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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2020
MOCK CLAT #15

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with
a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
T49_MC15_ALL_03_019-20
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.

10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.29): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(Q.1 – Q.3): Enter the crossfire of Hollywood’s duels under the sun. You’ll revise Newton’s law about every
action having an equal and opposite reaction. These shootouts once got physicist Niels Bohr wondering
why heroes never lose gun-battles. To find out, he staged toy-gun fights and bang! Every action, he
concluded, had an unequal reaction that was instinctive, superfast. The quicker draw is he who draws
second, not aggressors who pick the fights. That’s why, in Clint Eastwood westerns, reactive good beats
proactive bad and ugly.
A study using ‘lab-duels’ endorses Bohr’s shot in the dark, but with a catch. Those who react are faster, on
average, by 21 milliseconds. The dud bullet is that a 200-millisecond reflex time also decides fate. So, the
quick and the dead may be the same gunslinger. Except when your drawing plus reaction time combined
beats the adversary to the trigger. Or if you’re Quick Gun Murugan. Mind it, we do have a few such fast
draws around the country.
Drawing second against Maharashtra’s Senapatis, Rahul Gandhi’s been bang on target saying India is for
Indians. Shooting back, Shiv Sainiks tried to stop him entering Mumbai but their black flags misfired when
Rahul stormed their ‘citadel’, state CM in tow. State authorities deserve praise for the protective bandobast
that helped Rahul fire his winning shots about Indians being free to travel cross-country. If only they’d used
even half the ammo to protect migrants under daily attack, Rahul wouldn’t need this duel in the crown.
UP’s seeing a different rapidfire exchange. When Amar Singh sniper-attacked Mulayam, he didn’t expect
retaliatory fire. Mulayam countered with maximum force: expulsion from the party. The end of Amar prem,
however, saw an ex-right hand reach for his holster, John Wayne-style. Amar Singh’s weapons of choice
range from trashing SP’s ‘dynastic’ politics to exposing its ‘dubious’ links. That’s not counting the two Jayas
- Prada and Bachchan - taking (pot) shots on his behalf. Not every gun - the samajwadis are realising-has
a silencer.
Meanwhile, Mamatadi’s arming against Bengal's Left with sit-ins, protests and mass signature campaigns.
The Marxists drew first, planning a “Brigade rally” and announcing an anti-Trinamul resistance. This,
despite Mamatadi’s superior firepower. Consider her 23rd volley as writer against “CPM terror”. Her new
book revisits Nandigram 2007, exhuming a police firing the Left wants to bury. And the masterpiece is
called Nandi-Maa. Truly, there’s no telling what can hit the red brigade inside this firebrand’s rifle range.
With untested shooting skills, BJP's Nitin Gadkari is aiming high. Come February 10, Delhi’s Jantar Mantar
will find him, BJP-wallahs in tow, gunning for the UPA - read gunning for glory - on price rise. Will the good
Doctor in the PMO and the lady at 10 Janpath react? Unlikely. Both seem to believe the best way to disarm
the opponent is to act (react?) as if he doesn’t exist. In short, every action has an equal and ever-abiding
non-reaction. Now that’s what you call the fastest draw in town.
1. What does the author mean by ‘lab-duel’?

(a) Fights conducted in lab for study purpose
(b) Everyday fights between the reactive and proactive
(c) Duo fighting in a boxing ring
(d) Toy gun fights in the lab
2. What does the author mean by “If only they’d used even half the ammo to protect migrants under daily
attack, Rahul wouldn’t need this duel in the crown”?
(a) It reflects the brutal truth that ordinary people and their lives have been taken for granted.
(b) This propaganda would have no existence if the common man would have been provided due
protection.
(c) When one fails to protect the masses, one hands over important issues to eminent personalities.
(d) One needs to understand the issue was an unnecessary bone of contention and rather what makes
more sense is to serve to the security of citizens.
