SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUIZ

FROM E BOOK
1. What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight?
Drag. Thrust. Lift and Weight
2. What is direct lift control?
The elevator / stabilizer provide the direct lift control.
3. What are high lift devices?
Trailing edge flaps. Leading edge flaps. Slots
4. Define the two major types or Drag.
Profile and induced drag which equals total drag
5. What are high drag devices?
Trailing edge flaps, spoilers, landing gear, revere thrust, braking parachute.
6. How do you prevent span-vise airflow on a wing especially swept wing?
Fences, vortex generators
7. What is the purpose vortex generators and fences?
To reduce spanwise airflow and thereby reduce its effects
8. What are winglets and how do they work?
Winglets are aerodynamically efficient surfaces located at the wing tips. They are
designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the spanwise airflow from the upper
and lower surfaces at different points.
9. How does a forward center of gravity affect the stall speed?
A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will cause a higher stall speed
10. What advantages does an aircraft gain from a swept swing?
High mach cruise speeds, stability in turbulence.
11. Where does a swept wing stall first?
A simple swept or tapered wing will stall at the wing tip first.
12. Explain speed stability.
It's the behavior of the speed after a disturbance at a fixed power setting
13. What is Mach Number
Mach number is a true airspeed indication, given as a percentage relative to the local
speed of sound.
14. What is the critical Mach number (mcrit)?
Mcrit is the aircraft's mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic.
15. What is Mach tuck?
Is the nose down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes it's critical mach
number
16. What is the purpose of a mach trimmer?
A Mach trimmer is to automatically compensate for Mach tuck above Mcrit.
17. What are the affects of compressibility?
The effect of air being compressed onto a surface resulting in an increase in density
and thus dynamic pressure rises above its expected value.
18. What changes the aircrafts angle of attack at the stall?
The movement of the center of pressure point at the stall causes a change in the
aircraft's angle of attack
19. What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes?
Mach number compressibility effect on the wing results in a higher EAS (actual
equivalent airspeed), compressibility error on the IAS increases the stall speed
20. What is super stall?
Is a stall from which the aircraft is unable to recover.
21. What is Dutch roll?
Dutch roll is an oscillatory Instability. It is the combination of yawing and rolling motions
22. What causes Dutch roll?
Swept wings
23. What is the three purposes of spoilers?
Roll control, Air speed brakes, and ground lift dumpers
24. What our Krueger flaps?
Krueger flaps are leading edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber
25. How do flap affect takeoff ground run?
A higher flap within the take off range, will reduce the takeoff' ground run for a given
aircraft weight.
26. What’s the purpose is of yaw and roll dampers?
To prevent Dutch roll and coordinate turns
27. What are the four reasons for a variable-incident tailplane / stabilizer?
Provide a balancing force for a large C of G range, cope with large trim changes.
Provide balancing force for a large speed range, reduce elevator trim drag.
28. What is a mass balance?
It is another form of aerodynamic balance control on a control surface.
29. What are active controls?
A surface that moves automatically / actively in response to non-direct inputs
30. What is engine torque?
A force causing rotation
31. What is specific fuel consumption (SFC)?
The quantity / weight (Ib) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine
in pounds
32. Why do operators use reduced de-rated thrust takeoffs in a jet aircraft?
To protect engine life and improve reliability, reduce noise.
33. What is the purpose of engine re-light boundaries?
To ensure that correct proportion of air is delivered to the engines combustion
chamber to restart the engine in flight.
34. Why are bleed valves fitted to gas turbine engines?
To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, to regulate the correct airflow pressures
between different engine sections
35. What fuels are commonly used on jet aircraft?
Jet A1 – waxing point of – 50 C, Jet A - waxing point of -40C.
36. Is there a critical engine on a jet aircraft?
No
37. How does INS/IRS find true north?
It is aligned to true north by its gyroscopes.
38. What are the advantages of an INS?
Very accurate, self-contained system, totally global system enabling aircraft to fly great
circle tracks
39. What are the disadvantages of INS?
Bounded errors, unbounded errors, Inherent system errors.
40. 40. What does ISA stand for?
International standard atmosphere.
41. What is pressure altitude?
Pressure altitude or pressure height is the international standard atmosphere (ISA)
height above the 29.92 / 1013 pressure datum, at which the pressure value
experienced represents that of the level under consideration.
42. How does temperature affect the LSS?
As temperature decreases, the local speed of sound (LSS) decreases
43. What are the airspeed indicator (ASl) / Mach meter indications for a blocked Pitot and
or static port?
A blocked static line means that the static pressure in the (ASI) / Mach meter
instrument remains a constant value.
44. What is transport wander on an uncorrected gyroscope?
Transport wander is a form of apparent wander, Transport wander + apparent wander
= total apparent wander.
45. What are the inputs to a GPWS?
Barometric altitude for a rate of descent (ROD) calculations. Radio altimeter, Flap
position, Gear position. Instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope, Approach minima.
Thrust lever position.
46. Tire temperature prior to T/0 depends on what factors?
Outside air temperature, Aircraft weight, Taxi time, Amount of braking.
47. Which brake gets the hottest during a landing?
The downwind (with a crosswind) wheel brakes
48. What does a constant speed drive unit (CSU) achieve?
They maintain the aircraft frequency output of an alternator, normally to 400 Hz
