A320 Tech Questions : Shantilal - Joshi

A320 TECH
QUESTIONS…………
shantilal.joshi
Version 11.01
Disclaimer
This document is for training purpose only.

Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict.
amit.singh@goindigo.in
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AIRCON / PRESSURIZATION SYSTEMS
1. Under what conditions, Pack Flow Control Valve will close automatically?
2. What is the RAM AIR P/B for? When is it used?

3. What is the limitation for opening the RAM AIR inlet?
4. What are the conditions in which Hot Air Fault light comes?
5. If Hot Air Press Reg. valve fails in open condition, what happens? What you are
supposed to do, if in flight?
6. If Hot Air Press Reg. valve fails in closed condition, what happens? What you are
supposed to do, if in flight?
7. How many trim air valves are fitted and what do they do?
8. If cockpit trims air valve has failed in open position, which of the warnings will be
generated?
9. What are the three supply zones for conditioned air?
10. What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted in the cockpit?
11. What is ACSC and what does it do?
12. On which of the ECAM pages, the packs’ parameters are shown? What are they?
13. On ECAM COND page, two temperature values are shown. What is the meaning of it?
14. The ram air inlet flaps, {for the ACM heat exchangers}, automatically close under two
conditions regardless of heat exchanger requirements. What are those two
conditions? Where can you see them during walk-around inspection?
15. Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?
16. Name the important components of the Air conditioning system?
AIRCONDITION / PRESSURIZATION Page 2 of 46

1. How many modes of pressurization exist on A320?

2. In auto mode of operation, what will be the max cabin altitude if system is functioning
normal?
3. If pilot suspects that the selected controller is malfunctioning, how can he change the
controller {CPC}, while operating pressurization in AUTO?
4. When will CPC changeover take place automatically?
5. If one cabin pressure controller fails, how is pressurization maintained? What ECAM
Caution will be generated?
6. If Cabin Pressurization is in Auto, and if you have to push open Emer. RAM AIR, what
happens to the Out Flow Valve?
7. What happens to the outflow valve if the MODE SEL switch is in MAN?
8. If you increase Cabin V/S {when pressurization in MAN Mode}, what happens to the
Out-Flow Valve?
9. While in MAN Mode, how do you increase the cabin ALT?
10. By increasing cabin altitude in flight, what happens to Cabin Diff Pressure? Will it
increase or decrease?
11. What is the role of Safety Valves?
12. How many safety valves are fitted on A320?
13. What do you understand by negative differential pressure?
14. With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, which reference altitude is used for landing field
pressurization?
15. With the LDG ELEV selector at 1, what would be the landing elevation?
16. What is RPCU? What are the logic conditions for RPCU to open the Out Flow Valve?
17. What happens when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON?
18. “Cabin V/S” info is displayed on three ECAM pages. Which are those?
19. When will V/S pulse in green?
20. When will Diff press pulse in green?
21. When will Diff press become amber?
22. When does CAB ALT become red?
23. Can Out flow valve indication become amber? When?
24. Name the important components of Pressurization?

Ventilation system:
1. What happens when you press Blower P/B to OVRD?
2. What happens when you press Extract P/B to OVRD?
3. What will happen when you press both Blower & Extract P/B to OVRD? Name some
situations when you have to push both Blower & Extract p/b to OVRD?
4. What happens when Blower Fan stops on ground with engines shut down?
5. What indications are given on the ventilation panel, if smoke is detected in the
avionics ventilation duct?
6. What is the Avionics Ventilation System configuration once you apply take-off power?

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
1. How will you identify if

a) FMGS is operating in Independent Mode?
b) FMGS is operating in single Mode?
2. Which of the FMGCs is master if:

a) Only FD1 is on?
b) Only FD2 is on?
c) Both FDs {1+2} are on?
d) Both FDs and AP1 are on?
e) Both FDs and AP2 are on?
f) Both FDs and both APs are on?
3. If no AP/FD is engaged, which FMGC controls the A/THR?
4. What do you understand by Back–Up Navigation Mode?
5. Is Back-Up Navigation mode available on all of the IndiGo aircrafts?
6. Which features of the flight management are available if a/c is in Back-Up navigation
mode?
7. In flight with dual FMGCs failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?
8. What is the meaning of following annunciators on MCDU?
{These annunciators are on the LH / RH sides of the keyboard}
a) FAIL,
b) MCDU MENU,
c) FM
9. What is the meaning of following annunciators on MCDU?

{These annunciators are on the top of the MCDU}
a) FM1,
b) IND,
c) RDY,
d) FM2
10. What is the indication for a failed MCDU?

11. What does a blank MCDU indicate?
12. What does a *MCDU LSK prompt mean?
13. What are the Flight Guidance functions of FMGS?
14. What are the Flight Management functions of FMGS?
15. What are the Flight Augmentation functions of FMGS?
Based on which mode of AP/FD is engaged in pitch column of FMA, A/THR mode will
get engaged in SPD/MACH or fixed thrust. It is not necessary that in climb, A/THR will
always be in THR CLB or in descent; A/THR will be in THR IDLE modes.
Speed of the a/c is controlled either by AP/FD Pitch channel or by A/THR based on the
vertical mode {pitch mode} engaged in FMA.
AUTO FLIGHT Page 5 of 46

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
16. Which are those AP/FD pitch modes, when A/THR maintains SPEED / MACH mode?
{i.e. You will see SPEED / MACH in FMA 1 col.}
17. Name the AP/FD pitch modes in which A/THR maintain THR CLB Mode?
18. Name the AP /FD pitch modes in which A/THR maintain THR IDLE Mode?
19. If both AP/FDs are disengaged, what will be A/THR mode?
20. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, in which mode will the A/THR
engage?
21. If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged, the A/THR mode will revert to SPD/MACH mode.
22. When are the pitch and roll bars visible?
23. When both FDs engaged, how is it shown on FMA in 5th col.?
24. If FD #1 is disengaged after engaging both FDs, what will FMA show in 5th col.?
25. If FD #2 is disengaged after engaging both FDs, what will FMA show in 5th col.?
26. If FD #1 fails when both FDs were ON, what will FMA show in 5th col.?
{Same is valid when FMGC#1 also fails or invalid.}
27. When will Pitch FD bar flash permanently?
28. When will Roll FD bar flash permanently?
29. What indications will appear when AP gets disconnected due system failure?
30. What indications will appear if you disconnect AP intentionally by pressing Take-over
P/B?
31. What indications will appear if you disconnect AP intentionally by pressing AP p/b on
FCU?
32. What does FMA read while taxi-out, in normal situations?
33. If NAV is disarmed by selecting HDG PRESELECT while taxied-out, what will FMA read?
Under this scenario, on reaching ACCL ALT, which mode will engage for pitch?
34. For Take off, when thrust levers are set at TOGA gate {with FDs ON and V2 defined on
PERF TAKE OFF page}, what does FMA read?
35. What is SRS speed guidance during T/O with both engines working?
36. What is SRS speed guidance during T/O in single engine?
37. Does SRS mode provide any protection apart from providing speed guidance?
What are these?
38. When will SRS disengage automatically after T/O in case of both engines working?
39. When will SRS disengage automatically after T/O in case of single engine?
40. What is SRS speed guidance during G/Around with both engines working?
41. What is SRS speed guidance during G/Around in single engine?
42. What will FMA read during Go-Around?
43. When will SRS disengage automatically after Go-Around in case of both engines
working?
44. When will SRS disengage automatically after Go-Around in case of single engine?
45. When does the RWY mode engage?
46. When does the RWY TRK mode engage?
47. How can you cancel the HDG /TRK PRESET?

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
48. What is the Speed profile when NAV is not used in a particular flight completely?
49. What is the Speed profile when NAV mode is engaged?
50. What are the conditions in which NAV mode will engage?
51. How to disengage the NAV Mode?
52. How to disarm NAV Mode?
53. Is it true that if you press LOC P/B to arm LOC Mode, NAV Mode will disarm but if NAV
was engaged, and then if you press LOC, NAV remains engaged?
54. After reaching 30 feet after take-off, what changes takes place on FMA?
55. On reaching ACCL ALT, what changes take place on FMA?
56. If you pull out ALT knob, what will happen if you were in managed climb?
57. In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is above profile, what is A/THR mode and what
does A/P pitch channel control?
58. In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is below profile, what is A/THR mode and what
does A/P pitch channel control?
59. What is the meaning of vertical deviation VDEV shown on the PROGRESS page?
60. When in climb, if you press EXPEDITE P/B, What will happen?
61. When in Descend, if you press EXPEDITE P/B, What will happen?
What are the indications on the FMA?
62. How will you disengage “EXPEDITE” mode?
63. During EXPED descent, if ATC asks you to maintain a lower speed and if you select the
speed by pulling SPD/MACH selector, what changes take place and what will FMA
show in that case?
64. What happens when a/c speed drops below VLS while descending with OP DES {with
no AP but both FDs engaged and A/THR on}?
65. What happens when a/c speed goes above VMAX while climbing in OP CLB {with no AP
but both FDs engaged and A/THR on}?
66. You are descending with OP DES.
FMA is reading THR IDLE / OP DES / NAV /--- /1FD2, A/THR white
What happens to THR IDLE mode of A/THR if a/c speed drops below VLS?
67. You are climbing with OP CLB.
FMA is reading THR CLB / OP CLB / NAV /--- /1FD2, A/THR white
What happens to THR CLB mode of A/THR if a/c speed increases above VMAX?
68. What do you mean by mode reversion?
69. In climb, if you set FCU altitude below current a/c altitude, what will happen?
70. In descend, if you set FCU altitude above current a/c altitude, what will happen?
71. You are climbing with THR CLB / CLB / NAV engaged on FMA. ATC advises you to come
on a heading. By selecting heading, what will happen?
72. You are descending with THR IDLE / DES / NAV engaged on FMA. ATC advises you to
come on a heading. By selecting heading, what will happen?
73. When will you see “CHECK APPR GUIDANCE” message on MCDU?
74. On pressing”APPR” pushbutton, G/S* can not engage if LOC* is not engaged.
75. Once on ILS {LOC + G/S engaged}, ILS approach can be discontinued by pressing APPR
P/b, if a/c is above 400 ft {by pressing APPR P/B.}

