Basic Questions

November 30th, 2017Go to comments

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Question 1

Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
A. bus
B. star
C. mesh
D. ring

Answer: B

Explanation

Star topology is the most popular topology for the network which allows all traffic to flow through a central device.

Question 2

What is true about Ethernet? (Choose two)

A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA stops transmitting when congestion occurs

Answer: B D

Explanation

Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is a media access control method used most
notably in early Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) technology for local area networking. When collision detection (CD)
observes a collision (excess current above what it is generating, i.e. > 24 mA for coaxial Ethernet), it stops
transmission immediately and instead transmits a 32-bit jam sequence.

Note: CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance) is a protocol for carrier transmission used in
wireless networks. Unlike CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detect) which deals with transmissions
after a collision has occurred, CSMA/CA acts to prevent collisions before they happen.

Question 3

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast
domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Each port of a router is a broadcast domain. This router has 2 ports so it has 2 broadcast domains.

Question 4

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

A. a router
B. a Layer 2 switch
C. a hub

Answer: C

Question 5

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

A. 1500
B. 9216
C. 1600
D. 1518

Answer: D
Explanation

Ethernet frame size refers to the whole Ethernet frame, including the header and the trailer while MTU size refers
only to Ethernet payload. Baby giant frames refer to Ethernet frame size up to 1600 bytes, and jumbo frame refers
to Ethernet frame size up to 9216 bytes (according to this
link: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-4000-series-switches/29805-175.html)

For example, standard Ethernet frame MTU is 1500 bytes. This does not include the Ethernet header and Cyclic
Redundancy Check (CRC) trailer, which is 18 bytes in length, to make the total Ethernet frame size of 1518.

So according to strict definition, MTU size of 1600 cannot be classified as baby giant frames as the whole Ethernet
frames will surely larger than 1600 -> Answer C is not correct.

Answer D is a better choice as the MTU is 1518, so the whole Ethernet frame would be 1536 (1518 + 18 Ethernet
header and CRC trailer). This satisfies the requirement of baby giant frames “Baby giant frames refer to Ethernet
frame size up to 1600 bytes”.

Question 6

What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three)

A. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
B. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
E. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
F. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.

Answer: A C D

Explanation

To understand more about TCP please read our TCP and UDP tutorial.

Note: Answer F is not correct because TCP does not require applications to determine the retranmission. TCP itself
will determine if the data packets should be retransmitted or not.

Question 7

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: A F

Explanation

Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from e0 interface to
the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another broadcast domain -> A is correct.

Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router
(because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1
collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) -> F is correct.

Question 8

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From
this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C

Explanation

Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is
only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question 9

If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how many
collision domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Each port of a switch is a separate collision domain. This switch uses two ports (for 5 hosts) so there are two
collision domains in total.

Question 10

What are contained in Layer 2 Ethernet frame? (Choose three)

A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
F. others

Answer: A C D

Explanation

At the end of each frame there is a Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field. FCS can be analyzed to determine if errors
have occurred. FCS uses cyclic redundancy check (CRC) algorithm to detect errors in the transmitted frames.
Before sending data, the sending host generates a CRC based on the header and data of that frame. When this
frame arrives, the receiving host uses the same algorithm to generate its own CRC and compare them. If they do
not match then a CRC error will occur.

Preamble is used to indicate the start of the frame by arranging the first 62 bits as alternating “1/0s” and the last
two bits as “1”s. Like so, 010101010101010………………………10101011. Therefore when the receiving end sees the
“11” it knows where the actual Ethernet header starts. The alternating 1s and 0s will also allow the two endpoints
to sync their internal clocks. In summary, preamble is used for synchronization.

The “Type/Length” field is used to indicate the “Type”of the payload (Layer 3 protocol) which is indicated as a
Hexadecimal value.
Note: Ethernet II uses “Type” while the old Ethernet version use “Length”

Basic Questions 2
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Question 1

What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection?
A. cut-through
B. straight-through
C. crossover
D. rollover

Answer: C

Explanation

MDI stands for “Medium Dependent Interface”. MDI is a type of Ethernet port found on network devices. When
connecting two devices with MDI ports (two hosts, for example) an Ethernet crossover cable is required. The
crossover cable switches the send and receive ports on the two connectors, allowing data to flow correctly between
two MDI ports.