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MOCK CLAT #15
3. Which of the following best represents the tone of the passage?

(a) Sarcasm (b) Caviling (c) Admonishing (d) Sardonic
(Q.4 and Q.5): It is not surprising that the expert panel headed by Kirit Parikh on the pricing of petroleum
products should recommend total decontrol of the retail prices of petrol and diesel while suggesting a more
gradual approach in the case of kerosene and LPG. In July-August 2008, the B K Chaturvedi Committee
had recommended a similar deregulation, although in its case, the process of aligning domestic prices with
global ones was to be spread over several months. If the Kirit Parikh panel has its way, petrol and diesel
prices would go up by between Rs 3 and Rs 4 a litre immediately, wiping out “the under recoveries” of
public sector oil companies and substantially reducing the level of government subsidies. For the cooking
fuels - kerosene and LPG - it calls for a nuanced approach but even here an immediate price rice of about
Rs 100 for an LPG cylinder and Rs 6 for a litre of kerosene sold through the public distribution system
(PDS) is suggested. The expert group charged with the task of devising “a viable and sustainable system
of pricing of petroleum products” has had to come up with a methodology of minimising, if not avoiding
altogether, the burden of subsidies. The three major public sector companies are expected to end this year
with a total of Rs 45,500 crore as “under recoveries,” with kerosene accounting for about Rs 17,420 crore
and LPG Rs 14,152 crore.
Making out a case for the continuance of subsidy on kerosene in rural areas, the panel has recommended
that the price should be revised every year in relation to the per capita agricultural GDP. Among its
suggestions to narrow the gap due to “under recoveries” is the sharing of production revenue from
nomination blocks of the upstream government-owned oil companies, the ONGC and Oil India. Cash
subsidy in certain cases should be charged to the budget. Even with these and other measures, subsidies
would still be required but they will remain stable at a manageable Rs 20,000 crore. In a sensitive area
such as petroleum product pricing, the government will need to consider the political realities as much as
hard-headed economics. It is indeed a difficult choice between coming up with a sudden, unpopular jump
in petrol, diesel, kerosene and LPG prices on the one hand and, on the other, continuing to bear ever
increasing subsidies that would stretch the fiscal balance to the breaking point. Also, at a time when the
government is under criticism for letting food and essential prices rise, an increase in fuel prices could raise
transportation costs and push up the prices of essentials further. It is, however, clear that the present
system of pricing petroleum products is not sustainable and a change, even if gradual, is imperative.
4. Which of the following is the most likely title of a longer article in which the passage might have appeared?
(a) The Indian Foreign Policy: A Merger of Thinking Styles
(b) Who Deserves Credit for the Pre-eminence of Subsidies in Indian Policy?
(c) Subsidies vs. Price Hike: India’s Struggle for National Identity
(d) Subsidies: A Difficult Choice
5. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

(a) A total decontrol of the retail prices of petrol and diesel while suggesting an unaltered approach in the
case of kerosene and LPG is a viable way of deregulation.
(b) As per the panel, subsidy on kerosene in rural areas, should be revised yearly on the basis of per capita
agricultural GDP.
(c) Cash subsidy in certain cases should be chargesheeted to the budget.
(d) A viable and sustainable system of pricing of petroleum products is one that will avoid altogether, the
burden of subsidies.
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.6 - Q.9): When I logged in to Facebook this week, I was greeted with updates from such friends as
Mariah Carey, Natalie Portman and Ryan Gosling. Exciting, right? Except that when I clicked through. it
was clear that these posts were from my same, lame no-name friends who were simply jumping on the
latest Facebook bandwagon. Yes, it is (or was, as these things don't exactly have strict expiration dates)
celebrity Doppelganger Week on Facebook, during which people replace their profile picture with the
celebrities they think looks the most like them.