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
76. Once on ILS {LOC + G/S engaged},if LOC or G/S signal is lost for more than 7 seconds
and above 200ft RA, AP/FD disengages and FDs reengage in basic modes of {HDG V/S
or TRK FPA}
77. LAND Mode engages automatically when LOC and G/S Modes are engaged, and the a/c
is below 400 feet RA. No action on FCU will disengage LAND Mode.
78. LAND Mode disengages upon engagement of Go-Around Mode or if both AP/FDs are
disengaged.
79. What will happen if there is a complete loss of ILS when LOC & G/S modes were
engaged with one AP & both FDs ON?
80. What would cause a red AUTOLAND light to illuminate below 200'?
81. When the roll bar is replaced by Yaw bar?
82. During the ROLL OUT mode of an autoland approach, how is nose wheel steering
controlled?
83. What are the conditions to engage Go Around mode?
84. When will you say that A/THR is “Active”?
85. What is the range of thrust levers where A/THR is active?
86. What does A/THR System perform when A/THR is active?
87. What happens if both thrust levers are set above CL detent in case of both engines?
88. After Take-Off, once out of thrust reduction altitude, if you bring back the thrust levers
to below CLB gate, what will happen?
89. When will you see “LVR ASYM” amber message?
90. You are about to perform a Take- Off but you realize that you have not inserted FLEX
temperature. Can you still take off?
91. While a/c in cruise, with the thrust lever in CLB gate, A/THR disconnects on its own.
What will happen and what warning/message will be shown?
92. What is the meaning of “THR LK {flashing}”?
93. Review the warnings / cautions when A/THR is disconnected by using instinctive
disconnect p/b?
94. Review the warnings / cautions when A/THR is disconnected due some system failure?
95. What will happen if A/THR is disconnected by pressing instinctive p/b for more than 15
seconds?
96. If thrust levers are brought to idle when A/THR was active, what happens?
97. When will “A-FLOOR” be annunciated?
98. When will “TOGA LK” be annunciated and how to cancel TOGA Lock?
99. What do you mean by “APPROACH AUTOTHRUST”?
100. With auto thrust active, what is the upper limit of the EPR target?
101. In which of the situations, Alpha-Floor protection is lost?
102. What are the conditions when low energy warning (SPEED, SPEED, SPEED) will get
activated?
103. What are the conditions when “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” warnings are
displayed on both PFDs?
104. Is it true that there is no ECAM when
a) Windshear warnings are activated?
b) Low Energy warnings are activated?

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
c) ILS capability is downgraded?

d) Mode Reversion take place?
e) GPS Primary is lost?
105. Must the flight director be on for the wind shear function of the FAC's to operate
normally?
106. What is the minimum value which you can feed for Thrust reduction altitude (THR RED
ALT) on Take-Off PERF page?
107. How to Update the FMGC position in flight?
108. If GPS function is lost, is navigation accuracy immediately downgraded?
109. A GO-Around has been carried out without setting thrust levers to TOGA position.
What is the effect of this on the flight plan?
110. What does the drift shown for the each IR on the last of the POSN MONITOR page
indicate?
111. When will Temporary F-Plan display automatically?
112. Can you change COST INDEX on DESCENT Page?
113. VOR APPR is selected on ARRIVAL page, ILS is tuned on RAD NAV page, what happens if
APPR push button is pressed?
114. What is the meaning of red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”?
115. What is the meaning of amber “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”?
116. When do you get “CHECK WEIGHT MESSAGE”? What are you supposed to do if current
gross weight on the MCDU is correct?
117. What will you do, if during cockpit preparation, you get “AUTO FLT AUTO THR OFF”
message on ECAM?
118. In flight, you see that MCDU on F/O side is locked. What will you do?
119. What is the procedure if MCDU is frozen after you access “DIR TO” function?
120. What will you do if just after descent you get a message” CABIN RATE EXCEEDED”?
121. When do you get “ALIGN IRS” and what is your action?
122. What to do if you get a message”F-PLN FULL”?
123. How to get back to standard F-PLN when aircraft enters into F-PLN discontinuity?
124. What is the restriction about CSTR optional key?
125. In ROSE NAV mode, what does a continuous green line indicate?
126. What does an amber box on the MCDU screen indicate?
127. If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing?
128. If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind coming
from?
129. When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page? Only required if on
Final W/B.
130. During take-off, both FDs failed.
a) What will FMA show if you were taking off with TOGA?
b) Will A/THR remain armed?
c) Will LVR CLB flash at thrust reduction altitude?
d) In which mode A/THR will engage when you move thrust levers to CLB detent?
e) At acceleration altitude, will target speed change?

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEMS
131. Mark True / False about Alpha-Floor protection for each sentence:
A. When Alpha-floor protection is activated, thrust will be set to TOGA value irrespective of
any thrust lever position.
B. Alpha-floor protection is available from lift-off until a/c reaches 100 RA in approach.
C. In case of single engine, alpha-floor is available only in CONFIG 0 and alpha-floor is not
available when slats / flaps are extended.
132. Mark True / False about wind-shear detection function for each sentence:
A. Wind shear function is available at takeoff 3secs after liftoff until 1300 feet. It is not
available just after T/O.
B. At landing, it available from 1300 RA to 50 FT.
C. At least CONFIG 1 is required for this function to be available..
133. With DES mode engaged and you extend speed brakes, descent rate of a/c will
increase only if a/c is above profile…. True/false
134. OP DES disregards all altitude constraints…..true/false
135. OP DES disregards all constraints including speed…….false/true
136. Pulling out V/S Knob or ALT Knob will disengage the EXPED mode…true/false
137. Pushing EXPED knob again will not disengage the mode….true/false
138. In hand flying { FDs On but AP off}, if a/c speed goes beyond VMAX+4, both FDs will
disengage and A/THR will revert to SPEED if active and reduce the thrust to recover the
speed.
Same way, during descend, In hand flying {FDs On but AP off}, if a/c speed goes below
VLS-2 kts, both FDs will disengage and A/THR will revert to SPEED if active and reduce
the thrust to recover the speed.
What happens during climb, when speed drops below VLS due to high V/S and V/S
mode engaged?
139. What happens during descend when speed increases above Vmax due to high V/S and
V/S mode engaged?
140. On what basis, FMGC computes its own automatic landing capabilities? e.g CAT1,
CAT2, CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL
141. Why OP DES is not to be used for final approach?
142. What are the two ways to engage the OP DES?
One by pulling out ALT selector
In EXPED DES mode, if a speed is selected, OP DES will get engaged.
143. ATC clears you to descend from FL 390 to FL210 and asks you to expedite. As such you
use EXPED DES mode. Around passing FL 240, ATC asks you to slow down to 260 kt.
When you select Speed to 260kt on FCU,
This will cause FMA to change to THR IDLE / OP DES/ HDG
This will cause FMA to change to SPEED / VS / HDG
144. What, in general, is Ground Speed Mini?

COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS
1. Which components of the radio communication system will still be available in the
EMER ELEC CONFIG?
2. Which ECAM is going to be triggered if any push–to–talk {PTT} transmission selector is

jammed in transmit position?
{VHF has an alarm to indicate that the microphone is stuck in emission position for
more than 30 seconds, an interrupted tone sounds for 5 seconds and the emission is
turned off. It gets active once crew releases the PTT P/B and presses again}
3. If CIDS 1+2 FAULT is triggered on ECAM after engine start, what is inoperative in
communication system? What are the consequences? What will be your actions?
4. When GND HF DATALINK is at OVRD, what happens?
5. Which radio systems are dedicated for ACARS?
6. RMP3 is able to control VHF & HF TX/RX through RMP1 and RMP2 even if they are OFF.
Is it true?
7. The last selected radio freq remains in active window if RMP comes back on line after
power off. Is it true?
8. How would you recognize a failed RMP, and what actions should be taken? Can all
comm. Radios still be tuned from the remaining RMPs?
9. What is the meaning of SEL light?
10. If you tune HF2 from RMP1, will the SEL light be on? If yes, then on which RMPs?
11. Mechanic will communicate with the cockpit crew with the help of service interphone
jack during Engine Start in “Start Valve not Opening Procedure”.
Which transmission key on the ACP will be selected?
Which reception key on the ACP will be selected?
12. What is the use of switching ON of the SVCE INT OVRD pb sw?
Who can communicate through the service interphone system?
13. ATT legend on ACP flashes green and buzzer sounds for a call from cabin crew
member. The ATT light goes off after 60 seconds if it is not reset. Is it true?
14. What are the indications in the cockpit and cabin, when EMER CALL is initiated from
cabin to cockpit? How to reset it?
15. What are the indications in the cockpit and cabin when EMER CALL is initiated from
cockpit to cabin? How will it reset?
16. If you want to receive DME audio navigation signal associated with ILS, LS p/b on FCU
has also to be selected. Is it true?
17. Is it possible to switch off aural alert and voice messages using the loudspeaker knob?
Loudspeaker volume knob adjusts the level for radio communications. This knob does
not control the loudness of aural alert and voice messages.
18. If a PA announcement has to be made with the help of cockpit handset, no action is
required on ACPs….true?
19. The F/O’s ACP has failed, what are the required actions?
20. F/O’s RMP has failed. What are the implications?
COMMUNICATIONS Page 11 of 46
COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS
21. What are the EMER EVAC indications in the cockpit and in the cabin when initiated
from cockpit?
22. What are the EMER EVAC indications in the cockpit and in the cabin when initiated
from cabin with CAPT & CAPT / PURS Selector in CAPT position?
23. How is CVR energized?
24. How long is the CVR recording time?
25. For CVR testing, what should be the position of the Parking Brake?
26. How will you do the test for CVR on VT-IGU?
27. The Oxygen mask microphone activates when the mask is withdrawn from its stowage;
however, when the mask is no longer required, how is its microphone de-activated?
COMMUNICATIONS Page 12 of 46
ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
1. There are four sources of AC power: GEN1, GEN2, APU GEN, & EXT PWR.
What is the normal priority of supply for AC BUS1?
2. After no 2 engine start, which generator is powering AC BUS 1?
{Consider APU GEN on- line.}
3. In flight, GEN 1 has failed and there is no APU. Which generator is powering AC Bus 1?
4. Name the different AC bus bars?
5. Name the different DC Bus bars?
6. What is TR?
7. Normally, how the TRs supply the electrical network?
8. If in a flight, both TR1 & TR2 are lost, which buses are lost?
9. Normally, ESS TR does not supply a/c electrical network. True or False?
10. Name any three abnormal / emergency conditions in which ESS TR is supplying DC ESS
Bus?
11. What is the function of static inverter? And to which BUS will it supply?
12. What does the amber FAULT light in BAT P/B indicate?
13. If the BAT pushbuttons are in AUTO position overnight without any other power, will
the batteries discharge completely?
14. If automatic cutoff has occurred, how can the crew re-establish battery power?
15. If the battery switches are at AUTO, when will batteries be connected to the DC BAT
BUS?
16. Prior to the first flight of the day, what should the battery voltage be?
17. During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is
below 25.5 volts?
18. What is the meaning of green AVAIL light in EXT PWR p/b?
19. What is the meaning of blue ON light in EXT PWR p/b?
20. If both engines are started at the gate using external electrical power, will blue ON
light in EXT PWR p/b extinguish automatically after engine start?
21. Can the APU generator power all the buses in flight?
22. In flight, you get an ECAM, ELECT IDG1 OIL PR LO. As per the checklist, you have to
disconnect IDG1. What are the cautions you will follow while disconnecting the IDG?
a) How will you know that IDG is disconnected?
b) In the above situations, how AC BUS 1 is powered?
c) Is Main Galley still powered in this situation?
d) Can you start APU and use its GEN in the above case?
e) Can this IDG be reconnected in flight if required?
23. IDG label is normally displayed in white on ELECT page. Under what conditions, this
turns into amber in color?
ELECTRICAL Page 13 of 46
ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
24. What happens if GEN 2 also fails while GEN 1 is not available as its IDG is disconnected
in flight? Consider APU not available.
Or
If both main AC buses are lost with airspeed above 100 knots, what will happen?
25. What does the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated?
26. What is the difference when you extend RAT manually from HYD panel and from EMER
ELEC Panel?
27. Which buses are supplied by EMER GEN?
28. In case of ELECT EMER CONFIG, what are the important systems that are lost? Name
any five.
29. What is the main difference in ELECT EMER CONFIG due to failure of both AC BUS1 and
AC BUS2 & ELECT EMER CONFIG due to smoke?
30. What is the meaning of SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE p/b?
31. If you put GEN 1 LINE p/b off, what happens? When do you have to switch off GEN1
LINE to OFF?
32. What is the normal source of power for AC ESS BUS?
33. What is the meaning of FAULT light in the AC ESS FEED p/b?
34. Which buses are powered if GEN 1 fails when DC TIE p/b is OFF?
35. What is the AUTO function of the GALLEY p/b? Or when is the main galley power
automatically shed?
36. What is so special about green colored CBs?
37. ELECT DC BAT BUS FAULT has appeared on ECAM. What are the consequences?
38. In a flight, Electrical page has appeared on S/D and you see IDG temp is pulsing. What do you
think of this situation? What will be your actions?
ELECTRICAL Page 14 of 46
FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
1. How many fire loops are installed on each Engine and on APU?
2. Where are the engine fire loops installed?
3. If there is a fault in one of the loops, will fire detection be affected?
4. You are cruising and you get ECAM caution of ENG 1 LOOP A FAULT. What did you
loose? Is fire detection on ENG 1 available?
5. If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will
happen?
6. When will fire warnings for engine be triggered?
7. If you get an ECAM of ENG 1 FIRE DET FAULT, is fire detection available for no 1
Engine?
8. How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?
9. What action arms the engine fire extinguishing squibs?
10. When you push Eng Fire P/B, what happens?
11. How do you know that an engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged?
12. Why there is a 10 seconds delay in firing first agent in case of engine fire checklist in
flight? Why there is no such delay if there is fire in engine on ground?
13. If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?
14. If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and
extinguish the fire?
15. Is there any difference between APU fire on ground and in flight?
16. How many fire loops are installed on APU for fire detection?
17. How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for fighting APU fire?
18. Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running?
19. What external indications may be received in the event of an APU fire while on the
ground?
20. Name the components of the APU fire detection system?
21. How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?
22. Is it true that the FWD + AFT Cargo has a common fire extinguishing system and it
caters for one cargo only?
23. Explain cargo smoke detection system installed on IndiGo a/c?
24. In case of FWD cargo smoke,
Once you discharge agent 1, how will you know that 1st bottle is discharged?
When do you have to discharge second bottle?
When you discharge second bottle, what happens? How will you know that 2nd
bottle is discharged?
25. In the case of an ECAM of SMOKE FWD CARGO BTL1 FAULT, what did you loose?
26. If a cargo smoke detector fails, does that render the system inoperative?
27. How many cargo smoke detectors must sense smoke to issue a warning?
FIRE PROTECTION Page 15 of 46

FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
28. In case of an ECAM appearing for FWD CARGO SMOKE on ground, what is important to
note?
29. What are the indications of avionics smoke?
30. Does avionics compartment has a fire extinguishing system?
FIRE PROTECTION Page 16 of 46

FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. Which of the spoiler surfaces are the speed brake surfaces?

2. If a/c is dispatched with SEC1 inoperative {under MEL}, then which of the flight control
surfaces are not available for you in flight?
3. Which of the flight controls are lost, if ELAC 1+2 are lost?
4. Which of the flight control surfaces are lost, if G + Y are lost?
5. Which of the Flt/controls are lost, if FAC 1+2 are lost?
6. Do you agree that there is no flight control available if you loose all the three
hydraulics?
7. What happens to the extended speed brakes when CONFIG FULL is selected?
8. What are the conditions in which Speed Brakes get retracted automatically?
9. What happens to the symmetric surface on the other wing, when a speed brake
surface (on one wing) fails?
10. When does SPD BRK memo turn amber?
11. What is the new procedure if there is F/CTL SPOILER FAULT and one spoiler is indicated
deflected in amber?
12. What are the logic conditions for ground spoiler extension to occur during RTO?
13. What are the logic conditions for full ground spoiler extension to occur during landing?
14. Partial ground spoiler extension can also occur during landing. What are the
conditions?
15. When will extension of ground spoilers take place, if ground spoilers were not armed
before landing?
16. How to retract the extended spoilers?
17. Is it true that the Rudder deflection is a function of speed?
18. Name the protections available in Normal Law?
19. Mark it True or False..
..That when a/c is in Normal Law, computers will prevent excessive maneuvers and
exceedance of the safe envelope in Pitch & Roll axis only. Rudder has no such
protections.
20. Explain the Load Factor Protection?
21. Explain the Pitch Attitude protection?
22. Explain the High Angle of Attack protection?
23. What happens when angle of attack becomes greater than α-Prot?
24. What is α-max?
25. What is the High Speed protection when a/c is in Normal Law?
26. What are the protections available when a/c is in alternate pitch law?
27. Are there any protections in Direct Law?
28. What are the indications on PFD when a/c is in Direct Law?
29. What is the meaning of PFD displaying a message in red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”?
FLIGHT CONTROLS Page 17 of 46