49. What is takeoff run available (TORA)?
The usable length of the runway available. i.e. physical length of the runway.
50. What is the take off distance available (TODA)?
The length of the usable runway available plus the length of the clearway available
51. How high is the screen height for a jet aircraft?
Screen height for a jet aircraft in dry conditions 35ft.
52. What is the runway stopway?
Is the length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the direction of the
takeoff that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the aircraft has to be stopped during a
takeoff run.
53. What is VMCG speed?
Is the minimum control speed (directional control) on the ground for a multi engine
aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration
54. What is V1 speed?
Is the decision speed.
55. What is VR speed?
Rotation speed
56. What is Vs speed?
Stall speed.
57. What is Va speed?
Maneuvering speed
58. What is VMCA speed?
Is the minimum control speed (directional control) in the air for a multi engine aircraft in
the take-off and climb out configuration.
59. What is the relationship between VMCG and V1?
VMCG must be equal to or less than V1
60. What is V2 speed?
Is the take off safety speed.
61. What is V3 speed?
Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve at the screen
height.
62. What is V4 sped?
Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve by 400ft.
63. What’s maximum range cruise (MRC)?
The speed at which for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is
obtained.
64. What is Long range cruise (LRC)?
The speed significantly higher than the maximum range speed.
65. What is a cost index?
Is a performance management function that optimizes the aircrafts speed for the
minimum cost.
66. What is the pressure gradient force?
Is a natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance.
67. What is a trough?
Is a V-shaped extension of a low pressure system
68. What is an occluded front?
Is a combination of both a cold and a warm front.
69. What is windshear?
Is any variation of wind speed and or direction from place to place including updrafts
and downdrafts.
70. What is a microburst?
Is a severe downdraft.
71. What is CAT?
Is an acronym for clear air turbulence
72. What is the IT'CZ?
The intertropical convergence zone is where converging air masses meet near the
thermal equator.
73. What is ETOPS?
Ex-tended twin operations
74. What is the lowest usable flight level?
Lowest useable en route flight level must be a least 500ft above the absolute minimum
altitude.
75. How is RVR reported?
Reported at up to 3 points on the runway, at the touch down point, at the mid point, at
the stop end.
76. What does it mean if you have a port wind in the northern hemisphere?
Means you are flying toward a low pressure system, resulting in a descending flight
path for a consistent altimeter pressure setting.
77. What is the gliding distance for an aircraft at 30,00ft?
Take the best glide speed and its rate of decent: altitude divided by rate of descent e.g.
30,000/1000 ft/min = 30min; Time x speed per min e.g. 3O x 5nm/min = 150nm.
78. Why does an aircraft descend quicker when it is lighter?
An aircraft is restricted to a maximum speed during descent.
79. What do you need to see to continue at a decision height (DH) for a CAT II la
approach?
You need a visual reference containing a segment of a least three consecutive lights,
the centerline of the approach lights or the touchdown zone lights or the runway
centerline lights or edge lights or a combination of these.
80. What are the three types of aquaplaning / hydroplaning?
Dynamic. Viscous, Reverted rubber or rubber reversion.
81. What do we call the following: The aircraft mass plus oil, unusable fuel & fixtures?
Answer: Basic Empty Weight
82. What do you call the position from the datum of measurement to the moment?
Answer: The Arm
83. What is the correct format for the Lat & Long of Dubai on a Jepp Chart?
Answer: N _ _ _ _ . _ E _ _ _ _ . _
84. What risk does cumuliform clouds create when found in stratus cloud?
Answer: Embedded Thunderstorms
85. What system controls the braking during a rejected T/O?
Answer: The Auto Brake System with Anti Skid protection
86. What will occur if the DALR (Dry Adiabatic lapse Rate) ie: Dry Bulb = the SALR
(Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) ie: Wet Bulb?
Answer: A Cloud Base will form
Other options: It will rain or the air mass will be unstable
87. For a 2 engine aircraft what are the return airfield requirements ie: How far do you
require and adequate A/D to be?
Answer: The airport must be within 60 min SE airspeed unless the company has
ETOPS Approval.
88. What are the T/O minima for 2 crew?
Answer: 800m & 0 unless company has dispo & crew are approved
89. What is the T/O visibility predicated on? Visibility or RVR?
Answer: depends on the A/D & the operator Use RVR
If RVR 150 to 200 m Vis
If Vis 800 to 300 m Vis
Apparently the Vis is predicated on RVR
90. A question relating to the C of G and the Centre of Pressure?
Answer: A rear ward C of G is the best therefore the Centre of Pressure must
be forward of the C of G
91. At what levels can windshear occur?
Answer: All levels ie: Low Level Mid Level & High Level
92. Where is the FAF point on an ILS?
Answer: At the intercept of G/S at the altitude you are at or by the min altitude
published on the chart
The Maltese Cross is for Non Precision Approaches
93. For a CAT 1 Approach what are the minima?
Answer: 200’ & 550 RVR
94. Where can you intercept the ILS Approach?
Answer: By the minimum altitude & GS intercept unless being radar vectored
95. You have commenced an ILS approach. The WX has now gone below the minima.
What do you do? All Aussies say continue …. wrong
Answer: Execute a G/A
96. Is De-Icing fluid effective in flight?
Answer: No. Designed for ground use only. Designed to leave the aircraft once
airborne
97. AT what point do you use Anti Ice / De-Ice protection?
Answer: 10’C to – 40’C SAT
98. What determines your choice of HF frequency for communication?
Answer: The position of the sun in the sky
99. During the day the ionosphere is lower that at night therefore a lower frequency is
required to travel the same distance at night