Question 2

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Answer: A E

Explanation

Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2 -> A is correct.

MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different network we have
to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct; E is correct.

Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains physical address ->
C is not correct.

On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default -> D is not correct.

All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate -> F is not correct.

Question 3

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the server grants access
E. when the medium is idle

Answer: C E

Question 4

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the
switches?

A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two

Answer: A

Explanation

Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1 broadcast
domain.

For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between hubs & switches + 1
collision between the two switches).

Question 5

Which type of cable must you use to connect two device with MDI interfaces?
A. rolled
B. crossover
C. crossed
D. straight through

Answer: B
Explanation

Use an Ethernet straight-through cable to connect an medium dependent interface (MDI) to an MDI-X port. Use
a cross-over cableto connect an MDI to an MDI port, or an MDI-X to an MDI-X port.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/hw/maintenance/5505guide/ASA5505HIG/pinouts
.html

Note: MDI/MDIX is a type of Ethernet port connection using twisted pair cabling.

Question 6

Which statement about upgrading a Cisco IOS device with TFTP server?
A. the operation is performed in active mode
B. the operation is performed in unencrypted format
C. the operation is performed in passive mode
D. the Cisco IOS device must be on the same LAN as the TFTP server

Answer: B

Explanation

Verify that the TFTP or RCP server has IP connectivity to the router. If you cannot successfully ping between the
TFTP or RCP server and the router, do one of the following:
– Configure a default gateway on the router.
– Make sure that the server and the router each have an IP address in the same network or subnet.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/1900/software/configuration/guide/Software_C
onfiguration/upgrade.html

The first option implies the router can be in a different subnet from the TFTP server -> D is not correct.

TFTP has no encryption process so answer B is correct.

Question 7

Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two)

A. frame check sequence
B. header
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. type

Answer: A E

Explanation

At the end of each frame there is a Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field. FCS can be analyzed to determine if errors
have occurred. FCS uses cyclic redundancy check (CRC) algorithm to detect errors in the transmitted frames.
Before sending data, the sending host generates a CRC based on the header and data of that frame. When this
frame arrives, the receiving host uses the same algorithm to generate its own CRC and compare them. If they do
not match then a CRC error will occur.
The “Type/Length” field is used to indicate the “Type”of the payload (Layer 3 protocol) which is indicated as a
Hexadecimal value.

Note: Ethernet II uses “Type” while the old Ethernet version use “Length”

Question 8

Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)

A. It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity
B. It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmitted properly
C. It guarantees packet delivery
D. It includes protection against duplicate packets
E. It can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic

Answer: A E

Question 9

Which two statements about fiber cable are true? (Choose two)
A. Single-mode fiber supports SC and LC connectors only
B. Single-mode cable is most appropriate for installations longer 10 km
C. Fiber cable is relatively inexpensive and supports a higher data rate than coaxial cable
D. Multimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 100 Gbps
E. Multimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 9.92 Gbps

Answer: B D

Explanation

Single-mode fiber allows only one mode of light to propagate. Because of this, the number of light reflections
created as the light passes through the core decreases, lowering attenuation and creating the ability for the signal
to travel further. This application is typically used in long distance, higher bandwidth.

Because of the high dispersion and attenuation rate with multimode fiber cable, the quality of the signal is
reduced over long distances.

Reference: https://www.multicominc.com/training/technical-resources/single-mode-vs-multi-mode-fiber-optic-
cable/

In fact it is difficult to say what the maximum distance of single-mode or multimode fiber but according to this link
(table 1):

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/gigabit-ethernet-gbic-sfp-
modules/product_data_sheet0900aecd8033f885.html
Single-mode cable is good for installations longer than 10km.

At present, there are four kinds of multi-mode fibers: OM1, OM2, OM3 and OM4. The letters “OM” stand for optical
multi-mode. OM3 and OM4 fibers will support upcoming 40 and 100 Gb/s speeds.

OSI TCP/IP Model Questions

November 30th, 2017Go to comments

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Note: If you are not sure about OSI Model, please read our OSI Model tutorial.

