ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Power System Restructuring and Power Management (EE-421/422/423/424)

UNIT 1

1) Optimal system operation involved

(A) Economy of operation

(B) System security

(C) Emissions at certain fossil- fuel plants

(D) All of above

2) Optimal system operation may say as

(A) Economy of operation of Power System
(B) Emission of operation of Power System
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of them

3) The economic dispatch problem is use to calculate

(A) Minimize the total cost of generating real power

(B) Minimize the total cost of generating reactive power

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of them

4) Which power plant is neglecting operating cost

(A) Hydro plant

(B) Thermal plants

(C) Nuclear plant

(D) None of them

5) Which power plant is considering operating cost
(A) Hydro plant
(B) Thermal plants
(C) Nuclear plant
(D) Both B and C

6) Input-output curve of a generating unit draw in between

(A) Operating cost and power generation
(B) Power Generation And Operating Cost
(C) Both Of Above
(D) None Of These

7) Operating cost consist of

(A) Fuel cost
(B) Maintenance cost
(C) Both A and B
(D) Only A

8) Incremental cost curve is

(A) Slope of Input output curve
(B) Slope of load curve
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of above

9) A generating station is not economical at

(A) Above the PGi min

(B) Equal to the PGi
(C) Below the PGi max
(D) Below the PGi min

10) A generating station is not economical at

(A) Equal to the PGi min
(B) Equal to the PGi
(C) Above the PGi max
(D) Above the PGi min

11) A generating station is economical at

(A) Equal to the PGi min
(B) Equal to the PGi
(C) Below the PGi max
(D) All the above
12) The system constraint are
(A) Equality Constraint
(B) Inequality constraint
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
13) I.S.O. is
A. Independent system operation
B. Independent system operator
C. Independent systematic operation
D. Indian System operator

14) For the same resistance of line the ratio, weight of copper conductor/ weight of aluminium
conductor , is
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.75
(C) 1.50
(D) 2.0.

15. The function of steel wire in a ACSR conductor is

(A) to take care of surges
(B) to prevent corona
(C) to reduce inductance and hence improve power factor
(D) to provide additional mechanical strength.

16. In high voltage transmission lines the top most conductor is

(A) R-phase conductor
(B) Y- phase conductor
(C) B-phase conductor
(D) Earth conductor.
17. For 11 kV line the inductance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 H
(B) 0.1 H
(C) 1 mH
(D) 0.1 mH.

18. For 11 kV. line the capacitance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 Farad
(B) 0.1 Farad
(C) 0.01 Farad
(D) 0.01 microF.

19. If 3000 kW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission
voltage will be
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.

20. The permissible voltage variation in transmission and distribution system is

(A) 0.1%
(B) 1%
(C)10%
(D) 25%.

21. The voltage of transmission can be regulated by

(A) use of tap changing transformers
(B) switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
(C) use of series capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
(D) any of the above methods.

22. The most economic voltage for transmitting given power over a known distance by overhead
transmission line is approximately
(A) 3.6 kV/km
(B) 1.6 kV/km
(C) 2.6 kV/km
(D) 3.6 kVkm.

23. String efficiency is given by

(A) (voltage across the string) / ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage across disc nearest to
the conductor))
(B) ((voltage across the string) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage across disc nearest
to the conductor)
(C) ( (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage
across the string)
(D) (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor))/ ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage
across the string)

24. For a 66 kV line having span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag will be
(A) 0.02 m
(B) 0.2 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 20 m.
25. In the above case if the span is doubled, the sag will be
(A) 2 m
(B) 4m
(C) 8m
(D) 1 m.

26. The reflection coefficient for a short circuit line is

(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) 0.5
(D) - 1.

27. In case the height of transmission tower is increased

(A) the line capacitance and inductance will not change
(B) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease
(C) the line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
(D) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered.

28. In a transmission line if booster transformer are to be used, preferred location will be
(A) at the receiving end
(B) at the sending end
(C) at the intermediate point
(D) any where in the line.

29 Material generally used for bus bar is

(A) copper
(B) aluminium
(C) steel
(D) tungsten.

30. Which of following properties has got higher value for aluminium as compared to copper?
(A) Melting point
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Electrical resistivity
(D) Thermal conductivity.