100. What is available with ICAO 2 procedures?
101. What does the rudder PSI reducer do?
Answer: Takes the stress off the vertical tail fin
102. What cloud is indicative of turbulence?
Answer: Lenticular Cloud or Standing Wave Clouds ….. Same thing
103. How does a negative pressure relief valve work?
104. What effect do slats have on the angle of attack?
The angle of attack will increase.
105. What is the definition of ASDA?
The length of the take off run available TORA (the physical length of the runway) plus
the length of any stopway available. I.e. ASDA = TORA + STOPWAY
106. A sea breeze is a wind that?
Occurs during the daytime, usually between midday an ernoon on hot sunny days,
when the land heats up quicker than the sea.
107. What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet Al?
-50 degrees c
108. What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet A?
-40 degrees
109. What are the indications from a T-VASI?
The cross-bar indicates on-slope and deviations appear or three lights above or below
the cross-bar. The sensitivity is similar to the on an ILS glide path.
110. How do you convert Liters to kilograms?
Multiply by 0.8
111. What is a balanced field length?
A balanced field length exists when the TODA = ASDA
112. What is a circling approach?
A circling approach is a visual flight maneuver which easily aligned with the runway.
After initial visual contact, the basic the runway environment will be kept in sight while
at the MDA for circling.
113. During what months would you expect fog in Dubai?
The winter months of November to April.
114. What effect does a 60 degree bank turn have on the stall
The stall speed increases by approximately 40%. (Load factor of 2)
115. In a jet engine compressor section?
The compressor, which rotates at very high speed, adds o the airflow, at the same time
squeezing it into a smaller space, thereby increasing and temperature
116. If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots. What is the Mach
number?
Mach # = TAS/Local speed of sound. MN O.80 = 480/600.
117. For a given speed, how does your rate of descent vary with weight?
An increase in weight will increase your rate of descent and vice versa.
118. Which of TORA, ASDA and TODA does clearway change?
TODA
119. What months would you cross the ITCZ going to South Africa?
All year round
120. What is the outbound entry timing in a hold?
Up to and including FL140 - 1 minute. Above FL140 -1.5 minutes
121. How does Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption vary with an increase in altitude?
Decreases.
122. Why does the Airbus have a tail tank?
To increase range and provide balanced trim.
123. Which months is the monsoon season in South Asia?
November to February
124. How would you deal with a fire on a cabin seat?
Use BCF to extinguish the flame, and water to stop smoldering.
125. What type of extinguisher would you use on an electrical fire?
BCF
126. What is the local time in DAC when it is noon in London (DAC is UTC+6)?
6pm
127. What happens to airspeed in the climb with a blocked Pitot?
Over read
128. What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked static port?
Over read
129. If after 120nm you are 4nm off course, what heading correction should you use to
regain track in 60 nm?
4 degrees.
130. What is Parasite drag?
Parasite drag is made up of pressure and skin friction drag. Parasite drag is caused by
any aircraft surface which deflects or interferes with the smooth airflow around the
airplane.
131. The lift generated by a wing varies with angle of attack such that it?
Produces maximum lift just before the stall angle is reached. When an aircrafts wing
reaches the stall angle, the wing stops generating lift.
132. When no transponder code is assigned or published you should?
Squawk code 2000 OCTA or 3000 CTA
133. On a flight from Athens to Madrid, a correct flight level would be?
An even flight level.
134. When holding below Fl40 with no turbulence, unless specifically notified, the correct
speed would be?
230 knots
135. For planning purposes, normal diversion fuel must be calculated?
At Long Range Cruise.
136. At night, the minimum required exterior lighting for an aircraft in flight is?
An unobstructed red and green light. An unobstructed white light. An airplane in flight
or operating on the maneuvering area of a land aerodrome shall display, in addition to
the navigation lights, an anti-collision light consisting of a flashing red light.
137. When considering a balanced field length?
The flight crew are required to use a VI speed from the AFM that results in an
accelerate-go and accelerate-stop distances, or a balanced field length, appropriate for
the airplane's takeoff weight, the-airplane's takeoff configuration, the runway length,
the runway gradient, the surface wind conditions, the air temperature, and the runway
(airport) elevation.
138. In takeoff performance, the first segment of the climb is? The segment of take-off climb
from screen height to gear up.
An airplane must be able to climb without ground effect at a speed of V2 airborne and
in this configuration, without landing gear retraction, achieve a gross gradient of climb
which is positive for two-engine airplanes.
139. Where available, using a lower flap setting for takeoff will?
Increase MTOW and V1, VR and V2 (normally 2nd segment is more limiting)
140. What is the ISA temperature at 39,000ft?
-56.5 degrees Celsius
141. For the same engine, what is the difference between NI and thrust when the engine is
taken from a sea level field to a hot and high airfield?
N1 and thrust decrease.
142. What are the characteristics of the weather in the vicinity of the ITCZ?
Near the equator, from about 5 degrees north and south, the NE and SE trade winds
converge in a low pressure zone known as the ITCZ. Solar heating in this region forces
air to rise through convection which results in a plethora of precipitation.
143. Does a compressor change kinetic energy into pressure energy? If so are the stators
divergent or convergent?
Yes, however an axial flow compressor on modem turbofan engines uses a series of
convergent and divergent ducts.
144. If your static port gets clogged with ice on descent, your altimeter will?
Overread