Question 1

Which statements correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process?
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses
and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A D

Explanation

The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number,
so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.

The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to
retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the
receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.

-> A is correct.

The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) to the
packet (on Layer 3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct.

Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer encapsulates messages received
from higher layers by placing them into datagrams (also called packets) with a network layer header -> C is not
correct.

The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices.
Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data
appropriately.

-> D is correct.

The Physical layer (not presentation layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link ->
E is not correct.

Question 2

What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Presentation
E. Network

Answer: E

Explanation

The Internet Layer in TCP/IP Model is equivalent to the Network Layer of the OSI Model.

Question 3

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation

The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the Internet Layer of
TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing decision.
Question 4

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses
and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A D

Explanation

The Transport Layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence
number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.

The Transport Layer also uses flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to
retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the
receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.

-> A is correct.

The Data Link Layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) to the
packet (on Layer 3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct.

Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer encapsulates messages received
from higher layers by placing them into datagrams (also called packets) with a network layer header -> C is not
correct.

The Network Layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices.
Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data
appropriately.
-> D is correct.

The Physical Layer (not Presentation Layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link ->
E is not correct.

Question 5

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and
checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Answer: E

Question 6

Which networking technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
A. System network architecture
B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
C. Open system Interconnect
D. Open network architecture

Answer: B

Question 7

Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
E. Data-link
F. Network

Answer: A C D

Explanation

The Internet Layer in TCP/IP Model is equivalent to the Network Layer of the OSI Model.
The first three layers of the OSI Model (Application, presentation and Session Layers) are merged into the
Application Layer in the TCP/IP Model.

Question 8

On which layer TCP/IP is ACL APIC-EM path?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Answer: D

Cloud & Virtual Services

November 29th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

Question 1

Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.

Answer: B

Question 2

What are the three major components of Cisco network virtualization? (Choose three)
A. network access control
B. path isolation
C. virtual network services
D. policy enforcement

Answer: A B C

Explanation

Network virtualization architecture has three main components:

+ Network access control and segmentation of classes of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or
denied into a logical partition. Users a
re segmented into employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This
component identifies users who are authorized to access the network and then places them into the appropriate
logical partition.
+ Path isolation: Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the
WAN and back again. This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports
traffic over and between isolated partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services
is also performed in component.
+ Network Services virtualization: This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services
such as security, quality of service (QoS), and address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP]
and Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies policy per partition and isolates application environments, if
required.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-
switches/white_paper_c11-531522.pdf

Question 3

Which three technical services support cloud computing?

A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services

Answer: B C F

Explanation

Four technical services are essential to supporting the high level of flexibility, resource availability, and transparent
resource connectivity required for cloud computing:

+ The Layer 3 network offers the traditional routed interconnection between remote sites and provides end-user
access to cloud services.
+ The extended LAN between two or more sites offers transparent transport and supports application and
operating system mobility.
+ Extended SAN services support data access and accurate data replication.
+ IP Localization improves northbound and southbound traffic as well as server-to-server workflows.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/ios-xr-
software/white_paper_c11-694882.html

Question 4

Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
D. other

Answer: B

Explanation

Network virtualization architecture has three main components:

+ Network access control and segmentation of classes of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed
or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into employees, contractors and consultants, and
guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component identifies users who are authorized to access the
network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition.
+ Path isolation: Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the
WAN and back again. This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports
traffic over and between isolated partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services
is also performed in component.
+ Network Services virtualization: This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services such as
security, quality of service (QoS), and address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP] and
Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies policy per partition and isolates application environments, if required.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-
switches/white_paper_c11-531522.pdf

Question 5

Which three options are the major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three)
A. virtual network services
B. authentication services
C. network access control
D. network resilience
E. path isolation
F. policy enforcement

Answer: A C E

Explanation

Network virtualization architecture has three main components:

+ Network access control and segmentation of classes of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or
denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with
respective access to IT assets. This component identifies users who are authorized to access the network and then
places them into the appropriate logical partition.

+ Path isolation: Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the
WAN and back again. This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports
traffic over and between isolated partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services
is also performed in component.