FLIGHT CONTROLS
30. If the flight controls degrade to alternate law, what will happen when the landing gear
is extended (if no autopilots are engaged?)
31. Is automatic pitch trim available in alternate law?
32. Is hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?
33. When both side sticks are operated simultaneously, is the sum of the side stick inputs
limited to Normal law deflection limits?
34. What would result if both side sticks were moved at the same time during flight with
the autopilot OFF?
35. What are the indications when both side sticks are moved simultaneously?
36. What is the meaning of SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light?
37. How does the crew know whose side stick has priority?
38. If takeover p/b is pressed for more than 3 seconds, what are the indications in the
cockpit?
39. If takeover p/b is pressed for more than 40 seconds, what are the indications in the
cockpit?
40. If the takeoff configuration is 1+F and the pilot does not select configuration 0 after
takeoff, what will happen?
41. On approach when Config 1 is selected, what flaps/slats combination is received?
42. Which computers control Slats operation?
43. Which computers control Flaps operation?
44. What do you understand by an ECAM of F/CTL SLATS FAULT?
45. What do you understand by an ECAM of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT?
46. If one SFCC is lost, which of the flight controls are lost? What are the consequences of
one SFCC failure?
47. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Flaps inoperative?
48. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Slats inoperative?
49. Can the rudder be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged?
50. Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination
functions?
51. When will Wingtip Brakes get activated?
52. If the WTBs lock the flap or slat surfaces and prevent further movement, can the
remaining surfaces be extended?
53. What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system?
54. What are the maximum winds for automatic approach, landing, and roll out?
55. What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate?
56. How many ELAC computers do we have, and what are their functions?
57. How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?
58. Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?
59. Which control surfaces are controlled by the FACs computers?
FLIGHT CONTROLS
60. What are the functions of FAC computer?

61. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative?
62. Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws and the aircraft
remain in Normal Laws?
63. What is the warning if both L & R elevator Fault occurs in flight?
64. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight?
65. When does ‘PITCH TRIM’ indication become amber on F/CTL page?
66. What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the
ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing?
67. What are the effects of Slats ALPHA SPEED lock function?
68. When does “ALPHA SPEED LOCK” appear?
69. What happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET p/b when AP is engaged?

FUEL
1. What is the total fuel capacity of the A320?

2. What is the type of fuel used for IndiGo A320?
3. What is the normal fuel feed sequencing?
4. During gravity feed, which tank fuel is used?
5. Why gravity feeding is not possible from center tank?
6. What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the left and right wing tanks (outer +
inner) for the A320?
7. How will you know that center tanks are supplying engines?
8. When there is a fuel in center tank with wing tanks full, why do you get CTR TK FEEDG
memo during engine start {MODE SEL at AUTO}?
9. What happens to the center tank pumps when SLATS are extended after engine start,
when there is a fuel in center tank with wing tanks full (mode selector at AUTO)?
10. If all criteria for center tank fuel usage have been met, when will the center tank
pumps resume supplying after takeoff?
11. After takeoff, “CTR TK FEEDG” appears on the E/WD. When did the center tank fuel
begin feeding the engines?
12. How can you know that the cross feed valve is fully open?
13. How will you detect a fuel leak?
14. When and how the fuel is normally transferred from the outer to inner wing tanks?
15. What are the indications when fuel from outer tank gets transferred to inner tank?
16. During the descent “OUTER TK FUEL XFRD” appears. What causes this memo to
appear?
17. What is the “Fuel Recirculation System”?
18. If the fuel pumps in the left fuel tank were OFF, how would the APU obtain fuel?
19. When do you get FAULT light in MODE SEL p/b for FUEL?
20. What care do you have to take when applying “GRVTY FUEL FEEDING” Procedure?
21. During flight an ECAM caution of FUEL L INNER TK LO TEMP is triggered. What are the
crew actions?
22. How about crew actions if same caution is triggered but in outer tank?
23. What is the meaning of ECAM caution titled as FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT?
24. If CTR TK PUMPS keep running after slats extension, which ECAM will be triggered?
25. On FUEL ECAM page, if you see FOB half boxed in amber, what is the meaning?
26. On FUEL ECAM page, if you see an amber line appearing across the last two digits for
FOB, what is the meaning? Which procedure has to be applied?
27. On FUEL ECAM page, if you see fuel quantity indication boxed in amber, what is the
meaning?
28. On FUEL ECAM page, if you see an amber line appearing across the last two digits for
fuel quantity, what is the meaning? Which procedure has to be applied?
29. Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
30. FOB on FUEL ECAM Page is boxed amber when quantity shown is not fully usable.
When can this happen?
FUEL SYSTEM Page 20 of 46

HYDRAULICS
1. How is Yellow Hyd. Sys pressurized?

2. In which of the hydraulic systems, engine driven pumps are installed?
3. Name some of the major users of the GREEN system?
4. Name some of the major users of the BLUE system?
5. Name some of the major users of the YELLOW system?
6. Name the components in Green Hyd. system?
7. When does Blue Pump energize,{with the a/c on the ground and the blue electric
pump switch in AUTO}?
8. What is the purpose of the priority valve installed in Hydraulic Systems?
9. What happens to the yellow hydraulic system when a cargo door is being opened or
closed?
10. What is the purpose of the engine fire shutoff valves?
11. What is the PTU and what is its purpose?
12. Is it possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?
13. During cockpit preparation if you start yellow electric pump, will green hyd. Sys. get
pressurized via PTU?
14. When does the PTU operate?
15. Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?
16. What are the conditions when PTU will not run {inhibited}, even if there is a
differential pressure between Green & Yellow is more than 500 psi?
17. When is the PTU self tested?
18. During PTU Operation, can fluid be transferred between green & yellow hydraulic
systems?
19. PTU transfers only pressure. It does not transfer liquid. Is it true or false?
20. If there is a Lo Level in one of the Hyd. System, Is this hydraulic system still available or
lost for the remainder of the flight?
21. If there is a Lo Level or OVERHEAT of the reservoir in G or Y Hyd. Sys, is PTU available?
22. Which of the Hyd. Sys is pressurized by RAT?
23. How can the RAT be deployed manually?
24. Why there are two guarded p/bs for extending RAT manually on overhead panels?
25. If there is a Lo Level in Blue Hyd. System, can RAT power Blue Hyd. system if required?
26. When do you get FAULT light in G or Y ENG PUMP sw p/b?
27. When do you get FAULT light in PTU sw p/b?
28. If you have AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT, will there be loss of Hyd. reservoir pressurization?
Give reason supporting your answer? Refer 1.29.10 p4.
29. When do you get FAULT light in BLUE Elect pump? Will there be FAULT light in PTU also
at that time? Why?
30. When do you get FAULT light in YELLOW Elect pump? Will there be FAULT light in PTU
also at that time? Why?
31. What happens when you press the guarded RAT MAN ON p/b on Hyd. panel?
32. How to reset HYD PTU FAULT if it appears during engine start? Why it will come during
engine start?
33. Why do you switch off PTU first in HYD OVHT or HYD LO LVL in G or Y Hyd. System
before switching ENG PUMP OFF?
HYDRAULICS Page 21 of 46
HYDRAULICS
34. If you have lost green hydraulics system, what other check list may have to be followed
by the crew in approach?
35. If you loose yellow hydraulic system in flight, which of the systems are not available?
During landing roll or after landing when you come for parking what caution has to be
followed with Y SYS lost?
36. If there is a Lo Level in Yellow Hyd. System in flight, will you get NWS after landing?
37. What is the purpose of the hand pump?
From ECAM HYD page:

38. When will the Reservoir quantity symbol becomes Amber? Which ECAM caution will
be generated?
39. When does Reservoir LO AIR PRESS appear Amber on HYD page? Which ECAM caution
will be generated?
40. When does Reservoir OVHT appear Amber on HYD page? Which ECAM caution will be
generated?
41. Is there any difference in ELEC OVHT and Reservoir OVHT on HYD page? What is that?
42. By switching PTU OFF, what change do you see on HYD page?
43. You will be seeing letter 1 and 2 near ENG PUMP on HYD page. What happens to it
when N2 is below idle?
If you loose G + Y Dual Hyd. system, you loose

Stabilizer,
Flaps,
Slats operation will be slow.
Landing Gear will have to be lowered with GRVTY EXTN if not down and retraction not
possible in missed approach.
Thrust Reversers on both engines,
Anti-Skid {brakes degrade to ALTN Brakes without anti-skid--accumulator pressure only}
NWS.
Parking Brakes will not be available.
HYDRAULICS Page 22 of 46
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
1. What is the definition of icing conditions?