Think is the operative word here. I love my friends, but trust me - it’s a motley crew that little resembles
anyone casting directors would want to put in a feature film. But more disturbing than the creative liberties
they took in choosing their twins is that this is just the latest example of how my friends - and hundreds of
thousands of people around the world - are susceptible to Facebook groupthink. Before celebrity twinning,
there was post-your-colour day. Last year, there was the 25-facts-about-yourself oversharing festival. And
on the heels of all this Doppelganger madness is Urban Dictionary Week, which has already prompted
dozens of my friends to look up their first name on the popular alternative dictionary and post the
horoscope-like results.
Now, there’s no official Facebook theme team, decreeing these silly fads from on high. These are grass-
roots memes that spread virally throughout the site, making them difficult to trace back to an origin with
any certainty. The Huffington Post published what appeared to be the transcript of an interview with Bob
Patel, an IT worker who says his resemblance to Tom Selleck prompted the start of Doppelganger Week.
But the claim (and the transcript itself) is dubious—the article is even tagged as “satire,” but that hasn’t
stopped blogs and news organizations from citing Patel as the instigator.
But fine. I’ll admit it—curiosity got the best of me, and I tried to figure out who my celebrity Doppelganger
would be. My first strategy was to ask my friends who they thought I resembled, but the suggestions (Dame
Judi Dench, Rosie O’Donnell and “whoever the biggest Hollywood douchebag is”) were less than helpful.
Then I turned to MyHeritage.com, which has developed a celebrity match tool that compares any
photograph you upload to the ones in its celebrity database. My top look-alike? Cuba Gooding Jr. Given
that I’m a pasty, undersized white kid, I’d say My Heritage clearly has some work to do on its algorithm.
Disillusioned now more than ever, I sought refuge from Facebook’s celebrity Lemmings. Turns out there
are other people who feel the same way. I’m now a proud member of the (deep breath) “Everyone is making
fun of your ‘Doppelganger’ picture behind your back” group. We’re three members strong at the moment,
but give it time. If Facebook has proved anything, it’s that these things have a way of catching on.
6. What does the author mean by ‘motley’?

(a) Medley (b) Incongruous (c) Parti-coloured (d) Heterogeneous
7. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

(a) Hundreds of thousands of people around the world are susceptible to the Facebook groupthink
(b) The official Facebook theme team, decrees the silly fads like the Urban Dictionary Week
(c) The 25-facts-about-yourself oversharing festival on Facebook was the biggest show of all the
Doppelganger madness
(d) A large part of the internet savvy population around the world is susceptible to the groupthink thing
catching on
8. Which of the following best represents the primary purpose of the passage?
(a) The author is deprecating all those people who participate in useless groupthink activities on Facebook
(b) The author is surprised as to how popular can some Doppelganger group thinking on networking sites
like Facebook, catch on so much to become a rage
(c) The author wants to categorically inform that the group thinking activities on various social networking
sites like Facebook has a dubious origin
(d) The author wants to establish that the population on the social networking sites which falls prey to these
Doppelganger activities is insane
MOCK CLAT #15
9. Which of the following best represents the attitude of the author?

(a) Astounded and ashamed (b) Surprised and bewildered
(c) Sardonic and surprised (d) Derogatory and amazed
(Q.10-Q.12): Victory always comes at a price. Whether it is cheap or expensive is a matter of opinion
because it is hard to place an exact value on consumer surplus. The emphatic victory by the UPA can also
be viewed from this perspective. A rude way of describing it would be to say that five years of bribing voters
worked the wonders expected from it. Since it has given the country what is needs most, stability, it has
been money well spent. A more polite description would be that the concerted effort at reversing the terms
of trade in favour of rural India has paid dividends. Regardless, one fact will remain: The cost to the
exchequer as reflected in the fiscal deficit of over 12 per cent for the Centre and States combined has been
very large, perhaps unacceptably so. There are six distinct components that make up the price that the
taxpayer has paid for the UPA triumph. One is the fertiliser subsidy; the other is the expense on the National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act scheme; the third is the petroleum subsidy paid to oil companies for
selling cooking gas and kerosene below cost; the fourth is the increase in the Minimum Support Prices for
foodgrains; the fifth is the loan waiver to farmers; and the sixth is the food subsidy which we are not counting
as it is the only one, apart from the NREGA, with unquestionable moral justification. Cumulatively, the
fertiliser subsidy has cost around Rs 1,96,000 crore in the five years of the UPA. The total petroleum
subsidy outgo for this period adds up to Rs 1,52,000 crore. This is what the Centre has paid either as
outright subsidy or in issuing bonds to oil companies. In just the past year the MSP increases have ensured
a flow of about Rs 87,000 crore as additional income into farmers’ pockets in just the past year, the loan
waiver has cost Rs 65,000 crore, and the NREGA Rs 22,000 crore. State governments have been no less
generous with their handouts. Two questions arise from this. One is that if such policies help win elections
so decisively, will the UPA give them up? The second question flows from this: What reforms are we talking
about that the government should undertake? Even if the prime minister believes that without such fiscal
reform it will be hard to achieve 9 per cent growth, his party is unlikely to agree. Indeed, as we saw with
the Fiscal Responsibility Budget Management Act, even some of the reformers were arguing for a
relaxation of its targets.
