DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

YY
ALHCA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

1. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis 6. Double fertilization is

by (1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(1) Nostoc nuclei
(2) Cycas (2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(3) Green sulphur bacteria (3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
(4) Chara tube with two different eggs

Answer ( 3 ) (4) Syngamy and triple fusion

S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as Answer ( 4 )

source of proton, therefore they do not evolve S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
O2. that occur in angiosperms only.
2. Which one of the following plants shows a Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
very close relationship with a species of moth, 7. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
where none of the two can complete its life respiration?
cycle without the other? (1) It functions as an electron carrier.
(1) Yucca (2) Banana (2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(3) Hydrilla (4) Viola (3) It functions as an enzyme.
Answer ( 1 ) (4) It is the final electron acceptor for
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a anaerobic respiration.
species of moth i.e. Pronuba. Answer ( 1 )
3. In which of the following forms is iron S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
absorbed by plants? carrier.
(1) Ferrous 8. Select the correct match
(2) Free element (1) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) Ferric (2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(4) Both ferric and ferrous
(3) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
Answer ( 3 * )
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
Answer ( 3 )
ions. (According to NCERT)
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
acid.
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
9. Which of the following is commonly used as a
4. Which of the following elements is responsible
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
for maintaining turgor in cells?
human lymphocytes?
(1) Sodium (2) Potassium
(1) Ti plasmid
(3) Magnesium (4) Calcium
(2)  phage
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of (3) Retrovirus
cells. (4) pBR 322
5. Pollen grains can be stored for several years Answer ( 3 )
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
(1) –80°C (2) –196°C
introducing a DNA fragment in human
(3) –120°C (4) –160°C lymphocyte.
Answer ( 2 ) Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years patient are grown in culture outside the body,
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C a functional gene is introduced by using a
(Cryopreservation) retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

10. Use of bioresources by multinational 13. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
companies and organisations without foreign company, though such varieties have
authorisation from the concerned country and been present in India for a long time. This is
its people is called related to
(1) Biopiracy (1) Sharbati Sonora

(2) Biodegradation (2) Lerma Rojo

(3) Co-667
(3) Bio-infringement
(4) Basmati
(4) Bioexploitation
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
of bioresources by multinational companies and trademark office that was actually been
and other organisation without proper derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
authorisation from the countries and people
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
concerned with compensatory payment richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). of Basmati are grown in India.
11. In India, the organisation responsible for Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
assessing the safety of introducing varieties and claimed as an invention or a
genetically modified organisms for public use novelty.
is
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
(1) Council for Scientific and Industrial of wheat.
Research (CSIR)
14. Natality refers to
(2) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM) (1) Birth rate
(3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC) (3) Death rate
Answer ( 4 ) (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
Answer ( 1 )
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee) which will make decisions S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
regarding the validity of GM research and
safety of introducing GM-organism for public • Death rate – Mortality
services. (Direct from NCERT). • Number of individual – Immigration
12. The correct order of steps in Polymerase entering a habitat is
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
• Number of individual – Emigration
(1) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
leaving the habital
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
15. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(1) 21st April (2) 16th September
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) 5th June (4) 22nd April
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple Answer (2)
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro. S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
Each cycle has three steps September.

(I) Denaturation 5th June - World Environment Day

(II) Primer annealing 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
(III) Extension of primer 22nd April - National Earth Day
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

16. Which of the following is a secondary 19. In stratosphere, which of the following
pollutant? elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(1) CO2
(1) Cl (2) Fe
(2) SO2
(3) Carbon (4) Oxygen
(3) CO
Answer ( 1 )
(4) O3
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
Answer ( 4 ) chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are method converting into oxygen
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant. Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
CO – Quantitative pollutant ozone layer depletion
20. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
CO2 – Primary pollutant
matched?
SO2 – Primary pollutant
(1) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
17. Niche is (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(1) the physical space where an organism determination
lives (3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(2) the range of temperature that the (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
organism needs to live
Answer ( 3 )
(3) all the biological factors in the organism's
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
environment
pleiotropic gene.
(4) the functional role played by the organism Other options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly
where it lives matched.
Answer ( 4 ) 21. Select the correct statement
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It (1) Punnett square was developed by a British
refers the functional role played by the scientist
organism where it lives. (2) Spliceosomes take part in translation
18. What type of ecological pyramid would be (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
obtained with the following data?
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Answer ( 1 )
Primary consumer : 60 g
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
Primary producer : 10 g geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
(1) Pyramid of energy – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers mode of replication.
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass – Transduction was discovered by Zinder
and Laderberg.
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
Answer ( 3 )
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
22. The experimental proof for semiconservative
pyramid of biomass, usually found in replication of DNA was first shown in a
aquatic ecosystem.
(1) Bacterium (2) Plant
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
(3) Fungus (4) Virus
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Answer ( 1 )
are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
consumer and this is less than secondary shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
consumers. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

23. Select the correct match 26. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(1) Alfred Hershey and - TMV preserving pollen as fossils?

Martha Chase (1) Cellulosic intine (2) Oil content

(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum (3) Pollenkitt (4) Sporopollenin

and F. Stahl Answer ( 4 )

