CL Mock CAT 11

CL Mock CAT - 11 (2016)
Sec 1
Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The theme of De Profundis is tragedy, its expression and possibility. The text has
a controlled voice and turns often toward the writer’s old extravagance of
expression, the petty generosity of a rich man who takes pleasure in making
constant small expenditures; but underlying this is the heavy tone of one who
feels himself to be speaking from the depths of potentially final defeat. “Hardly if
at all have my friends suffered to see me,” he writes. “But my enemies have had
full access to me always; twice in my public appearances in the Bankruptcy
Court; twice again in my public transferences from one prison to another have I
been shown under conditions of unspeakable humiliation to the gaze and
mockery of men.” During Oscar Wilde’s early months of imprisonment his
mother died. “Her death was terrible to me,” he writes; “but I, once a lord of
language, have no words with which to express my anguish and my shame”.
De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

“Where there is sorrow there is holy ground,” Wilde writes, paraphrasing a
stanza from Goethe that his mother used to recite. “Some day people will realize
what that means. They will know nothing of life till they do”.
Why should sorrow be the material of holiness? The move to Wandsworth and
Reading was a transition from the self-definition of the artist to the featureless
and ritualized existence of a prisoner. “I was a man who stood in symbolic
relations to the art and culture of my age,” Wilde says. “I had realized this for
myself at the very dawn of my manhood, and had forced my age to realize it
afterwards”. When he speaks of his present existence, he often slides into the
anonymous plural. “With us time does not progress,” he says. “It revolves. It
seems to circle round one’s center of pain”. He describes his pain on learning
that the law had stripped him of rights to his children, cutting away his final
connection to social particularity: “We are doomed to be solitary, while our sons
still live”.
What emerges in the final measure from Wilde’s text is his sheer will, his
determination to make from abjection itself the material for aesthetic
transformation—on one side a heartening gesture of faith in the enduring grace
of art, and on the other side a reminder, as a reflection of the condition he
endeavors to flee, of the depth of his unhappiness: “It will force on me the
necessity of again asserting myself as an artist, and as soon as I possibly can. If I
can produce only one beautiful work of art I shall be able to rob malice of its
venom, and cowardice of its sneer, and to pluck out the tongue of scorn by the
roots”.
Wilde gave the manuscript to Ross on the day of his release in 1897. His
philosophy of acceptance did not seal off his disquiet any more than other such
works rest their writers. “I need say that my task does not end there,” he writes
in De Profundis. “It would be comparatively easy if it did. There is much more
before me. I have hills much steeper to climb, valleys much darker to pass
through”. As his final years would make clear, De Profundis is not a declaration
of certitude but a fragile foundation erected against the bottomlessness of human
life.
Q.1
Which of the following statements about Wilde, can be concluded from the
passage?
a He wrote De Profundis in an attempt to make sense of his tribulations.
b He was full of bitterness towards his persecutors.
c He was unable to bear the burden of his problems.
d His mother’s death pushed him into a state of indolence.
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o Answer key/Solution
Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as ‘tribulation’ means ‘a state of suffering’ and the
passage says “De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing
his suffering”. Option (b) speaks of Wilde’s ‘persecutors’, who have not been
named in particular, in the passage. Option (c) says he was unable to bear his
‘burdens’, which is untrue. Option (d) says ‘indolence’ which means ‘a state of
extreme laziness’, which cannot be assumed to be true.
Correct Answer : a

still live”.
roots”.
life.
Q.2
What does the author imply by the phrase “aesthetic transformation”, as used in
the passage?
a The process of morphing something inexplicable into something beautiful.
b The process of anesthetising something to make it beautiful.
c The process of changing something plain or even ugly into something

beautiful.
d The process of changing an abjection.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as transformation means ‘changing’ and since the
suffering of the author had been changed into deeply moving written text,
something ugly thereby got changed into something beautiful. Option (a) says
‘inexplicable’, which need not mean ‘not beautiful’, thereby since converting
something beautiful into another such beautiful form is not the case here (since
Wilde’s misery was anything but beautiful), the statement is untrue. Option (b)
says ‘anesthetising’ which means ‘numbing’, and hence is incorrect. Option (d)
says ‘changing’, but does mention what the change is leading to, and is thereby
incomplete.
Correct Answer : c

still live”.
roots”.
life.
Q.3
Which of the following options best describes Wilde’s sentiments on the death of
his mother?
a He felt it was an unspeakably grievous experience.
b He thought it was an overwhelmingly crippling situation.
c He believed it was an agonizing accident.
d He saw it as an ill fated and ill timed mishap.
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Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as Wilde finds it hard to express his grief in words
which is conveyed by the term “unspeakably grievous”. Option (b) unnecessarily
uses the word “crippling”, which cannot be said. Option (c) says the death was
an “accident”, which cannot be assumed as true since there is no evidence
supporting that claim. Option (d) is overly specific says the death was “ill
timed”, which implies Wilde might have found it less saddening had it happened
at another time- this, again, cannot be said.
Correct Answer : a

still live”.
roots”.
life.
Q.4
Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
a Oscar Wilde sought rationalisation through writing.
b Oscar Wilde used art as a way of asserting himself.
c Oscar Wilde used pronouns inconsistently.
d Oscar Wilde sought ratiocination through writing.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer as it says “ratiocination”, which means “the
process of exact thinking”, which is not the same as “rationalisation”, which
means “logical explanation”. Option (a) says what is written in the passage that
“De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering”,
in the second paragraph. Option (b) is cited in the passage as “..it will force on
me the necessity of again asserting myself as an artist..”. Option (c) is cited in the
passage as “..he often slides into the anonymous plural. “With us time does not
progress,” he says.”.
Correct Answer : d
still live”.
roots”.
life.
Q.5
What is the author’s opinion on the ‘philosophy of acceptance’, exhibited in the
works of Wilde?
a It did not do much in helping the author understand life.
b It was a flawed philosophy.
c It did not help Wilde find peace in reality.
d It was a way to mask Wilde’s resentment.

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Solution:
Option (c) is the best answer as the passage says “..his philosophy of acceptance
did not seal off his disquiet any more than other such works rest their writers”.
Options (b) says ‘flawed’. Option (a) is a tangential statement. Option (d) says
“mask”, which maybe true but may also NOT be true as Wilde’s philosophy
might just as well be an “attempt” at seeking peace.
Correct Answer : c

still live”.
roots”.
life.
Q.6
Which of the following statements does the author most certainly agree with?
a Oscar Wilde’s writings were both simple and real.
b Oscar Wilde’s writings were both faithful to and aggressive towards the
society.
c Oscar Wilde’s writings were a reflection of both his faith and his grief.
d Oscar Wilde’s writings were dedicated to both his mother and his sons.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as the passage says “..on one side a heartening
gesture of faith in the enduring grace of art, and on the other side a reminder, as a
reflection of the condition he endeavors to flee, of the depth of his unhappiness”.
Option (a) says ‘simple’, which hasn’t been mentioned. Option (b) wrongly uses
the term ‘aggressive’ as Wilde in no way berates the society aggressively. Option
(d) says ‘sons’, but we don’t know anything about his progeny, as per the
passage.
Correct Answer : c
Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

