1.

The time necessary to complete the project is referred to as

a. Implementation time
b. Life cycle
c. Operation cycle
d. Production cycle
2. In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
a. Conceptual
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Design
3. The cause of change that can not be managed by PM is
a. Technological uncertainty
b. Innovation
c. Change in environment
d. Increased client knowledge
4. PM will be also involved in making choice that require balancing is
a. Goals of the project
b. Goals of the firm
c. Both a and b
d. Goal of the resources
5. The chances of the successful completion of multidisciplinary project is
a. Very low
b. Below expected
c. High
d. Above expected
6. The PM must perceive sufficient technical knowledge to
a. Outsiders
b. Client
c. Senior executives
d. Both b and c
7. A -------- is the set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project
a. Project
b. Process
c. Project management
d. None of the above
8. Resources refers to
a. Manpower
b. Machinery
c. Material
d. All of the above
9. The project life consists of
a. Understanding the scope of the project
b. Objectives of the project
c. Formulation and planning for various activities
 d. All of the above
10. Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager
a. Budgeting and cost control
b. Allocating resources
c. Tracking project expenditure
d. All of the above
11. Design phase consists of
a. Input received
b. Output received
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
12. Project performance consists of
a. Time
b. Cost
c. Quality
d. All of the above
13. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?
a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
14. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?
a. Contract
b. email
c. Project status report
d. Status meeting
15. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure
the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for
quality will be exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are
fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between
customer expectations and budget.
16. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The project team.
b. The chief executive.
c. The project manager.
d. The project support office.
17. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:
a. To be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
b. To deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
c. To take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
 d. To delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team
leaders.
18. . A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. . Controls.
19. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.
20. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:
a. Inspection, testing and measurement.
b. Reviews and audits.
c. Fitness for purpose of deliverables.
d. Professionally-bound project reports.
21. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
a. Facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
b. Balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
c. Mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
d. Chunk work into time periods of similar durations.
22. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?
a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering
organisational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique
piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
d. A project is a method of planning work.
23. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?
a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
24. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
a. The project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
b. The project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
c. The project documentation must be disposed of.
d. The capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.
25. A key aspect of managing a project involves:
a. Defining which operational systems to put in place.
b. Identifying routine tasks.
c. Ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
d. Planning to achieve defined objectives.
26. The phases of a project life cycle are:
a. Starting, planning, control and closing.
b. Concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
c. Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
d. Concept, definition, implementation and operations.
27. Which one of the following best describes project management?
a. Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.
28. Project manager should be able to fulfill the role of :
a. Integrator
b. Functional manager
c. Line manager
d. Sponsor
29. The basic nature of project is a/an ------------
a. Permanent
b. Temporary
c. Both a and b
d. a or b
30. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
a.  Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
b. Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing
c. Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
d.  Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing
31. At the project competitions phase, the priority phase is
a. Performance
b. Schedule
c. Budget
d. Cost
32. Most of the people needed for a project must be borrowed by the PM from
a. Managerial departments
b. Functional departments
c. Manufacturing department
d. Marketing department
33. PMP stands for
a. Project Management Planning
b. Project Management Professionals
c. Project Management Process
d. Project Management Phases
34. Change in the required project performance is better known as
a. Scooping
b. Scoop creep
c. Scoop change
d. Scoop control
35. The ability to put many pieces of a task together to form a coherent whole, is the job of
a. Project Manager
b. Engineering Management
c. Functional Manager
d. Marketing Manager
36. Project selection models are of how many types?
a) 3 types
b) 2 types
c) 4 types
d) 5 types
Ans: a

37. Which decisions are required for selection of project?

a) Model decisions
b) Analysing decisions
c) Selection decisions
d) Data gathering decisions
Ans: c

38. Planning expenses which will influence the operation of a firm over a number of years is
called
a) Investment
b) Capital Budgeting
c) Net present value
d) Dividend valuation
Ans: b

39. The net present value is

a) The present value of all net cash flows that result from the project.
b) The present value of all revenues minus the present value of all costs that result from
the project.
c)  The present value of all future net cash flows that result from the project minus the
initial investment required to start the project.
d)  All of the above

