076/2018

Question Booklet Question Booklet

Alpha Code A Serial Number

Total No. of Questions: 100 Time : 75 Minutes

Maximum : 100 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of
question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the
question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the Examination
Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the
seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
question booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the
question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the question
booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not
have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator
and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking
your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose
the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black
Ball-Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without
handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has
verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her
signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of
malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.

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076/2018
Maximum : 100 Marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy encoded in Indian Constitution was borrowed from _____
Constitution.
(A) Irish (B) British
(C) Germany (D) American

2. Article-23 of Indian Constitution refers to

(A) abolition of untouchability (B) prohibition of forced labour
(C) abolition of child labour (D) compulsory primary education

3. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in

(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1952 (D) 1953

4. In 2001 Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana was started

(A) to provide homes for ST communities in the rural areas.
(B) to provide homes for SC communities in the urban areas.
(C) to improve the circumstances of the slum inhabitants.
(D) to rehabilitate the beggars in India.

5. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme was launched by

(A) Narendra Modi (B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Narasimha Rao (D) Indira Gandhi

6. Where did Chavara Kuriakose Elias Achan established first press in Kerala ?
(A) Vazhakkunnath (B) Mannanam
(C) Pulinkunnu (D) Edathuruthy

7. Who wrote the book Arul Nool ?

(A) Thycaud Ayya (B) Chattampi Swamikal
(C) Vaikunta Swamikal (D) Ayyankali

8. Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham was founded in

(A) 1902 (B) 1904
(C) 1906 (D) 1907

9. Vakkom Abdul Khadar Moulavi published Al Islam in _____ language.

(A) Malayalam (B) Arabic
(C) Arabimalayalam (D) English
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10. Who was the first editor of Swadeshabhimani weekly ?
(A) C.P. Govinda Pillai (B) Ramakrishna Pillai
(C) Vakkom Moulavi (D) Narayana Pillai

11. Velakkaran was published by

(A) Ayyankali (B) Vagbhatanandan
(C) K. Kelappan (D) Sahodaran Ayyappan

12. Nair Service Society's first school in Kerala was started at

(A) Karukachal (B) Changanassery
(C) Perunna (D) Meenchanda

13. Kumaragurudevan founded Prathyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha at

(A) Pathanamthitta (B) Tiruvalla
(C) Eraviperoor (D) Chengannur

14. How many persons signed in the Malayali Memorial ?

(A) 1001 (B) 10038
(C) 10083 (D) 10101

15. Who among the following was not associated with Vaikkom Satyagraha ?
(A) K. Kelappan (B) T.K. Madhavan
(C) Abdul Rahiman (D) A.K. Gopalan

16. N.Krishna Pillai accepts _____ as his ideal.

(A) Henrik Ibson (B) Edward Rose
(C) Tom Taylor (D) W.B. Bernard

17. Literary criticism on modern lines in Malayalam was started by

(A) P.K. Narayana Pillai (B) M.P. Paul
(C) A.R. Raja Raja Varma (D) Kuttikrishna Marar

18. Which among the following districts became the first fully electrified district of India ?
(A) Thiruvananthapuram (B) Palakkad
(C) Alappuzha (D) Bangalore

19. _____ won the Best Picture award in the 89th Academy Awards.
(A) Moonlight (B) La La Land
(C) Hacksaw Ridge (D) The Salesman

20. Arya Pallam worked for reforms among

(A) Pulaya women (B) Tiyya women
(C) Nair women (D) Namboodiri women
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21. T2 sequences use
(A) Longer TR and longer TE (B) Shorter TR and longer TE
(C) Longer TR and shorter TE (D) Shorter TR and shorter TE

22. Echo planar imaging forms echoes using

(A) Successive 90-degree pulses (B) Successive alternating 90-degree pulses
(C) Successive 180 degree pulses (D) Successive alternating gradients