S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
(3) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
pneumoniae helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Jacques Monod Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
Answer ( 4 ) pollen grain known as intine made up
cellulose & pectin.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
model of gene regulation known as operon Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
model/lac operon. 27. The two functional groups characteristic of
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting sugars are
technique. (1) Carbonyl and methyl
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- (2) Carbonyl and phosphate
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. (3) Hydroxyl and methyl
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – (4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Proved DNA as genetic material not Answer ( 4 )
protein S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
24. Offsets are produced by carbohydrate.
(1) Mitotic divisions (2) Parthenocarpy Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
ketone or their derivatives, which means they
(3) Meiotic divisions (4) Parthenogenesis have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
Answer ( 1 ) 28. Which among the following is not a
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed prokaryote?
by mitosis. (1) Mycobacterium (2) Nostoc
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic (3) Saccharomyces (4) Oscillatoria
cells. Answer ( 3 )
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
embryo from ovum or egg without (unicellular fungi)
fertilisation.
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
fertilisation, (generally seedless)
29. Which of the following is not a product of light
25. Which of the following flowers only once in its reaction of photosynthesis?
life-time? (1) NADH (2) NADPH
(1) Jackfruit (2) Mango (3) ATP (4) Oxygen
(3) Bamboo species (4) Papaya Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
reaction, while NADH is a product of
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
respiration process.
generally only once in its life-time after 50-
100 years. 30. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) Light (2) O2 concentration
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in (3) Temperature (4) CO2 concentration
their life-time. Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 36. Plants having little or no secondary growth
affect opening and closing of stomata while are
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
(1) Deciduous angiosperms
31. The Golgi complex participates in
(2) Conifers
(1) Formation of secretory vesicles
(2) Respiration in bacteria (3) Grasses

(3) Fatty acid breakdown (4) Cycads

(4) Activation of amino acid Answer (3)
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases do not have secondary growth.
secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
Palm like monocots have anomalous
32. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? secondary growth.
(1) It is a membrane-bound structure 37. Pneumatophores occur in
(2) It takes part in spindle formation
(1) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells (2) Carnivorous plants
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (3) Halophytes
synthesis
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
Answer ( 4 )
Answer (3)
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis. Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
pneumatophores.
33. The stage during which separation of the
paired homologous chromosomes begins is  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
uptake O2.
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
38. Sweet potato is a modified
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Adventitious root
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. (2) Tap root
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
(3) Stem
34. Stomata in grass leaf are
(4) Rhizome
(1) Kidney shaped
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Rectangular
(3) Dumb-bell shaped S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
for storage of food
(4) Barrel shaped
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
shaped stomata in their leaves. from the redicle

35. Casparian strips occur in 39. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
are produced by
(1) Pericycle (2) Cortex
(1) Vascular cambium
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
(2) Phellogen
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Apical meristems
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
and inner tangential wall. (4) Axillary meristems

• It is suberin rich. Answer ( 1 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary 43. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
are produced exogenously in
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
and secondary phloem towards outsides. (1) Alternaria (2) Agaricus
(3) Neurospora (4) Saccharomyces
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
produced than secondary phloem. Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
40. Which of the following statements is correct?
basidiospores or meiospores are
(1) Selaginella is heterosporous, while produced exogenously.
Salvinia is homosporous  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
produces ascospores as meiospores but
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
endogenously inside the ascus.)
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
gymnosperms does not produce sexual spores.
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both  Saccharomyces (Unicellular
Cycas and Cedrus ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
endogenously.
Answer ( 3 )
44. Match the items given in Column I with those
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
Column I Column II
41. Select the wrong statement :
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
(1) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
collection of preserved
(2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding plants and animals
structures in Sporozoans b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi methodically all the
and Plantae species found in an area
with brief description
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the aiding identification
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
Answer ( 2 ) and pressed plant
specimens mounted on
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in sheets are kept
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
42. Winged pollen grains are present in list of characters and
(1) Cycas their alternates which
are helpful in
(2) Mango identification of various
(3) Mustard taxa.
(4) Pinus a b c d
Answer (4) (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
form the wings of pollen. It is the (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
not winged shaped. Answer ( 4 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant 48. Select the incorrect match :
specimen (1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
• Key – Identification of various (2) Submetacentric – L-shaped
taxa chromosomes chromosomes
• Museum – Plant and animal (3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
specimen are preserved chromosomes
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of (4) Polytene – Oocytes of
species chromosomes amphibians
45. Which one is wrongly matched? Answer ( 4 )
(1) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
glands of insects of order Diptera.
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
49. Which of the following events does not occur
(3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (1) Protein glycosylation
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, (3) Protein folding
where asexual spores and gametes are (4) Phospholipid synthesis
non-motile or non-flagellated.
Answer ( 4 )
• Other options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
matched RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
46. Which of these statements is incorrect? involved in lipid synthesis.
(1) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol 50. Which of the following terms describe human
dentition?
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
supplied with NAD that can pick up (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
hydrogen atoms (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
mitochondrial matrix (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in Answer ( 1 )
outer mitochondrial membrane
S o l . In humans, dentition is
Answer ( 4 )
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
mitochondrial membrane.
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
47. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
(1) DNA and RNA replaced by a set of permanent or adult
teeth.
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
(3) Proteins and lipids of different types of teeth namely incisors,
(4) Free ribosomes and RER canine, premolars and molars.
Answer ( 4 ) 51. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
even extend into the dendrite but absent in termed as
axon and rest of the neuron.
(1) Polyhedral bodies (2) Plastidome
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
(3) Polysome (4) Nucleosome
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
protein synthesis. Answer ( 3 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . The phenomenon of association of many 56. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(1) having a contractile vacuole for removing
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
ergasomes. excess water

52. Which one of these animals is not a (2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
homeotherm? (3) using flagella for locomotion
(1) Chelone (2) Camelus
(4) having two types of nuclei
(3) Macropus (4) Psittacula
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
having two types of nuclei.
constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature. eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm. macronucleus & micronucleus.

Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia 57. Which of the following animals does not
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood. undergo metamorphosis?
53. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (1) Tunicate
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system (2) Moth

(1) Reptilia (2) Aves (3) Earthworm

(3) Amphibia (4) Osteichthyes (4) Starfish

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
chambers in their digestive system as crop larva into adult.
and Gizzard.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
to have indirect development.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
crush food grain. In earthworm development is direct which
means no larval stage and hence no
54. Which of the following features is used to
metamorphosis.
identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach? 58. Which of the following options correctly
(1) Presence of caudal styles represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively?
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the (1) Increased number of bronchioles;
9th abdominal segment Increased respiratory surface
(4) Presence of anal cerci (2) Increased respiratory surface;
Answer ( 1 ) Inflammation of bronchioles

S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal (3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
styles which are absent in females. respiratory surface
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal (4) Decreased respiratory surface;
segment in male cockroach. Inflammation of bronchioles
55. Which of the following organisms are known
Answer ( 3 )
as chief producers in the oceans?
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(1) Diatoms (2) Cyanobacteria
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
Answer ( 1 ) in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean. which respiratory surface is decreased.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

59. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
Column I Column II volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
and left ventricle volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right lungs even after forceful expiration. This
atrium and right averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle
a b c 61. Which of the following is an amino acid
derived hormone?
(1) i iii ii
(1) Ecdysone
(2) i ii iii
(3) iii i ii (2) Estradiol
(4) ii i iii (3) Epinephrine
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Estriol
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
between right atrium and right ventricle. Answer ( 3 )
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
are present at the openings of aortic and
catecholamine.
pulmonary aorta.
62. Which of the following structures or regions is
60. Match the items given in Column I with those
incorrectly paired with its functions?
in Column II and select the correct option
given below: (1) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
Column I Column II interconnect
different regions of
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
brain; controls
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL movement.
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
volume
releasing hormones
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL and regulation of
temperature,
volume hunger and thirst.
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL (3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular
a b c d reflexes.
(1) iii i iv ii (4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and
(2) i iv ii iii right cerebral
hemispheres.
(3) iii ii i iv
Answer ( 1 )
(4) iv iii ii i
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
Answer ( 1 ) all emotions in our body but not movements.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

63. The transparent lens in the human eye is held (3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
in its place by preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(1) ligaments attached to the iris (4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris Answer ( 3 )
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary pill. It contains centchroman and its
body functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Answer ( 3 ) Receptor modulation.
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by 67. The difference between spermiogenesis and
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary spermiation is
body.
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
64. Which of the following hormones can play a formed, while in spermiation spermatids
significant role in osteoporosis? are formed.
(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin spermatozoa are formed.
Answer ( 2 ) (3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast while in spermiation spermatozoa are
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female formed.
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
estrogen. Parathormone promotes formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. are released from sertoli cells into the
Excessive activity of parathormone causes cavity of seminiferous tubules.
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
Answer ( 4 )
65. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
(1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
spermiation is the release of the sperms from
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin tubule.
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
68. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
glucocorticoids
from
Answer ( 2 )
(1) endoderm and mesoderm
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
(3) ectoderm and mesoderm
pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus (4) ectoderm and endoderm
luteum from regression. Human placental Answer ( 3 )
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
increasing uterine threshold to contractile Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
stimuli. side and ectoderm on inner side.
66. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
(1) increases the concentration of estrogen mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
and prevents ovulation in females. membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
(2) is an IUD. endoderm in inner side.

11
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

69. Among the following sets of examples for 73. The similarity of bone structure in the
divergent evolution, select the incorrect forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
option : of
(1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (1) Analogy
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(3) Homology
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) Adaptive radiation
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
vertebrates which have developed along are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
different directions due to adaptation to different way as per their adaptation, hence
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat example of homology.
and man are examples of analogous organs 74. Which of the following characteristics
showing convergent evolution. represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
70. Which of the following is not an autoimmune humans?
disease?
a. Dominance
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Co-dominance
(2) Alzheimer's disease
(3) Psoriasis c. Multiple allele
(4) Vitiligo d. Incomplete dominance
Answer ( 2 ) e. Polygenic inheritance
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune (1) a, b and c (2) b, d and e
disorder in which antibodies are produced
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also Answer ( 1 )
characterised as autoimmune disorder. Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy relationship
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also  IAIB - Codominance
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter  IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
acetylcholine. forms of a gene
(multiple allelism)
71. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of 75. Which one of the following population
lymphatic vessels? interactions is widely used in medical science
(1) Ascariasis (2) Ringworm disease for the production of antibiotics?
(3) Elephantiasis (4) Amoebiasis (1) Mutualism
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Parasitism
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, (3) Commensalism
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by (4) Amensalism
Culex mosquito.
Answer ( 4 )
72. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B12  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
Answer ( 2 ) harm other microbes (e.g. :
Staphylococcus)
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
 It has enriched presence of vitamins  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
specially Vit-B12. organism which produces it.

12
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

76. Match the items given in Column I with those 79. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
in Column II and select the correct option the drug “Smack”?
given below : (1) Latex
Column-I Column-II (2) Roots
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (3) Flowers
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation (4) Leaves
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient Answer ( 1 )
enrichment
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
a b c d obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
(1) i iii iv ii Poppy plant.
(2) iii iv i ii 80. All of the following are part of an operon
except
(3) ii i iii iv
(1) structural genes
(4) i ii iv iii
(2) an enhancer
Answer ( 2 )
(3) an operator
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
enrichment (4) a promoter
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal Answer ( 2 )

c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in

eukaryotes.
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
77. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except 81. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(1) Sacred groves
inherited by
(2) Botanical gardens
(1) Only sons
(3) Wildlife safari parks
(2) Only grandchildren
(4) Seed banks
(3) Only daughters
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Both sons and daughters
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
Answer ( 4 )
 Represent pristine forest patch as
Sol. • Woman is a carrier
protected by Tribal groups.
• Both son & daughter inherit
78. In a growing population of a country,
X–chromosome
(1) reproductive individuals are less than the
• Although only son be the diseased
post-reproductive individuals.
82. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
of evolution is
individuals are equal in number.
(1) Saltation
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are more
than the reproductive individuals. (2) Phenotypic variations
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than (3) Multiple step mutations
the reproductive individuals. (4) Minor mutations
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
the younger population size is larger than the Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
reproductive group, the population will be an phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
increasing population. saltation.
13
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

83. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
strand of a gene. What will be the glomeruli
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
mRNA?
nephritis glucose urine
(1) UGGTUTCGCAT
a b c d
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU (1) i ii iii iv
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) ii iii i iv
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA (3) iii ii iv i
Answer ( 3 ) (4) iv i ii iii
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide Answer ( 4 )
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
84. Match the items given in Column I with those level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
in Column II and select the correct option is called renal threshold value for glucose.
given below : Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
Column I Column II in the joint.
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
endometrial phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
lining kidney.

b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory

condition of glomerulus characterised by
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
proteinuria and haematuria.
a b c
86. Match the items given in Column I with those
(1) i iii ii in Column II and select the correct option
(2) ii iii i given below:
(3) iii ii i Column I Column II
(4) iii i ii (Function) (Part of Excretory
Answer ( 2 ) system)
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted of urine
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
the endometrium maintained by urine
progesterone.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
progesterone level and involves breakdown of urine corpuscle
overgrown endometrial lining. v. Proximal
85. Match the items given in Column I with those convoluted tubule
in Column II and select the correct option
a b c d
given below :
(1) iv i ii iii
Column I Column II
(2) v iv i ii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
uric acid in joints (3) iv v ii iii
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised (4) v iv i iii
salts within the Answer ( 1 )
kidney
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine  Once the active site is exposed, head of
particles having molecular weight less than the myosin attaches and initiate
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle. contraction by sliding the actin over
Concentration of urine refers to water myosin.
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result 89. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
help in erythropoiesis?
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder (1) Mucous cells
through ureter. (2) Goblet cells
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of (3) Chief cells
urine.
(4) Parietal cells
87. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder? Answer ( 4 )
(1) Silicosis (2) Botulism S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
(3) Anthracis (4) Emphysema intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
Answer ( 1 ) be absorbed easily and used during
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica erythropoiesis.
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
breaking industries.
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation pernicious anaemia.
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
lung damage. 90. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects given below :
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a Column I Column II
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
decreased. b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused c. Albumin (iii) Defence
by Clostridium botulinum. mechanism
88. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
a b c
contraction because it
(1) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
it. (2) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin (3) (iii) (ii) (i)
filament.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
of active sites on actin for myosin. Answer ( 4 )
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
the myosin cross bridges and the actin coagulation. These strands forms a network
filament. and the meshes of which are occupied by
Answer ( 3 ) blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
many folds in the sarcoplasm. of plasma proteins which means globulins are
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin involved in defence mechanisms.
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
site on actin filament and displaces the
sub-unit of troponin. responsible for BCOP.

15
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

91. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of E

Sol. I  ...(i)
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' nR  R
each) which are connected in series. The
E
terminals of the battery are short-circuited 10 I  ...(ii)
R
and the current I is measured. Which of the R
graphs shows the correct relationship n
between I and n? Dividing (ii) by (i),
(n  1)R
10 
I I 1 
 n  1 R
 
(1) (2) After solving the equation, n = 10
O O 94. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
n n 
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
I I
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(3) (4)
(1) +z direction
O O
n n (2) –y direction
Answer ( 3 ) (3) –z direction
n 
Sol. I   (4) –x direction
nr r
So, I is independent of n and I is constant. Answer ( 1 )
 I   
Sol. E  B  V

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)

O So, B  Bkˆ
n
92. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
marked with rings of different colours for its 95. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
identification. The colour code sequence will certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
be the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
(1) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver inductance
(2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold (1) 138.88 H (2) 1.389 H
(3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
(3) 0.138 H (4) 13.89 H
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% S o l . Energy stored in inductor
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver 1 2
93. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, U Ll
2
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
1
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn 25  10–3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in 2
parallel to the same battery. Then the current 25  2  106  10–3
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of L
3600
'n' is
(1) 11 (2) 20 500

(3) 10 (4) 9 36
Answer ( 3 ) = 13.89 H

16
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

96. The refractive index of the material of a Answer ( 1 )

prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. Sol.
One of the two refracting surfaces of the f = 15 cm
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver O 40 cm
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
the prism is 1 1 1
 
(1) 45° f v1 u
1 1 1
(2) 30° –  –
15 v1 40
(3) 60°
1 1 1
(4) Zero   
v1 –15 40
Answer ( 1 ) v1 = –24 cm
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
normally incident on silvered face. mirror.
Now,
u2 = –20
30°
1 1 1
 
M 60° f v2 u2
i 30°
1 1 1
 –
–15 v2 20

 2 1 1 1
 –
v2 20 15
v2 = –60 cm
Applying Snell's law at M,
So, image shifts away from mirror by
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
sin i 2

sin30 1 98. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity

1 V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
 sin i  2 
2

E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45° de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
2
Broglie wavelength at time t is
97. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
 eE0 
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. (1) 0  1  t
If the object is displaced through a distance  mV0 
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the (2) 0t
displacement of the image will be
0
(1) 36 cm away from the mirror (3)
 eE0 
1 t
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror  mV0 
(3) 30 cm away from the mirror (4) 0
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror Answer ( 3 )

17
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength 100. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
h
0  atom, is
mV0
(1) 1 : –1 (2) 2 : –1
E0
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : –2
V0
F Answer ( 1 )
Acceleration of electron S o l . KE = –(total energy)
eE0 So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
a
m
101. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
Velocity after time ‘t’ minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
⎛ eE0 ⎞ nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
V  ⎜ V0  t⎟
⎝ m ⎠ disintegration of 450 nuclei is

h h (1) 10 (2) 30
So,   
mV ⎛ eE ⎞ (3) 20 (4) 15
m ⎜ V0  0 t ⎟
⎝ m ⎠
Answer ( 3 )
h
 S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
⎡ eE0 ⎤
mV0 ⎢1  t⎥
⎣ mV0 ⎦ N ⎛ 1⎞
n