unworthy of him. For the one is unbelief, the other is contumely; and certainly
superstition is the reproach of the Deity. Plutarch said well to that purpose:
Surely (said he) I had rather a great deal, men should say, there was no such
man at all, as Plutarch, than that they should say, that there was one Plutarch,
that would eat his children as soon as they were born; as the poets speak of
Saturn. And as the contumely is greater towards God, so the danger is greater
towards men. Atheism leaves a man to sense, to philosophy, to natural piety, to
laws, to reputation all which may be guided to an outward moral virtue, though
religion were not; but superstition dismounts all these, and erects an absolute
monarchy, in the minds of men. Therefore theism did never perturb states; for it
makes men wary of themselves, as looking no further: and we see the times
inclined to atheism (as the time of Augustus Caesar) were civil times. But
superstition has been the confusion of many states, and brings in a new primum
mobile, that ravishes all the spheres of government. The master of superstition, is
the people; and in all superstition, wise men follow fools; and arguments are
fitted to practice, in a reversed order. It was gravely said by some of the prelates
in the Council of Trent, where the doctrine of the Schoolmen bares great sway,
that the Schoolmen were like astronomers, which did feign eccentrics and
epicycles, and such engines of orbs, to save the phenomena; though they knew
there were no such things; and in like manner, that the Schoolmen had framed a
number of subtle and intricate axioms, and theorems, to save the practice of the
church. The causes of superstition are: pleasing and sensual rites and
ceremonies; excess of outward and pharisaical holiness; overly great reverence
of traditions, which cannot but load the church; the stratagems of prelates, for
their own ambition and lucre; the favoring too much of good intentions, which
opens the gate to conceits and novelties; the taking an aim at divine matters, by
human, which cannot but breed mixture of imaginations: and, lastly, barbarous
times, especially joined with calamities and disasters. Superstition, without a veil,
is a deformed thing; for, as it adds deformity to an ape, to be so like a man, so
the similitude of superstition to religion, makes it the more deformed. And as
wholesome meat corrupts into little worms, so good forms and orders corrupt
into a number of petty observances. There is a superstition in avoiding
superstition, when men think to do best, if they go furthest from the superstition,
formerly received; therefore care has to be taken to see that such a deliberate
extremism (as it fares in the good be not taken away with the bad; which
commonly is done, when the people is the reformer) does not become the sole
objective of such an endeavor.
Q.7
According to the passage, the author would agree with which of the following
statements?
a It is better to be an atheist than to be a theist.
b Atheism leaves a man to sense.
c The propensity for atheism over superstition.
d Plutarch was a staunch atheist.

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Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as it is stated in the passage that “..it were better to
have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is unworthy of him”
wherein Superstition is deemed “unworthy” of Him. Option (a) compares
atheism with theism, which is incorrect. Option (b) has already been agreed
upon by the author and hence is not a “likelihood” anymore. Option (d) cannot
be confirmed.
Correct Answer : c

Q.8
According to the passage, which of the following statements is true about
‘superstition’?
a It runs the lives of people.
b It touches all areas of government.
c It creates calamities and disasters.
d It facilitates religious fervor.
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Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as “superstition ravishes all areas of government” is
mentioned in the passage. Option (a) uses the word “runs” which means
‘manages’ which is not cited in the passage. Option (c) says superstition creates
calamities though it is the other way around. Option (d) says “religious fervour”,
which is unsupported.
Correct Answer : b

Q.9
According to the author what is more warped by superstition?
a The absence of a veil.
b The addition of deformity to an ape.
c Religion.
d Tradition.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as the passage says “Superstition, without a veil, is a
deformed thing; for, as it adds deformity to an ape, to be so like a man, so the
similitude of superstition to religion, makes it the more deformed”. Option (a) is
out of context. Option (b) focuses on the ape but loses out on the actual analogy
and hence is incorrect. Option (d) uses the word “tradition” instead of
“religion”, which is incorrect in this context.
Correct Answer : c

Q.10
What does the author imply by saying that there is a ‘superstition in avoiding
superstition’?
a That extremists are often superstitious.
b That people sometimes impute undue account to superstition while trying

to eschew it.
c That people often avoid superstitions and favour rationalism instead.
d That deliberation leads to extremism.
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Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as it is stated that “therefore care has to be taken to
see that such a deliberate extremism does not become the sole objective of such an
endeavor”. Option (a) says “extremists”, but doesn’t mention of what kind.
Option (c) says “favour rationalism”, which is out of context. Option (d) skips
what the deliberation is on.
Correct Answer : b

Q.11
Which of the following definitions is closest to the term ‘primum mobile’, as used
in the passage?
a A point of friction.
b A juncture of change.
c A resource of primitive mobility.
d A source of motion or action.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer as is elaborated by the sentence that follows the
term “primum mobile”. Option (a) says “friction” (or conflict) which is too
negative in this context. Option (b) says “juncture”, which ‘means point in time’
which may/may not be true. Option (c) is out of context.
Correct Answer : d

Q.12
Which of the following is not true about the causes of superstition?
a Occurrence of calamities and disasters.
b Pleasing ceremonies.
c Excess respect towards traditions.
d Excess of external and fake sanctitude.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer as it is not mentioned in the passage. Options (b)
and (c) have been mentioned as the passage says: “..The causes of superstition
are: pleasing and sensual rites and ceremonies; excess of outward and pharisaical
holiness; overly great reverence of traditions..”. Option (a) is mentioned in the line:
“..and, lastly, barbarous times, especially joined with calamities and disasters”.
Correct Answer : d
By 1890, the scientific world was aware that the brain consisted of billions of
individual cells called neurons (100 billion at the last count). In the first half of
the twentieth century, while sleep and dream science were being prepared at the
more global level of the electroencephalograph (EEG), neurobiologists were
learning more about neurons than had even been imagined in anyone’s
speculative philosophy – and that anyone includes Sigmund Freud, Charles
Sherrington, and Ivan Pavlov.
Among other things, by 1950 it had become clear that, as each neuron was
bounded by a semipermeable membrane, it had the capacity to concentrate an
electrical charge across that membrane by actively pumping ions such as
sodium, potassium, and chloride in and out of the cells. This membrane
potential, as it was called, could be raised (inhibition) or lowered (excitation) as a
result of the influence of chemical molecules secreted by neighbouring neurons,
which delivered their influences via specialized junctions called synapses. The
chemicals secreted from nerve endings were called neurotransmitters because
they permitted cell-to-cell signalling in the brain.
When a neuron was sufficiently excited, its membrane potential could suddenly
reverse its sign and the resultant differential in voltage, or action potential, could
spread from the cell body over the entire surface of the neuron, including its
endings which were thereby induced to secrete their own brand of chemical
neurotransmitter. The neurotransmitters that are directly responsible for
neuronal excitability include glutamate (excitatory) and gamma-aminobutyric
acid or GABA (inhibitory).
Most of the very successful work in cellular neurobiology was conducted under
the protective umbrella of Sherrington’s reflex doctrine, which provided
sufficient information to help work out how neuronal circuits were organized.
The reflex circuit model could explain the following: the spinal reflexes involved
in posture and movement; the encoding of stimuli in sequences of action
potentials in neurons, which could lead to sensation; and even the coordination
of the sensory and motor systems needed to account for movement (motor)
behaviour.
The reflex doctrine could not, however, help the pioneer sleep and dream
scientists very much, because no link could be established between the activity of
circuits of neurons (neuronal circuits) and the EEG. It had long been assumed
that the EEG was the register of voltage changes in the brain (i.e. cerebral action
potentials), although this could not explain the patterns of the EEG seen in sleep
(e.g. spindles and slow waves), unless neuronal activity was continuous, i.e.
spontaneous, as well as reflexive. Consequently, work at the cellular and EEG
levels proceeded along entirely separate but parallel tracks, similar to those that
Descartes thought God had used to set mind and body in perfect but
independent motion. Cartesian duality dies slowly; it is still alive and well in
most of us because we cannot yet see how a physical object, the brain, can have
subjective experience. This is the so-called ‘hard problem’ of philosophy.
Q.13
How is the theory of Cartesian duality, referred in the passage used with
reference to physical objectivity and subjective experience?
a Collaterally and Equidistantly.
b Analogically.
c Imperfectly but independently.
d Illustratively.
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Solution:
Option (b) is the correct answer as it can be derived from the last part of the last
paragraph of the passage. Option (a) is incorrect because it is clearly mentioned
in the last paragraph “proceeded along entirely separate but parallel tracks”, so
it’s half correct. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect because they are beyond the
passage information.
Correct Answer : b
behaviour.
Q.14
Sherrington’s reflex doctrine, in the passage, is referred to as an example of
a sleep and dream science.
b speculative philosophy.
c organization of neuronal circuits.