10. Which of the following has been included by the author in the cost paid by the tax payer for the UPA’s win?
I. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act scheme to give loan waiver to farmers.
II. Minimum Support Prices for foodgrains and food subsidy.
III. Petroleum subsidy paid to oil companies.
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) I, II, III (d) None of these
11. Choose the option which gives the correct ascending order costwise of various subsidies being offered by
the exchequer?
(a) Fertilizer , petroleum , foodgrains support price, loan waiver, NREGA
(b) NREGA, loan waiver, foodgrains support price, petroleum, fertilizer
(c) NREGA, petroleum, fertilizer, loan waiver, foodgrains support price
(d) Fertilizer, foodgrains support price, loan waiver, petroleum, NREGA
12. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The elections have proved costly to the tax payer but will yield the expected benefits in form of
multifarious reforms
(b) The elections although not have proved not so expensive, yet will lead to the much needed fiscal
reforms
(c) The key takeaway from the election result may well be that while some types of reform will get
accelerated, fiscal reform will be the last on the list
(d) None of the above
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.13-Q.16): Many critics of Emily Bronte's novel Wuthering Heights see its second part as a counterpoint
that comments on, if does not reverse, the first part, where a "romantic" reading receives more confirmation.
Seeing the two parts as a whole is encouraged by the novel's sophisticated structure, revealed in its
complex use of narrators and time shifts. Granted that the presence of these elements need not argue an
authorial awareness of novelistic construction comparable to that of Henry James, their presence does
encourage attempts to unify the novel's heterogeneous parts. However, any interpretation that seeks to
unify of the novel's diverse elements is bound to be somewhat unconvincing. This is not because such an
interpretation necessarily stiffens into a thesis (although rigidity in any interpretation of this or of any novel
is always a danger), but because Wuthering Heights has recalcitrant elements of undesirable power that
ultimately, resist inclusion in an all-encompassing interpretation. In this respect, Wuthering Heights shares
a feature of Hamlet.
13. According to the passage, which of the following is a true statement about the first and second parts of
Wuthering Heights ?
(a) The second part has received more attention from critics.
(b) The second part has little relation to the first part.
(c) The second part is better because it is more realistic.
(d) The second part provides less substantiation for a "romantic" reading.
14. Which of the following inferences about Henry James's awareness of novelistic construction is best
supported by the passage?
(a) James, more than any other novelist, was aware of the difficulties of novelistic construction.
(b) James was very aware of the details of novelistic construction.
(c) James's awareness of novelistic construction derived from the reading of Bronte.
(d) James's awareness of novelistic construction has led most commentators to see unity in his individual
novels.
15. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree that an interpretation of a novel should:
(a) Not try to unite heterogeneous elements in the novel.
(b) Not be inflexible in its treatment of the elements in the novel.
(c) Not argue that the complex use of narrators or of time shifts indicates a sophisticated structure.