23. Lingula of lung is best seen in which X-ray view ?

(A) Lordotic (B) Apical
(C) Left lateral decubitus (D) Right lateral decubitus

24. Most signal in K space is present

(A) in the centre (B) in the periphery
(C) along the frequency encoding axis (D) along gradient encoding axis

25. In order to decrease dose in large patients

(A) decrease kV and improve image noise
(B) increase kV and improve image noise
(C) increase in kV and improve in contrast
(D) decrease in kV and improve in contrast

26. CT density of water in HU :

(A) 0 (B) 70
(C) 1000 (D) – 30

27. Strikers view is used for :

(A) Shoulder (B) Patella
(C) Cervicothoracic junction (D) None of the above

28. MRI full form is

(A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (B) Multiple Resonance Imaging
(C) Magnetic Reformatted Imaging (D) Magnetizing Radiological Imaging

29. Contrast used in IVU study

(A) Barium sulphate (B) Magnavist
(C) Ultravist (D) Carbon dioxide

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30. MRI was first demonstrated by :
(A) Roentgen (B) Peterson
(C) Honsefield (D) Lauterber

31. In X-ray imaging, noise is determined by

(A) Energy of X-rays hitting the detector
(B) Number of X-rays hitting the detector
(C) Tissue contrast
(D) Amount of scatter hitting the detector

32. Which of the following numbers reported by the scanner best reflects the total amount of radiation
delivered to the patient ?
(A) Dose (B) CT Dose Index (CTDI)
(C) Pitch (D) Dose-Length Product (DLP)

33. The following term refers to a measure designed to reflect stochastic risk from radiation
(A) Dose (B) CT Dose Index (CTDI)
(C) Average dose (D) Effective dose

34. Automated exposure compensation uses the topogram image to determine

(A) Tube current (mA) (B) Pitch
(C) Reconstruction filter (D) Bowtie filter

35. Iodine is a good CT contrast agent because

(A) We can achieve very high concentrations in target organs.
(B) The k-edge (33 keV) is much lower than X-ray energies produced by a 120 kV tube.
(C) The k-edge (33 keV) is near the average diagnostic X-ray energy produced by a
120 kV tube.
(D) It simulates the attenuation of bone.

36. Missile effects are shown by

(A) Metallic objects (B) Ferromagnetic objects
(C) Iron rod (D) All of the above

37. PACS stands for

(A) Picture Archiving and Communicating System
(B) Picture Analogue and Computer System
(C) Positive Analogue Computer System
(D) Positive Anode Clustering System

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38. All the statements regarding shoulder radiography is true, except :
(A) In AP view with neutral rotation both greater and lesser tuberosities are super imposed.
(B) In Grasheys projection there is more overlap of gleniod than AP projection.
(C) AP oblique view rotate the body 35-45 degree.
(D) In Y view humeral head should super impose over the base of Y if not dislocated.

39. Real time imaging modality is

(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) USG (D) PET

40. Pattern of blood flow is examined in USG by

(A) Elastography (B) Doppler mode
(C) Panoremic view (D) Gradient

41. Flushing, Nausea in context of contrast reaction in radiological examination is

(A) Minor reaction (B) Intermediate reaction
(C) Severe reaction (D) None of the above

42. In Film processing – fixing, all are true, except :

(A) Made of hypo/ammonium thiosulphate
(B) Preservative for developer and fixer is same
(C) Hardening agent harden and shrinks gelatin in the film emulsion to prevent its
reduction
(D) Acidifier neutralizes alkaline developer

43. TLD false statement is

(A) Active radiation detection device. (B) Disc are made of calcium SO4.
(C) Lower filter is kept open. (D) Measures doses between 0.01-10.4 mGy.