31. For carrying a 100 A (rms) current the cross-sectional area of aluminium bus bar should be at
least
(A) 1 mm2
(B) 10 mm 2
(C) 25 mm 2
(D) 50 mm2

32. Isolators are used to disconnect a circuit when

(A) line is on full load
(B) line is energized
(C) circuit breaker is not open
(D) there is no current in the line.

33. Tap changing transformers are used for

(A) stepping up the voltage
(B) stepping down the voltage
(C) both stepping up and stepping down the voltage
(D) supplying low voltage current for instruments.
34. Which device automatically interrupts the supply in the event of surges
(A) Earthing switch
(B) Series reactor
(C) Isolator
(D) Circuit breaker.

35. In a substation the equipment used to limit short circuit current level is
(A) Series reactor
(B) Coupling capacitor
(C) Lightening switch
(D) Isolator.

36. Which of the following equipment is not installed in a substation ?

(A) Shunt reactors
(B) Exciters
(C) Voltage transformers
(D) Series capacitors.

37. Which bus bar scheme offers the lowest cost ?

(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Breaker and a half scheme
(D) Main and transfer scheme.

38. Which is the most expensive bus bar scheme ?

(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Double bus bar double breaker
(D) Main and transfer scheme.

39. Current rating is not necessary in case of

(A) Isolators
(B) Circuit breakers
(C) Load break switches
(D) Circuit breakers and load break switches.

40. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit
breaker and earthing switch while opening a circuit
(A) Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker open isolator
(B) Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
(C) Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch
(D) Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch.

41. Which of the following correctly presents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit
breaker and earthing switch while closing a circuit
(A) Ensure circuit breaker is closed - close isolator - open earthing switch
(B) Ensure circuit breaker is open - close isolator - open earthing switch if any close circuit
breaker
(C) Ensure circuit breaker is open - open isolator - open earthing switch if any - close circuit
breaker.
(D) None of the above.

42. Which of the following type tests are conducted on isolators

(A) Temperature rise test
(B) Impulse stage with stand test
(C) Short time current test
(D) All of the above.

43. In a balance 3 , 4 wire AC system, the phase sequence is RYB. If the voltage of R phase is.
230 < 0 V, then for Y phase
(A) 230 < 0 V
(B) 230 < 60 V
(C) 230 < 90V
(D) 230 < 120 V.

UNIT 1

1. D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D

6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C

11. D 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. D

16. D 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C

21. D 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. C

26. D 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. C

31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. A

36. B 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. C

41. B 42. D 43. D

 UNIT 2

1. A load curve is a plot of

(A)Load versus generation capacity

(B)Load versus current

(C)Load versus time

(D)Load versus cost of power

2. For economy in generation power

(A)diversity factor should be high

(B)plant utilization factor

(C)load factor should be high

(D)load factor and diversity factor should be low

3. Which of the following category of consumers can provide highest load factor ?

(A)A domestic consumer

(B)A continuous process plant

(C)A steel melting unit using arc furnace

(D)A cold storage plant

4. The load of a consumer is generally measured in terms of

(A)Volts

(B)Amperes

(C)Ampere hour

(D)kW

5. The normal connected load of a domestic consumer is usually

(A)up to 10 kW

(B)10 to 20 kW

(C)25 to 50 kW

(D)50 to 100 kW

6. Load factor during a period is

(A)Average Load / Installed Capacity

(B)Average Load / Maximum Load

(C)Maximum Load / Average Load

(D)Maximum Load / Installed Capacity

7. Which of the following installation provides peaked load ?

(A)Arc furnace

(B)Air conditioner

(C)Air compressor running continuously

(D)Cold storage plant

8. Demand factor is the

(A)Maximum Demand / Average Demand

(B)Maximum Demand / Connected Load

(C)Average Demand / Maximum Demand

(D)Connected Load / Maximum Demand

9. During summer months the increased load is due to

(A)increased water supply

(B)vacations in institutions

(C)increased business activity

(D)increased use of fans and air conditioners

10. In a system if the base load is the same as the maximum demand, the load factor will be

(A)1

(B)Zero

(C)Infinity

(D)1%
11. A system having connected load of 100 kW, peak load of 80 kW. base load of 20 kW and
average load of 40 kW, will have a load factor of