(d) Concentrate on those recalcitrant elements of the novel that are outside the novel's main structure.
16. The author of the passage suggests which of the following about Hamlet!
I. Hamlet has usually attracted critical interpretations that tend to stiffen into thesis.
II. Hamlet has elements that are not amenable to an all-encompassing critical interpretation.
III. Hamlet is less open to an all-encompassing critical interpretation that is Withering Heights.
IV. Hamlet has not received a critical interpretation that has been widely accepted by readers.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and IV only (d) I, II and III only
(Q.17- Q.20): In the past century, Irish painting has changed from a British-influenced lyrical tradition to an
art that evokes the ruggedness and roots of an Irish Celtic past. At the turn of the twentieth century, Irish
painters, including notables Walter Frederick Osborne and Sir William Orpen, looked elsewhere for
influence. Osborne’s exposure to “plein air” psainting deeply impacted his stylistic development; and Orpen
allied himself with a group of English artists, while at the same time participated in the French avant-garde
experiment, both as painter and teacher.
However, nationalist energies were beginning to coalesce, reviving interest in Irish culture—including Irish
visual arts. Beatrice Elvery’s Eire (1907), a landmark achievement, merged the devotional simplicity of
fifteenth century Italian painting with the iconography of Ireland’s Celtic past, linking the history of Irish
Catholicism with the still-nascent Irish republic. And, although also captivated by the French plein air
school, Sir John Lavery invoked the mythology of his native land for a 1928 commission to paint the central
figure for the bank note of the new Irish Free State. Lavery chose as this figure Eire, with her arm on a
Celtic harp, the national symbol of independent Ireland.
MOCK CLAT #15
In Irish painting from about 1910, memories of Edwardian romanticism coexisted with a new sense of
realism, exemplified by the paintings of Paul Henry and Sean Keating, a student of Orpen’s. Realism also
crept into the work of Edwardians Lavery and Orpen, both of whom made paintings depicting World War-
I, Lavery with a distanced Victorian nobility, Orpen closer to the front, revealing a more sinister and realistic
vision. Meanwhile, counterpoint to the Edwardians and realists came Jack B Yeats, whose travels
throughout the rugged and more authentically Irish West led him to depict subjects ranging from street
scenes in Dublin to boxing matches and funerals. Fusing close observations of Irish life and icons with an
Irish identity in a new way, Yeats changed the face of Irish painting and became the most important Irish
artist of his century.
17. With respect to which of the following painters does the passage provide least support for the assertion
that the painter was influenced by the contemporary art of France?
(a) Walter Frederick Osborne (b) Sir William Orpen
(c) Beatrice Elvery (d) Sean Keating
18. Which of the following best explains the author's use of the word 'counterpoint' in referring to Yeats?
(a) Yeats' paintings differed significantly in subject matter from those of his contemporaries in Ireland.
(b) Yeats reacted to the realism of his contemporary artists by invoking nineteenth century naturalism in
his own painting style.
(c) Yeats avoided religious and mythological themes in favour of mundane portrayals of Irish life.
(d) Yeats’ paintings suggested that his political views departed radically from those of the Edwardians and
the realists.
19. The author points out the coexistence of romanticism and realism most probably in order to show that
(a) Irish painters of the early twentieth century often combined elements of realism with those of
romanticism into a single painting
(b) for a time painters from each school influenced painters from the other school
(c) Yeats was influenced by both the romantic and realist schools of Irish painting
(d) the transition in Irish painting from one predominant style to the other was not an abrupt one