0 N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠

⎡ eE0 ⎤ t
⎢1  t⎥
150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎣ mV0 ⎦ 
600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
99. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal 2
t
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is = 20 minute
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 102. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 plane surface of a material of refractive index
Answer ( 3 ) ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2 perpendicular to each other. Which of the
2
following options is correct for this situation?
1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2 (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
1 electric vector perpendicular to the plane
h0  mv12 …(i) of incidence
2
1 ⎛ 1⎞
h(50 )  h0  mv22 (2) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝⎠
1
4h0  mv22 …(ii) (3) Reflected light is polarised with its
2
electric vector parallel to the plane of
Divide (i) by (ii),
incidence
1 v12
 ⎛ 1⎞
4 v22 (4) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
v1 1
 Answer ( 1 )
v2 2
18
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays Answer ( 2 )

are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
with electric field vector perpendicular to the f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
plane of incidence. fE

So, focal length of objective lens should be

large.
i
D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22
 So, objective should have large focal length
(f0) and large diameter D.

Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle) 105. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
resistor 50  are connected in series across
103. In Young's double slit experiment the a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the loss in the circuit is
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
(1) 0.43 W
distance D between the screen and slits is
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of (2) 2.74 W
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe (3) 0.79 W
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the (4) 1.13 W
separation between the slits needs to be
changed to Answer ( 3 )
2
(1) 1.9 mm V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
 Z 
(2) 2.1 mm
2
(3) 1.8 mm  1 
Z  R2   L   56 
(4) 1.7 mm  C 

Answer ( 1 ) 2
 
10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
S o l . Angular width 

  
 2 56 

d 106. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth

0.20  …(i) inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
2 mm
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
 slide down by flowing a current through it
0.21  …(ii)
d when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
acting on it in the vertical direction. The
0.20 d current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm is
(1) 5.98 A (2) 14.76 A
 d = 1.9 mm
(3) 7.14 A (4) 11.32 A
104. An astronomical refracting telescope will
Answer ( 4 )
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective S o l . For equilibrium, °
lens of B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos30 s
co
(1) Large focal length and small diameter
mg llB
I tan30 0° 30° llB
(2) Large focal length and large diameter lB 3
n
si
(3) Small focal length and large diameter 0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
(4) Small focal length and small diameter 0.25  3

19
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

107. Current sensitivity of a moving coil S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]

galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
= 339.2 ms–1
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is = 339 m/s
(1) 25  110. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
(2) 250 
directed electric field E. The direction of
(3) 40  electric field is now reversed, keeping its
(4) 500  magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
Answer ( 2 ) fall from rest in it through the same vertical
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
S o l . Current sensitivity
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
NBA
IS  (1) 5 times greater (2) 10 times greater
C
(3) Smaller (4) Equal
Voltage sensitivity
Answer ( 3 )
NBA
VS  1 eE 2
CRG Sol. h  t
2 m
So, resistance of galvanometer
2hm
I 51 5000  t
RG  S    250  eE
VS 20  103 20
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
108. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
proton.
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet is switched ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out smaller time.
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the 111. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The sufficiently high building and is moving freely
work required to do this comes from to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
(1) The magnetic field The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod position. The time period of oscillation is
(1)  s (2) 2 s
(3) The current source
(3) 2 s (4) 1 s
(4) The induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field Answer ( 1 )

Answer ( 3 ) S o l . |a| = 2y

 20 = 2(5)
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
into potential energy of the rod.   = 2 rad/s
2 2
109. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in T  s
a glass tube. The length of the air column in  2
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. 112. The electrostatic force between the metal
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm C having a charge Q and area A, is
of column length. If the frequency of the (1) Linearly proportional to the distance
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in between the plates
air at 27ºC is (2) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates
(1) 339 m/s
(3) Independent of the distance between the
(2) 350 m/s
plates
(3) 330 m/s (4) Inversely proportional to the distance
(4) 300 m/s between the plates
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

20
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant

 273 
  1   100
Q2  373 
Fplate 
2A0
 100 
F is Independent of the distance between    100  26.8%
 373 
plates.
115. At what temperature will the rms speed of
113. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
with its temperature (T), as shown in the escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a (Given :
change from state A to state B, is Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 8.360 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K
(3) 2.508 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
2 1 Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
(1) (2)
3 3
3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
2 2 mO2
(3) (4)
5 7
On solving,
Answer ( 3 )
T = 8.360 × 104 K
S o l . Given process is isobaric
116. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
dQ  n Cp dT pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
5 
dQ  n  R  dT pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
2 
pipe is
dW  P dV = n RdT (1) 8 cm (2) 12.5 cm
(3) 13.2 cm (4) 16 cm
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio   
dQ 5  5 Answer ( 3 )
n  R  dT
2  S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
114. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working 3v
between the freezing point and boiling point of 
4l
water, is
(1) 20% (2) 6.25% For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency

(3) 26.8% (4) 12.5% v


Answer ( 3 ) 2l 

 T  Given,
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1  2 
 T1  3v v

T2 : Sink temperature 4l 2l 
T1 : Source temperature 4l 2l
 l  
32 3
 T 
%   1  2   100 2  20
 T1    13.33 cm
3
21
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

117. Two wires are made of the same material and 119. The power radiated by a black body is P and
have the same volume. The first wire has it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
cross-sectional area A and the second wire If the temperature of the black body is now
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of changed so that it radiates maximum energy
the first wire is increased by l on applying a 3
force F, how much force is needed to stretch at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
the socond wire by the same amount? becomes nP. The value of n is
(1) 6 F (2) 4 F 4 256
(1) (2)
(3) 9 F (4) F 3 81
Answer ( 3 )
3 81
S o l . Wire 1 : (3) (4)
4 256
F
A, 3l Answer ( 2 )
Wire 2 : S o l . We know,