d encoding of stimuli.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer because the first sentence of the fourth
paragraph explains the same. Option (a), (b), and (d) are not related to
Sherrington’s reflex doctrine.
Correct Answer : c
behaviour.
Q.15
According to the author the passage is
a objective.
b a narrative.
c descriptive.
d a blend of descriptive and narrative styles.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because the passage starts on a narrative tone
when the author narrates the sequence of events one after another. But the last
two paragraphs are descriptive in nature where the author’s intention is to
inform and these two paragraphs contain all the facts. Option (a) can be
eliminated because an analysis gives a result in the end. Options (b) and (c) are
eliminated because they are half correct.
Correct Answer : d
behaviour.
Q.16
The passage is most probably written by
a A science journalist.
b A scientist.
c A neurobiologist.
d An analyst.
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Solution:
The passage is not written by a scientist. Had it been the case, pure scientific
observations would have been there. It is not by a neurobiologist either (who
once again is a scientist). As there has been no analysis of any nature in the
passage, its writer can’t be an analyst either. Of all the options, it seems being
written by a science journalist is the best choice. He gives the history of the
research and later provides the gist of the scientific observations.
Correct Answer : a
behaviour.
Q.17
According to the author, what would ‘speculative philosophy’ most
appropriately mean?
a The assumptions were wild guesses without any premise.
b The conclusions were drawn without thorough research.
c The suppositions were made without proper study and documentation.
d The theories were proposed on the basis of educated guesses.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because the prominent people mentioned in the
first paragraph logically wouldn’t make speculations without concrete
information. Hence, options (a) and (b) can be eliminated. Option (c) can be
eliminated because the passage does not mention if these studies were
documented or not.
Correct Answer : d
behaviour.
Q.18
According to the passage, which of the following cannot be inferred?
a The nineteenth and twentieth centuries mark important milestones in the

world of neuroscience.
b The outer covering of the neuron is a membrane that concentrated

electrical charge within itself.
c Sodium, potassium and chloride were able to pump in and out since the
membrane was not permeable.
d Cellular microbiology owes a lot to Sherrington’s reflex doctrine to justify

neural behaviour.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer because had the membrane been not permeable,
the ions wouldn’t have been able to actively pump across it. Rest of the options
can be inferred from the information given in the passage.
Correct Answer : c
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
In October 1984 I arrived at Oxford University, trailing a large steamer trunk

containing a couple of changes of clothing and about five dozen textbooks. I had
a freshly minted bachelor’s degree in physics from Harvard, and I was raring to
launch into graduate study. But within a couple of weeks, the more advanced
students had sucked the wind from my sails. Change fields now while you still
can, many said. There’s nothing happening in fundamental physics.
Then, just a couple of months later, the prestigious (if tamely titled)
journal Physics Letters B published an article that ignited the first superstring
revolution, a sweeping movement that inspired thousands of physicists
worldwide to drop their research in progress and chase Einstein’s long-sought
dream of a unified theory. The field was young, the terrain fertile and the
atmosphere electric. The only thing I needed to drop was a neophyte’s inhibition
to run with the world’s leading physicists. I did. What followed proved to be the
most exciting intellectual odyssey of my life.
That was 30 years ago this month, making the moment ripe for taking stock: Is
string theory revealing reality’s deep laws? Or, as some detractors have claimed,
is it a mathematical mirage that has sidetracked a generation of physicists?
Unification has become synonymous with Einstein, but the enterprise has been at
the heart of modern physics for centuries. Isaac Newton united the heavens and
the Earth, revealing that the same laws governing the motion of the planets and
the Moon described the trajectory of a spinning wheel and a rolling rock. About
200 years later, James Clerk Maxwell took the unification baton for the next leg,
showing that electricity and magnetism are two aspects of a single force
described by a single mathematical formalism.
Q.19
The author could not pursue the desired course at Oxford because
a he had come across a new idea.
b the desired course by then had become obsolete.
c he was from Harvard and Oxford did not give him a chance to pursue that
course.
d the seats had already been filled by more deserving students.
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Solution:
Option (b) is the correct answer because the author was suggested to change his
course since there’s no scope for his desired subject in the market. Option (a) is
incorrect because he stuck to the same subject and gradually found it useful.
Options (c) and (d) are incorrect because they are beyond the passage
information.
Correct Answer : b

Then, just a couple of months later, the prestigious (if tamely titled) journal
Physics Letters B published an article that ignited the first superstring
Q.20
The unified theory of Einstein created a revolution in the world of Physics
because
a it was going to open new vistas for research in the world of Physics.
b it had rendered earlier theories of Physics redundant.
c this was the most sought after dream of all the contemporary physicists.
d it was a theory promulgated by a genius.
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Solution:
The sentence in the second paragraph “the field was young, the terrain fertile
and the atmosphere electric” leads to the answer that is option (a) Option (b) is
eliminated because the information is beyond the scope of the passage. Option
(d) is eliminated because Einstein has nowhere been termed ‘genius’ in the
passage.
Correct Answer : a

Then, just a couple of months later, the prestigious (if tamely titled) journal
Physics Letters B published an article that ignited the first superstring
Q.21
How could the author be able to join the new field of research?
a By following the leading physicists of his time.
b By shedding off the fear a novice has while entering a new field.
c By getting charmed by the fertility of the new field of research.
d By rejecting his idea of joining the field of research he had thought of.
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Solution:
Refer to the sentence in the second paragraph “The only thing I needed to drop
was a neophyte’s inhibition to run with the world’s leading physicist.”
Correct Answer : b
There was a time when many women would sooner have an organ removed than
declare themselves feminists, so tainted was its name. But today, by golly, these
crazy, self-proclaimed liberated girls are everywhere, like an army of
Maidenform Women — you never know where they’ll turn up — and there’s no
rhyme or reason to their behaviors, either: They’re speaking at the United
Nations; they’re running for president as Republicans; they’re roaring; they’re
singing;
This broad, promiscuous appropriation of a label is precisely what Andi Zeisler,

co-founder and creative director of some media house, finds so worrisome.
“There’s a mainstream, celebrity, consumer embrace of feminism that positions

it as a cool, fun, accessible identity that anyone can adopt,” she writes in her
introduction to “We Were Feminists Once: From Riot Girl to CoverGirl®, the
Buying and Selling of a Political Movement.” Ms. Zeisler calls this
transformation “marketplace feminism,” though it has also gone by other names.
“It’s decontextualized,” she continues. “It’s depoliticized. And it’s probably
feminism’s most popular iteration ever.”
You could argue that this widespread embrace of feminism is a symptom of

progress, a sign that the word has finally been decanted of its stigma. The
problem, Ms. Zeisler fears, is that the revolution has become privatized: In her
view, feminists today are all about the right to make individual choices — any
choices, choices that may be wholly estranged from the original objectives of
feminism, which once meant collective action to change whole system.
This feel-good feminism is being sold to women, Ms. Zeisler writes, in all kinds of
shrewd ways: through our consumer products. (Which isn’t new, but
femvertising, an actual term, now makes improving female self-esteem the actual
message of its campaigns, like “don’t apologize so much.”), through slickly
produced girl bands (Spice Girls, anyone?) and through women’s leadership
summit meetings (“I have a bad case of empowerment fatigue,” the author
warns, before strafing the conference-industrial complex).
Whatever its manifestation, this emphasis on choice and individual self-

actualization, Ms. Zeisler writes, reflects a greater shift in the culture at large,
which in recent decades has deregulated itself to high heaven. Until the 2008
election, when Barack Obama rolled into town, it was also suffering from a dire
case of feminism fatigue.
Q.22
What does Andi Zeisler find worrisome about the current form of feminism
being promoted?
a The label of feminism has been appropriated by certain promiscuous

elements.
b Feminism has evolved into a cool, fun ideology that can be embraced by all.
c Feminism has evolved into a power struggle that focuses on seizing power
and tapping into the inner warrior.
d The current model of feminism promotes the right to make highly

individual choices which often contravene the underlying philosophy itself.
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Solution:
The writer’s concern is with the individualistic, market friendly approach to
feminism that is being promoted which often contradicts the more collective,
rights oriented philosophy underlying it. Thus, option (d) becomes the correct
answer.
Correct Answer : d
singing;




Q.23
What does the author mean by the statement “..... reflects a greater shift in the
culture at large, which in recent decades has deregulated itself to high heaven. ....”
?
a Society has undergone a paradigm shift and is now depoliticized and

decentralized.
b The ideologies governing society have undergone a paradigm shift and are
more individualistic in approach.
c There is a focus on promoting individual choice and gratification with less

focus on control and structures.
d Fatigue has set in our society that has resulted in inertia.
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Solution:
As can be interpreted from the last paragraph, the author is concerned with the
society’s shifting focus to self-actualization as opposed to the attention paid to
collective goals. This reduction in control and regulation has been a result of the
desire to attain the “high heaven” or fulfillment of one’s wishes. Option (b)
presents an incomplete explanation of the same as it focuses only on the changes
taking place in society and not their impact.
Correct Answer : c
singing;




Q.24
Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
a Feminism – Changing Times, Changing Tunes.
b Evolution of Zeisler Feminism.
c Why is it Cool to be a Feminist?