20. Which of the following is the most likely title of a longer article in which the passage might have appeared?
(a) Irish Masterpieces: A Coalescence of painting styles
(b) Who deserves credit for the preeminence of Yeats among Irish painters
(c) Realism vs Romanticism: Ireland’s struggle for national identity
(d) Irish paintings: Reflections of an emerging independent state
(Q.21-Q.23): Shaw’s defence of a theatre of ideas brought him up against both his great bugbears—
commercialised art on the one hand and art for art’s sake on the other. His teaching is that beauty is a by-
product of other activity; that the artist writes out of moral passion (in forms varying from political conviction
to religious zeal), not out of love of art; that the pursuit of art for its own sake is a form of self-indulgence
as bad as any other sort of sensuality. In the end, the errors of ‘pure’ art and of commercialised art are
identical: they both appeal primarily to the senses. True art, on the other hand, is not merely a matter of
pleasure. It may be unpleasant. A favourite Shavian metaphor for the function of the arts is that of tooth-
pulling. Even if the patient is under laughing gas, the tooth is still pulled. The history of aesthetics affords
more examples of a didactic than of a hedonist view. But Shaw’s didacticism takes an unusual turn in its
application to the history of arts. If, as Shaw holds, ideas are a most important part of a work of art, and if,
as he also holds, ideas go out of date (go out of date), if follows that even the best works of art go out of
date in some important respects and that the generally held view that great works are in all respects eternal
is not shared by Shaw. In the preface to Three Plays for Puritans, he maintains that renewal in the arts
means renewal in philosophy, that the first great artist who comes along after a renewal gives to the new
philosophy full and final form, that subsequent artists, though even more gifted, can do nothing but refine
upon the master without matching him. Shaw, whose essential modesty is as disarming as his pose of
vanity is disconcerting, assigns to himself the role, not of the master, but of the pioneer, the role of a
Marlowe rather than of a Shakespeare. “The whirligig of time will soon bring my audiences to my own point
of view,” he writes, “and then the next Shakespeare that comes along will turn these petty tentatives of
MOCK CLAT #15
mine into masterpieces final for their epoch.” “Final for their epoch”—even Shakespearean masterpieces
are not final beyond that. No one, says Shaw, will ever write a better tragedy than Lear or a better opera
than Don Giovanni or a better music drama than Der Ring des Nibelungen; but just as essential to a play
as this aesthetic merit is moral relevance which, if we take a naturalistic and historical view of morals, it
loses, or partly loses, in time. Shaw, who has the courage of his historicism, consistently withstands the
view that moral problems do not change, and argues therefore that for us modern literature and music form
a Bible surpassing in significance the Hebrew Bible. That is Shaw’s anticipatory challenge to the new-
orthodoxy of today.
21. It can be inferred from the passage that Shaw would probably agree with all of the following statements
about Shakespeare except
(a) he wrote out of a moral passion
(b) all of his plays are out of date in some important respect
(c) he was the most profound and original thinker of his epoch
(d) he was a greater artist than Marlowe
22. The ideas attributed to Shaw in the passage suggest that he would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
(a) Every great poet digs down to a level where human nature is always and everywhere alike.
(b) A play cannot be comprehended fully without some knowledge and imaginative understanding of its
context.
(c) A great music drama like Der Ring des Nibelungen springs from a love of beauty, not from a love of art.
(d) Morality is immutable it is not something to be discussed and worked out.