F
max T  constant (Wien's law)
3A, l
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
For wire 1,
3 0
 F   0 T  T
l    3l …(i) 4
 AY 
4
For wire 2,  T  T
3
4 4
F l P2  T  4 256
Y So,     
3A l P1  T  3 81
120. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
 F  viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
 l   l …(ii)
 3AY  due to viscous force. The rate of production of
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
From equation (i) & (ii), velocity, is proportional to

 F   F  (1) r2 (2) r5
l    3l   3AY  l
 AY    (3) r3 (4) r4
Answer ( 2 )
 F  9F 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
118. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires VT  r 2
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is  Power  r 5
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the 121. In the combination of the following gates the
sample, is output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as
(1) 208.7 J
(2) 42.2 J A

(3) 104.3 J B
Y
(4) 84.5 J
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Q = U + W (1) A  B  A  B (2) A  B  A  B
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0) (3) A  B (4) A  B
 U = 208.7 J Answer ( 1 )

22
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

A 123. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature

Sol. A AB due to heating
B (1) Affects only forward resistance
B Y
A (2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(3) Affects only reverse resistance
AB
B (4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
Y  (A  B  A  B) p-n junction

122. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input Answer ( 4 )

voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
values of IB, IC and  are given by will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
20 V
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
RC 4 k biasing both are changed.
C 124. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
RB elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
Vi
500 k B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
E the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
figure. Then

(1) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 B

(2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 A C
S
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . VBE = 0 (1) KA > KB > KC
VCE = 0 (2) KB < KA < KC
Vb = 0 (3) KA < KB < KC
20 V (4) KB > KA > KC

IC RC = 4 k
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. B
RB VC
Vi Vb perihelion
Ib 500 k A C
S
aphelion
VA
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(20  0) So, VA > VB > VC
IC 
4  103 So, KA > KB > KC
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
125. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
Vi = VBE + IBRB motion a body possesses translational kinetic
Vi = 0 + IBRB energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
20 = IB × 500 × 103 energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
20
IB   40 A (1) 5 : 7 (2) 10 : 7
500  103
IC 25  103 (3) 7 : 10 (4) 2 : 5
   125
Ib 40  106 Answer ( 1 )

23
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

1 128. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
S o l . Kt  mv 2
2 (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
2
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   (1) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
2 2 2 25  r 

(2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

7
 mv2
10
(3) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ

Kt 5 (4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ

So, 
Kt  Kr 7
Answer ( 4 )
126. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller Y
Sol.
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct?
F
(1) Walking on the ground would become
A r  r0
more difficult P
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the r0
Earth would decrease r
(3) Raindrops will fall faster
O X
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change    
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
Answer ( 4 )
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
ten times, then G = 10 G
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
ˆi ˆj kˆ
i.e. (4) is wrong option. 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
127. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its 4 5 6
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. 129. A toy car with charge q moves on a
Which of the following physical quantities frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
would remain constant for the sphere? the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
(1) Moment of inertia from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
that instant the direction of the field is
(2) Rotational kinetic energy
reversed. The car continues to move for two
(3) Angular velocity more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
(4) Angular momentum
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
Answer ( 4 ) respectively

S o l . ex = 0 (1) 1 m/s, 3 m/s

dL (2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

So, 0
dt (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
i.e. L = constant (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
So angular momentum remains constant. Answer ( 1 )

24
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

a t=1 –a Sol. N cos

Sol. t = 0 t=2
A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0 N
C –a
t=3
–1 
v = –6 ms
ma N sin
60 (pseudo) 
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1
mg a
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, 
In non-inertial frame,
1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2 N sin  = ma ...(i)

For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, N cos  = mg ...(ii)

1 a
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii) tan  
2 g

For t = 2 s to t = 3 s, a = g tan 
131. A student measured the diameter of a small
1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
2 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If
3 screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
Average velocity   1 ms 1 the correct diameter of the ball is
3
(1) 0.525 cm
Total distance travelled = 9 m
(2) 0.053 cm
9
Average speed   3 ms 1 (3) 0.521 cm
3
(4) 0.529 cm
130. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
Answer ( 4 )
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an S o l . Diameter of the ball
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
relation between a and  for the block to
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
remain stationary on the wedge is
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
A
m = 0.529 cm
132. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
a circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
 have the same mass M and radius R. They all
C B spin with the same angular speed  about
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
g
(1) a  work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
sin  satisfy the relation
(2) a = g cos  (1) WA > WB > WC

g (2) WB > WA > WC

(3) a 
cosec  (3) WC > WB > WA
(4) a = g tan  (4) WA > WC > WB
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )

25
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

S o l . Work done required to bring them rest

7
(1) D (2) D
W = KE 5

1 2
W  I 3 5
2 (3) D (4) D
2 4
W  I for same 
Answer ( 4 )
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 Sol.
5 2

2 1 h
B
= : :1
5 2
vL
= 4 : 5 : 10 A

 WC > WB > WA As track is frictionless, so total mechanical

energy will remain constant
133. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The T.M.EI = T.M.EF
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is 1
0  mgh  mvL2  0
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution 2
(e) will be
(1) 0.25 vL2
h
2g
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.5 For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
(4) 0.4
5gR 5 5
Answer ( 1 ) h  R D
2g 2 4
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
momentum, 135. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
mv  4m  0  4mv  0
(1) Limiting value of static friction is directly
v
v  proportional to normal reaction.
4
v (2) Frictional force opposes the relative
Relative velocity of separation 4 motion.
e 
Relative velocity of approach v (3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
1 friction.
e  0.25
4 (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
134. A body initially at rest and sliding along a dimensions of length.
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of Answer ( 4 )
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
dimension.