Ans: d

40. Which models are designed to overcome the disadvantages of profitability models
a) Factoring models
b) Gradation models
c) Scoring models
d) Evaluation models
Ans: c
41. Project which involves a disruptive technology which is known to the industry that the
organization has been developing over time are:
a) Derivative projects
b) Platform projects
c) Breakthrough projects
d) R&D projects
Ans: c
42. In which step of project portfolio process the assessment of availability of internal and
external resources done?
a) Establish a project council
b) Identify project categories
c) Collect project data
d) Assess resource availability
43. Eliminating Project Portfolio process can lead to
a) Risk
b) Validity
c) Cost
d) Both A & C

44. Which of the following is non numeric model?

a) Payback period
b) Net Present Value
c) Operating necessity
d) Scoring model
Ans: c
45. The set of documents submitted for evaluation is called __________
a) Project Proposal
b) Project Portfolio
c) Project charter
d) Business case
Ans: a

46. Project charter is the agreement between project manager and the project sponsor
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
47. Which of the following statement is true about the Project Charter?
(a) It authorizes the existence of a project
(b) It is a bidding document
(c) It is used to rank the risks
(d) All of the above
Ans: a
48. The description of the products or services which need to be delivered by the project is
known as
a) Business case
b) Statement of work
c) Contract
d) None of above
Ans: b

49. Which document provides the information from the view point of business standpoint
a) Business case
b) Statement of work
c) Contract
d) Project charter
Ans: a
50. The ability to visualize, set and focus on achieving project objectives is known as
a) Long term goal
b) Short term goal
c) Goal setting
d) Project Charter
Ans: c
51. In your project, you identify a risk that, due to the possibility of the entrance of a new
supplier, may provide some components at a cheaper price. What kind of risk is this?
(a) Negative Risk
(b) Positive Risk
(c) Known Risk
(d) Secondary Risk
Ans: b

52. The items to be delivered from a project which includes reports & plans is known as
a) Non deliverables
b) Deliverables
c) Task assigned
d) Hierarchy planning
Ans: b

53. Who is responsible for basic product design and development as well as functional
analysis?
a) Contract Administrator
b) Support Service Manager
c) Project controller
d) Systems Architect
Ans: d
54. A project document that describes all the work which must be done to complete the
project is known as
a) Work boundary structure
b) Work break structure
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Work basic structure
Ans: c

55. What does the teams “Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing” relates to?
a) Root cause identification
b) Steps of brainstorming process
c) Stages of team growth
d) Process variation reduction and improvement phases
Ans: c

56. What type of team will have members with different skills or roles from different areas
within an organization?
a) Process
b) Parallel
c) Self-directed
d) Cross-functional
Ans: b

57. One of the sub process of risk management is

a) Risk Response
b) Risk analysis
c) Risk monitoring & controlling
d) All of the above
Ans: d

58. Who are responsible for identifying project risks?

a) Project team members
b) Project stakeholders
c) Project managers
d) Project sponsor
Ans: b
59. Which type of risk analysis uses probabilistic model for understanding and responding to
the risk
a) Quantitative risk analysis
b) Qualitative risk analysis
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
60. From following which is not Risk response strategy?
a) Accept or Ignore
b) Avoidance
c) Mitigate
d) Remove
Ans: d
61. Which of the following diagram looks like a fish skeleton?
a) Ishikawa diagram
b) Decision Tree
c) Tornado diagram
d) Data flow diagram
Ans: a
62. You have identified a large number of risks during your risk identification process. What
will be your next step?
(a) You will prioritize them using the Qualitative Risk Analysis process
(b) Go for the Quantitative Risk Analysis
(c) Assign the risk owner to each risk
(d) Calculate the contingency reserve
Ans: a
63. When is the risk and uncertainty in a project's life cycle at the highest?
a) Design
b) Implementation
c) Starting of the project
d) Closing of the project
Ans: c