23. The passage contains information that answers which of the following questions?
I. According to Shaw, what is the most important part of a work of art?
II. In Shaw’s view, what does the Hebrew Bible have in common with Don Giovanni?
III. According to the author, what was Shaw’s assessment of himself as a playwright?
(a) I only (b) III only (c) I and II (d) II and III
(Q.24-Q.26): The distinguishing feature of life is that here the relational modes are of a dynamic nature,
such that reality or existence of any particular mode is dependent on other modes of a different order and
vice-versa. We have here a situation in which a particular relation—mode or function does not exist per se
but through others, and there is thus a mutual dependence of such a nature that it is impossible to start
with any one of them as being prior to the other. We have here a circle of revolutions in which any point
can be regarded either as the first or as the last. Yet the first is in the last and the last is in the first. If this
relationship is such in life, it is still more so with regard to the flowing activity of the mind-complex, which is
absolutely unrepresentable by any terms of physical notation, which behaves as an integrated growing
whole and yet keeps its co-variant relations with life-processes, the body and the environment. Another
point is that even the cellular membrane has a special selective action which attains its highest evolution
and development in instinct and human intelligence. The selective action in the case of all animals
beginning with the unicellular is to be found in the peculiar phenomenon called behaviour, which is the
registration in an unknown manner of past experiences. This peculiar phenomenon of behaviour serves to
destroy the barrier of time and makes the past, present and the future coalesce at any given instant, and
thus starts the history of the individual as personality. In the lower grades of life, where the behaviour of
the individual animal is largely under the control of the body-complex, the term personality may not suitably
be used. But as the mind emerges out of the body and begins to assert itself in its spontaneous existence
though carrying with it the peculiar body-emergents as appetitive functions, begins to show itself as a true
individual, the integrated history of which, having risen above the appetitive functions, begins to reveal itself
in accordance with a selective purpose, which is its own emergent as value. The appetitive functions here
do not lose their existence but have a transmuted modification in consonance with the value-sense. Here,
the biological tendencies are not destroyed but their potency, and indeed the potency of the whole life-
history, converges towards the achievement of the self-emergent purpose, the value. There is thus here a
new ordering of the old existent states of previous history producing by their harmony, contentment, and
blissfulness associated with the progressive march of the higher man. In the lower order, the conflicts
MOCK CLAT #15
between the animal and the environment are annulled by the life-process itself in a very naturalistic manner.
With the evolution of mind, mental conflicts of different orders arise through our intercourse with other
minds. Such conflicts are natural and obvious; and the life-process instead of annulling them often
increases them. But as a new selective purpose as value emerges in man, he sets his house in order. The
integrated history behaves as a person and the conflicts are annulled and the whole history becomes a
history of self-realisation in the light of the value. Where the emergent value cannot exert itself as the real
and constant selective purpose of the man but is in conflict with the biological selective purpose and only
inconstantly shows its supremacy from time to time, we have the picture of the ordinary struggling man.
24. The factor that most distinguishingly discriminates a lower-being with a higher-being is that
(a) the former misses the special selective action
(b) the physical purpose dominates the value-purpose
(c) the former lacks harmony, contentment and blissfulness
(d) All of the above
25. Which one of the aspects of behaviour is not supported by the passage?
(a) Every organism is blessed with it
(b) It passes through the phases of evolution
(c) Gradually the physical aspect of behaviour pales into insignificance
26. The phrase “registration in an unknown number of past experiences” signifies that
(a) behavioural tenets from the past superimpose one over another
(b) personality is an exhibition of all the three aspects of time
(c) experiences when accumulated transcend the barrier of time
(d) one is not discriminating while learning lessons from the past
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.27-Q.29): In Raisin in the Sun, Lorraine Hansberry does not reject integration or the economic and
moral promise of the American dream; rather, she remains loyal to this dream while looking, realistically,
at its incomplete realization. Once we recognize this dual vision, we can accept the play's ironic nuances
as deliberate social commentaries by Hansberry rather than as the "unintentional" irony that Bigsby
attributes to the work. Indeed, a curiously persistent refusal to credit Hansberry with a capacity for
intentional irony has led some critics to interpret the play's thematic conflicts as mere confusion,
contradiction, or eclecticism. Isaacs, for example, cannot easily reconcile Hansberry's intense concern for
her race with her ideal of human reconciliation. But the play's complex view of Black self-esteem and human
solidarity, as compatible is no more "contradictory" than Du Bios famous, well-considered ideal of ethnic
self-awareness coexisting with human unity, or Fanon's emphasis on an ideal internationalism that also
accommodates national identities and roles.
27. The author's primary purpose in this passage is to

(a) Explain some critics refusal to consider Raisin in the Sun a deliberately ironic play.
(b) Affirm the thematic coherence underlying Raisin in the Sun.
(c) Analyze the fundamental dramatic conflicts in Raisin in the Sun.
(d) Justify the inclusion of contradictory elements in Raisin in the Sun.