(A)40%

(B)50%

(C)60%

(D)80%

12. Load due to one tonne air conditioner is nearly

(A)100W

(B)200 to 500 W

(C)1 kW to 2 kW

(D)5 kW to 10 kW

13. Load due to a ceiling fans is nearly

(A)10W

(B)40 to 50 W

(C)100 to 200 W

(D)250 W to 2000 W

14. Which domestic utility item has highest power rating ?

(A)Refrigerator

(B)Ceiling fan

(C)Tube light
(D)Electric iron

15. A stereo with two 10 watt loudspeakers will provide electrical load of

(A)more than 12 W

(B)12 W

(C)less than 6 W

(D)6 W

16. A diesel power plant is best suited as

(A)base load plant

(B)stand-by plant

(C)peak load plant

(D)general purpose plant

17. A gas turbine power plant usually suits for

(peak load operation A)

(B)base load operation

(C)casual run

(D)none of the above

18. Which power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW ?

(A)Steam power plant

(B)Nuclear power plant

(C)Hydro electric power plant

(D)Diesel power plant

19. Diesel engine power plants usually run on

(A)High speed diesel oil

(B)Kerosene

(C)Light diesel oil

(D)Inept

20. Which of the following can be used as fuel for closed cycle gas turbine plant ?

(A)Wood

(B)Furnace oil

(C)Any gas

(D)Any of the above

21. Capacity factor of a power station is

(A)Maximum demand / average demand

(B)Average demand on station / maximum demand on station

(C)maximum installed capacity of station / average demand of station

(D)average demand of station / maximum installed capacity of station

22. Which of the following plant is expected to have the longest expected life ?

(A)Hydroelectric

(B)steam
(C)Diesel

(D)All have equal life

23. The life of underground cables is taken as

(A)1 year

(B)2 year

(C)5 year

(D)40 year

24. For a hydro-electric plant, the life of a RCC dam is taken as

(A)5 years

(B)10 years

(C)40 years

(D)100 years

25. A 500 kW plant costs $ 1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges are estimated at 14% and
operating cost is 13 cents per kWh. The plant averages 200 kW for 5000 hours of the year, 450
kW for 1200 hrs and 80 kW for the remaining period. The average cost of production of
electricity per kWh will be close to

(A)5 cent

(B)12 cent

(C)17 cent

(D)37 cent

26. Two tariffs are offered

(P) $. 200 plus 5 cents per unit

(Q) A flat rate of 30 cents per unit

From the above it can be concluded that

(A)Tariff P will give lower charges up to 800 kWh

(B)Tariff P will give lower charges for consumption of more than 800 units

(C)Tariff Q will give lower charges for consumption of more than 800 kWh

(D)Both will give identical charges beyond 1500 kWh.

27. Two steam turbines each of 20,000 kW capacity drive a total load of 30,000 kW. The steam
rates in kilogram per hour are

TP1 = 2000 + 10 P1 - 0.0001 P12

TP2 = 2000 + 10 P2 - 0.0001 P12

The best division of the load will be

(A)TP1 =20,000 kW, TP3 = 10,000 kW

(B)TP1 =10,000 kW, TP3 = 20,000 kW

(C)TP1 =15,000 kW, TP3 = 15,000 kW

(D)TP1 =30,000 kW, TP3 = 0

28. Anything having some heat value can be used as fuel in case of

(A)diesel engines

(B)petrol engine

(C)closed cycle gas turbines

(D)open cycle gas turbines

29. For a power plant the expenditure on which of the following item is expected to be negligible
?

(A)Wages

(B)Taxes

(C)Insurance

(D)Publicity

30. At break even point

(A)constant expanses profits

(B)total sales - variable expenses

(C)variable expenses - profits - total sales

(D)total sales = total expenses

31. If the average interest rate is 12% and depreciation is to be accounted for be straight line
method at 10% which of the following equipment will be most economical ?