64. Which of the following tools and techniques is not used in the process of Identify Risks?
a) Risk checklist analysis
b) Risk categorization
c) SWOT Analysis
d) Diagramming Techniques
Ans: b
65. If the probability of risk is 40% and impact is 4 then what would be the PI score of risk?
a) 1.8
b) 1.9
c) 1.6
d) 8.0
Ans: c
66. If accompany spends 100,000 to develop an application system and receives a net cash
return of 20,000 per year then what will be the payback period?
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
Ans: c
67. If the project development cost is 100,000 and it provides 115,000 in expected benefits
then what would be the Return On Investment?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 15%
Ans: d
68. A project costs 100,000 to implement and has annual cash inflow of 25,000. Calculate the
payback period for this. Also calculate NPV for the same for four years and a required
rate of return of 8 percent. Net cash flow is 65000, 75000,10000 and 10000 for year1,
year2, year3 & year4 respectively.
a) 39565
b) 39774
c) 38555
d) 40000

69. Define the work breakdown structure?

a. list of the activities making up the higher levels of the project
b. A definition of the hierarchy of project tasks, subtasks, and work packages
c. A depiction of the activities making up a project
d. A structure that is incompatible with the Critical Path Method

70. In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.

a. On all the activities.
b. On all the activities lying on the critical path
c. Only on activities lying on the original critical path and having flatter cost slopes
d. On original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the
order of ascending cost slope

71.  In resources leveling

a. Total duration of project is reduced
b. Total duration of project is increased
c. Uniform demand of resources is achieved
d. Cost of project is controlled

72. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence
follow
a. Normal distribution curve
b. Poisson's distribution curve
c. Beta distribution curve
d. None of the above
73. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding
and succeeding activities is known as
a. Total float
b. Free float
c. Interfering float
d.  Independent float

74. In the time-cost optimization, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of
the activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having
a. Longest duration
b. Highest cost slope
c. Least cost slope
d. Shortest duration

75. In CPM network the critical path denotes the

a. Path where maximum resource are used
b. Path where minimum resource are used
c. Path where delay of one activity prolongs the duration of completion of project
d. Path that gets monitored automatically.

76.

a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 24
77. In a Project network the critical path time is 17 days and variance of critical activities is
2.77, 0.11, and 0.11 respectively. The standard deviation of the projects is__________
a. 1.53
b. 1.63
c. 1.73
d. 1.83

78.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

79.

a. 0,0
b. 3,3
c. 0,4
d. 3,0
80.

a. 59.405
b. 69.405
c. 79.405
d. 89.405

81. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

a. Develop Project Management Plan process
b. Estimate Cost process
c. Determine Budget process
d. Control Cost process

82.

a. 1,3 and 4
b. 1and 2
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
83.

a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A

84. Which is NOT true about Analogous Cost Estimating?

a. Uses Expert Judgment
b. Used when reference projects are similar
c. Does not require high expertise on part of estimators as estimates are based on previous
projects
d. Useful in early phases of the project.

85. The process of calculating the resource requirement of a project is known as

a. Scheduling
b. coordinating
c. Resource aggregation
d. Resource leveling

86. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
a. 10
b. 15
c. 12
d. Cannot be determined

87. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19,
and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
a. 11
b. 10
c. 18
d. Cannot be determined
88. The standard deviation for a PERT diagram is calculated 
a. taking the sum of the standard deviations on all the nodes.
b. taking the sum of the standard deviations on the nodes on the critical path
c. taking the sum of the variances on the nodes on the critical path, then find the square root.
d. taking the sum of the variance on all the nodes, then find the square root

89. The Gantt Chart is used to

a. control cost of all the activities.

b. track the cost of the activities.

c. provide a schedule of the activities .

d. provide a schedule and track costs of activities.

90. What process may help keeping estimations realistic through whole project?
a. Constant process improvement
b. Applying preventive actions
c. Supporting changes.
d. Periodic re-estimation.

91. While determining budget a project manager uses _____ processes.

a. Planning
b. Controlling
c. Executing
d. Communication

92. What action should try first for decreasing estimation of cost and/or time?
a. Increasing time and budget
b. Reasonable cut of project scope
c. Reducing or eliminating the risks
d. Increasing thresholds tolerance
93.

a. Activity C can begin as soon as activity B is complete.

b. Activity D can begin as soon as both activities A and B are complete
c. Activity D can begin as soon as both activities A and C are complete.
d. Activity C can begin as soon as activity A is complete.

