:

A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Specific humidity

3. Match the following:

1. Oslo Opera house i. Delugan Meissl
2. Museum of Islamic Art, Doha ii. Foster + Partners
3. Porsche Museum, Stuttgart iii. Renzo Piano Building Workshop
4. Eli & Edy the Broad Art Museum, Michigan iv. Snohetta
v. Zaha Hadid
vi. I. M. Pei
A. 1-i, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii
B. 1-iv, 2-vi, 3-i, 4-v
C. 1-iii, 2-v, 3-ii, 4-i
D. 1-v, 2-vi, 3-ii, 4-iv

4. Green, White and Black color bins are respectively used for:
A. Recyclable, Others, Non-recyclable
B. Recyclable, Biodegradable, Non-Recyclable
C. Recyclable, Non-recyclable, Others
D. Biodegradable, Recyclable, Others

5. City Planning According to Artistic Principles is a work by the architect:

A. Le Corbusier
B. Camillo Sitte
C. Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk
D. Peter Calthorpe

6. As defined in KYOTO protocol, CDM stands for:

A. Center for Development Mechanism
B. Clean Development Mechanism
C. Credit for Development Mechanism
D. Criteria for Development mechanism

7. As per NBC (Special Requirement for Low Income Housing in Urban Area), what is the Density norm
for mixed use development in cities?
A. 65-120 plots per Ha
B. 100-125 DUs per Ha
C. 70-100 DUs per Ha
D. 125-150 DUs per Ha

P-2
8. Arrange the following in their evolution from beginning:
A. Industrial city> Digital City >Smart city> Information city
B. Industrial city > Information city> Digital City >Smart city
C. Industrial city> Information city>Smart city >Digital City
D. Industrial city> Digital City> Information city>Smart city
9. Road way vertical alignment is controlled by:
A. Design speed
B. Topography
C. Sight distance
D. All the above
10. For construction in the regulated area next to a protected monument under ASI, one needs to
approach the following personnel:
A. Director General, ASI
B. Director (Administration, Planning), ASI
C. Additional Director General, ASI
D. Director (Monument), ASI
11. This refers to how the price and demand for real estate change as distance from CBD:
A. Sector model
B. Bid rent theory
C. Irregular pattern model
D. Conurbation theory

12. The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped is known as:
A. Frequency
B. Resonance
C. Reverberation
D. Echo
13. Gooseneck, Rosette, Volute and Turnout are terms associated with the following design element:
A. Windows
B. Doors
C. Stair case
D. Columns
14. A planner who strongly followed the motto "Diagnosis before Treatment" is?
A. Patrick Geddes
B. Ebenzer Howard
C. Robert Moses
D. Daniel Burham
15. Match the following:
1. Hippodamus P. Unit de' Habitation
2. Le Corbusier Q. Madrid
3. Daniel Burnham R. Piraeus
4. Arturo Soria y Mata S. Plan of Chicago
T. Letchworth
U. Frankfurt
A. 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-U
B. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-U
C. 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-T
D. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q

P-3
16. Transit oriented development includes:
A. Creates walkable neighbourhoods
B. Encourages transit use
C. Provides a variety of transportation choices
D. All of the above

17. Sector theory as used in urban planning is given by:

A. Walter Christaller
B. Clarence Perry
C. Harris & Ullman
D. Homer Hoyt

18. Waste management hierarchy: most favoured option to least favoured option:
A. Prevention Minimisation Reuse Recycle Energy recovery Disposal
B. Minimisation Reuse Recycle Prevention Energy recovery Disposal
C. Prevention Minimisation Energy recovery Recycle Reuse Disposal
D. Prevention Reuse Recycle Energy recovery Minimisation Disposal

19. A centre of activity; distinguished by virtue of its active function; it is a distinct hub of activity. In
better words it can be called:
A. Town centre
B. CBD
C. Urban core
D. Nodes

20. As per PMAY- Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, slum is:

A. A compact area of at least 300 population or about 60-70 households of poorly built
congested tenements
B. A compact area of at least 500 population or about 70-80 households of poorly built
congested tenements
C. A compact area of at least 250 population or about 60-70 households of poorly built
congested tenements
D. A compact area of at least 350 population or about 70-80 households of poorly built
congested tenements
21. Curb extensions, raised pedestrian crossings, narrow steep lanes are the measures for:
A. Traffic calming
B. Increasing speed of vehicle
C. Highway capacity
D. Horizontal alignment
22. Which of the following is a non-home based trip?
A. Home-Shop
B. Hospital-Home
C. Shop-Work
D. College-Home
23. Eulers formula for a mild steel long column hinged at both ends is not valid for slenderness ratio:
A. Greater than 80
B. Less than 80
C. Greater than 120
D. Less than 120