2. It is the first flight of the day and you are doing your cockpit preparation. Due to the
cold weather operation, the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT p/b is selected ON. Will the
windshield heat be operating? At what level?
3. After engine start the F/O selects the EAI pushbutton ON. The FAULT light illuminates,
what does this FAULT light indicate?
4. After engine start, you turn on EAI? What should you do in the event of an EAI Fault?
5. What happens when EAI is ON?
6. What affect does Engine Anti-Ice have on engine performance?
7. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
8. When should engine anti-ice be used?
9. With EAI selected ON, what types of memos will be appearing?
10. While operating in icing conditions electrical power for the ice protection systems is
lost, are EAI and WAI still available?
11. After landing with icing conditions present, when should the EAI system be selected
OFF?
12. On approach, when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?
13. What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?
14. What happens when Wing Anti-Ice is on and a bleed leak is detected?
15. Can APU be used for wing anti-ice?
16. Can wing anti-ice be used in a single engine situation?
17. After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed?
18. What happens if the wing anti-ice p/b is switched ON, on the ground?
19. Which slats are anti-iced?
20. When will probe heat automatically come on?
21. What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the ground?
22. Is electrical heat applied to the galley/lavatory drain masts anytime there is aircraft
electrical power on the aircraft?
23. When are the windshields and side windows heated automatically on the ground?
24. What would happen if the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton was pushed on the ground with the
engines shut down?
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION Page 23 of 46

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS
1. What is FWC?
2. Name any two of the Flight Warning Computers’ (FWCs) generated alerts?
3. What is SDAC and how many SDACs are there?
4. Is it true that in case of a double FWC failure master caution light, master warning
light, aural warnings and ECAM cautions and warnings are lost?
5. Is it true that in case of a single FWC1 fault, only a message 'FWC fault' appears on the
upper ECAM and ECAM operation is not affected because there are 2 identical FWCs?
6. What is the function of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs)?
7. Is it true that In case of single SDAC Fault, ECAM may display some symbols /
parameters in amber without failures and is a crew awareness fault?
8. Is it true that In case of Dual SDAC Fault, Amber cautions are lost but red warnings
available and ECAM Status page is lost?
9. Is it true that aural alerts and voice messages are transmitted: through the
loudspeakers even if the speakers are switched off?
10. How many DMC's are there?
11. What is the basic role of the DMCs?
12. How will you identify a DMC failure?
13. What happens if DMC1 fails?
14. After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
15. When should you term DU {display unit} as a failure?
16. If both upper and lower ECAM display units were selected off and the lower display
was reselected on, what would be displayed on that screen?
17. When you see E/WD at the bottom DU and SD at the top DU, how will you restore
E/WD & SD to correct configuration?
18. What is the way to retrieve the information if the lower ECAM DU fails?
19. The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the ELECT page. How
can you see it?
20. What will be displayed on the lower unit, if the UPPER ECAM DU fails?
21. Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications and how?
22. What is the meaning of feedback messages?
{When a discrepancy is detected between the signal obtained by DMC (and
sent to the DU) and the operational parameter displayed on the DU (in the
form of feedback signal)}
23. Is it true that FEEDBACK Messages are displayed on the permanent data area of SD
also, along with affected PFD /ND /EWD /SD?
24. Why “CHECK ATT” Message will appear?
25. If PLAN mode is selected on NDs and if there is a discrepancy of at least 5 degrees
between the heading values, will the message of “CHECK HDG” be displayed?
26. Is it correct to say that DISCREPANCY MESSAGE will come with ECAM where as
FEEDBACK MESSAGE will not come with ECAM?
27. For which of the discrepancies, Discrepancy Message will appear?
28. There are three types of failures: Independent, Primary and Secondary. What is an
Independent failure?
29. What is a Primary Failure?
INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 24 of 46

30. What is a Secondary Failure?

31. A particular failure caution message is inhibited during the flight phases 3, 4, 5 and 6.
What do you understand by this?
32. Even if a failure message is inhibited, pilot can recall it by pressing? Isn’t it?
33. Is it true that some action lines do not disappear from the E/WD even after the flight
crew performs the necessary actions?
34. Is it true that EMER CANC p/b can cancel any of the audio?
35. With the help of MASTER WARN p/b, which audio cannot be cancelled?
36. When is T.O. INHIBIT active?
37. When is LDG. INHIBIT active?
38. What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT?
39. The STATUS page may be displayed manually by pressing the STS key on the ECAM
control panel. If there is no status message, what will the status page display?
40. Why is it very important to maintain a 'lights out' condition on the ECAM control panel
during flight?
41. How could the status page be checked for inoperative systems or maintenance
messages?
42. If a caution is cancelled by pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton, how can it be
recalled?
43. If continuous spurious caution messages are received that are known to be incorrect,
is there any way to cancel this caution?
44. What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?
45. What systems are not checked by the T.O. CONFIG test, but will trigger a warning
when TOGA power is applied?
46. Name all the red warnings which will be displayed when the TO CONFIG pushbutton is
depressed?
47. If you get T.O CONFIG NORMAL on pressing T.O. CONFIG p/b, what is the meaning?
48. If T.O CONFIG p/b is inoperative, how to check T/O Config before T/O?
49. What is the meaning of an “Advisory”?
50. In case of both ECAM working normal, if an advisory appear, how will it be informed to
the crew?
51. In case of a single ECAM, if advisory appear, how will it be informed to the crew?
52. Few of ECAM pages are displayed automatically. When does Cruise page is displayed
automatically?
53. What is the green down arrow which appear sometimes at the bottom of E/WD or
S/D?
54. When does STATUS page is displayed automatically?
55. What is the meaning of flashing STS on E/WD after engine shut down?
56. What are the permanent Data? Where are these data displayed?
57. When will you see “G LOAD”?
58. Do you agree that display of “Feedback messages” take priority over load factor
indication?
59. What is the “OEB Reminder” Function?

Primary Flight Display

60. When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
61. What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated on the PFD by green “=” signs?
62. When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
63. What does the speed trend arrow on the PFD airspeed scale indicate?
64. Target airspeeds may be presented in magenta or blue, what is the difference?
65. How the alpha prot speed is indicated?
66. In which situations, VSW is indicated?
67. What speeds does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?
68. What is “Green-Dot Speed”?
69. What does the green F on the speed scale indicate on the PFD?
70. What does the amber “=” sign mean on the airspeed tape?
71. Altitude window has changed to Amber on PFD. What do you mean by this?
72. What is indicated when the altitude numbers in Altitude Reference window change
from green to amber?
73. When is Radio height indicated on PFD and when will its color change from green to
amber?
74. What is flashing amber “ILS” indicates on the bottom right of the PFD?
75. How much a/c has deviated if G/S half index flashes?
76. How much a/c has deviated if LOC scale flashes?
77. Does Baro Ref pulse? When?
78. How could the pilot cancel an altitude alert (C CHORD)?
79. You are climbing and you observe that the window around the numerical value of V/S
has turned suddenly amber. What do you think?
80. If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind coming
from?
81. If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing?
82. Generally, what information does each of the five FMA columns present?
83. How the crew is made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
84. How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
85. What is the difference between SPD flag and SPD SEL flag on PFD?
86. When will SPD LIM flag be visible on PFD?
Mark True or False:

87. FACs calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector and Vls
segment indicate respectively; speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1.23 Vs1g with
present configuration. Is this correct?
88. Mach No. will be visible when it is >0.5
89. The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two amber
dashes.
90. VFE NEXT appears when a/c altitude is below 20000’.
91. Speed protection symbol is indicated by two green dashes and indicates the speed at
which overspeed protection becomes active {VMO + 6 Kts or MMO + 0.01}
92. ECON SPEED Range thick lines are visible only during descent.

93. When a/c is in normal law, VSW is not indicated but VLS, alpha- protection speed and
alpha Max speed are shown
94. The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the VMAX speed
and It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE
95. 'Green Dot' displayed Only when flap handle is in the zero position.
96. The green ‘F’ symbol on speed tape is the minimum flap retraction speed. It is only
displayed when the flap handle is in position 3 or 2.
97. ‘F’ symbol is not displayed if Take-Off is performed in 1+F config.
98. The green 'S' of the speed tape is the Minimum Slat Retraction Speed. It is only
displayed when the flap handle position is in position 1.
99. Yoyo is visible from TOD to MAP and its range is ±500 feet.
100. If VDEV is more than ±500 feet, the symbol stays at the range limit and PROG page will
display the exact value.
101. If a/c goes below MDA, altitude window will become amber
102. As today’s flight is very light and you are climbing very fast and as such you are above
profile.
103. VDEV indication {yoyo} will indicate how much you have deviated from your profile.
104. Which of the flags appear simultaneously on PFD & ND?

Navigation Display
105. What is the meaning of the presence of VOR1 in red on the ND?
106. Which ND will show ILS1 info?
107. Which ND will show VOR1 info?
108. In which of the ND Modes, VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed?
109. In which of the ND Modes, Weather radar can be displayed?
110. In which of the ND Modes, RNAV position information is displayed?
111. On which speed, estimated time of arrival is calculated and shown on the ND at TO
Waypoint?
112. Is it correct to say that NAVAIDS are shown on ND in different symbols? The color of
symbol will be different when NAVAID is tuned automatically by FMGC and manually
through the MCDU.
113. Is it true or false that the ILS course symbol is shown on ND when an ILS station has
been selected even if LS p/b on EFIS remains unselected?
114. How the NDB Navigation station is represented on ND?
115. How the VOR Navigation station is represented on ND?
116. Will weather be displayed on ND, if it is not in PLAN mode?
117. What is the meaning of “NO AUTO TILT” message on ND?
118. NAVAID information on ND show M if navaid is tuned manually by using MCDU. What
is the indication for navaid if it is tuned automatically by FMGC?
119. What happens to Bearing Pointer for VOR {or for ADF}, if a/c does not receive beacon
signal?
120. Will ND LOC deviation also pulse if a/c is deviated on ILS as it happens for PFD?
121. When will ILS APP message appear on ND?
122. What is the meaning if in one of your flight, you saw “PRED W/S Amber Flag on ND?
123. What color is used to represent the flight plan to the alternate?
124. What color is used to represent the active flight plan?
125. What color is used to represent the temporary flight plan?
126. What color is used to represent the secondary flight plan?
127. What color is used for the missed approach procedure?
128. TOP OF DESCENT and CONTINUE DESCENT arrows can be displayed in blue or white.
What is the difference?
129. Altitude constraints are presented as a small circle in white, amber or magenta. What
does each color represent?