145. If the air mass lapse rate is 2 degrees/1000', and the air is saturated, is the
atmosphere stable or unstable?
Stable.
146. Whilst maintaining a constant attitude, what is the effect of flaps and slats on the angle
of attack?
The angle of attack will decrease.
147. If two aircraft are approaching head on, which way do you turn to avoid a collision?
Both aircraft should alter heading to the right.
148. What is the effect of engine bleed air for air conditioning and anti-ice on takeoff
performance?
Takeoff performance is reduced.
149. Besides using the scale, where can you measure distance on a Jeppesen chart?
You can use the lines of longitude.
150. What happens to specific fuel consumption with altitude?
It will decrease.
151. Why do modern jets have a swept wing?
To permit a high cruise mach number with low drag.
152. What should you see when following the VASI on the glide path?
PAPI: 2 white lights and 2 red lights.
153. What does VVxxx mean on a TAF?
Vertical visibility is unavailable.
154. What does WS stand for?
Windshear.
155. What are the aerodynamic effects of a swept wing?
High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence.
156. What is the relationship of altitude and performance of the jet engine?
They both decrease with altitude.
157. If the maximum fuel of the Airbus 310 is 48.8 tonnes at a fuel specific gravity of 0.80,
what will be the capacity at a fuel SG of 0.75?
45.75 T (0.75/0.8 x 48.8)
158. If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots, what is the mach
number?
MO.8
159. When flying the back beam of the LLZ, indications on both the ~conventional VOR and
HSI will be what?
Reversed (not on new Boeing)
160. A forward or aft C o G is more efficient?
Aft, because this reduces tailplane force which reduces aerodynamic drag.
161. Can an increase in clearway increase MTOW?
Yes
162. Clearway will increase/decrease MTOW, and increase/decrease V1?
Increase, decrease
163. ASDA = TORA + what?
Stopway
164. Stopway increases ASDA/TORA/TODA?
ASDA
165. What are the engines on an Emirates A330?
Rolls-Royce Trent 772
166. Dubai pressure altitude = 39', if the temperature was 41 degrees C, what is the density
altitude?
DH = PH corrected for temperature. DH = 39' + 120 (41-15) = 3159’
167. If an anti-cyclone brings good wx in the southern hemisphere, what wx does it bring in
the northern hemisphere?
It will also bring good weather in the northern hemisphere.
168. High bypass turbofan engines are uses on commercial aircraft because...?
The overall noise signature of advance turbofan engines with highly loaded wide chord
fan blades is significantly less than previous older technology engines.
169. Identify the cloud ceiling on a TAF?
The cloud ceiling on a TAF is AGL.
170. What is the difference between TODA and TORA?
TODA is the length of the take-off run available + any clearway available for the aircraft
to climb over. TORA is the physical length of the runway declared to be available and
suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off.
171. If you lengthen the clearway, what will that do to V1?
Decrease
172. On a conventional wing, lift is generated?
By moving the object through the air. The lift then depends on the velocity of the air
and how the object is inclined to the flow. The straight wing is to mostly on small, low
speed airplanes. General Aviation airplanes often have straight wings. Sailplanes also
use a straight wing design. These wings give the most efficient lift low speeds, but are
not very good for high speed flight approaching the speed of sound.
173. On a swept wing?
By moving the object through the air. The lift then depends on the velocity of the air
and how the object is inclined to the flow? The swept wing (forward swept or
sweptback) is the wing design of choice for most modern high speed airplanes. The
swept wing design creates less drag, but is somewhat more unstable for flight at low
speeds. A high sweep wing delays the formation of shock waves on the airplane as it
nears the speed of sound.
How much sweep a wing design is given depends upon the purpose for which the
airplane is designed to be used. A commercial jetliner has a moderate sweep. This
results in less drag, while maintaining stability at lower speeds. High speed airplanes
(like modem jet fighters) have a greater sweep. These airplanes do not generate very
much lift during low speed flight. Airplanes with sweep need to take off and at high
speeds.
174. A deep stall is often a characteristic of what type of aircraft?
Deep stall is a dangerous condition that affects certain aircraft designs, notably a T-tail
configuration. In these designs, the turbulent wake of a stalled main wing "blanks" the
horizontal stabilizer, rendering the elevators ineffective and preventing the aircraft from
recovering from the stall.
175. Unbalanced runway performance limitations require that with one engine failed at V1,
the aircraft can be brought to a stop?
True
176. With the anti skid inoperative, for any given takeoff weight?
The V1 must be reduced
177. If when flying at 39000' you found the Static outside air temperature to be -47.5°, the
deviation from the International Standard Atmosphere would be?
ISA+9 (-56.5 compared to -47.5 = 9 degrees warmer)
178. An anabatic wind is one which?
Blows up a steep slope or mountain side. It is also known as an upslope flow. These
winds typically occur during the daytime in calm sunny weather.
179. Cumulonimbus clouds are more likely to form? To create a cumulonimbus cloud, you
need three ingredients.
(a) Plenty of moisture
(b) A mass of warm unstable air
(c) A source of energy to lift the warm, moist air mass rapidly upwards.
180. In the Northern Hemisphere, the diurnal variation of wind at about 2000’ is such that?
The wind will have an increasing speed and the wind direction will veer.
181. On the Indian subcontinent, the northeasterly monsoon occurs?
Between June and September.
182. During an ILS approach, the required rate of descent will be?
5 x G/S =RoD required for a 3 degree slope.
183. A direct entry to a holding pattern is made from?
Sector 3
184. When flying and NDB approach using an RMI, to regain track when off track?
You must first turn through the needle.
185. A Katabatic wind is one which?
Is a local valley wind that flows down the side of a hill?