(A)Initial cost $7000 Annual disbursement $2500

(B)Initial cost $4000 Annual disbursement $6000

(C)Initial cost $6000 Annual disbursement $3880

(D)Initial cost $5000 Annual disbursement $3500

32. A 120 MW generator is usually

(A)air cooled

(B)hydrogen cooled

(C)oxygen cooled
(D)nitrogen cooled

33. Hydrogen is used for cooling of large size generators, because

(A)it has high thermal conductivity

(B)it is light

(C)it offers reduced fire risk

(D)all above reasons

34. Maximum span in case of wooden poles is usually restricted to

(A)50 meters

(B)175 meters

(C)1000 meters

(D)2000 meters

35. The depreciation on the plant is charged by

(A)Straight line method

(B)Sinking fund method

(C)Diminishing value method

(D)All of above

36. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a

(A)base load plant

(B)peak load plant

(C)stand-by plant

(D)spinning reserve plant

37. The frequency of the wave shown in the figure below is

(A)100 kHz

(B)50 kHz

(C)10 kHz

(D)5 kHz

38. Air will not be the working substance in a

(A)Diesel engine

(B)Petrol engine

(C)Open cycle gas turbine

(D)Closed cycle gas turbine

39. Major share of power produced is through

(A)thermal power plants

(B)hydro electric power plants

(C)nuclear power plants

(D)diesel power plants

40. Essential requirement of peak load plant

(A)it should be capable of standing quickly

(B)it should be run at high speed

(C)it should provide at high voltage

(D)it should be small in size

41.Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant?

(A)Gas turbine plant

(B)Diesel engine plant

(C)Pumped storage plant

(D)Nuclear power plant.

42. A thermal power station was designed to bum coal containing 12% ash. When the plant
actually started operating coal having 22% ash was made available. Which unit of the plant will
need major modifications ?

(A)Water treatment plant

(B)Pulverizing unit

(C)Ash handling unit

(D)Cooling towers

43. Efficiency is secondary consideration in case of

(A)peak load plants

(B)base load plants

(C)both peak load and base load plants

(D)none of the above

44 Which of the following plants will take least time in starting from cold conditions to full load
operation ?

(A)Nuclear power plant

(B)Steam power plants

(C)Hydro-electric plant

(D)Gas turbine plant

45 During load shedding

(A)system voltage is reduced

(B)system frequency is reduced

(C)some loads are switched off

(D)system power factor is changed

46. For the same plant size, initial cost of which plant is the highest ?

(A)Steam power plant

(B)Diesel engine plant

(C)Nuclear power plant

(D)Gas turbine plant

UNIT 2

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A

11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. C

16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D

21. D 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. C

26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. D

31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. D

36. A 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. A

41. D 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. C

46. C
 UNIT 3

1. A circuit breaker is

(A) Power factor correcting device

(B) a device to neutralize the effect of transients

(C) a waveform correcting device

(D) a current interrupting device.

2. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is

(A) to each any stray voltages

(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value

(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker

(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.

3. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than

(A) 220 V
(B) 400V

(C) 1000 V

(D) 10,000 V.

4. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually

(A) few minutes

(B) few seconds

(C) one second

(D) few cycles of supply voltage.

5. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is

(A) SF6

(B) Oil

(C) Air

(D) Water.

6. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application

(A) Air blast circuit breakers

(B) Minimum oil circuit breakers

(C) Bulk oil circuit breakers

(D) SF6 oil circuit breakers.

7. For high voltage, ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for

(A) 0.01 sec

(B) 0.1 sec

(C) 3 seconds
(D) 30 seconds.

8. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers ?
(A) Electro-magnetic

(B) Electro-pneumatic

(C) Pneumatic

(D) Vacuum.

9. Interrupting medium in a contactor may be

(A) air

(B) oil

(C) SF6 gas

(D) any of the above.

10. In air blast circuit breakers, the pressure of air is of the order of

(A) 100 mm Hg

(B) 1 kg/cm2

(C) 20 to 30 kg/cm2

(D) 200 to 300 kg/cm2 .

11. SF6 gas is

(A) sulphur fluoride

(B) sulphur difluoride

(C) sulphur hexafluorine

(D) sulphur hexafluoride.

12. SF6 gas

(A) is yellow in color

(B) has pungent odor

(C) is highly toxic

(D) is non-inflammable.

13. SF6 gas

(A) is lighter than hydrogen

(B) is lighter than air

(C) has density 2-times as compared to that of air

(D) has density 5 limes as compared to that of air.

14. The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breakers is of the order of

(A) 100 mm Hg

(B) 1 kg/cm2

(C) 3 to 5 kg/cm2

(D) 30 to 50 kg/cm2.

15. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is

(A) high dielectric strength

(B) non-inflammability

(C) non-toxicity

(D) all of the above.

16. Out of the following circuit breakers, which one has the lowest voltage range ?

(A) Air-break circuit breaker

(B) Tank type oil circuit breaker

(C) Air-blast circuit breaker

(D) SF6 circuit breaker.

17. Which of the following circuit breaker can be installed on 400 kV line

(A) Tank type oil circuit breaker

(B) Miniature circuit breaker

(C) Vacuum circuit breaker

(D) Air blast circuit breaker.

18. In a vacuum circuit breaker, the vacuum is of the order of

(A) 10mm Hg

(B)10-2mmHg

(C) l0-6 mmHg

(D)10-9mmHg.

19. In modem EHV circuit breakers, the operating time between instant of receiving trip signal
and final contact separation is, of the order of

(A) 0.001 sec

(B) 0.015 sec

(C) 0.003 sec

(D) 0.03 sec.

20. In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as

(A) total operating time

(B) arcing time

(C) pre-arcing time

(D) any of the above.

21. Fusing factor for a HRC fuse is

(A) Minimum fusing current / Current rating

(B) Minimum fusing current / Minimum rupturing time

(C) Maximum fusing current / Minimum fusing current

(D) Minimum fusing current / Prospective current of circuit.

22. Which of the following circuit breakers does not use pneumatic operating mechanism

(A) Air blast circuit breaker

(B) SF6 blast circuit breaker

(C) Air break circuit breaker

(D) Bulk-oil circuit breaker.

23. The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is. of the order of

(A) 20 micro ohms 10

(B) 20milli ohms 10

(C) 20 ohms 10

(D) 200 ohms 10.

24. The insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breaker is

(A) 1k Ohm

(B) 10 k Ohm

(C) 20 Mega ohms

(D) 2000 Mega ohm.

25. There is definite objection to use of which of the following medium for extinguishing the arc
in case of a circuit breaker ?

(A) Air

(B) SF6 gas

(C) Vacuum

(D) Water.
 26. In a circuit breaker if the insulation resistance between phase terminal and earthed frame is
less than the specified limit, the probable cause could be

(A) moisture

(B) dirty insulation surface

(C) carbon or copper particles sticking to the internal surface

(D) any of the above.

27. If a circuit breaker does not operate on electrical compound, the probable reason could be

(A) spring defective

(B) trip circuit open

(C) trip latch defective

(D) any of the above.

28. The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the breaker poles after final arc
extinction has occurred, is

(A) recovery voltage

(B) re striking voltage

(C) supply voltage

(D) peak voltage.

29. The transient voltage that appears across the contacts at the instant of arc extinction is called

(A) recovery voltage

(B) re striking voltage

(C) supply voltage

(D) peak voltage.

30. In a circuit breaker the active recovery voltage depends upon

(A) power factor

(B) armature reaction

(C) circuit conditions

(D) all of the above.

31. The following figure shows the voltage waveform across the pole of a circuit breaker; In this
voltage R represents

(A) System voltage

(B) Re striking voltage

(C) Recovery voltage

(D) Extinction of arc.

32. In the above figure, D represents

(A) Recovery voltage

(B) Re striking voltage

(C) System voltage

(D) Extinction of arc.

33. Best protection is provided by HRC fuses in case of

(A) Open circuits

(B) Short circuits

(C) Overloads

(D) None of the above.

34. For motor circuit breakers, the time of closing the cycle is

(A) 0.001 sec

(B) 0.01 sec

(C) 0.10 sec

(D) 0.003 sec.

35. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is

(A) Impedance relay

(B) Electromagnetic attraction type

(C) Thermal relay

(D) Buchholz's relay.

36. Which curve in the figure represents inverse time characteristics ?

(A) Curve A

(B) Curve B

(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D.

37. Fuse protection is used for current ratings up to

(A) 10 A

(B) 20 A

(C) 50 A

(D) 100 A.

38. The fuse current in amperes is related with fuse wire diameter D as

(A) I I/D

(B) I D

(C) I D3/2

(D) I D2.

39. The acting contacts for a circuit breakers are made of

(A) Stainless steel

(B) Hard pressed carbon

(C) Porcelain

(D) Copper tungsten alloy.