d The Changing Face of Society.
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Solution:
The passage highlights the shift in the structure and philosophy that lay at the
foundation of feminism as an ideology and its implications. This makes option (a)
the correct answer. Option (b) and (d) are vague while option (c) is not relevant.
Correct Answer : a
Q.25
Choose the best option that replaces the underlined word with the most
appropriate word from the given options. Write the number in the box below.
When the sun rises, it will adumbrate the bridge and create a great photo
opportunity.
1. Portend
2. Anathema
3. Concomitant
4. Espouse
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Solution:
Portend means to indicate in advance; to foreshadow or presage. Anathema
means a formal ecclesiastical curse accompanied by excommunication.
Concomitant means following or accompanying as a consequence. Espouse
means choose and follow.
Correct Answer : 1
Q.26
Choose the best option that replaces the underlined word with the most
appropriate word from the given options. Write the number in the box below.
The misuse of the large words in her speech made Jane sound more fatuous.
1. Imbecile
2. Hegemony
3. Impinge
4. Legerdemain
x
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Solution:
Imbecile means usually Offensive. showing mental feebleness or incapacity.
Hegemony means the dominance or leadership of one social group over others.
Impinge means infringe upon. Legerdemain means an illusory feat.
Correct Answer : 1
Q.27
The following question consists of a set of four sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.
1. Dandruff can be easily controlled with simple medication and in cases where it
is found mild it can be treated with just daily shampooing with a medicated
cleanser.
2. Though it is very common and not a serious medical condition, it is often
considered an embarrassment and can cause low self-esteem.
3. Dandruff is a commonly found condition distinctly seen as flaking of the scalp
skin.
4. The reasons for the occurrence of dandruff are many, including dry skin, too
much or too less shampooing, wrong hair products, eczema, infection, etc.
o Bookmark
Solution:
The opening sentence is clearly sentence C. It can be paired with sentence B as it
gels with the information related to a medical condition. Sentences D and A may
be the mandatory pair because the first talks about the cause and the second
talks about the remedy of the problem. The correct sequence is CBDA.
Correct Answer : 3241
Q.28
1. A whopping number of 15,695 nuclear weapons are possessed by a total of
only nine countries.
2. Cataclysmic in nature, nuclear weapons are the most lethal machine mankind
has devised.
3. Years after the Cold War concluded, the global stockpile of atomic weapons is
still objectionably excessive.
4. Russia and the US are recorded to bear about 93 per cent of them.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Sentences A and D are clearly the mandatory pair because sentence A talks
about the number of weapons possessed by nine countries, and sentence D
substantiates which two countries have the highest of it. Sentence B is the
opening idea about the cataclysmic nature of the nuclear weapons and sentence
C joins the idea as to how in spite of knowing the above fact the numbers are
objectionably excessive. The correct order is BCAD.
Q.29
1. The most commonly seen indication of the OSA is snoring.

2. Anyone can fall prey to this potentially serious illness but generally the
occurrence is spotted in middle-aged and older obese adults.
3. There exists various types of sleep apnea, but OSA is the most commonly
found type, where the throat muscles sporadically collapse and block the airway
during sleep.
4. A condition where the patient experiences intermittent obstruction in
breathing during sleep is known as Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
o Bookmark
Solution:
Sentence D is the opening sentence as it elaborates the acronym OSA and
sentence C follows it because it talks about the types of OSA. Sentence A talks
about the most common symptom hence, it should be followed by who can be the
potential prey. The correct order is DCAB.
Q.30
In each question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the
sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and
usage (including spellings, punctuations and logical consistency). Then, choose
the most appropriate option.
A. Being everything, you see that all you desire to attain, achieve or acquire is
already within you.
B. You simply need to call it forth inside your life.
C. Everything is possible for those who know that all possibilities exists within
them.
D. You can plan your very next movement from infinite possibilities.
1. A and D
2. C and D
3. Only A
4. Only D
o Bookmark
Solution:
Sentence A is incorrect because ‘Being everything’ actually means nothing. It
would make sense if ‘everything’ is replaced by ‘spiritual’ or ‘optimistic’ or
something alike to gel with the remaining parts of the sentence. Sentence B is
incorrect because it should be either ‘forth’ or ‘inside’ and not both together.
Sentence C is incorrect because ‘exists’ must be replaced with ‘exist’.
Correct Answer : 4
Q.31
In each question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the
sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and
usage (including spellings, punctuations and logical consistency). Then, choose
the most appropriate option.
A. Its no surprise that the celebrity novelist who gave the world the controversial
Robert Landgon series is deeply fascinated by puzzles and religious history.
B. However, illustrious American author Dan Brown who has penned titles such
as Angels and Demons (2000), The Da Vinci Code (2003), The Lost Symbol
(2009) and Inferno (2013) in the past decade categorically states that he is not an
atheist or even an agnostic.
C. He prefers to call himself a “religious sensitive”.
D. The 50-year-old first came to India as part of a Christian group.
1. C and D
2. A, B and C
3. A and B
4. All of the above
o Bookmark
Solution:
Sentence A is incorrect because “Its” must be replaced by “It’s”. Sentence B is
incorrect because ‘he is not an atheist or even an agnostic’ must be replaced by
‘he is neither an atheist nor an agnostic’.
Correct Answer : 1
Q.32
The following question is based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or
passage. For this question, more than one of the choices could conceivably
answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the
response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should
not make assumptions that are by common-sense standards implausible,
superfluous or incompatible with the passage.
When a person is sad the blood pressure increases faster. Even though, the
person is performing no physical action, the BP remains higher. Whereas, when
another person does heavy duty physical activity, the BP may remain normal
and the person may feel calmer and more comfortable. Therefore, heavy
exercises keep blood pressure under control.
Which of the following can be inferred from the paragraph?

1. Lack of physical activities only do not cause increase in the blood pressure.
2. The doctors and the nurse often make the patient tensed by talking about
more diseases.
3. A physically fit person may not be exercising at all in reality.
4. Cardiovascular diseases are directly linked with blood flow in the body.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Premise- When a person is under stress the blood pressure increases faster even
if the person is performing no physical action, the BP remains higher. And when
another person does heavy duty physical activity, the BP may remain normal.
Conclusion- Heavy exercises keep blood pressure under control.
Gap- The flow of the blood in the body is related to neuro-activities as well which
can cause happiness, sadness, etc. Lack of physical activity can also be a reason.
Hence, the answer is Option (1).
Correct Answer : 1
Q.33
Half of the Indian population believes that if children are school goers then
mothers must also have their independent careers anywhere in the same city.
The ratio of men having the same line of thought is five folds lesser than it is in
husbands living in villages. Hence, working women ratio in villages will always
be lesser than women in big cities.
If the information above is correct, which of the following can be inferred?