186. Buy ballots law states that?
Buys ballot's law is if you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere,
the low pressure (temperature) will be on your left. N.B. In the Southern Hemisphere
the low temp/press will be on your right.
187. DME range at FL350 is approximately:
Range = 1.5 x Aircraft Height in feet. (Answer in nm) 229nm
188. The centre of Lift moves?
The distribution of pressure and centre of pressure point will be further forward the
higher the angle of attack and further aft the lower the angle of attack.
189. The effect of extending flaps is to?
Increase the camber of the wing and produce more lift at lower airspeeds.
190. On a Lambert chart, the distance scale is most accurate?
Between standard parallels.
191. The ISA temperature at FL390 is?
-56.5 degrees c
192. The transponder code for radio failure is?
7600
193. What sort of weather would you expect in an area of low pressure?
In general, the weather associated with a low-pressure system is as follows:
Cloud formation and related weather are present, Le. Precipitation etc. This is due to
the adiabatic cooling experienced by the ascending air in a depression. Any instability
in the rising air may lead to the vertical development of cumuliform clouds
accompanied by rain showers.
194. INS navigation is with reference to?
The directional acceleration information provided from the INS’s accelerometers and
gyroscopes is calculated by the position computer that determines the aircraft’s
present latitude and longitude position, provided a correct initial position has been
input.
195. TCAS works on/uses?
TCAS interrogates the SSR transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and
relative velocities. With this information, the TCAS computer can determine if a
potential collision risk exists and if so, provide visual and aural warning as well as
command actions on how to avoid the collision. This is done all with vertical
commands only.
196. The transponder setting for hijacking is?
7500
197. What effect does a winglet have on an airfoil?
They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the span-wise airflow from
the upper and lower surfaces at different points, thus preventing the intermixing of
these airflows that otherwise would create induced-drag vortices.
198. Where is windshear found?
Most forms of windshear are found at low level. i.e. Below 3000' also in CAT, near a
frontal passage and due to microburst and thunderstorm gusts.
199. The MSA on a Jeppesen chart is generally within?
25nm
200. ETOPS certification is based on?
An operator is granted permission to operate a twin-engine aircraft type on flights
which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable aerodrome in the
event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure.
Reliability is vital with ETOPS flights; operators wishing to benefit from this extended
range with their more economical two-engine aircraft have to show the regulating
authorities they have sufficient and proven resources to monitor and maintain their
ETOPS fleet. They have to have approved airframes, systems and power plants and
operate on approved routes using specified adequate aerodrome.
201. When taking off on a wet runway?
V1 is reduced to account for the degraded performance in stopping in the event of an
RTO; however, the all engine screen height is reduced in the event of a takeoff being
continued.
202. When the CoG is moved aft of the CP?
A CoG aft of the CP will cause a lower stall speed.
203. Second segment climb is from?
The point at which the gear is fully retracted to a height of at least 400'.
204. What is the typical range of temperature for engine icing to occur?
+10 degrees C to -40 degrees C
 205. What is the maximum time permitted for a jet engine to spool up from idle to full thrust?
5 seconds
206. Which is a typical characteristic of a swept wing?
High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence
207. What is the effect on the Field Limit and the Climb Limit by reducing the flap setting?
Field Limit will decrease; climb limit will increase.
208. When it is 12:00 noon in London what time is it in Bangladesh? Bangladesh is at 112’0
east.
209. What effect do Slats have on the Angle of Attack:
210. What effect do Slats have on the max Angle of Attack?
211. What is the definition of the ASDA?
212. A Sea Breeze is wind that:
213. ETOPS Certification is:
214. What Is the Fuel Freeze Temperature of Jet A1?
215. What are the indications from a T-VASI?
216. What is the Fuel Freeze Temperature of Jet A:
217. How do you convert liters to KG:
218. What is a Balanced Field Length?
219. What Is a Circling Approach?
220. Which of the following is equal to the ASDA?
221. What do the symbols VV/// mean in a met report:
222. What does WS mean in a met report:
223. During what months would you expect fog in Dubai:
224. What effect does a 60° Bank turn have on the stalling speed:
225. In a jet engine compressor section:
226. What conditions are associated with the ITCZ:
227. If the TAS Is 480 Kts and the Local speed of sound is 600 Kts, what is the Mach
Number:
228. For a given speed, how does your rate of descent vary with weight:
229. Which of TORA, ASDA and TODA does Clearway change:
230. What months would you cross the ITCZ going to South Africa:
231. What is the outbound entry timing in a Hold:
232. How does the Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption TSFC vary with an increase in
altitude:
233. Why does the Airbus have a Tail Tank:
234. Which months is the Monsoon Season in South Asia:
235. How would you deal with a fire on a Cabin Seat?
236. What type of extinguisher would you use on an electrical fire?
237. What is the worst month for Fog in Dubai?
238. What is the local time in DAC when it is noon in London (DAC is UTC + 6):
239. What happens to airspeed in the climb with a block Pitot:
240. What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked Static Port:
241. If after 120 NM you are 4 miles off course, what heading correction should you use to
regain track in 60 NM:
242. Calculate density altitude for the following field XXXX temperature XXXX etc etc.
243. What happens to the CP when extending flaps?
244. What Engines are on the 330?