44. Regarding dark room false statement is

(A) White/light colour paint on walls (B) Lead equivalent of 2 mm in walls
(C) Ideal flooring with ceramic tile (D) For safe light, bulb of 50 W is used

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45. Element proved satisfactory for use as IV radiological contrast medium is
(A) Barium (B) Iodine
(C) Manganese (D) Iron

46. In lateral view chest X-ray

(A) Left hemidiaphragm lower than right
(B) Right hemidiaphragm lower than left
(C) Right dome is fully traceable
(D) Dome closer to film is lower

47. Unit of power is

(A) watt (B) volt
(C) ampere (D) tesla

48. X-ray was discovered by

(A) Honsefield (B) Mansfield
(C) Roentgen (D) Lauterbur

49. X-ray tube is made of

(A) Pyrex glass (B) Plaster
(C) Iron (D) Platinum

50. Negative terminal of X-ray is called

(A) Cathode (B) Anode
(C) Filter (D) Window

51. The region in the anode that is bombarded by electrons from cathode in X-ray tube is
(A) Target (B) Filter
(C) Focal spot (D) Filament

52. KVP for high KV chest X-ray

(A) 60 (B) 90
(C) 300 (D) 150

53. Maximum permissible radiation in a pregnancy

(A) 0.1 msv (B) 1 msv
(C) 10 msv (D) 100 msv
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54. The purpose of rotating anode is to spread the
(A) Radiation (B) Heat
(C) Electrons (D) Protons

55. Left hilum is

(A) Higher level than right (B) Lower level than right
(C) Denser than right (D) Lucent than right

56. Most widely used transduces material in USG is

(A) Barium sulphate (B) Lead zirconate titanate
(C) Lanthanum sulphide (D) Gadolinium oxide

57. Slip ring technology is used in

(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) USG (D) SPECT

58. Step absent in automatic processing

(A) Washing (B) Drying
(C) Rinsing (D) Fixing

59. Low KVP is used in

(A) Barium enema (B) Mammography
(C) DSA (D) CT angiography

60. PD in MRI stands for

(A) Proton density (B) Peripheral density
(C) Proton dosimeter (D) Proton dimension

61. BMFT contraindicated in

(A) Large bowel obstruction (B) Small bowel obstruction
(C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Crohn’s disease

62. MR spectroscopy details on the tissue

(A) Blood flow (B) Perfusion
(C) Biochemistry (D) Anatomy
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63. The best view for the speniod sinus is
(A) Caldwell view (B) Waters view
(C) Basal view (D) Lateral view

64. SNR in MRI is increased by improving

(A) Resolution (B) Bandwidth
(C) Acquisition time (D) Gradient strength

65. Collimation results in

(A) Increased radiation exposure to the patient
(B) Increased scatter within the patient
(C) Improved tissue contrast
(D) Improved quantum mottle

66. The most important physical process responsible for tissue contrast in CT imaging is
(A) Coherent scatter (B) Photoelectric absorption
(C) Incoherent scatter (D) Characteristic X-ray production

67. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is

(A) Spatial resolution (B) Temporal resolution
(C) Contrast resolution (D) Three-dimensional reconstruction

68. In X-ray imaging, noise is determined by

(A) Energy of X-rays hitting the detector
(B) Number of X-rays hitting the detector
(C) Tissue contrast
(D) Amount of scatter hitting the detector

69. Tissue contrast is generated by what type of interaction ?

(A) Rayleigh scatter (B) Compton scatter
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Overall attenuation

70. False statement regarding patellar views :

(A) In Hughston method patient is prone with 55 degree knee flexion.
(B) Settegast is prone with 90 degree flexion.
(C) Standard sunrise view is better than mountain view to demonstrate patellar
subluxation.
(D) Vertical fracture are best identified in sunrise view.

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71. False statement regarding Film processing
(A) In a developing solution hydroquinone act faster than phenindion.
(B) Preservatives in a developing solution prevent both internal and external oxidation.
(C) Sodium carbonate and sodium hydroxide are accelerators.
(D) In manual processing film remains for 3-5 minute depending on temperature of
solution.