40. Ionization in a circuit breaker is not facilitated by

(A) high temperature of surrounding medium

(B) material of contacts

(C) increase of field strength

(D) increase of mean free path.

41. Which circuit breaker is generally used in railway traction ?

(A) SF6 gas circuit breaker

(B) Air break circuit breaker

(C) Vacuum circuit breaker

(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker.

42. A fuse wire should have

(A) Low specific resistance and high melting point

(B) Low specific resistance and low melting point

(C) High specific resistance and high melting point

(D) High specific resistance and low melting point.

43. Fuse wire, protection, system is usually not used beyond

(A) 10 A

(B) 25 A

(C) 50 A

(D)100A.

44. For extra high voltage lines which circuit breaker is preferred

(A) Bulk oil circuit breaker

(B) Vacuum circuit breaker

(C) SF6 gas circuit breaker

(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker.

45. The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can complete its operation is

(A) 3 to 8

(B) 10 to 18

(C) 20 to 30

(D) 40 to 50.
46. When D is the diameter of fuse wire, the fusing current will be proportional to

(A) 1/D

(B) 1/D2

(C) D3/2

(D) D1/2 .

47. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire is

(A) Aluminium

(B) Silver

(C) Lead

(D) Copper.

48. In a circuit breaker the current which exists at the instant of contact separation is known as

(A) re striking current

(B) surge current

(C) breaking current

(D) recovery current.

49. A Merz-price protection is suitable for

(A) transformers

(B) alternators

(C) feeders

(D) transmission lines.

50. 'Kick fuse' has

(A) square law characteristics

(B) linear characteristics

(C) inverse characteristics.

51. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV. Power system are designed to operate in

(A) 50 micro seconds

(B) 50 milli seconds

(C) 500 milli seconds

(D) 50 seconds.

52. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of

(A) Amperes

(B) Volts

(C) MW

(D) MVA.

53. Sulphur hexafluoride is a

(A) Conductor of electricity

(B) Semi-conductor

(C) Inactive gas

(D) Dielectric.

54. The contact resistance is least affected by

(A) the mechanical force applied

(B) the shape of the contact faces

(C) the amount of surface contamination

(D) the ambient temperature.

55. The arc voltage produced in ac circuit breaker is

(A) leading the arc current by 90

(B) lagging the arc current by 90

(C) In phase with the arc current

(D) In phase opposition to the arc current.

56. The heat produced at the contact point, due to passage of current, will least depend on

(A) contact resistance

(B) time during which the current flows

(C) current flowing

(D) temperature of the surrounding medium.

57 For the contact and their material, which of the following should have low value

(A) Contact resistance

(B) Thermal capacity

(C) Thermal conductivity

(D) All of the above.

58. Minimum arcing voltage will be least in case of

(A) carbon

(B) graphite

(C) tungsten

(D) silver.

59. Minimum arcing voltage for platinum is 16 V. It can be therefore concluded that when the
voltage is below 16 V

(A) it will not be possible to interrupt the circuit

(B) it will not be possible to pass the current

(C) it will be possible to interrupt any value of current without arcing

(D) it will be possible to interrupt any value of current without bringing contact closer to one
another.

60. Oil immersion of contacts is the method of

(A) arc dispersion

(B) arc prevention

(C) de ionization

(D) none of the above.

61. Which of the following is not the method of arc dispersion ?

(A) Oil immersion of contacts

(B) Magnetic blow out of arc

(C) Use of rectifiers

(D) De ionization of arc path.

62. Which of the following contact point metals has the highest melting point ?

(A) Silver

(B) Tungsten

(C) Gold

(D) Copper.

63. The arc voltage produced in the circuit breaker is always

(A) in phase with arc current

(B) leading the arc current by 90

(C) lagging the arc current by 90 .

ANSWERS UNIT 3

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C
 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. C

11. D 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D

16. A 17. D 18. D 19. D 20. B

21. A 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. D

26. D 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. D

31. B 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C

36. A 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. B

41. B 42. D 43. D 44. C 45. A

46. C 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. C

51. B 52. D 53. D 54. D 55. C

56. D 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. A

61. C 62. B 63. A

Unit 4

1. Which of the following is not the transmission voltage in America ?

(A) 66 kV
(B) l32kV
(C) 264 kV
(D) 400 kV
2. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?
(A) 6.6 kV
(B) 9.9 kV
(C) 11kV
(D) 13.2 kV.