Notes:
No Formula’s
No TAS crap
No Ratio’s
Think about Corriollis Force in the Northern Hemisphere
Think about ITCZ
The quiz carries little wait. As long as you get at least 10 right they are happy
 Additional Study Information
FIELD LENGTH
Field length additional to runway, Stopway and Clearway may be available. Stopway is an area beyond the end of
the runway on which the aircraft can be stopped. Clearway is an obstacle free area over which the aircraft may fly to
gain the required 35 ft. However, the Clearway used must not be more than 50% of the distance from lift-off to 35 ft.
Hence, on runways where large amounts of Clearway are available there may be a maximum useable Clearway
restriction depending on the runway length available. Maximum useable Clearway is shown on the generalised
takeoff field length charts.

Both Stopway and Clearway are

measured from the end of the
runway and generally Clearway
is at least equal to Stopway,
except when excessive Stopway
exceeds the maximum useable
Clearway. In the latter case
Stopway can be longer than
Clearway.

Available Clearway, up to the

maximum useable, is used on
Specific Takeoff charts. In this
case the V1s printed on the
charts are unbalanced if
Clearway exceeds Stopway. If
Generalised takeoff data needs
to be used, the generalised V1
speed assumes a balanced field
length, therefore Clearway must equal Stopway if the additional takeoff length is required to maximise takeoff weight.
If maximum runway length is not required calculate the takeoff data using only the declared runway length available.
In the event that only Clearway is available it must not be used when calculating from generalised takeoff data.

The engine out field length consists of all engine acceleration to V1 then either continued engine out acceleration
through VR and then climb to 35 ft height having reached V2 OR decelerate from V1 to stop (certified without
reverse thrust). These two lengths can be made equal (by a suitable choice of V1) in which case they become the
Balanced Field Length.

The all engine field length is a factored field length, 1.15 times the distance from Brakes Release to the point where
the aircraft attains 35 ft height above the takeoff surface, with all engines operating using the same VR and V2 for
weight as for the engine out case. Clearway may be included in the length.