P-4
24. If the depth of a beam of rectangular section is reduced to half, strain energy stored in beam
becomes:
A. time
B. 1/8 time
C. 4 time
D. 8 time

25. The planning also needs to take into account regulatory frameworks. Which one of the following
best describes a regulatory framework?
A. A set of standards agreed by all scientists
B. Government legislation to ensure that projects meet acceptable standards
C. A set of guidelines agreed by the local community concerning the project
D. Agreed guidelines to take responsibility for ecological sustainability away from the
planners, constructors and operators

26. What is the range of regulated area for mining and construction with respect to a protected
monument in India?
A. 50-100m
B. 100-150m
C. 100-200m
D. 100-300m

27. Runoff mainly depends on following factor/s:

A. Slope and shape of catchment
B. Degree of porosity of the soil of the catchment area
C. Intensity of rainfall
D. All of the above

28. He advocated the concept of the Social City, a polycentric settlement, where growth is without
limit, surrounded by a greenbelt. He is:
A. Daniel Burnham
B. Frederick Law Olmstead
C. Arturo Soria y Mata
D. Ebenezer Howard

29. Which of the following is true about Egyptian pyramids and Babylonian ziggurats?
A. Pyramids are used as temple observations, while ziggurats are royal tombs
B. Pyramids have square plans, while plans of ziggurats are rectangular
C. Pyramids are sun-dried bricks faced with kiln-burnt bricks, while ziggurats use masonry,
huge blocks of stone
D. Both pyramids and ziggurats have square plans

30. Major aim of it is to analyse the travel pattern of each origin to destination (O-D) pair:
A. Trip distribution
B. Traffic assignment
C. Modal split
D. None of the above

P-5
31. The sewer obtaining its discharge directly from buildings is known as:
A. Lateral sewer
B. Main sewer
C. Trunk sewer
D. Common sewer

32. With an FAR of 2, how many floors can one build with maximum permissible 50% ground coverage
utilising full ground cover and assuming floors of equal area?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

33. A style of columns marked by un-fluted columns and a simpler entablature with no triglyphs or
guttae:
A. Ionic
B. Corinthian
C. Tuscan
D. Etruscan

34. As per NBC 2005, the minimum width for doors for enabling wheelchair users to enter or exit is:
A. 750-800mm
B. 900-1000mm
C. 1200-1350mm
D. 1500-1600mm

35. A vertical diaphragm acting as a thin, deep cantilever beam in transferring lateral loads to the
foundation is:
A. Pneumatic structure
B. Shell
C. Membrane
D. Shear wall

36. What kind of studies would be required for determining land requirements and for allocation of
space for land uses?
A. Traffic
B. Demography
C. Spatial
D. Geology

37. To add a reddish tinge of leaves to the landscaping, the following plant is recommended for the
scheme:
A. Lagerstroemia speciosa
B. Polyalthia longifolia
C. Delonix regia
D. Erythrina indica

P-6
38. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joints can be
avoided?
A. Tension failure of the plate
B. Shear failure of the rivet
C. Shear failure of the plate
D. Crushing failure of the rivet

39. The city is known for its radial city plan emanating from the Princes Palace:
A. Paris
B. Karlsruhe
C. Rome
D. Beijing

40. Which one of the below is an example of Coarse resolution Grid cells:

A.

B.

C.

D.

41. Expand OECD:

A. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
B. Organisation for Ecological Coordination and Development
C. Organisation for Ecological Co-operation and Development
D. None of the above

P-7
42. Which among the following is a symbolic
symbolic representation of Partial cloverleaf interchange
interchange?

A.

B.

C.

D.

43. Which architectural historian is known for his work titled The History of Indian and Eastern
Architecture?
A. Banister F. Fletcher
B. James Fergusson
C. Ananda K. Coomaraswamy
D. Percy Brown

44. Weakest section

ection in fillet weld is:
A. Throat
hroat of the fillet
B. Smaller
maller side
C. Side
ide parallel to force
D. Side
ide perpendicular to force

45. Zenith angle is considered from which direction:

direction
A. Clockwise from North Direction
B. Clockwise from South Direction
C. Anti-Clockwise
Clockwise from North Direction
D. Anti-Clockwise
Clockwise from South Direction

P-8
46. The Permaculture design principles summarise some of the following aspects:
1. Observe and interact 2. Produce waste 3. Catch and store energy
4. Segregate rather than integrate 5. Design from patterns to details
6. Use big and fast solutions.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 5
C. 2, 4, 5
D. 3, 5, 6.