3. Boosters are basically

(A) inductors
(B) capacitors
(C) transformers
(D) synchronous motors.

4. Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used

(A) 3 phase-4 wire
(B) 3 phase-3 wire
(C) Single phase - 3 wire
(D) Single phase -4 wire.

5. Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from towers
(A) to reduce clearance from ground
(B) to increase clearance from ground
(C) to reduce wind and snow loads
(D) to take care of extension in length during summer.

6. Transmission efficiency increases as

(A) voltage and power factor both increase
(B) voltage and power factor both decrease
(C) voltage increases but power factor decreases
(D) voltage decreases but power factor increases.

7. With same maximum voltage to earth, which ac system (with p.f. 0.8) will require more
copper as compared to dc 2 wire system
(A) single phase. 2 wire (mid point earthed)
(B) single phase. 3 wire (neutral=1/2 outer)
(C) three phase three wire
(D) three phase-four wire (neutral = outer).

8. When alternating current passes through a conductor

(A) it remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
(B) portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core
(C) portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared to the core
(D) entire current passes through the core of the conductor.

9. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as
(A) skin effect
(B) corona
(C) permeability
(D) unsymmetrical fault.

10. The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ohmic resistance when
(A) current is in true sine wave form
(B) voltage is low
(C) power factor is unity
(D) Current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section.

11. Skin effect results in

(A) reduced effective resistance but increased effective internal reactance of the conductor
(B) increased effective resistance but reduced effective internal reactance of. the conductor
(C) reduced effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance
(D) increased effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance.

12. Skin effect depends on

(A) size of the conductor
(B) frequency of the current
(C) resistivity of the conductor material
(D) all of the above.

13. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

(A) diameter increases
(B) frequency increases
(C) permeability of conductor material increases
(D) resistivity of conductor material increases.

14. Skin effect is proportional to

(A) diameter of conductor
(B) (diameter of conductor)1/2
(C) (diameter of conductor )2
(D) (diameter of conductor )3.

15. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of
line is less than
(A) 200 km
(B) 160 km
(C) 100 km
(D) 80 km.

16. For constant voltage transmission the voltage drop is compensated by installing
(A) synchronous motors
(B) capacitors
(C) inductors
(D) all of the above.

17. The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is

(A) short circuit current of the system is increased
(B) load power factor in heavy loads
(C) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(D) air of the above.

18. The surge impedance for over head line is taken as

(A) 10-20 ohms
(B) 50-60 ohms
(C) 100-200 ohms
(D) 1000-2000 ohms.

19. Pin insulators are normally used up to voltage of about

(A)100kV
(B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV
(D) 25 kV.

20. Strain type insulator arc used where the conductors arc
(A) dead ended
(B) at intermediate anchor towers
(C) any of the above
(D) none of the above.

21. For 66 kV lines the number of insulator discs used are

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12.

22. Ten discs usually suggest that the transmission line voltage is
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.

23. The effect of corona is

(A) increased energy loss
(B) increased reactance
(C) increased inductance
(D) all of the above.
24. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor succeeds
(A) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
(B) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(C) 11 kV (rms value)/cm
(D) 6.6 kv (rms value)/cm.

25. Corona effect can be detected by

(A) hissing sound
(B) faint luminous flow of bluish color
(C) presence of ozone detected by odor
(D) all of the above.

26. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is

(A) sinusoidal
(B) square
(C) non-sinusoidal

27. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because

(A) it gives bad odor
(B) it corrodes the material
(C) it transfers energy to the ground
(D) reduces power factor.

28. Between two supports, due to sag the conductor takes the form of
(A) catenary
(B) triangle
(C) ellipse
(D) semi-circle.

29. The inductance of a single phase two wire line is given by (D is the distance between
conductors and 2v is the diameter of conductor)
(A) 0.4 loge (D/r) mH/km
(B) 0.55 loge (D/r) mH/km
(C) 0.4 loge (r/D) mH/km
(D) 0.55 loge (r/D) mH/km.