+ Network Services virtualization: This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services
such as security, quality of service (QoS), and address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP]
and Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies policy per partition and isolates application environments, if
required.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-
switches/white_paper_c11-531522.html

Question 6

Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Answer: A

Explanation

Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:

+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a third-party
vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients’ side. Most SaaS applications can be run directly from a web
browser without any downloads or installations required, although some require plugins.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing cloud
components to software. What developers gain with PaaS is a framework they can build upon to develop or
customize applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple, and
cost-effective. With this technology, enterprise operations, or a third-party provider, can manage OSes,
virtualization, servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS software itself. Developers, however, manage the
applications.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and managing remote
datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal), storage, networking, and networking
services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase hardware outright, users can purchase IaaS based on
consumption, similar to electricity or other utility billing.

Reference: https://apprenda.com/library/paas/iaas-paas-saas-explained-compared/

In the context of the three cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS and SaaS), DNS can be considered an IaaS service.

Reference: http://searchcloudsecurity.techtarget.com/tip/DNS-attacks-Compromising-DNS-in-the-cloud

WAN Questions
November 28th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

If you are not sure about WAN, please read our WAN tutorial.

Question 1

Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC
encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
C. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief

Answer: C

Explanation

An example of the output of the “show interface serial …” command is shown below. We can see the line
“Encapsulation HDLC”.

Question 2

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in
security mechanisms?
A. X.25
B. HDLC
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay

Answer: C

Explanation

PPP supports both synchronous (like analog phone lines) and asynchronous circuits (such as ISDN or digital links).
With synchronous circuits we need to use clock rate.

Note: Serial links can be synchronous or asynchronous. Asynchronous connections used to be only available on
low-speed (<2MB) serial interfaces, but now, there are the new HWICs (High-Speed WAN Interface Cards) which
also support asynchronous mode. To learn more about them please
visit http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps5949/ps6182/prod_qas0900aecd80274424.html.

Question 3

Which statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true?
A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.
B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.
C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.
D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.
E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.
F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

Answer: B C

Explanation

The advantages of leased lines include:

+ Simplicity: Point-to-point communication links require minimal expertise to install and maintain.
+ Quality: Point-to-point communication links usually offer high service quality, if they have adequate
bandwidth. The dedicated capacity removes latency or jitter between the endpoints.
+ Availability: Constant availability is essential for some applications, such as e-commerce. Point-to-point
communication links provide permanent, dedicated capacity, which is required for VoIP or Video over IP.

The disadvantages of leased lines include:

+ Cost: Point-to-point links are generally the most expensive type of WAN access. The cost of leased line solutions
can become significant when they are used to connect many sites over increasing distances. In addition, each
endpoint requires an interface on the router, which increases equipment costs.
+ Limited flexibility: WAN traffic is often variable, and leased lines have a fixed capacity, so that the
bandwidth of the line seldom matches the need exactly (therefore answer D is not correct). Any change to
the leased line generally requires a site visit by ISP personnel to adjust capacity.

(Reference: Connecting Networks Companion Guide Book published by Cisco Networking Academy – Page 54)

Question 4

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as illustrated, but there is no
connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial
configurations, identify the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity.
A. transmission unit size too large
B. no loopback set
C. an incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation at each end
E. an incorrect IP address
F. incompatible bandwidth between routers

Answer: E

Question 5

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device

Answers: A D E

Explanation

The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s
DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected interface (the router’s serial interface).
A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or other digital device to analog signals for a
conventional copper twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming analog signal and converts it to a
digital signal for the digital device. A CSU/DSU is used between two digital lines -> A & D are correct but B & C are
not correct.

For more explanation of answer D, in telephony the local loop (also referred to as a subscriber line) is the physical
link or circuit that connects from the demarcation point of the customer premises to the edge of the carrier or
telecommunications service provider’s network. Therefore a modem terminates an analog local loop is correct.

Question 6

Which two pieces of information are provided by the “show controllers serial 0” command? (Choose two)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings

Answer: A C

Explanation

Below is an example of the output of this command:

The “show controllers serial …” command tells us about the type of the cable (in the case V.35 DTE cable) and the
status of the physical layer of the interface. In above output we learn that there is an cable attached on S0/0
interface. If no cable is found we will see the line “No DTE cable” instead.