NOTE: Runway information sometimes uses the following terminology:

TORA: takeoff run available = runway.
TODA: takeoff distance available = runway plus any Clearway (check TODA - TORA = Clearway; reduce
TODA if necessary so that max useable Clearway is not exceeded).
ASDA: accelerate-stop distance available = runway plus any Stopway.
LDA: landing distance available, as measured from threshold (which may be displaced). Stopway may be
included.

When using generalised field length data the takeoff distance used must have ASDA equal to TODA.

SUPPLEMENTARY TAKEOFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE (STODA)

The Australian AIP gives supplementary takeoff distances applicable to all runways. The information takes the form
of presenting distances along the runway which usually give obstacle free net gradients of 1.6%, 1.9%, 2.5% and
3.3%. Generally Qantas uses the TORA, TODA and ASDA distances and specific obstacle details to generate
specific takeoff charts. If however, temporary work is being carried out on a runway and part of the runway is
declared unusable, or a temporary obstruction exists in the takeoff splay, CASA will issue a NOTAM which will
include STODA information. If a specific chart covering the temporary situation is not produced, generalised takeoff
data may be used.
The following procedure will check Obstacle, 2nd Segment and Field Limits for the proposed takeoff weight. Other
limitations such as brake energy etc. should be checked normally.

1. Enter the "Gross 2nd Segment Climb Gradient" chart (page 2-3-15) with intended BRW to obtain gross
gradient capability. If 4.3% (= 3.3% net) or better the 3.3% STODA can be used.
If less than 4.3% a shorter STODA must be used.
For a gross gradient between 3.5% and 4.3% use the 2.5% STODA. Between 3.0% (minimum) and 3.5%
use the 1.9% STODA.
Reduce weight if necessary to meet the minimum 3.0% 2nd segment gradient requirement.
2. Enter the appropriate "Takeoff Field Length" chart (page 2-3-16) with the intended takeoff weight and obtain
the field length. This distance must be equal to or less than, both the published ASDA and the STODA
chosen above. If not, the shortest distance determines the max takeoff weight.
NOTE: Do not use reduced thrust when using STODA information. This does not preclude using reduced
thrust with normal generalised data.

TAKEOFF CERTIFICATION
This aircraft has been certified according to the requirements of United States FAR 25. Data in this manual is
amended where necessary to comply with Australian CASA, CAO 101.6 Amendment 62.
The following is a summary of some of the more significant factors upon which takeoff and climb-out performance is
based.

CASA TAKEOFF FIELD LENGTH.

The CASA takeoff field length is the longer of the following:
WITH ENGINE FAILURE
(a) The tested distance with all engines acceleration to engine failure speed, and continuing the takeoff with
one engine out, to a height of 35 ft by the end of the runway.
(b) The tested distance with all engines acceleration to engine failure speed and stopping.

WITHOUT ENGINE FAILURE

(a) The tested distance (factored) from start of roll to achieving 35 ft, increased by 15%
(b) The test distance with all engine acceleration to recognition speed V1 and stopping.

CLEARWAY
Clearway may be included in the takeoff distance, but it must not exceed half of the horizontal distance from liftoff to
35 ft.

ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE
Accelerate-stop distance is the total distance (a) to accelerate to engine failure speed, VEF; (b) to allow the crew
reaction time plus arbitrary delays to have recognized and initiated a response to the engine failure by V1 speed;
(c) To decelerate with wheel brakes, idle thrust and speed brakes up.
NOTE: For certification purposes reverse thrust is not used.
ENGINE FAILURE RECOGNITION SPEED, V1
Engine failure recognition speed, V1 is the speed below which a takeoff may be aborted and above which it will be
continued. If it is so chosen that the accelerate/stop distance equals the continued take-off distance to 35 ft height,
then V1 is said to be "balanced" and these distances are the "balanced field length."
V1 must never be less than the minimum V1 for control on the ground or greater than the rotation speed VR. On the
747-400RR, minimum V1 can limit a normally selected V1 with runways of short field length. Minimum V1 can also
limit V1 reductions in slush thereby requiring greater reductions in limit weight.
V1 must also not exceed Brake Energy Capability which can be limiting.

V1 ON WET RUNWAY.
CASA permit, at pilot’s discretion, the V1 determined on the basis of dry runway performance to be reduced by 10 kt
(but not below minimum V1) when the runway is WET. This may be done without weight reduction.

NOTE: This is equivalent to improving stop distance by approximately 400 m (1300 ft) or more. It may bring the
screen height below 35 ft but never less than 15 ft on a limited field length.