f = sN
h B
f
 s 
A N

26
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

136. The correct difference between first and Answer ( 3 )

second order reactions is that
0.18
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
(1) The half-life of a first-order reaction does 18
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a = 10–2 NA
second-order reaction does depend on
[A]0 0.00224
(2) Moles of water = = 10–4
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a 22.4
second-order reaction cannot be Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
catalyzed
(3) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations; the 18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
rate of a second-order reaction does 18
depend on reactant concentrations
= NA
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does (4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does not 139. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
depend on reactant concentrations
as shown in the diagram below :
Answer ( 1 )
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k –
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant. Then the species undergoing
disproportionation is
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  , (1) BrO4
k[A0 ]
which depends on initial concentration of (2) Br2
reactant.
(3) BrO3
137. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
character is (4) HBrO
(1) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 Answer ( 4 )
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 1 0
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
(3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
Answer ( 3 ) BrO3 /HBrO

S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the o

group metallic character of metals increases Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
Hence the option (3) should be correct option. 2 BrO3 /HBrO

138. In which case is number of molecules of = 1.595 – 1.5

water maximum?
= 0.095 V = + ve
(1) 0.18 g of water
Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 140. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
273 K pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(3) 18 mL of water (1) Two (2) Four
(4) 10–3 mol of water (3) One (4) Three

27
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
Answer ( 1 ) 144. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
alumina?
 
(1) Zn (2) Mg

 

 
F
(3) Fe (4) Cu
 
Answer ( 2 )
 

F Cl
 
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
 

 
F correct option.
 
145. Which of the following statements is not true
The number of lone pair of electrons on for halogens?
central Cl is 2.
(1) All are oxidizing agents
141. The correct order of N-compounds in its
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
decreasing order of oxidation states is
states
(1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl enthalpy

(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 Answer ( 2 )

S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
Answer ( 3 )
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
5 2 0 –3 Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl HOF.
3 4
146. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
Hence, the correct option is (3).
which of the following statements is
142. Which one of the following elements is unable incorrect?
to form MF63– ion?
(1) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
(1) Al monomers.
(2) B (2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(3) Ga (3) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains.
(4) In
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in
Answer ( 2 ) their polymer chains.
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence Answer ( 4 )
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e. from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
BF63(–). and contain strong covalent bonds between
Hence, the correct option is (2). various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
143. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 cross-linking.
elements is
So option (4) should be the correct option.
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
147. The difference between amylose and
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In amylopectin is
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (1) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
-linkage
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
Answer ( 4 ) 1  6 -linkage
Sol. (3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1 6 -linkage
Elements B Ga Al In Tl (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 galactose
28
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
Conc.H2 SO4
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas 2.3 g or  mol  mol
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4  20  20
and 1  6 -linkages.
So option (3) should be the correct option. Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
148. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium mol mol
COOH 20 20
also gives m-nitroaniline because  1 
4.5 g or  mol 
(1) In electrophilic substitution reactions  20 
amino group is meta directive
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
(2) In absence of substituents nitro group
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
always goes to m-position
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
(3) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
goes to only m-position
is
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion 2
 28  2.8 g
Answer ( 4 ) 20
So, the correct option is (2)
NH2 NH3
151. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
H B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
Sol. together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
in the order
Anilinium ion
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
also formed in significant yield. (3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

149. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
nature? Answer ( 4 )
(1) BeO

C2H5O Na+
(2) BaO Na
S o l . C2H5OH
(3) MgO (A) (B)
(4) CaO PCl5
Answer ( 1 )
C2H5Cl
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
(C)

C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
C2H5OC2 H5
Basic character increases. (B) (C)
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
So the correct option is (4)
oxides are basic.
152. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
150. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
atoms. (A) is
at STP will be
(1) 3.0 (2) 2.8 (1) CH2  CH2 (2) CH3 – CH3

(3) 1.4 (4) 4.4 (3) CH  CH (4) CH4

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )
sp2 sp2 sp sp
Br2/h S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
(A) Na/dry ether Number of orbital require in hybridization
Wurtz reaction = Number of -bonds around each carbon
atom.
CH3 — CH3
156. Which of the following carbocations is
Hence the correct option is (4) expected to be most stable?
153. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common NO2
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? 
(1) NO2 (2) N2O (1)
(3) N2O5 (4) NO
Y H
Answer ( 3 )
NO2
S o l . Fact
154. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions: (2) H

3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl Y 

C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
NO2
The product 'C' is
(1) o-bromotoluene
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (3)

(3) m-bromotoluene
Y H
(4) p-bromotoluene
NO2
Answer ( 3 )
H 
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 (4) Y

3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Fe Answer ( 2 )
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
with increase in distance. In option (2)
Zn HCl
positive charge present on C-atom at
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
CH3
is minimum and stability is maximum.
157. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
Br
(C) (1) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
So, the correct option is (3)
(3) – NH2 < – OR < – F
155. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
left to right atoms? Answer ( 3 * )
(1) CH2 = CH – C  CH S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 –I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
(3) HC  C – C  CH *Most appropriate Answer is option (3),
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 however option (1) may also be correct answer.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
158. In the reaction
OH O–Na+ CH – CH3 and I2
(2)
OH
CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(3) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
The electrophile involved is
CH3
(1) Formyl cation CHO  

(4) CH3 OH and I2
(2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

Answer ( 2 )
(3) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  
 S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2  NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
Answer ( 4 ) 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
the following reaction CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3

.–. OH O
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O
(A) Acetophenone

.–.
I2
– COONa + CHI3
CCl3 
 : CCl2  Cl Iodoform
NaOH
Electrophile (Yellow PPt)
Sodium benzoate

159. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points

161. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
following sequence of reactions:
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) Formation of carboxylate ion Anhydrous
AlCl3
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic + CH3CH2CH2Cl
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(i) O2
(3) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
P Q R
Answer ( 4 )
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
(1) , ,
boiling point increases and become more
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular CH(CH3)2 OH
masses. (2) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
160. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell. (3) , , CH3CH2 – OH
A and Y are respectively
OH
CH(CH3)2
(1) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 (4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 4 )