Question 7

Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?

A. show line
B. show interface
C. show protocol
D. show run

Answer: B

Explanation

Nowadays all serial links are full-duplex (as serial interfaces have separate Rx & Tx pins) so maybe this question
wants to ask about how to check the speed of the serial link. The “show interface” command gives us information
about this. An example of this command is shown below:

In this output the speed of S0/0 interface is 1544 Kbits.

Question 8

Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?
A. single-homed
B. full mesh
C. point-to-point
D. hub-and-spoke

Answer: B

Explanation

Full-mesh is a network topology in which there is a direct link between all pairs of nodes. Below is an example of
full-mesh topology.
Question 9

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a
Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency

Answer: A D E

Question 10

Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)

A. It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications
B. It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems
C. It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber
D. It supports both the SDH and SONET standards
E. Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
F. It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber

Answer: A B D

Explanation

A newer fiber-optic media development for long-range communications is called dense wavelength-division
multiplexing (DWDM). DWDM multiplies the amount of bandwidth that a single strand of fiber can support.

DWDM circuits are used in all modern submarine communications cable systems and other long-haul
circuits.

Specifically, DWDM:

+ Enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber -> Answer A is correct
+ Assigns incoming optical signals to specific wavelengths of light (i.e., frequencies)
+ Each channel is capable of carrying a 10-Gbps multiplexed signal -> Answer E is not correct
+ Can multiplex more than 80 different channels of data (i.e., wavelengths) onto a single fiber -> Answer C is not
correct
+ Can amplify these wavelengths to boost the signal strength
+ Supports SONET and SDH standards

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2202411&seqNum=6

Question 11

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SUP
D. LCP
E. DLCI

Answer: D

PPP Questions
November 27th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

If you are not sure about PPP, please read our PPP tutorial.

Question 1

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: B C

Question 2

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router
at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of
the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut

C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut

D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit:

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.

B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to
authenticate to each other.

Answer: B

Explanation

Both routers must use the same password for CHAP to authentication.

Question 4

What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line?

A. Low cost
B. Full-mesh capability
C. Flexibility of design
D. Simply configuration

Answer: D
Explanation

Point-to-point leased line is the most expensive interconnection between two ends as the line is dedicated to a
single user, the user should still pay for all available bandwidth, including those unused. -> A is not correct.

With the cost of point-to-point leased line, the full-mesh capability is only achieved when your company has very
very strong budget to pay all the bills. To create a full-mesh topology for n sites, we need n*(n-1)/2 leased line
connections. For example if we have 6 sites then we need 6*5/2 = 15 leased line connections -> It is nearly
impossible for a normal company to achieve full-mesh topology -> B is not correct.

Flexibility is not an advantage of leased line connection -> C is not correct.

Point-to-point leased line simplifies the configuration as the circuit is available on a permanent basis and does not
require a connection to be set up before traffic is passed. It does not require to define a permanent virtual circuit
(PVC) in the configuration either -> D is correct.

Question 5

When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?
A. In the global config
B. Under serial interface
C. Under the routing protocol
D. Under the multilink interface

Answer: D

Explanation

Suppose R1 has two Serial interfaces which are directly connected to R2. This is how to configure multilink on R1:

R1(config-if)# interface Serial 0/0

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink group 1
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# interface Serial 0/1

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink group 1
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config)# interface multilink 1

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.42.1 255.255.255.252
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink
R1(config-if)# ppp multilink group 1

Therefore we must configure IP address under multilink interface, not physical member interfaces.

Question 6

What are two authentication types of MLPPP?

A. PEAP
B. LEAP
C. PAP
D. CHAP
E. TACACS+

Answer: C D

Explanation

The Multilink PPP feature provides load balancing functionality over multiple WAN links while providing multivendor
interoperability and support for packet fragmentation, proper sequencing, and load calculation on both inbound and
outbound traffic.