LANDING GEARS
1. What happens to the green hydraulic supply to L/G when a/c is flying faster than
260kts?
2. At what speed will the safety valve cut off hydraulic pressure to the landing gear?
3. Will landing gear operate normally if ADR 1 + 3 fail?
4. What happens when the Emergency Gear Extension crank handle is operated?
5. Is nose wheel steering available after emergency gear extension?
6. After emergency gear extension do the gear doors remain open?
7. How many LGCIUs are fitted on A320 a/c and what is the transfer logic for each LGCIU?
8. What is the function of LGCIU?
9. What is the meaning of red UNLK lights on the LDG Gear Indicator panel?
10. Is it true that the lights on the LDG GEAR INDICATOR panel illuminate if the LGCIU #1 is
supplied with electricity?
11. What does the RED ARROW on the landing gear selector lever indicate?
12. What are the indications if landing gear is not locked down when landing config is
selected on the a/c?
13. What is the meaning of “LDG CTL” legend appearing on ECAM WHEEL page?
14. What is the meaning of ECAM GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED?
15. What is the meaning of ECAM GEAR NOT DOWN?
16. How an LGCIU failure is indicated on the ECAM WHEEL Page?
17. What is the meaning of a red triangle, if shown on WHEEL Page?
18. How is the landing gear held in place when retracted?
19. Is nose wheel steering available with the YELLOW hydraulic system inoperative?
20. Is it true that when using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle
starts to reduce at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots?
Above 130 kts N/W Steering is not available from rudder pedals?
21. When the towing control lever is in the tow position, a green NW STRG DISC message
is displayed on ECAM. What happens to the message after the first engine is started?
22. At what speed is the nose wheel steering angle reduced when using the steering hand
wheels?
23. What message is displayed on ECAM when the towing control lever is in the tow
position?
24. What will you do if you see indications of brake application after taxi out?
25. How many brake systems are installed on the aircraft?
26. Which computer controls normal braking functions?
27. Which hydraulic system is used for Normal brake system?
28. Which hydraulic system is used for Alternate brake system?
29. Which of the brake functions are lost If braking capabilities degrade to alternate
brakes with antiskid?
30. Does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes?
31. Is it true that Normal brake system is still available and not inhibited when parking
brakes are applied?
32. With which of the failures, braking capabilities degrade to alternate brakes without
anti-skid?
LANDING GEARS Page 29 of 46

LANDING GEARS
33. On which of the hydraulic system does Auto-brakes work?

34. After touchdown, with the auto brakes selected, what control surface must move
before auto braking will begin?
35. What speed must be met or exceeded during rejected takeoff for Auto brakes to
activate?
36. What does each of the indicators on the AUTO BRK pushbuttons indicate?
37. On the WHEEL page, if AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?
38. What is the meaning of a flashing green AUTO BRK Memo on WHEEL page?
39. What is the meaning of green DECEL light on the auto brake pushbutton?
40. When is brake pressure applied to the brakes during landing using the LO setting?
MED?
41. When do you select MED mode on auto brakes?
42. On slippery runways, antiskid operation may prevent reaching the predetermined
deceleration, and the DECEL light will not illuminate. Is the auto brake still operative?
43. What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?
44. Where does the crew look to confirm that the parking brake is ON?
45. What is the maximum allowable brake temperature for takeoff with brake fan?
46. At what groundspeed the antiskid system is automatically deactivated?
47. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many
brake applications can the pilot expect?
48. How long will the accumulator maintain adequate parking break pressure?
49. Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?
50. What system pressure is indicated on the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS Indicator?
51. At the gate you notice brake temperatures above 300°C, you then select BRAKE FANS
ON, when should the pilots turn the BRAKE FANS OFF?
52. What is the maximum gear retraction speed VLO?
53. What is the maximum gear extended speed VLE?
54. What is the maximum gear extension speed (VLO)?
55. What is the maximum gear extension altitude?
56. Is there any visual means to check landing gear position?
LANDING GEARS Page 30 of 46

LIGHTS
1. What happens, when ANN LT switch is held at TEST position?

a) {Illuminates all flight deck annunciators lights}
b) [Puts 8’s up in all LCDs}
c) {The transfers of data between ECAM & ND are not allowed}
d) [Switching between electronic instrument system and display
management computers are not allowed.{in case of any failure}
2. When will LOGO lights turn on automatically?
3. When will LOGO lights turn OFF automatically?
4. Are there any speed limitations, if LAND lights are not retracted?
5. When does RWY TURN OFF lights go off automatically?
6. When will STROBE lights turn on automatically?
7. Which lights will come ON automatically if cabin altitude goes above 11300 feet?
8. For which of the lights/signs, you get ECAM memo?
LIGHTS Page 31 of 46
NAVIGATION
1. What information is supplied by the ADR’s?

2. What information is supplied by the IR's?
3. Which of the probes supply to ADIRU No.1?
6. There are two types of ADIRS Panels. What are the differences between the two?
What is the meaning of flashing ALIGN lights on ADIRU Panel?
7. What is the meaning of ADR FAULT light?
8. What is the meaning of steady IR FAULT light?
9. What is the meaning of flashing IR FAULT light?
10. What do you mean by OFF position of IR 2 s/w-p/b {on the later a/cs from VT-INV
onwards}?
11. When does ON BAT light come on?
12. Will the ON BAT light come on if fast alignment is done?
13. What happens if one of the Mode Rotary Selector is left in the NAV or ATT position
when a/c is parked and a/c supply is only on BAT?
14. What happens when ADR p/b is selected OFF?
15. What is the procedure and how will you determine the discrepancy If you get an ECAM
of NAV HDG DISCREPANCY on VT-INU?
16. What is the procedure and how will you determine the discrepancy If you get an ECAM
of NAV HDG DISCREPANCY on VT-INV?
17. Which procedure has to be applied first, in case of simultaneous failure of ADR and IR
{same ADIRU}?
18. Why the ECAM action calls for BARO REF CHECK only in case of ADR2 FAULT?
19. Is it true that predictive functions of GPWS are inhibited in case of ADR1 FAULT?
20. What is the effect of ADR 1 + 3 FAULT on landing gear operation?
21. In case of Total Loss of ADRs,
 ECAM does not display the procedure; you have to follow QRH Procedure,
 Control of Cabin pressurization has to be manual,
 Use rudder with care above 160 kts,
 Landing gear extension must be performed with gravity,
 Review GO-Around procedure,
22. Is it true that there are separate procedures for ADR DISAGREE and IR DISAGREE?
23. In what conditions will you suspect unreliable speed indications?
24. What are the memory items in case of “UNRELIABLE SPEED INDCATION PROCEDURE”?
25. For slats/flaps retraction, which area of BACK-UP SPEED SCALE is recommended in case
of ALL ADR OFF checklist?
26. For slats/flaps extension, which area of BACK-UP SPEED SCALE is recommended in case
of ALL ADR OFF checklist?
27. What is the difference between ATT position of the Mode Selector on ADIRS CDU and
the ATT HDG Selector on Switching Panel?
28. Will STALL Warnings be associated with ECAM Message?
29. What do you understand by a pulsing green “IRS IN ALIGN X MIN” memo?
NAVIGATION Page 32 of 46
NAVIGATION
30. When will “IR IN ATT ALIGN” appear?