47. Remote sensed data forms:

A. Flowchart
B. Polygons
C. Point data
D. Aerial photographs

48. The ultimate tensile strength of mild steel in N/mm2 is:

A. 140
B. 350
C. 550
D. 1000

49. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as:
A. Stringer beam
B. Lintel beam
C. Spandrel beam
D. Header beam

50. Following involve those operations that are normally required prior to the main data analysis and
extraction of information, and are generally grouped as radiometric or geometric corrections:
A. Image enhancement
B. Image transformation
C. Pre-processing
D. Image classification and analysis

51. The role of super plasticizer in a cement paste is to:

A. Disperse the particles

B. Disperse the particles and to remove air bubbles
C. Disperse the particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
D. Retard setting

52. The process of converting raw data into information:

A. Data - Data aggregation - Data analysis - Data presentation - Information

B. Data - Data analysis - Data aggregation - Data presentation - Information
C. Data - Data aggregation - Data presentation - Data analysis - Information
D. Data - Data analysis - Data presentation - Data aggregation Information

P-9
53. The key differences between Chaityas and Viharas were the:
1. Functional Aspect 2. Presence of stupa 3. Materials 4. Scale
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4

54. The ground water at site is tested for the presence of this element which is aggressive towards
concrete:
A. Nitrates
B. Fluorides
C. Sulphates
D. Chlorides

55. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding
activities, is known as:
A. Total float
B. Free float
C. Interfering float
D. Duration

56. According to Ian Bentley, this urban quality offers users a choice of experiences through forms, uses,
and meanings:
A. Legibility
B. Variety
C. Robustness
D. Vitality

57. As per NBC 2005, the area prescribed for equivalent car space (inclusive of circulation area) for
ground floor covered parking is:
A. 23sq m
B. 25sq m
C. 28sq m
D. 32sq m

58. Which landscape architect worked on the acclaimed Gardens of Versailles?

A. Andre Le Notre
B. Edouard Francois Andre
C. Jacques Garcia
D. Jean-Claude Nicolas Forestier

59. In the Cosmic Model Theory of Urban Design, a permanent settlement should be a magical model
of the universe and its.:
A. People
B. Living beings
C. Gods
D. Creations

P-10
60. The length, coefficient of thermal expansion and Youngs modulus of bar A are twice that of
bar B. If temperature of both the bars is increased by same amount while preventing any
expansion, then the ratio of stress developed in bar A to that in bar B will be:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

61. Feature classes can be stored in:

A. Geo-databases
B. Shape files
C. Coverage
D. All of the above

62. Urban Density is ratio of:

A. Growth and Area

B. Urban area and Total Buildings
C. Built-up area and open area
D. Urban population and Urban area

63. The following architect has not worked on the structure of St. Peters Basilica, in Vatican City:
A. Donato Bramante
B. Michelangelo
C. Leonardo da Vinci
D. Gian Lorenzo Bernini

64. The compressive strength of burnt clay bricks as per IS-1077 is:
A. 100 kg/cm2
B. 150 kg/cm2
C. 100-150 kg/cm2
D. 35-350 kg/cm2

65. Marble is:

A. Crystalline lime stone
B. Composed chiefly of silica and alumina
C. Fine grained crystals of feldspar and hornblende
D. Composed of carbonated of lime and magnesia

66. Match the group 1 infrastructure to their group 2 system:

Group-1 Group-2
(W) Social Infrastructure 1. Banking sector
(X) Physical Infrastructure 2. Education sector
(Y) Economic infrastructure 3. Energy sector
(Z) Heritage & Tourism infrastructure 4. Communication sector
5. Natural heritage
A. W-1, X-2, Y-4 ,Z-3
B. W-2, X-3, Y-2 ,Z-4
C. W-2, X-4, Y-1 ,Z-5
D. W-4, X-2, Y-3 ,Z-5

P-11
67. The main aspects of townscape analysis include:
1. Legibility of Urban Structure 2. Population density patterns 3. Visual study
4. Permeability of environment 5. Perceived development