Multilink PPP combines multiple physical links into a logical bundle called a Multilink PPP bundle. A Multilink PPP
bundle is a single, virtual interface that connects to the peer system. Having a single interface (Multilink PPP bundle
interface) provides a single point to apply hierarchical queueing, shaping, and policing to traffic flows. Individual
links in a bundle do not perform any hierarchical queueing. None of the links have any knowledge about the traffic
on parallel links.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/wan_mlp/configuration/xe-3s/wan-mlp-xe-3s-
book/wan_cfg_mlppp_conn_xe.html

MLPPP supports two authentication protocols: Password Authentication protocol (PAP) and Challenge-Handshake
Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Question 7

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
E. Layer 1

Answer: A

Question 8

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a serial interface?
A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp

Answer: C

Explanation

The command “ppp authentication chap pap” command indicates the CHAP authentication is used first. If it fails or
is rejected by other side then uses PAP instead. If you want to use PAP first (then CHAP) you can use the “ppp
authentication pap chap” command.
QoS Questions
November 26th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

Question 1

Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?

A. It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
B. It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
D. It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.

Answer: C

Explanation

The following diagram illustrates the key difference between traffic policing and traffic shaping. Traffic policing
propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed
information rate), excess traffic is dropped(or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-
tooth with crests and troughs. In contrast to policing, traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then
schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed
packet output rate.

Note: Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the routing
device.

Question 2

Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Answer: E

Question 3

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
E. ?

Answer: A

Explanation

The IP datagram header contains an 8-bit field called ToS (Type of Service). The field has been part of the IP
header since the beginning, but it was rarely used until the recent introduction of Differentiated Services (Diff-
Serv).

Note:
+ CoS does not exists in an IP header. It appears in the header of a 802.1Q frame only. CoS is used for QoS on a
trunk link.
+ DSCP uses the first 6 bits of the TOS field.

Question 4
Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?
A. round robin
B. CBWFQ
C. PQ
D. RSVP

Answer: D

Explanation

The Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) protocol allows applications to reserve bandwidth for their data flows. It
is used by a host, on the behalf of an application data flow, to request a specific amount of bandwidth from the
network. RSVP is also used by the routers to forward bandwidth reservation requests.

Question 5

What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?

A. buffers and queues packets
B. buffers without queuing packets
C. queues without buffering packets
D. drops packets

Answer: A

Explanation

The following diagram illustrates the key difference between traffic policing and traffic shaping. Traffic policing
propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate),
excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs. In contrast to policing, traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the
excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output
rate.
Note: Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the routing
device.

Question 6

In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

A. The CoS byte
B. The ToS byte
C. The DSCP byte
D. The QoS byte

Answer: B

Explanation

Layer-3 marking is accomplished using the 8-bit Type of Service (ToS) field, part of the IP header. A mark
in this field will remain unchanged as it travels from hop-to-hop, unless a Layer-3 device is explicitly configured to
overwrite this field. There are two marking methods that use the ToS field:
+ IP Precedence: uses the first three bits of the ToS field.
+ Differentiated Service Code Point (DSCP): uses the first six bits of the ToS field. When using DSCP, the ToS field
is often referred to as the Differentiated Services (DS) field.

Reference: http://www.routeralley.com/guides/qos_classification.pdf

Question 7

Which function does traffic shaping perform?

A. It buffers and queues excess packets
B. It buffers traffic without queuing it
C. It queues traffic without buffering it
D. It drops packets to control the output rate
Answer: A

Explanation

The following diagram illustrates the key difference between traffic policing and traffic shaping. Traffic policing
propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate),
excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs. In contrast to policing, traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the
excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output
rate.

Question 8

Which option is the main function of congestion management?

A. discarding excess traffic
B. queuing traffic based on priority
C. classifying traffic
D. providing long-term storage of buffered data

Answer: B

Question 9

Which QoS tool can you use to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
A.WRED
B. FIFO
C. PQ
D.WFQ

Answer: C

Explanation
With Priority Queueing (PQ), traffic is classified into high, medium, normal, and low priority queues. The high
priority traffic is serviced first, then medium priority traffic, followed by normal and low priority traffic. ->
Therefore we can assign higher priority for voice traffic.

Also with PQ, higher priority traffic can starve the lower priority queues of bandwidth. No bandwidth guarantees are
possible -> It is still good because this network is mostly used for data traffic so voice traffic amount is small.