30. The effect of ice deposition on conductor is

(A) increased skin effect
(B) reduced corona losses
(C) increased weight
(D) reduced sag.

31. The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on

(A) transmission lines
(B) neutral wires
(C) insulator
(D) supporting towers.

32. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A) Wind pressure reduces corona effects
(B) Ice on conductors improves power factor
(C) Wind pressure is taken to act in a direction at right angles to that for ice
(D) Wind pressure and ice on conductors together improve regulation of power transmitted.

33. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(A) As the temperature rises the tension in the transmission line decreases
(B) As temperature rises the sag in transmission lines reduces
(C) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other.

34. Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
(A) 440 V
(B)11 kV
(C) 22 kV
(D) 66 kV.

35. If K is the volume of cable conductor material required to transmit power, then for the
transmission of the same power, the volume of cable conductor required for single phase 2 wise
AC system is
(A) 2k
(B) k cos
(C) k/ cos2
(D) 2k/ cos2p

36. Maximum permissible span for wooden poles is

(A) 10 meter
(B) 20 meters
(C) 60 meters
(D) 200 meters.

37. When transformers or switchgears are to be installed in a transmission line, the poles used are
(A) I type
(B) J type
(C) H type
(D) L type.

38. For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of applying a layer
of
(A) paint
(B) varnish
(C) tar coal
(D) zinc.

39. The disadvantage of transmission lines as compared to cables is

(A) exposure to lightening
(B) exposure to atmospheric hazards like smoke, ice, etc.
(C) inductive interference between power and communication circuits
(D) all of the above.

40. ACSR conductor implies

(A) All conductors surface treated and realigned
(B) Aluminum conductor steel reinforced
(C) Anode current sinusoidally run
(D) Anodized Core Smooth Run.

41. The surge resistance of transmission lines is about

(A) 50 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 250 ohms
(D) 500 ohms.

42. During storm the live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth.
The consequences will be
(A) supply voltage will drop
(B) supply voltage will increase
(C) current will flow to earth
(D) no current will flow in the conductor.

43. In transmission system a feeder feeds power to

(A) service mains
(B) generating stations
(C) distributors
(D) all of the above.

44. For transmission lines the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
(A) maximum voltage to minimum voltage
(B) maximum current to minimum voltage
(C) peak voltage to rms voltage
(D) maximum reactance to minimum reactance.
45. In a transmission line following arc the distributed constants
(A) resistance and inductance only
(B) resistance, inductance and capacitance
(C) resistance, inductance, capacitance and short conductance.
(D) None

46. The bundling of conductors is done primarily to

(A) reduce reactance
(B) increase reactance
(C) increase ratio interference
(D) reduce radio interference.

47. Which of the following regulation is considered to be the best

(A) 2%
(B) 30%
(C)70%
(D) 98%.

48. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon

(A) shape of the conductor
(B) surface treatment of the conductors
(C) conductivity of the material
(D) geometrical configuration. of the conductors.

49. For a distortion-less transmission line (G = shunt conductance between two wires)
(A) R/L = G/C
(B) RL=GC
(C) RG=LC
(D)RLGC=0

50. Guard ring transmission line

(A) improves power factor
(B) reduces earth capacitance of the lowest unit
(C) reduces transmission losses
(D) improves regulation.

51. When the power is to be transmitted over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage
should be in the range
(A) 33 kV - 66 kV
(B) 66 kV - 100 kV
(C) 110 kV - 150 kV
(D) 150kV - 220kV.

52. A relay used on long transmission lines is

(A) mho's relay
(B) reactance relay
(C) impedance relay
(D) no relay is used.

53. Total load transmitted through a 3 phase transmission line is 10,000 kW at 0.8 power factor
lagging. The I2R losses are 900 kW. The efficiency of transmission line is
(A) 60%
(B) 90%
(C) 95%
(D) 99%.

UNIT 4 ANSWER

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. B 6. A 7. D 8. B
9. A 10. D 11. B 12. D
13. D 14. C 15. D 16. A
17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. A
25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A
29. A 30. C 31. D 32. C
33. C 34. C 35. D 36. C
37. C 38. D 39. D 40. B
41. D 42. C 43. C 44. A
45. C 46. A 47. A 48. D
49. A 50. B 51. D 52. A
53. B