1. Females in villages have to live their lives as per their husbands’ whims.
2. Females in towns and cities are more educated, hence they are capable of
working.
3. Females in towns are more self-dependent and enterprising than their
husbands.
4. The number of Indian husbands in villages is not even comparable to the
Indian population which feels women must work.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Premise- 50% of Indian population is in favour of females working if their
children are school goers. The number of Indian husbands supporting this view
is miniscule.
Conclusion- The number of working women in villages will never exceed the
number of working women in big cities.
Gap- The premise shows that the comparison is wrongly made between Indian
population and Indian husbands in villages. Hence, the conclusion is null and
void.
Hence, the answer is Option (4).
Correct Answer : 4
Q.34
Nike sportswear has won the sponsorship of the Wimbledon next year because
the last three years winners have been wearing Nike clothes and accessories in
their winning matches. Hence, Nike is a lucky charm for people associated
directly or indirectly with Wimbledon.
Which of the following, if true, can cast a shadow on the conclusion of the
passage?
1. The winners are almost predictable; hence Nike sponsors all the requirements
of the presumed winner.
2. Nike has the best product line for this particular sports, hence all the top
players prefer Nike over other brands.
3. It is totally up to the authorities to sanction sponsorship of the event.
4. Adidas and Reebok have created a product like for college goers, which cannot
to used for rugged use by sportsmen.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Option (1) is hypothetical and bears no resemblance to the information given in
the passage. Option (3) is quite obvious that authorities have the right, but it
informs nothing about the winners from the three consecutive years wearing
Nike only, hence eliminated.
Option (4) is eliminated because there is no information related to college goers
or any other company other than Nike. Hence the answer is Option (2).
Correct Answer : 2
Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
The following data pertains to the profiles of 100 students who have appeared
for the 'Selection Process' of a B-School named ISW College in the year 2009.
1. Each student wrote exactly one of the two tests out of LAT and BAT, and
every one of them had at least one of the two features out of Good Academic
Record (GAR) or Extra Curricular Activities (ECA).
2. No student who wrote LAT had both GAR and ECA.
3. Sixty percent of the students who appeared for the Selection Process wrote
LAT, of which 40% had Work Experience.
4. Fifty percent of the students who appeared for the Selection Process had Work
Experience, of which 30 students had GAR.
5. The number of students who wrote BAT and also had both Work experience
and GAR was 20.
6. The number of students who wrote LAT and also had GAR was 25.
7. The number of students who had ECA but had no Work Experience was 35.
Note: The questions that follow are for the year 2009 only.
Q.35
Out of all the students who appeared for the Selection Process of ISW College,
how many wrote BAT and had Work Experience and GAR, but no ECA?
a 10
b 15
c 20
d Cannot be determined
o Bookmark
Solution:
We can make the following figure based on the information given in the
question.
From the figure it can be inferred that the answer must be ‘20 – x’. As we don’t
know the exact value of x the answer cannot be determined.
Correct Answer : d
and GAR was 20.
Q.36
what is the maximum possible number of students who had GAR and wrote
BAT but had no Work Experience?
a 10
b 12
c 14
o Bookmark
Solution:
question.
From the figure it can be inferred that the answer must be the maximum
possible value of ‘y’. As the number of students who had ECA and who had also
written BAT but have no Work Experience is ‘14 – y’, we can say that the
maximum possible value of ‘y’ must be 14.
Correct Answer : c
and GAR was 20.
Q.37
what was the total number of students who wrote LAT and had ECA?
a 31
b 35
c 28
o Bookmark
Solution:
question.
Required answer = 21 (No Work Experience) + 14 (Work Experience) = 35
Correct Answer : b
and GAR was 20.
Q.38
Out of the total number of students who wrote BAT, what was the number of
students who had ECA and Work Experience but no GAR?
a 8
b 10
c 6
d 12
o Bookmark
Solution:
question.
The required number of student = 6.
Correct Answer : c
The following table shows the marks obtained by four students in three Mock
CAT tests. The four students namely Abhishek, Akshay, Amitabh and Aamir are
disguised as A, B, C and D, not necessarily in that order.
Additional information:
• The maximum possible marks in each Mock CAT were 75.
• In each Mock CAT, a correct answer carried +3 marks and an incorrect
answer carried -1 mark.
• Abhishek scored the lowest marks in Mock 1 and Aamir scored the highest
marks in Mock 2 among the four students.
• Abhishek's total score is more than Amitabh's total score.
• Akshay's total score is less than Amitabh's total score.
• A’s total score is a multiple of 6.
Q.39
How many different total scores are possible for Akshay?
a 101
b 97
c 98
d 100
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.40
What is the name of the person disguised as B?
a Aamir
b Abhishek
c Akshay
d Either (a) or (b)
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.41
How many different values are possible for ‘A’?
a 7
b 8
c 9
d 15
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.42
The sum of maximum possible score of Akshay and the minimum possible score
of Abhishek is
a 281
b 296
c 274
d 286
o Bookmark
Solution:
The maximum score of Akshay = 63 + 74 = 137
The minimum score of Abhishek = 119 + 25 = 144
The required sum = 281.
Correct Answer : a
In a school there were 900 students in Class XII. They belonged to one of the
four streams - Science, Medical, Arts and Commerce. No two streams had the
same number of students. The tables given below show partial information about
the sets of books bought by the students of class XII. A set of books contains all
the subject books corresponding to the stream of the student. Two different
books were available for each subject and a student could choose any one of the
two, but not both. Table - 1 shows the percentage of students buying different
books (e.g. ‘p’ percent of students in the Science stream bought book A1 for
Maths). Table - 2 shows the total number of the sets of books bought by the
students of each stream.
Additional Information:
1. The number of students in each stream was a multiple of 10.
2. At least one student in each stream did not buy the set of books.
3. The percentage of students in each stream who bought the set of books was a
multiple of 10. This percentage was distinct for all the 4 streams.
4. ‘XX’ indicates that the subject was not studied in that stream.
Q.43
What was the total number of Chemistry books bought by the students of Class
XII?
a 666
b 810
c 720
o Bookmark
Solution:
Since at least one student from each stream does not buy the set of books, the
percentage of students buying the set of books can never be 100 in any stream.
If the percentage of students in Science stream buying the set of books is less
than or equal to 60 then the total number of students in Science stream will have
to be equal to or more than 540. This is not possible because then the number of
students from the remaining 3 streams will be less than or equal to 360, which in
turn will be less than the number of students buying the sets of books from the
other three streams.
If the percentage of students in Science stream buying the set of books is either
70 or 80, then the total number of students in Science stream is not an integral
multiple of 10.
Hence, the percentage of students buying the set of books in Science stream must
be 90 and the total number of students in Science stream must be 360.
Similarly, the percentage and the total number of students in the other streams
can be found out:
Since Chemistry books are purchased by the students of Science, Medical and
Arts stream only, the total number of Chemistry books bought by the students of
Class XII = 324 + 216 + 126 = 666.
Correct Answer : a
Q.44
How many students were there in the Arts stream of Class XII?
a 270
b 180
c 90
o Bookmark
Solution:
multiple of 10.
can be found out:
180
Correct Answer : b
Q.45
Which book was bought by the maximum number of students in the Science
stream of Class XII?
a A1
b G4
c C2
o Bookmark
Solution:
multiple of 10.
can be found out:
From the table it can be observed that the required book is G4.
Correct Answer : b
Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
In a school there were 900 students in Class XII. They belonged to one of the four streams - S
Commerce. No two streams had the same number of students. The tables given below show p
sets of books bought by the students of class XII. A set of books contains all the subject book
stream of the student. Two different books were available for each subject and a student cou
but not both. Table - 1 shows the percentage of students buying different books (e.g. ‘p’ perc
stream bought book A1 for Maths). Table - 2 shows the total number of the sets of books bou
stream.
3. The percentage of students in each stream who bought the set of books was a multiple of 1
distinct for all the 4 streams.
Q.46
What was the difference between the number of students of Class XII who buy G4 and that
a 94
b 104
c 99
o Bookmark
Solution:
Since at least one student from each stream does not buy the set of books, the percentage of s
books can never be 100 in any stream.
If the percentage of students in Science stream buying the set of books is less than or equal to
students in Science stream will have to be equal to or more than 540. This is not possible bec
students from the remaining 3 streams will be less than or equal to 360, which in turn will be
students buying the sets of books from the other three streams.
If the percentage of students in Science stream buying the set of books is either 70 or 80, then
students in Science stream is not an integral multiple of 10.
Hence, the percentage of students buying the set of books in Science stream must be 90 and t
in Science stream must be 360.
Similarly, the percentage and the total number of students in the other streams can be found
The total number of students who buy G4 = 288 + 162 + 90 + 36 = 576

The total number of students who buy E3 = 216 + 189 + 72 = 477
Hence the difference is 576 – 477 = 99.
Correct Answer : c
Ten students – Aman, Bimal, Chetan, Dilip, Eshan, Fatima, George, Hritik,
Imran and Jayant – wrote an examination. The marks obtained by them were in
an increasing order, in the given order of their names. i.e. marks obtained by
Aman was the least, and Jayant got the maximum marks. Five students, out of
the ten, got more than 50 marks and the other five students got less than 50. The
marks obtained by them were in the range of 38 to 87 (both inclusive). It is also
known that:
(i) The average of marks obtained by the ten students was 55.40.
(ii) The sum and product of the marks obtained by Eshan and Fatima were 100
and 2499 respectively.
(iii) The average of marks of those students who scored less than 50 was 44.40,
and marks obtained by exactly two students among these five were prime
numbers.
(iv) The difference between the marks obtained by Imran and Chetan was 30.
(v) The marks obtained by each student was a distinct integer.
Q.47
Find the sum of all the possible marks that George could get.
o Bookmark
Solution:
From statement II:
Marks of Eshan = 49
Marks of Fatima = 51
Sum of the marks of Aman, Bimal, Chetan, Dilip and Eshan = 44.40 × 5 = 222
Sum of the marks of Bimal, Chetan and Dilip = 222 – 38 – 49 = 135
From Statement III :