31. What does the ECAM NAV FM/ GPS DISAGREE caution mean to you?
If the above message comes during LOC approach, what will be your decision?
What are your actions if the above message appears in climb?
32. What NAV data function is lost with an IR-3 Fault?
33. What are the major limitations of dual IR FAULT?
34. What are your actions in case of IR 1+2+3 FAULT?
NAVIGATION
TUNING OF NAVAIDS:
35. In case of normal operations, FMGC 1 tunes no1 side of navaids automatically while
FMGC 2 tunes no 2 side of navaids. If FMGC1 fails, how is tuning of no1 side is
achieved?
36. Does the other automatic functions of FMGC are interrupted, when MCDU is used to
override the auto selection or auto tuning of navaid?
37. If you were busy in tuning a navaid through RMP1, and if there is a call from ATC on
VHF1, how will you answer?
38. Is it true that
a) To tune ILS1 from RMP2, in case of both FMGC failures, you will have to select
NAV backup on both RMPs.
b) If you set RMP 1 to NAV backup mode, navaid tuning from both FMGCs are
removed
c) To tune ILS2 from RMP1, you will have to select NAV backup on both RMPs, in
case of both FMGC failure.
d) RMP 3 is not used for navaids tuning?
e) RMP1 controls VOR1 & ADF1 whereas RMP2 controls only VOR 2 in case of
back tuning with both FMGC failures?
f) PFD 2 will show ILS1 only if LS p/b is pressed.
g) ND will show ADF or VOR1/VOR2 information depending upon the position of
the ADF / VOR selector on the EFIS control panel.
h) When crew uses an RMP to tune an ILS, the PFD do not display the DME
distance.
NAVIGATION
ATC TRANSPONDER:
39. Is it true that ADIRS 2 is supplying altitude data for altitude reporting when ATC 2 is in
use?
40. Which of the ADRs data are transmitted by ATC to ground?
41. Which of the IRs data are transmitted by ATC to ground?
42. In which of the modes does ATC Transponder work, if ATC Mode Sel is in AUTO, while
a/c on ground?
43. What happens to TCAS if ALT RPTG s/w is OFF?
44. What happens to TCAS if ATC Mode Sel is in STBY?
NAVIGATION
Weather Radar:
45. If GAIN Knob is out of CAL position, which function of the radar is lost?
46. Is it true that even with SYS s/w at off for radar, predictive wind shear function is
available if PWS s/w is at AUTO?
47. Is it true that if ATC selector is at STBY, predictive wind shear function is not available?
48. What are the conditions when PWS function operates?
49. Is it true that wind shear alerts from PWS is for the range of 5 NM ahead of a/c only?
50. What is your action if you get wind shear alerts due to PWS at around V1?
51. Can you get wind shear alerts due to PWS at around V1?
52. Is it correct to say that PWS Alerts have priority over TCAS, GPWS or other FWC aural
warnings?
53. Soon after take-off, reactive wind shear alerts are generated and you get “WIND
SHEAR WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR”. Can you get simultaneously PWS alerts also at that
time?
54. When can “PRED W/S OFF” Memo turn amber?
55. Which of the ND Mode should be selected to receive the weather picture?
56. Is there any change of display for tilt angle on ND if MULTISCAN toggle switch is moved
from AUTO to MAN?
57. What is the message displayed to the crew if MULTISCAN function is lost in AUTO?
58. Is PAC function available when Mode selector is at TURB position on Wx Radar panel?
59. Can PAC Alert be indicated for cells in the range of 100-130 NM from a/c?
60. What should be the position of Mode selector on Wx Radar panel to receive PAC
Alerts?
61. What are the PWS related alerts in approach?
62. What are the PWS related alerts in Take-off?
63. When are the PWS alerts inhibited?
Some information:
Ground clutter is displayed on the screen if GCS toggle switch is OFF or MULTISCAN sw in
MAN with any position of GCS Sw.
NAVIGATION
GPWS:
64. Which of the GPWS modes are inhibited when predictive GPWS functions are
operative?
65. What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft can climb over the
terrain?
66. What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft cannot climb over the
terrain with sufficient safety margins?
67. In what situations, do you have to switch-off FLAP MODE?
68. In what situations, do you have to switch-on LDG FLAP3? In this condition, what is
shown on the LDG MEMO?
69. What happens to the basic modes 1 to 5 of GPWS when FAULT Light is illuminated in
the TERR P/B?
70. Which ECAM Caution will be generated when FAULT Light is illuminated in the TERR
P/B?
71. Which ECAM Caution will be generated when FAULT Light is illuminated in the SYS
P/B?
72. With the failure in ILS1, which of the basic modes of GPWS are lost/inhibited? In this
situation, will there be any FAULT light on the OVHD panel of GPWS?
73. You are flying in wx in a terrain area. By seeing ND how can you say if the display is not
for weather and is for terrain?
74. What happens when GPWS generate a caution / warning while TERR ON ND p/b is off?
75. What are the different memos displayed on E/WD related to GPWS system?
76. What is Mode 1 of GPWS?
77. What is Mode 2A of GPWS?
78. What is Mode 2B of GPWS?
80. What is Mode 4A of GPWS?
81. What is Mode 4B of GPWS?
83. Which of the warnings have priority STALL WARNING / WINDSHEAR WARNING or
GPWS?
84. Can GPWS alerts be inhibited by EMER CANC?
NAVIGATION
TCAS:
85. What are the conditions in which TA mode is selected automatically even if TA/RA was
selected previously?
86. Is it true that in case of wind shear, stall, or GPWS messages, TCAS aural messages are
suppressed?
87. How the RAs are displayed if Mode Sel for TCAS is at TA?
88. What will be displayed when TRAFFIC Sel is at THRT?
89. What will be displayed when TRAFFIC Sel is at ALL
a) Is at ABV,
b) Is at BLW?
90. How the traffic is indicated on ND?
91. Will intruder be still displayed if its range is not available?
92. With what information the intruder is displayed, if altitude of an intruder is not
available to TCAS?
93. What are the TCAS related messages on ND?
94. What is the TCAS related message near V/S Indication if TCAS has failed?
95. What happens to TCAS if ALT RPTG s/w is at off?
96. What happens to TCAS if both ATC are failed?
97. What happens to TCAS if both RA are failed?
98. What happens to TCAS if ATC STBY or TCAS STBY is selected by the crew?
99. Review your actions when RA is triggered.
OXYGEN
1. How many types of oxygen systems are there on A320 a/c?

2. What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system?
3. What are the components of the crew oxygen system?
Stowage box for cockpit-crew O2 System:
4. What does yellow blinker indicate?
5. Yellow Blinker Flow meter is seen during cockpit preparation on the crew oxygen
stowage box. What is its meaning?
6. What is tested, when you press RESET / TEST control slide to TEST position?
7. What is reset, when you press RESET / TEST control slide to RESET position?
8. What does “OXY ON” Flag indicate?
9. What is the meaning of N if N/100% selector is at “N” position?
10. What happens when the mask is used with the N/100% selection at 100% position?
11. What is the meaning of 100% if N/100% selector is at “100%” position?
12. What is the function of EMERGENCY pressure selector?
13. What will happen when Emergency pressure selector is rotated in the direction of
arrow?
14. What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

15. If “CREW SAUPPLY” p/b is OFF, what will be indicated on ECAM?
16. Is it true that by switching off Crew Supply, the oxy pressure is still available on
DOOR/OXY Page?
17. Where will you check the crew oxygen cylinder pressure?
18. On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the oxygen
cylinder?
19. When will OXY high pressure indication pulse in green? When will it turn Amber?
20. In one of the preflight, you see OXY high pressure indication reading 900 psi and is
covered by amber half frame. Is it ok? If on this flight you have three crew members on
board, what extra check is required?
{If crew oxy pressure drops below 800 psi, what happens?}
{If crew oxy pressure drops below 400 psi, how is it indicated?}
21. When will REGUL LO PR indication appear on ECAM DOOR / OXY Page, in amber color?
22. In one of the flight, CKPT OXY indication on the ECAM Door/Oxy page has turned
amber. What can be the reason?
23. Review “Limitations on Crew OXY”.
24. What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight?
25. What has happened if SYS ON light on OXY panel is illuminated?

26. What will happen if the guarded MASK MAN ON p/b is depressed?
27. At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
28. When does passenger oxygen flow start?
29. How long the passenger oxygen will flow?
OXYGEN Page 39 of 46
OXYGEN
30. What is the meaning of PBE? What is the duration of oxygen flow in PBE?
31. How many of PBEs are kept onboard IndiGo aircrafts?
32. What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?
OXYGEN Page 40 of 46
PNEUMATICS
1. What are the uses of Pneumatic Air?