Cl  2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al  V2 
3 2 2 
Cl Cl
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
1, 2–H intermolecular forces of attraction.
+ + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 164. For the redox reaction
(Incipient carbocation)
Cl MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
–
AlCl3 The correct coefficients of the reactants for
the balanced equation are
Now,
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
CH3
(1) 2 5 16
CH – CH3
(2) 2 16 5
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(3) 16 5 2

(P) (4) 5 16 2

CH3 Answer ( 1 )

OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H Reduction
O +7 +3 +4
+
H /H2O S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement Oxidation
(R) (Q)

n-factor of MnO4  5
162. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion? n-factor of C2 O24  2
(1) Acetanilide

Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
(2) Benzoic acid
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
(3) Aniline
 The balanced equation is
(4) Glycine
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
Answer ( 4 )
165. When initial concentration of the reactant is
 
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
– doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
(Zwitterion form) reaction
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 (1) Is doubled
H2N – CH2 – COO– (2) Is tripled

163. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas (3) Is halved
equation corresponds to (4) Remains unchanged
(1) Volume of the gas molecules Answer ( 1 )
(2) Electric field present between the gas S o l . Half life of zero order
molecules
[A0 ]
(3) Density of the gas molecules t 1/2 
2K
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
molecules concentration.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

166. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and 168. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
dissociation energy of X2 will be
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
(1) 100 kJ mol–1 constant with temperature) is
(2) 800 kJ mol–1
4 3
(3) 200 kJ mol–1 (1)
3 2
(4) 400 kJ mol–1
3 3
Answer ( 2 ) (2)
4 2
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
3
1 1 (3)
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g) 2
2 2
1
X (4)
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X 2
2
Answer ( 2 )
respectively
4r
X X S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
 H      X  200 3
2 4
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
On solving, we get
 ZM 
X X  N a3 
    200 d25C  A  BCC
2 4  
d900C  ZM 
 N a3 
 X = 800 kJ/mole  A  FCC
167. Which one of the following conditions will
3
favour maximum formation of the product in 2  2 2 r 3 3
 
the reaction, 4  4r   4 2 
 
 3 
 X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
169. Consider the following species :
(1) Low temperature and low pressure CN+, CN–, NO and CN
(2) High temperature and high pressure Which one of these will have the highest bond
(3) Low temperature and high pressure order?
(1) CN– (2) CN+
(4) High temperature and low pressure
(3) NO (4) CN
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )
 X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)  S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 ,
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
direction where pressure decreases i.e. 10  5
BO =  2.5
forward direction. 2
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction. = (2py)2,(2pz)2
So, high pressure and low temperature
10  4
favours maximum formation of product. BO = 3
2
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2,(2pz)1
1s2 2s2 2p3
94
BO =  2.5 OR
2

CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2

= (2py)2 2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
8 4
BO = 2  Option (2) violates Hund's Rule.
2
172. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
Hence, option (1) should be the right answer. different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
170. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form different concentrations :
an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
the simplest formula for this compound is 10 10

(1) MgX2
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
(2) Mg2X 10 10
(3) Mg2X3
M M
(4) Mg3X2 c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
1s2 2s2 2p3
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
So, valency of X will be 3.
Valency of Mg is 2. (1) a

Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will (2) d

be Mg3X2. (3) b
171. Which one is a wrong statement?
(4) c
(1) An orbital is designated by three quantum
Answer ( 4 )
numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers
1
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
5
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz 1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5

• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10

(3) Total orbital angular momentum of
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture

(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero 10 1

= 
Answer ( 2 ) 100 10

S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum

 1
multiplicity, the correct electronic pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
configuration of N-atom is  10 

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

173. On which of the following properties does the Answer ( 3 )

coagulating power of an ion depend?
2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
(1) Size of the ion alone 233
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
the ion
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s) 
s s
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone = (1.04 × 10–5)2
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
Answer ( 2 )
176. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using [CoCl2(en)2] is
an electrolyte depends on the charge
(1) Coordination isomerism
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
(2) Ionization isomerism
particles as well as on its size.
(3) Geometrical isomerism
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte (4) Linkage isomerism
depends on the magnitude of charge
Answer ( 3 )
present on effective ion of electrolyte.
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
174. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 is 6 and this compound has octahedral
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and geometry.
3.59, which one of the following gases is most
easily liquefied?

(1) H2

(2) O2

(3) NH3

(4) CO2

Answer ( 3 ) • As per given option, type of isomerism is

geometrical isomerism.
Sol. • van der Waal constant ‘a’, signifies
177. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
intermolecular forces of attraction.
transition and paramagnetism as well?
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be (1) Cr2O72–
the liquefaction of gas.
(2) MnO4–
10–3
175. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × gL–1
(3) CrO42–
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be (4) MnO42–

(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) Answer ( 4 )

S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
(1) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
(3) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-YY) ALHCA

Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic Answer ( 3 )

MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar] S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4

Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM

178. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
(1) Mononuclear
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
(2) Trinuclear
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
(3) Tetranuclear
(4) Dinuclear Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM

Answer ( 1 ) Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2

S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
present in a complex, they are classified
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and 180. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
so on. complex [Ni(CO)4] are
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear (1) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear (2) Square planar geometry and

paramagnetic
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
(3) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Hence, option (1) should be the right
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
answer.
Answer ( 1 )
179. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
in Column II and assign the correct code : ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
Column I Column II Configuration would be :

a. Co3+ i. 8 BM 3
sp -hybridisation

b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM ×× ×× ×× ××

c. Fe3+ CO CO CO CO
iii. 3 BM

d. Ni2+ For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be

iv. 24 BM
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
v. 15 BM diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.

a b c d CO

(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii Ni
CO
(3) iv v ii i OC

(4) iii v i ii CO

‰‰‰

36