The only possibility is
Marks of Bimal = 43
Marks of Chetan = 45
Marks of Dilip = 47
From statement IV :
Marks of Imran = 45 + 30 = 75
Sum of the marks obtained by George and Hritik = 554 – 222 – 51 – 75 – 87 =
119
Marks obtained by George = 52/53/54 … 58/59
Marks obtained by Hritik = 67/66/65 … 61/60
Sum of all the possible scores of George = 52 + 53 + 54 … + 58 + 59 = 444.
known that:
numbers.
Q.48
By what percentage was the maximum possible total score of Hritik, Imran and
Jayant put together was more than the total score of Aman, Bimal, Chetan, Dilip
and Eshan put together.
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is 3.15.
o Bookmark
Solution:
From statement II:
Marks of Eshan = 49

Marks of Bimal = 43
Marks of Dilip = 47
From statement IV :
119
Correct Answer : 1
known that:
numbers.
Q.49
An arithmetic progression is made by using the marks obtained by the ten
students. The maximum number of terms that the progression can have is
o Bookmark
Solution:
From statement II:
Marks of Eshan = 49

Marks of Bimal = 43
Marks of Dilip = 47
From statement IV :
119
Maximum number of terms is possible when marks obtained by George would
be equal to 53. The terms of the progression are 43, 45, 47, 49, 51 and 53
Hence, maximum number of terms = 6.
Correct Answer : 6
known that:
numbers.
Q.50
How many of the following three statements are true?
(i) The average of the maximum and minimum difference between the marks
obtained by Hritik and Imran was 23.
(ii) The marks obtained by only two students were even numbers.
(iii) The average of the marks obtained by Aman and George was always less
than that by Dilip and Fatima.
o Bookmark
Solution:
From statement II:
Marks of Eshan = 49

Marks of Bimal = 43
Marks of Dilip = 47
From statement IV :
119
Correct Answer : 2
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below. In the data given below, Table - 1 indicates the number of trees planted by six
friends on three days - Day1, Day 2 and Day 3. Table - 2 shows the number of trees of each
of the six types planted on these three days. The following conditions must be valid:
• On any given day, each of them planted only one type of tree.
• From among Ashish, Dinesh and Farhan exactly two people planted the same type of
tree(s) on Day 2 and Day 3 as they planted on Day 1.
• The person who planted exactly one Orange tree on Day 3 had also planted Orange trees
on each of the first two days.
• Dinesh did not plant a Banana tree on Day 2.
Q.51
Who planted orange trees on all the three days?
a Dinesh
b Ekant
c Ekant or Farhan
d Dinesh or Ekant
o Bookmark
Solution:
From Table-2 the number of Orange trees planted on Day 3 is 7. Therefore, Bobby (B) and
Chetan (C) must have planted Orange trees on Day 3. From Table-1 and Table-2, Ashish
(A) planted Coconut trees on Day 1 and Day 2. Dinesh (D) planted a Mango tree on Day 1.
Therefore, A and D could not have planted Orange trees on all the three days. Farhan (F)
could not have planted Orange trees on all the three days as only 1 Orange tree was
planted on Day 2, while he had planted 2 trees on Day 2. Therefore, only Ekant (E) is left
who must have planted 1 Orange tree on Day 3 and also planted Orange trees on Day 1
and Day 2.
Exactly two people out of A, D and F planted the same type of tree on all the three days;
the possible person-tree combinations in such a case could be: A-Coconut, D-Mango, F-
Guava. Exactly 2 out of the given 3 combinations are true. On Day 3, they definitely
planted these types only, as otherwise the given condition could not be true. So A is
definitely one of the persons who planted the same type of tree on all the three days.
On Day 2, D did not plant Apple, Banana, Coconut or Orange tree. D could not have
planted a Guava tree on Day 2 as in that case even F would not be able to plant Guava
trees on all the three days. Therefore D must have planted 1 Mango tree on Day 2.
Therefore, D is the other person to have planted the same type of tree on all the three days.
Ekant
Correct Answer : b
Q.52
For how many friends can the number of trees planted of each type be determined uniquely on
all the three days?
a 3
b 4
c 5
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
and Day 2.
Correct Answer : a
information given below. In the data given below, Table - 1 indicates the number
of trees planted by six friends on three days - Day1, Day 2 and Day 3. Table - 2
shows the number of trees of each of the six types planted on these three days.
The following conditions must be valid:
• From among Ashish, Dinesh and Farhan exactly two people planted the same
type of tree(s) on Day 2 and Day 3 as they planted on Day 1.
• The person who planted exactly one Orange tree on Day 3 had also planted
Orange trees on each of the first two days.
Q.53
The number of apple trees planted by Chetan on Day 1 could be
a 0
b 1
c 2
d Either (a) or (c)
o Bookmark
Solution:
From Table-2 the number of Orange trees planted on Day 3 is 7. Therefore,
Bobby (B) and Chetan (C) must have planted Orange trees on Day 3. From
Table-1 and Table-2, Ashish (A) planted Coconut trees on Day 1 and Day 2.
Dinesh (D) planted a Mango tree on Day 1. Therefore, A and D could not have
planted Orange trees on all the three days. Farhan (F) could not have planted
Orange trees on all the three days as only 1 Orange tree was planted on Day 2,
while he had planted 2 trees on Day 2. Therefore, only Ekant (E) is left who must
have planted 1 Orange tree on Day 3 and also planted Orange trees on Day 1 and
Day 2.
Exactly two people out of A, D and F planted the same type of tree on all the
three days; the possible person-tree combinations in such a case could be: A-
Coconut, D-Mango, F-Guava. Exactly 2 out of the given 3 combinations are true.
On Day 3, they definitely planted these types only, as otherwise the given
condition could not be true. So A is definitely one of the persons who planted the
same type of tree on all the three days.
On Day 2, D did not plant Apple, Banana, Coconut or Orange tree. D could not
have planted a Guava tree on Day 2 as in that case even F would not be able to
plant Guava trees on all the three days. Therefore D must have planted 1 Mango
tree on Day 2. Therefore, D is the other person to have planted the same type of
tree on all the three days.
Either 0 or 2
Correct Answer : d
Q.54
Who planted 4 orange trees over the period of three days?
a Ekant
b Bobby
c Chetan
d Both (a) or (c)
o Bookmark
Solution:
and Day 2.
Both Chetan or Ekant
Correct Answer : d
An excavation squad recently found an unusual 8-faced die. The shape of the die
was that of a hexagonal prism with 6 rectangular faces and 2 hexagonal faces, as
shown in the diagram below. On each face a distinct number from 1 to 8 was
written. Two digits are said to be adjacent or opposite each other if the faces
containing the two digits are adjacent or opposite respectively.
1. Each of the faces containing 3, 6 and 7 had the same number of adjacent faces
to them. Also, no two of the faces containing of 3, 6 and 7 were adjacent to each
other.
2. The sum of all the numbers on the faces adjacent to the face containing 4 was
31.
3. The numbers on the faces opposite each other were added and their sum was
noted. All such possible sums were found to be different.
Q.55
Which number was on one of the hexagonal faces?
a 1
b 6
c 5
d 3
o Bookmark
Solution:
There are 6 rectangular faces and 2 hexagonal faces in the die. The 6 digits that
lie on the rectangular faces will each have 4 neighbours. The 2 digits that lie on
the hexagonal faces will each have 6 neighbours. Hence, from statement 1, it can
be concluded that 3, 6 and 7 must be on the alternate rectangular faces. Sum of
all eight digits = 36 = 31 + 4 + 1. Hence, from statement 2, the digit not adjacent
to 4 must be 1. As we get only one digit not adjacent to 4 we can say that both 4
and 1 will occupy the hexagonal faces.
Possible pairs of opposite digits (from statement 3):

(1, 4); (7, 2); (3, 5) and (6, 8)
OR
(1, 4); (7, 5); (3, 8) and (6, 2)
1
Correct Answer : a
other.
31.
Q.56
Which number was on the face that was opposite the face containing 7?
a 2
b 5
c 4
o Bookmark
Solution:

(1, 4); (7, 2); (3, 5) and (6, 8)
OR
(1, 4); (7, 5); (3, 8) and (6, 2)
The digit opposite 7 could be either 2 or 5.
Correct Answer : d
other.
31.
Q.57
If the sum of the numbers on any three consecutive rectangular faces was
unique, then which number was on the face that was opposite the face containing
3?
a 7
b 8
c 5
d 2
o Bookmark
Solution:

(1, 4); (7, 2); (3, 5) and (6, 8)
OR
(1, 4); (7, 5); (3, 8) and (6, 2)
There are 2 possibilities for the arrangement of digits on the rectangular faces.
If listed in a circular order, it would be either
3 – 5 – 6 – 8 – 7 – 2 – 3 OR 3 – 2 – 6 – 5 – 7 – 8 – 3.
Among the two, the first case satisfies the condition given in the question.
So the number opposite 3 must be 8.
Correct Answer : b
other.
31.
Q.58
What was the sum of the numbers on the faces adjacent to the face containing 3?
a 15
b 16
c 12
d Either (a) or (c)
o Bookmark
Solution:

(1, 4); (7, 2); (3, 5) and (6, 8)
OR
(1, 4); (7, 5); (3, 8) and (6, 2)
The required sum could be either 15 or 12.
Correct Answer : d
information given below. A game called Koko is played by two teams, each
having 6 players, in a semi-circular playing area. Each player of both the teams
occupies exactly one of the six positions P-0, P-45, P-90, P-135, P-180 and P-Base
in the field (see figure). Each position is occupied by exactly two players, one
from each team. The players of Team-1 are A, B, C, D, E and F, and the players
of Team-2 are P, Q, R, S, T and U.
The following conditions are followed while assigning the positions to the players
at the start of the match.
For Team 1:
• A plays either at P-0 or at P-90.
• B plays either at P-45 or at P-180.
• C plays at P-90.
• E plays either at P-45 or at P-90.
• F plays either at P-0 or at P-Base.
For Team 2:
• P plays at P-45 if T plays at P-Base; otherwise P plays at P-135.
• Q plays either at P-0 or at P-Base.
• R plays at P-45 if A plays at P-90; otherwise R plays at P-Base.
• T plays either at P-180 or at P-Base.
• U plays at P-90 if E plays at P-90.
Whenever a team scores a point, all the players of the other team have to shift
one position in the anti-clockwise direction. The players don’t change their
positions for any other reason during the course of the match.
Q.59
If Team-1 is leading with the scoreline reading 3 – 2, then which two players are
at P-90?
a F, Q
b B, R
c F, T
d A, R
o Bookmark
Solution:
As Team-1 has scored 3 goals against Team-2 and conceded 2 goals, the players
of Team-1 must have rotated twice in counter-clockwise direction and that of
Team-2 thrice. So the players at position P-90 are A and R for Team-1 and
Team-2 respectively.
Correct Answer : d
For Team 1:
For Team 2:
Q.60
If team-1 wins the match with the scoreline reading 55 – 31, then how many
times do the players of team-1 come back to their initial positions (positions at
the start of the match) during the course of the match?
a 6
b 5
c 9
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
The players of a team come back to their initial positions (the ones at the start of
the match) after conceding six goals. As Team-1 concedes 31 goals, the players
must have come back to their initial positions 5 times.
Correct Answer : b
For Team 1:
For Team 2:
Q.61
If team-2 has scored 12 points more than Team-1 and A is playing at P-Base,
then which player of team-2 is playing at P-45?
a Q
b S
c P
o Bookmark
Solution:
Since the difference in points scored is a multiple of 6, A and Q must be at P-
Base for their respective teams at the moment. So S must be playing at P-45.
Correct Answer : b
For Team 1:
For Team 2:
Q.62
Which of the following shows the correct pair of players at P-Base initially?
a BT
b EP
c FR
o Bookmark
Solution:
F and R were at P-Base.
Correct Answer : c
Six Boys – Suman, Robin, Viren, Akash, Harsh and Kamal – are ranked on the
basis of their weight, height and age – such that the heaviest person is ranked 1
and the lightest is ranked 6, the tallest is ranked 1 and the shortest is ranked 6,
and the oldest is ranked 1 and the youngest is ranked 6. The rank 1 is considered
as the highest rank and rank 6 as the lowest rank. Further, it is known that:
1) Only for Suman, the ranks on the three parameters are consecutive integers.
2) Suman is heavier than both Viren and Kamal. The rank of Suman on age was
lower than that of Robin on height.
3) Robin is neither the oldest nor the youngest, and he is also neither the heaviest
and nor the lightest.
4) There is no pair of persons out of the six in which one is ranked higher than
the other on all the parameters.
5) Kamal is the only person whose sum of ranks on the three parameters is the
square of a natural number.
6) Robin’s highest rank is on age and the lowest rank is on weight.
7) On the age parameter, Akash, whose rank is not the lowest on any of the three
parameters, is the only person ranked between Robin and Harsh.
Q.63
How many boys are ranked lower than Akash on weight but are younger than
him?
o Bookmark
Solution:
From (1), (3) and (6), we can conclude that Robin’s rank on age is 2, on weight is
5 and on height either 3 or 4. Using (7), it can be deduced that Akash and Harsh
on age are ranked 3 and 4, respectively.
From (2) Suman’s rank on weight is either of 1, 2 or 3, as Suman is heavier than
Kamal, Viren and Robin, and his rank on age is either 5 or 6. But to satisfy (1),
the only possible ranks for Suman are – weight (3), height (4) and age (5). Hence,
Robin’s rank on height is 3.
From (5), sum of ranks of Kamal on the three parameters can be 9 only (the sum
of 4 and 6 are not possible because it violates condition 4).
Since Kamal is not ranked 3 on any parameter, his ranks are 1, 2 and 6. Hence
on weight ranks of Kamal and Viren are 6 and 4 respectively. Kamal’s rank or
height and age are 2 and 1 respectively. Viren is ranked 6th on age, and as a
result, he is ranked below Suman on both age and weight. So he will have higher
rank than that of Kamal on height, i.e. rank 1.
Using (7), Akash is ranked 5 on height and Harsh is ranked 6. Akash and Harsh
can be ranked 1 and 2 on weight in any order. But, if Akash is ranked 1, then his
sum of ranks will also be 9, which is not possible. So he is ranked 2 and Harsh
ranked 1 on weight.
The conclusions are tabulated as below:
Two boys namely Suman and Viren are ranked lower than Akash on weight but
older than him.
Correct Answer : 2
as the highest rank and rank 6 as the lowest rank. Further, it is know that:
Q.64
What is the sum of ranks of Harsh on the three parameters?
o Bookmark
Solution:
ranked 1 on weight.
The required sum = 1 + 6 + 4 = 11.
Correct Answer : 11
Q.65
What is the sum of weight-wise ranks of two boys for whom Robin is the only
boy ranked between them on the parameter of height?
x
o Bookmark
Solution:
ranked 1 on weight.
The two such boys are Kamal and Suman.