72. X-ray artefacts false is

(A) Suppression of grid lining by moving grids high line rates
(B) Plexi glass used for positioning causes attenuating difference in the image
(C) Latent image in CR is due to incomplete erasure of previous image
(D) Back scatter through the back of detectors fixed by less shielding attached to back of
detectors

73. True in silver recovery

(A) Used fixer solution contains high concentration of silver
(B) Metallic replacement is in expensive
(C) Electrolytic method yields pure silver
(D) All of the above

74. Regarding radiation safety false statement is

(A) larger the dose shorter will be the latent period.
(B) reducing exposure time by one half reduces the dose received by one half.
(C) transparent plates of thick plastics can be used for shielding beta particles.
(D) absorbed dose 1 Gy is equal to 100 J of absorbed energy / KG of matter.

75. Maximum patient radiation is seen in

(A) CT abdomen (B) CT chest
(C) Barium enema (D) PET CT

76. Barium is used in diagnostic radiology – False statement is

(A) Low atomic number (B) Inert
(C) Non-toxic (D) Non-absorbable

77. DSA stands for

(A) Digital Substraction Angiography (B) Direct Substraction Angiography
(C) Dual Substraction Angiography (D) Direct Substitution Angiography

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78. 10 day rule is applicable in
(A) MRI (B) USG
(C) HSG (D) Doppler

79. ALARA is used in the context of

(A) MRI safety (B) Radiation safety
(C) USG safety (D) None of the above

80. Double sided film is used in

(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) CR (D) Conventional

81. Used to decrease scattered radiation

(A) Grid (B) Air gap technique
(C) Both (D) None

82. Centering in Chest PA is at which spinous process :

(A) T7 (B) T6
(C) T1 (D) T3

83. Percentage of barium used for BMFT is

(A) 25 (B) 10
(C) 50 (D) 20

84. Safe light is seen in

(A) DARK room (B) CT room
(C) MRI room (D) DSA room

85. View for petrous bone is

(A) Waters (B) Caldwell
(C) Towns (D) Stenvers

86. Organ most sensitive for radiation is

(A) Testis (B) Kidney
(C) Heart (D) Brain

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87. The maximum field of view which can be obtained with a specific radiographic system is
generally limited by the :
(A) Focal spot size (B) Anode size
(C) Anode angle (D) Heel effect

88. The maximum MA which can be used for a single radiographic exposure is related to al except :
(A) KV (B) Exposure time
(C) Focal spot size (D) Heel effect

89. The primary X-ray beam penetration through a patient can be increased by increasing all except :
(A) KV (B) MAS
(C) Filtration (D) Beam area

90. Melting point of tungsten is

(A) 3400 °C (B) 340 °C
(C) 34 °C (D) 34000 °C

91. Relatively low KV values are used in some X-ray procedures for the purpose of
(A) increasing penetration (B) increasing contrast sensitivity
(C) decreasing patient exposure (D) decreasing area contrast

92. Grid is used in all, except :

(A) LS spine lateral (B) Skull lateral
(C) Scaphoid oblique (D) C spine lateral

93. If you change from a low ratio to a high ratio grid you would expect :
(A) A decrease in patient exposure
(B) An increase in image contrast
(C) An increase in grid X-ray penetration
(D) Positioning to be less critical

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94. Voltage of safe light is
(A) 15 (B) 55
(C) 75 (D) 115

95. Sensitivity speck is related to

(A) USG (B) MRI
(C) X-ray film (D) All of the above

96. The thickness of an intensifying screen has a significant effect on all, except :
(A) Image contrast (B) Image blurring
(C) Receptor sensitivity (D) Patient exposure

97. Unit of MRI is

(A) Decibel (B) Hertz
(C) Honsefield (D) Tesla

98. Developer solution contains

(A) Sodium alum (B) Thiosulphate
(C) Silver halide (D) Phenindione

99. All are radiation monitoring devices

(A) Film badge (B) TLD
(C) None (D) Both

100. HSG is done to assess

(A) Ureters (B) Urethra
(C) Uterus (D) Urachus
_____________
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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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