TAKEOFF CLIMB CAPABILITY

Takeoff climb capability must always at least meet the minimum gradients given below with the critical engine
inoperative.
1. First Segment: from 35 ft to gear up. With wheels down, takeoff flap, takeoff thrust and flying at V2, the
gross climb gradient shall not be less than 0.5%.
2. Second Segment: from gear up to at least 400 ft above runway height (Qantas uses 800 ft). With wheels up,
takeoff flap, takeoff thrust and flying at V2 the gross climb gradient shall not be less than 3.0%.
3. Third Segment: Accelerate from V2 to final takeoff climb speed while retracting flaps. Takeoff thrust to the
end of this segment. Level flight with climb gradient of at least 1.5%.
4. Fourth Segment: Wheels and flaps up, final takeoff climb speed, Max Continuous Thrust to at least 1500 ft
above runway elevation. The gross climb gradient shall not be less than 1.5%.

As with most aircraft, the Second Segment minima of 3% is the most limiting of these conditions for the 747-400RR.
Although field lengths may allow heavier take-off weights, the aircraft must never exceed the weight which gives this
minimum climb-out capability.

OBSTACLE CLEARANCE
Obstacle clearance requirements demand that the aircraft has the capability of clearing all obstacles (within the
takeoff splay) by at least 35 ft plus 1% of the distance from the 35 ft height point to the obstacle location, assuming
the engine has failed at V1.

NOTE: The actual climb capability, critical engine inoperative, is the "Gross" climb performance. The "Net" climb
performance is (arbitrarily) the Gross gradient less 1%. Hence the Net climb profile must clear obstacles by 35 ft.

The second segment may be extended beyond the 400 ft minimum (Qantas use 800 ft minimum) to the time limit of
takeoff thrust (10 minutes in this case, subject to the limitations specified on page 1-1-4), in order to clear obstacles
(provided certain minimum gradient capabilities are available). This will depend on their location; for those obstacles
far out better clearance may be obtained by an early acceleration and clean up.
General Obstacle clearance data in this manual is on the basis of extended second segment. Where effective
obstacles occur at regular ports the Specific Takeoff Chart (together with a plan profile, where necessary) will be
provided.

WIND DIRECTION AND VARIATION /

FORCES

Buy Ballot’s Law for the Southern

Hemisphere with your back to the wind the
low pressure in to the right.
 Geostrophic flow
When the wind is steady, horizontal, and flowing parallel
to straight isobars it is called the geostrophic wind.
In this case the tendency of wind to flow directly across
the isobars towards low pressure caused by the pressure
gradient force is exactly balanced by the Coriolis force.

Gradient wind
A glance at a weather map tells us that large sections of the chart do not have straight flow, but flow along the
curved isobars around low and high pressure systems.

 Gradient Cyclonic
Flow in the Southern
Hemisphere

 Gradient Anti
Cyclonic Flow in the
Southern Hemisphere

MONSOONS AND THE ITCZ

MSL Pressure and Streamlines in January.

MSL Pressure and Streamlines in July.

Mean Position of the ITCZ (Equatorial Trough)

CALCULATION OF CLOUD BASES AND TOPS

If the environmental temperature distribution and the air's water vapor content are known, we can work out whether
cloud will form if air is lifted, the form of cloud which will be produced, and the height of the cloud base and tops-all
using stability considerations. From these facts we can deduce the form of precipitation, the likelihood of
thunderstorms, and the possibility of icing. Meteorologists use a thermodynamic diagram to carry out these
calculations graphically. However, for the purpose of illustrating the principles associated with the development of
clouds, the following examples are shown in tabular form.
Ascent by convection
Assume that in this case the water vapour content of the heated surface air is such that condensation will commence
0
when this air cools to 11 C.
0
SALR = 1.5 C Lapse Rate
0
DALR = 3.0 C Lapse Rate

Note. In this example:

(a) for cloud to be produced it
is necessary for the
surface air temperature to
reach at least 23°C; if the
temperature is less than
this, convection will cease
before rising air becomes
saturated;
(b) the level at which
condensation takes place
in air rising due to
convection-the convection
condensation level-is the
cloud base of 4000 feet;
(c) above 4000 feet the cloud will continue to grow as the rising air is warmer than the environment;
(d) the inversion between 10 000 feet and 11 000 feet is not strong enough to stop the vertical motion; the rising
air remains warmer than the environment; .
(e) the temperature of the rising air becomes equal to the environment, hence convection stops here and the
cloud top is 14000 feet:
(f) a lower water vapour content in the air rising from the surface would require a higher surface temperature
before convection currents would rise sufficiently to produce cloud and the cloud base would also be higher
than with more moist air.

FORMULAES
0
(a) Angle of Bank for a Rate One Turn (TAS / 10) + 7
(b) Weight of Fuel Litres x Specific Gravity
(c) Aquaplaning / Hydroplaning Hydroplaning Speed Knots = 9 Tyre Pressure (PSI)
(d) VHF Straight Line Distance 1.5 X Aircraft Height in feet. (Answer in nm)
(e) Glide Slope Rate of Descent 5 x Ground Speed = RoD + 50’ required for a 3 degree slope