94. A project manager did good work and prepared an accurate work breakdown structure.
What type of techniques is used for detailed estimating of an available activities or work
package, which then rolled up into control accounts and after into overall project
estimate?

a. Top-down estimating
b. Parametric estimating.
c. Bottom-up estimating
d. Analogous estimating

95. What is a PMIS?

a. Primary Management Incentive System
b. Property Management Information System
c. Project Management Information System
d. Project Management Incentive System

96. If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to record
student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an

a. CRM
b. Intranet
c. ERP
d. Extranet
 97. Which one of the following networks is correctly drawn? 

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

98. A project has four activities P, Q, R and S as shown below.

ActivityNormal duration (days)PredecessorCost slope (Rs./day)

P 3 - 500
Q 7 P 100
R 4 P 400
S 5 R 200
The normal cost of the project is Rs. 10,000/- and the overhead cost is Rs. 200/- per day. If the
project duration has to be crashed down to 9 days, the total cost (in Rupees) of the project is
______

a. 12490 to 12510
b. 13490 to 13510
c. 14490 to 14510
d. 15490 to 15510
99. Project execution (or implementation) is the phase in which the plan designed in the prior
phases of the ________________ is put into action.
a. Project life
b. Initiative phase
c. Closing phase
d. All of the above
100. Monitoring is about assessing what work has been completed for a
_________________________.
a. Task
b. Programme or project including costs, risks and issues.
c. Closing
d. None of the above

101. Involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service

a. Fixed-price or lump-sum

b. Total cost

c. Half cost

d. All of the above

102. he buyer pays the seller for allowable performance costs plus a predetermined fee
and an incentive bonus
a. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

b. Project cost

c. Other cost

d. None of the above

103. A _______________is a description of the work required for the procurement

a. statement of work

b. work

c. Time

d. All of the above

104. _______________are legal relationships, so it is important that legal and
contracting professionals be involved in writing and administering contracts
a. Quality

b. Resourse

c. Contracts

d. All of the above

105. _______________________ identify lessons learned in the procurement process.

a. Procurement audits

b. Process

c. Internal

d. None of the above

106. A ____________________ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one

side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the
other.
a. Risk

b. Contract

c. probability/impact matrix or chart

d. All of the above

107. A _____________ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the

best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
a. decision tree

b. Search Tree

c. a & b

d. None of the above

108. __________________ documenting product requirements and identifying
potential sources
Solicitation: obtaining quotations, bids, offers, or proposals as appropriate

a. Planning
b. Quotations
c. Solicitation planning
d. All of the above

109. ____________________involves identifying which project needs can be best met

by using products or services outside the organization.
a. Procurement planning
b. Initiative
c. Start phase
d. All of the above

110. _______________________Determining the information and communications

needs of the stakeholders
a. Planning
b. Completeness
c. Communications planning
d. All of the above

111. ________________describe what the project team has accomplished during a

certain period of time.
a. Progress reports
b. Fix report
c. Other report
d. None of the above

112. _____________predict future project status and progress based on past

information and trends.
a. Forecasts
b. Other communication
c. A & B
d. None of the above

113. _____________describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.

a. Fix Report
b. Status reports
c. Progress Report
d. All of the above
114. __________________Identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities,
and reporting relationships
a. Human resource planning:
b. Contact planning
c. Source planning
d. None of the above.

115. Tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely
feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance
project performance.
a. Team
b. Resource
c. Conflict
d. Managing the project team:

116. _________________causes people to participate in an activity for their own

enjoyment.
a. People
b. Intrinsic motivation
c. Cost
d. All of the above

117. Achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, advancement, and

growth. These factors produce job satisfaction.
a. Motivational factors
b. Other factor
c. Cost factor
d. None of the above

118. The project manager's perceived ability to influence a worker's later work
assignments.
a. Power
b. Cost
c. Assignment
d. Time