The required sum = 6 + 3 = 9.
Correct Answer : 9
Q.66
Who is the second tallest boy?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is Robin.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is Akash.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is Viren.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is Kamal.
o Bookmark
Solution:
ranked 1 on weight.
Kamal is the second tallest boy.
Correct Answer : 4
Sec 3
Q.67
Pia and Ria start running simultaneously from the same point on a circular
track of length 4200 m. If they run in opposite directions and keep running
infinitely, they meet for the first time exactly after 2 minutes from the start and
they meet at seven distinct points on the track. If they run in the same direction
and keep running infinitely, they meet at three distinct points on the track . How
much time (in minutes) does Ria take to complete one round, if she is the slower
runner?
a 3.5
b 7
c 10.5
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.68
In a test consisting of 15 questions, 3 marks are awarded for a correct answer, 1
mark is deducted for an incorrect answer and no mark is awarded for an
unattempted question. If a student attempts at least one question in the paper,
what is the number of distinct scores that he can get?
o Bookmark
Solution:
A student can get any integer score from –15 to 45, except 44, 43 and 40. So the
answer is 61 – 3 = 58.
Correct Answer : 58
Q.69
A man, starting from a point P, takes exactly four equal steps. Each step is in one
of the four directions – East, West, North and South. What is the total number of
ways in which the man ends up at point P after the four steps?
a 20
b 25
c 36
d 30
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.70
The roots of x3 – ax2 + bx – c = 0 are p, q and r and the roots of x3 + dx2 + ex – 90
= 0 are p + 3, q + 3 and r + 3. What is the value of (9a + 3b + c)?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 63
Q.71
A box has 420 blue balls, 240 red balls and 320 black balls. 20% of blue balls and
30% of black balls are taken away. The remaining black balls in the bag
constitutes what percentage of the total remaining balls in the bag?
a 22
b 24
c 28
d 32
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.72
The chord AB of a circle is the perpendicular bisector of the chord CD of the
same circle. The two chords intersect at point E. If CD = BE = 4 cm, then what is
the circumference of the circle?
a 4∏ cm
b 5∏ cm
c 6∏ cm
d 8∏ cm
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.73
For how many positive integer values of ‘x’ does the inequality ||x – 1| – 2| < 5
hold true?
o Bookmark
Solution:
v
Correct Answer : 7
Q.74
Which of the following is the graph of the function | x – 2 | + 3?
c
d
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.75
a 3/2
b 1/4
c -(1/5)
d –4
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.76
How many three-digit even numbers are there which have 0 and 1 as two of the
digits and the remaining one digit is from among 2, 4 and 6?
a 9
b 8
c 7
d 6
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.77
What are the last two digit of 942?
o Bookmark
Solution:
The cyclicity of any number for last 2 digits is 20.
So, the number left is 92 = 81
Hence, last two digits of 942 is 81.
Correct Answer : 81
Q.78
Yamini and Zora are standing 25 km apart. Zora starts moving towards Yamini.
After 40 minutes Yamini also starts moving towards Zora. By the time Yamini
covers 5 km, Zora has covered 15 km. They meet at a point 7 km from the
starting point of Yamini. What is the speed of Yamini?
a 7.5 km/h
b 10.5 km/h
c 17.5 km/h
d 6 km/h
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.79
The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 45. If the sum of their squares is 683, what is
the largest of the three numbers?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 17
Q.80
In the figure given below, there is a square circumscribed by a circle. In how
many ways can 9 people occupy the marked positions such that each person
occupies exactly one position?
a 9!
o Bookmark
Solution:
It should be noticed that the figure is not symmetrical. The case is similar to a
linear arrangement and the answer will be 9!.
Correct Answer : a
Q.81
If the sum and difference of two angles are 11/3 radian and 11/9 radian
respectively, then what is the value of smaller angle? ( ∏ = 22/7)
a 60°
b 50°
c 70°
d 75°
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.82
Sixty equally spaced line segments are drawn on a circular clock such that each
line segment is the radius of the circle. If the minute hand and the hour hand of
the clock overlap with one of these line segments at 12 Noon, then at what time
during the next 12 hours will the minute hand overlap with the line segment
which is immediately prior to the line segment with which the hour hand
overlaps?
a 4 : 24 P.M.
b 2 : 12 P.M.
c 9 : 48 P.M.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.83
ABCD is a parallelogram. CD is extended to G. BG intersects AC and AD at
point E and point F respectively. If BE = 24 units and EF = 18 units, then what is
the length (in units) of FG?
a 6
b 12
c 14
d Data Insufficient
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.84
Five hundred students appeared in an examination which comprises three
subjects – Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. The Venn diagram given below
shows the number of students who failed in one or more subjects. What
percentage of students passed in at least two of the three subjects?
a 70.6%
b 55.4%
c 60.2%
d 92.2%
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.85
A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as f(x) = ax2 + bx + 1. It is also
known that f(5) = f(k) = 0, where k ≠ 5. If a < 0, then which of the following is
definitely correct?
a b<0
b b>0
c k<0
d k>0
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.86
In a class comprising 60 boys and some girls, the average age of boys is 14.8
years and that of girls is 14.1 years. If the average age of the class is 14.7 years,
then how many girls are there in the class?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 10
Q.87
How many divisors of 25200 can be expressed in the form 4n + 3, where n is a
whole number?
a 6
b 8
c 9
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.88
A = {4, 24, 44 ………..604} and S is a subset of A. If the sum of no two elements
of S is more than 608, then what can be the maximum possible number of
elements in S?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 16
Q.89
In how many ways can 5 A's and 6 B's be arranged in a row such that the
arrangements read the same forward or backward?
a 10
b 11!/(2×5!6!)
c 15
d 32
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.90
A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 15 days respectively. All of them
started the work and one of them left the work 1 day before its completion. If the
work was completed in 7 days, who left the work before completion?
a A
b B
c C
d None can be allowed
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.91
Vijay, Saral and Himanshu visited a shop to buy a certain article and each one of
them bought one unit of the article. The shopkeeper gave a discount of 20% to
Vijay, two successive discounts of 20% and 25% to Saral and three successive
discounts of 20%, 25% and 40% to Himanshu. If an overall discount of x% was
given by the shopkeeper then what is the value of x?
a 41.33
b 20
c 25%
d 50.85
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.92
Two different solutions of honey, milk and water are mixed with each other
three times in varying proportions. The concentration of honey and milk in the
three resulting solutions are found to be (10%, 16%), (12%, 12%) and (16%,
x%) respectively. What is the value of x?
a 4
b 7
c 8
d 10
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.93
Which of the following is the highest?
a 170! . 130!
b 150! . 150!
c 240! . 60!
d 300!
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.94
The lengths of the three edges of a cuboid are increased by a%, b% and c%. The
volume increases by V%, where V is an integer. How many values can V take if
a, b, c are real numbers and 10 ≤ a, b, c ≤ 20?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 39
Q.95
Kadbury offers a packet of 5 chocolates at the list price of 4 chocolates and on
purchasing 19 such packets gives one packet absolutely free. A trader gets 20
packets of the chocolates in the offer and sells each chocolate at its list price.
What is his net percentage profit?
a 24
b 31.58
c 35
d 53.75
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.96
a – 17
b –8
c –7
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.97
A person bought an old cycle for Rs.1,280 and spends Rs.270 on repairing. He
wanted to sell it for Rs.2,325. As no one was ready to buy it on this price, he sold
it at a discount of 20%. What was his gain percentage?
a 20
b 15
c 18
d 24
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.98
If the volume of a right circular cylinder of base diameter 24 cm and height 9 cm
is equal to the volume of a right circular cone of height 108 cm, then the base
diameter (in cm) of the right circular cone is
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 12
Q.99
Radius of a right circular cone is decreased by 20%. To maintain the same
volume of the cone, the height will have to be increased by
a 20
b 40.75
c 44
d 56.25
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.100
a 139°
b 119°
c 102°
d 141°
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d

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CL Mock CAT - 11 (2016)

De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

a He wrote De Profundis in an attempt to make sense of his tribulations.

b He was full of bitterness towards his persecutors.

c He was unable to bear the burden of his problems.

d His mother’s death pushed him into a state of indolence.

De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

a The process of morphing something inexplicable into something beautiful.

b The process of anesthetising something to make it beautiful.

c The process of changing something plain or even ugly into something

d The process of changing an abjection.

De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

a He felt it was an unspeakably grievous experience.

b He thought it was an overwhelmingly crippling situation.

c He believed it was an agonizing accident.

d He saw it as an ill fated and ill timed mishap.

De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

a Oscar Wilde sought rationalisation through writing.

b Oscar Wilde used art as a way of asserting himself.

c Oscar Wilde used pronouns inconsistently.

d Oscar Wilde sought ratiocination through writing.

a It did not do much in helping the author understand life.

b It was a flawed philosophy.

c It did not help Wilde find peace in reality.

d It was a way to mask Wilde’s resentment.

De Profundis is in large part an effort to find a way of rationalizing his suffering.

a Oscar Wilde’s writings were both simple and real.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

a It is better to be an atheist than to be a theist.

b Atheism leaves a man to sense.

c The propensity for atheism over superstition.

d Plutarch was a staunch atheist.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

a It runs the lives of people.

b It touches all areas of government.

c It creates calamities and disasters.

d It facilitates religious fervor.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

a The absence of a veil.

b The addition of deformity to an ape.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

b That people sometimes impute undue account to superstition while trying

c That people often avoid superstitions and favour rationalism instead.

d That deliberation leads to extremism.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

c A resource of primitive mobility.

d A source of motion or action.

It were better to have no opinion of God at all, than such an opinion, as is

a Occurrence of calamities and disasters.

c Excess respect towards traditions.

d Excess of external and fake sanctitude.

a Collaterally and Equidistantly.

c Imperfectly but independently.

a sleep and dream science.

c organization of neuronal circuits.

d a blend of descriptive and narrative styles.

a The assumptions were wild guesses without any premise.

b The conclusions were drawn without thorough research.

c The suppositions were made without proper study and documentation.

d The theories were proposed on the basis of educated guesses.