With First In First Out (FIFO) or Weighted Fair Queueing (WFQ), there is no priority servicing so they are not
suitable here.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/qos_solutions/QoSVoIP/QoSVoIP.html

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED measures the size of
the queues depending on the Precedence value and starts dropping packets when the queue is between the
minimum threshold and the maximum threshold -> It does not have priority servicing either.

Question 10

Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two)
A. CBWFQ
B. FRTS
C. CAR
D. PQ
E. PBR

Answer: A D

Explanation

This module discusses the types of queueing and queueing-related features (such as bandwidth management)
which constitute the congestion management QoS features:

Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ): extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic
classes. For CBWFQ, you define traffic classes based on match criteria including protocols, access control lists
(ACLs), and input interfaces. Packets satisfying the match criteria for a class constitute the traffic for that class.

Priority queueing (PQ): With PQ, packets belonging to one priority class of traffic are sent before all lower priority
traffic to ensure timely delivery of those packets.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conmgt/configuration/xe-3s/qos-conmgt-xe-
3s-book/qos-conmgt-oview.html

Note: Committed Access Rate (CAR) is only used for bandwidth limitation by dropping excessive traffic.

PPPoE Questions
November 25th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

If you are not sure about PPPoE, please read our PPPoE tutorial (on digitaltut.com).

Question 1
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE
client?
A. virtual-template interface
B. DHCP
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication

Answer: A

Explanation

The picture below shows all configuration needed for PPPoE:

There is no Dialer interface on the PPPoE Server so answer “Dialer interface” is not correct. The most suitable
answer is “Virtual Template” interface as it contains the pool which is used to assign IP address to the PPPoE Client.
But this question is weird because according to the CCNAv3 syllabus, candidates only need to grasp the PPPoE on
client-side, not sure why this question asked about PPPoE on Server side. For more information about PPPoE,
please read our PPPoE tutorial.
Question 2

During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

A. the PPP Session phase
B. Phase 2
C. the Active Discovery phase
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1

Answer: A

Explanation

PPPoE provides a standard method of employing the authentication methods of the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
over an Ethernet network. When used by ISPs, PPPoE allows authenticated assignment of IP addresses. In this type
of implementation, the PPPoE client and server are interconnected by Layer 2 bridging protocols running over a
DSL or other broadband connection.

PPPoE is composed of two main phases:

+ Active Discovery Phase: In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator.
During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
+ PPP Session Phase: In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link
setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the
PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-
pppoe.html

Question 3

Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?

A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay

Answer: B

Explanation

In the Dialer interface, we can use the “ip address negotiated” command to ask for an IP address from the PPPoE
Server.

MPLS Questions
November 24th, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

Note: If you are not sure about OSI Model, please read our MPLS tutorial.

Question 1

Which statement about MPLS is true?

A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. It operates in Layer 2.

Answer: B

Explanation

MPLS operates at a layer that lies between traditional definitions of Layer 2 (data link layer) and Layer 3 (network
layer), and thus is often referred to as a “layer 2.5” protocol.

Question 2

Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two)

A. It provides automatic authentication
B. It can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6
C. It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header
D. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic
E. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q

Answer: B D

Explanation

MPLS supports IPv4, IPv6, IPX, AppleTalk at the network layer. MPLS supports Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, ATM,
FR, PPP at the link layer.

MPLS uses label switching to forward packets over Ethernet. Labels are assigned to packets based on groupings or
forwarding equivalence classes (FECs). The label is added between the Layer 2 and the Layer 3 header.

DMVPN Questions
November 23rd, 2017Go to comments

Premium Member: You can test your knowledge with these questions first via this link.

If you are not sure about DMVPN, please read our DMVPN tutorial (on digitaltut.com).

Question 1

Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?

A. ring
B. full mesh
C. hub-and-spoke
D. partial mesh

Answer: C

Explanation

The topology of DMVPN is always hub-and-spoke as all Spokes are required to connect to the Hub router directly.
Question 2

Which circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

Answer: B C D

Question 3

Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connections on an unsecured transport network?
A. DMVPN
B. VPN
C. Site-to-site VPN
D. client VPN

Answer: A

Total :70 ]

Topic : 10