2. What are the possible sources of HP Air?
3. What are the conditions in which Engine Bleed Valve close automatically?
4. During Climb or Cruise, is air bled from IP or HP stages of the Engine?
5. What is the normal Bleed pressure maintained by Engine Bleed Valve?
6. What happens to Engine Bleed Valves and to X bleed Valves {in Auto} when APU Bleed
Valve is selected ON?
7. What happens to No2 Engine Bleed Valve, when X Bleed Valve is shut and you select
APU Bleed ON?
8. Which areas of the aircraft are monitored for bleed leaks?
9. What are the indications and effects of a left wing leak?
10. What are the indications and effects of a right wing leak?
11. With the BMC1 failure, what functions are lost?
12. With the BMC2 failure, what functions are lost?
13. Is it True that leak detection is ignored during engine start?
14. Is it permissible to use External HP Air for air-conditioning?
15. Under which situations, do you get ENG 1 BLEED FAULT light?
16. Under which situations, do you get APU BLEED FAULT light?
17. In cross bleed valve, if the position disagrees with selected position, what are the
warnings?
18. How will you be informed if X Bleed Valve fails to Open?
19. How will you be informed if X Bleed Valve fails to Close?
20. If an ECAM AIR ENG1 BLEED FAULT Caution is generated, is it necessary to switch OFF
the associated Engine Bleed Switch?
21. Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you use only one pack if Wing Anti Ice
(WAI) is on?
22. In AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT Checklist/QRH procedure, why it is that in one case you have
to descend to FL100 and in other case to FL 200?
23. In flight, a dual bleed fault {AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT} occurs. The QRH procedure directs
use of the APU for a bleed source. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed
operations?
24. If there is a Wing leak or Engine Bleed leak, what important considerations apply to the
rest of the flight?
25. To which side of the X bleed valve, is the Ground HP connection?
26. What are the positions of the X Bleed Selector?
27. Does BLEED page show positions for HP BLEED Valve, Engine BLEED Valve and Wing
Anti Ice Valve?
28. When does engine identification number on ECAM Bleed page turns amber?
PNEUMATICS Page 41 of 46
APU
1. The APU shuts down almost immediately after coming up to speed and the shutdown
is accompanied by a FAULT light in the Master switch P/B, an ECAM, and a single
chime. What are possible causes for such shutdown?
2. In flight, a dual bleed fault occurs. The QRH procedure directs use of the APU for a
bleed source. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed operations?
3. What are the altitude limits for APU generator?
What is the max altitude upto which electrical power from APU be used?
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be used to run two packs?
What is the maximum ALT upto which APU can be used to run single pack?
What is the max altitude the APU can be used to start an engine?
4. Can the APU be started and operated even if LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is
displayed?
5. What are the APU parameters that are shown on APU ECAM page?
6. With the APU, can you use Wing Anti-ice?
7. What are the differences between “APU fire on ground” and “APU fire in AIR”?
8. With battery power only, if you do APU fire test, what are the indications?
9. If EXTERNAL POWER were powering the aircraft, what indications would be seen
during an APU fire test?
10. There are two types of ECAMS for APU shut down. One is APU AUTO-SHUTDOWN and
other is APU EMER SHUT DOWN. What are the differences?
11. Will the APU Auto Shutdown for Low Oil pressure?
12. When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications are received in
addition to the ECAM procedure?
13. How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed?
14. After depressing the APU MASTER p/b, the START p/b is pressed. At this time the
START p/b illuminates Blue. What does that mean?
15. What is the significance of an illuminated FAULT on the APU MASTER SW?
16. When would the APU MASTER SW p/b FAULT light illuminate?
17. What happens when you select APU MASTER SW to ON?
18. What happens when you select the APU MASTER SW to OFF?
19. When does the START switch ON light extinguish?
20. What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light in APU START p/b?
21. What is the max altitude to start the APU on batteries?
22. You arrive to parking stand after landing and start APU but it gets auto shutdown and
you need to start it again. What is the APU Starter limit? How many start attempts can
be made?
23. After landing, during “Securing the Aircraft” Checklist, the APU is shutdown and SOP
asks you to wait until APU flap is fully closed before switching BAT 1& 2 to OFF. Why?
24. How long will it take for the APU flap to fully close?
25. If batteries are off while APU is running, what happens to APU FIRE protection system?
APU Page 42 of 46
DOORS
1. On ECAM DOOR / OXY page, what does the SLIDE label indicate?
2. How will you know if a slide is disarmed on any cabin door?
3. How will you know if a door is open? How is it indicated on the DOOR / OXY page?
4. How many single-lane slide-rafts on each IndiGo aircraft?
5. How many Dual-Lane Slide-rafts on each IndiGo aircraft?
6. Can cargo doors be still operated if Yellow Hydraulic electric pump has failed? How?
7. If a cabin door is closed & armed, can it be opened from outside? In that case, will slide
deploy?
8. When will CABIN PRESSURE warning light on passenger door, get illuminated?
9. When will SLIDE ARMED warning light on passenger door, get illuminated?
DOORS Page 43 of 46
POWER PLANT
1. What are the various sections of an engine?

2. What do you mean by N1?
3. What do you mean by N2?
4. What do you mean by EPR?
5. What do you mean by EGT?
6. What is the meaning of hot start?
7. What is the meaning of hung start?
8. What do you mean by no light up of an engine?
9. What is FADEC? What is its other name?
10. How many channels does the FADEC computer have?
11. What are the functions of the FADEC?
12. How is the FADEC powered?
13. What happens during Auto-Start on ground,

a) when you select the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START,
b) when you select the ENG MASTER switch to ON.
14. What are the conditions when ECAM of ENG “START FAULT” can come for an engine
during auto-start?
15. What happens during AUTO Start on ground, if FADEC detects a hot start, hung start or
no light up?
16. During engine start, if the amber FAULT light illuminates on the ENG MASTER panel.
What could have gone wrong? What does this light indicate?
17. What is the meaning of “AUTO CRANK IN PROGRESS” message appearing on E/WD
during auto start?
18. What happens after Dry Crank sequence during Auto start?
19. Will FADEC always perform second start if first attempt is aborted by it?
20. During Auto-Start usually one igniter is on. Do you remember any situation during auto
start when both igniters come on? What is that?
21. What happens when N2 > 43% during AUTO start of the engine?
22. What happens when N2 >50% during AUTO Start?
23. What is the role of FADEC during auto-start of an engine?
24. When can you say that engine start sequence is over?
25. What does the FADEC control during Manual engine start?
26. During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
27. What takes place when you push the MAN START button during manual start of
engine?
28. What happens when you select Master Switch to ON, in Manual Start?
29. Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
30. How do you carry out dry cranking cycle, if required manually?
POWER PLANT Page 44 of 46

POWER PLANT
31. During a manual start, are the automatic start interruption and auto-crank functions
available?
32. During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to
be depressed to close the start valve?
33. Due to a tailwind of greater than 10 knots the crew should select the Manual Engine
Start procedure. Give examples of other conditions that may require a Manual Engine
Start.
34. During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears at about 57%.
What does this indicate?
35. FADEC takes care of start abort or recycle of engine starting but only on ground and
that too in Auto-Start.
True / False?
36. What is the Manual Engine Start procedure?
37. What is the limitation of engaging start valve/motor vis-à-vis N2?
38. What is an indication that the start sequence is complete?
39. If a thrust lever is set between two detents, what is the rating limit?
40. When is Continuous ignition provided automatically?
41. On ground, after engine start, how would the PF select continuous ignition on the
engine?
42. What is keep-out zone?
43. What is RATED N1 Mode?

44. What are the indications if an engine goes to Rated N1 Mode?
45. What is UN-RATED N1 Mode?
46. What are the indications if an engine goes to Un-Rated N1 Mode?
47. How is Unrated N1 mode identified to the crew on ECAM?
48. What is LVR ASYM?

49. What is LVR CLB? LVR MCT?
50. What do you mean by Modulated Idle?

51. What do you mean by Approach Idle?
52. How the thrust is controlled

a) when A/THR active?
b) when A/THR is just armed and not active?
53. Is there a mechanical connection between the thrust levers and the engines?
54. Which igniters are working when performing a manual start of an engine?
55. Before starting the engine, THRUST LEVERs have to be at IDLE.
If THR LEVERS are not at idle, what will happen?
56. What is important to note before starting/relight of the engine in flight?
POWER PLANT
57. If no FLEX TEMP is set, then only TO/GA power can be selected?
58. If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?
59. When will N1 indication pulse red?
60. You are just about to take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still
takeoff? How?
61. What happens if you hold the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than
fifteen seconds on THR LEVERS?
62. What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch?

63. What is the oil pressure limitation on an engine?
64. What are the oil temp limitations?
65. What are the EGT limitations of an engine?


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A320 TECH

This document is for training purpose only.

 Before printing, think about responsibility towards the ENVIRONMENT

2. What is the RAM AIR P/B for? When is it used?

AIRCONDITION / PRESSURIZATION Page 2 of 46

1. How many modes of pressurization exist on A320?

AIRCONDITION / PRESSURIZATION Page 3 of 46

AIRCONDITION / PRESSURIZATION Page 4 of 46

1. How will you identify if

2. Which of the FMGCs is master if:

9. What is the meaning of following annunciators on MCDU?

10. What is the indication for a failed MCDU?

AUTO FLIGHT Page 5 of 46

AUTO FLIGHT Page 6 of 46

AUTO FLIGHT Page 7 of 46

AUTO FLIGHT Page 8 of 46

c) ILS capability is downgraded?

AUTO FLIGHT Page 9 of 46

144. What, in general, is Ground Speed Mini?

AUTO FLIGHT Page 10 of 46

2. Which ECAM is going to be triggered if any push–to–talk {PTT} transmission selector is

FIRE PROTECTION Page 15 of 46

FIRE PROTECTION Page 16 of 46

1. Which of the spoiler surfaces are the speed brake surfaces?

FLIGHT CONTROLS Page 17 of 46

60. What are the functions of FAC computer?

FLIGHT CONTROLS Page 19 of 46

1. What is the total fuel capacity of the A320?

FUEL SYSTEM Page 20 of 46

1. How is Yellow Hyd. Sys pressurized?

From ECAM HYD page:

If you loose G + Y Dual Hyd. system, you loose

1. What is the definition of icing conditions?

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION Page 23 of 46

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 24 of 46

30. What is a Secondary Failure?

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 25 of 46

Primary Flight Display

Mark True or False:

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 26 of 46

104. Which of the flags appear simultaneously on PFD & ND?

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 27 of 46

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEMS Page 28 of 46

LANDING GEARS Page 29 of 46

33. On which of the hydraulic system does Auto-brakes work?

LANDING GEARS Page 30 of 46

1. What happens, when ANN LT switch is held at TEST position?

1. What information is supplied by the ADR’s?

30. When will “IR IN ATT ALIGN” appear?

1. How many types of oxygen systems are there on A320 a/c?

14. What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

25. What has happened if SYS ON light on OXY panel is illuminated?

1. What are the uses of Pneumatic Air?

1. What are the various sections of an engine?

13. What happens during Auto-Start on ground,

POWER PLANT Page 44 of 46

42. What is keep-out zone?

43. What is RATED N1 Mode?

48. What is LVR ASYM?