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 5

68. The number of bricks required per cubic meter of brick masonry are:
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550

69. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in:

A. Two directions with break in the slope on each side

B. Two directions without break in the slope on each side
C. Four directions with break in the slope on each side
D. Four directions without break in the slope on each side

70. Select the correct statement:

A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
B. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel
C. Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel
D. High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel

71. Which of the following regulators has been merged with SEBI?
A. IRDA
B. PFRDA
C. FMC
D. None of the above

72. Where was the first Nuclear Power Station established in India?
A. Kalpakkam
B. Kota
C. Tarapur
D. Narora

73. Hadis is associated with:

A. Islamic Law
B. Settlement Law
C. Tax of Sultanate period
D. Mansabdar

P-12
74. The founder of Adwait Philosophy was:
A. Shankaracharya
B. Ramanujacharya
C. Mahatma Buddha
D. Madhvacharya

75. The first Anglo-Sikh War between the British East India Company and Sikh Empire started in:
A. 1845
B. 1846
C. 1847
D. 1848

76. Who was the first Chief Minister of Punjab?

A. Ajit Singh
B. Gurmel Singh
C. Master Tara Singh
D. Gopi Chand Bhargva

77. If 283 is written as 328, 347 as 734 and so on, then which of the following two numbers will
have least difference between them?
A. 347 and 518
B. 283 and 748
C. 827 and 347
D. 518 and 829

78. In a certain code GENIOUS is written as EGINSOU. How will GARNISH be written in that
code?
A. AGNRHIS
B. AGNRHSI
C. NGRHIS
D. NGARHSI

79. A printer is __________ device.

A. Input
B. Word Processing
C. Processing
D. Output

80. This can be another word for programme:

A. Software
B. Disk
C. Floppy
D. Hardware

P-13
81. What is the missing number X of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43 ?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14

82. The father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The
sum of the fathers and the mothers age is 51 years. What is the age of the son?
A. 7 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 3 years

83. What will come in place of (?) in the given number series?
17, 19, 25, 37, ?, 87
A. 63
B. 52
C. 55
D. 57

84. In a certain code ROAD is written as URDG. In that code how will SWAN be written?
A. VXDQ
B. VZDQ
C. UXDQ
D. VZCO

85. Twelve years hence a man will be four times of what he was 12 years ago. His present is:
A. 25 years
B. 20 years
C. 28 years
D. 30 years

86. Pointing to a man, Deepak said His only brother is the father of my daughters father. How is
the man related to Deepak?
A. Grandfather
B. Father
C. Uncle
D. Brother in law

87. With which of the following is the term Golden Handshake associated?
A. Share Market
B. Smuggling
C. Voluntary Retirement Benefits
D. Theft

P-14
88. Hard copy means:
A. Output on tape
B. Output on Hard Disk
C. Output on Printer
D. Details of Hardware

89. The only ape found in India is:

A. Gorilla
B. Chimpanzee
C. Hoolock gibbon
D. Oranguttan

90. Deforestation generally decreases:

A. Global Warming
B. Drought
C. Soil erosion
D. Rainfall

91. Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test?

A. Elisa test
B. Hybridization
C. Gram staining
D. None

92. Earth provides enough to satisfy every mans need, but not for every mans greed was said by:
A. Tagore
B. Gandhiji
C. Nehru
D. Ambedkar

93. Who among the following was associated with the Kuka Movement?
A. Satguru Ram Singh
B. Daya Ram
C. Sohan Singh
D. Lala Hardiyal

94. The ozone layer restricts:

A. Visible light
B. Infrared radiation
C. X-rays and gamma rays
D. Ultraviolet radiation

P-15
 95. Filaria is caused by:
A. Coccus
B. Fly
C. Wuchereria Bancrofti
D. None of the above

96. Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the earth towards the moon is the velocity to get rid of
the:
A. Earths gravitational pull
B. Moons gravitational pull
C. Centripetal force due to the earths rotation
D. Pressure of the atmosphere

97. Fathometer is used to measure:

A. Earthquakes
B. Rainfall
C. Ocean depth
D. Sound intensity

98. Vitamin B-12 deficiency causes:

A. Beri beri
B. Night blindness
C. Skin cancer
D. Pernicious anaemia

99. Baba Banda Bahadur was originally a:

A. Jatt Sikh
B. Rajput
C. Bedi
D. Sodhi

100. The rear view mirror of a car is a:

A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Fused mirror
D. Hybrid mirror

*****

P-16