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about Hansberry's use
of irony in Raisin in the Sun!
(a) It reflects Hansberry's reservations about the extent to which the American dream has been realized.
(b) It derives from Hansberry's eclectic approach to dramatic structure.
(c) It is justified by Hansberry's loyalty to a favourable depiction of American life.
(d) It is influenced by the themes of works by DU Bios and Fanon.
29. In which of the following does the author of the passage reinforce his criticism of responses such as Isaacs
to Raisin in the Sun!
(a) The statement that Hansberry's is "loyal" to the American drea.
(b) The description of Hansberry's concern for Black Americans as "intense".
(c) The assertion that Hansberry is concerned with "human solidarity".
(d) The description of Du Bios ideal as "well-considered".
MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q. 30- Q.68): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.30-Q.34) A study published last year has become the subject of controversy over the participation of
foreign researchers and a media report purportedly linking it to China’s coronavirus outbreak. Conducted
on members of a [1] tribe in 2017, the study sought to study viral transmissions between bats and human
beings in areas where they come into close contact. Bats are known “reservoirs for several zoonotic
pathogens, including [2]”. [2] include the deadly Ebola, and are known to cause haemorrhagic fever in
human beings.
The study found Ebola antibodies in some of the human subjects despite the fact that the disease, which
has killed thousands in Africa over the years, has never been reported in the area. It was conducted by
researchers from the India’s National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS, which comes under the Tata
Institute of Fundamental Research), China’s Wuhan Institute of Virology, Duke-NUS of Singapore, and
Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, US. The study, published in the reputed PLOS
journal, was expected to help explore the prevention of diseases like Ebola, which caused thousands of
deaths in western Africa between 2013 and 2016.
30. Which of the following states will replace the blank [1]?
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
31. Which of the following pathogens have been replaced by [2]?

(a) Bunyavirus (b) Arenavirus (c) Bromovirus (d) Filovirus
32. Which of the following diseases is not an example of zoonotic diseases?

(a) Anthrax (b) E. coli infections (c) Malaria (d) Cholera
33. In what shape do antibodies exist?

(a) Helical shape (b) Double-helical (c) Y-shape (d) V-shape
34. Which of the following options about antibodies is correct?

(a) They are actually glucose molecules
(b) They are produced by the plasma cells
(c) These are used by the immune system to neutralize pathogens such as pathogenic bacteria and
viruses
(d) It is also known as immunoglobulin
(Q.35-Q.39): Indian Navy's [1]-class ship INS Jamuna, which has arrived in [2], will carry out detailed
hydrographic surveys and several shore-based survey activities over the two-month deployment period.
Over the two months deployment period, the ship will carry out detailed hydrographic surveys and several
shore-based survey activities.
[2] Navy personnel will embark the ship during the conduct of the joint survey. Additionally, they will also
be provided "hands-on survey training during every operational turn around in port."
The Hydographic survey is the measurement and study of features that affect maritime navigation. It also
includes offshore oil exploration, dredging, oil drilling and other related activities.
35. INS Jamuna is a specific class of ship of the Indian Navy, which has been replaced by [1]. What is it?
(a) Darshak (b) Sarvekshak (c) Sandhayak (d) Shivalik
36. Which of the following countries will fill [2]?

(a) Russia (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Iran
37. How many Indian Naval Ships are deployed in the hydrographic surveys?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
MOCK CLAT #15
38. Which of the following organizations will release the standards and specifications to conduct the survey?
(a) Indian Navy
(b) International Hydrographic Organization
(c) International Naval Research Organization
(d) Both b and c
39. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Naval Hydrographic Development situated?
(a) Cochin (b) Mumbai (c) Dehradun (d) Chennai
(Q.40-Q.44): The Union Cabinet has approved amendments to the Banking Regulation Act to bring 1,540
cooperative banks under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulation. Cooperative banks have 8.6 lakh
account holders, with a total deposit of about 5 lakh crore.
The proposed amendments, along with the government’s decision to increase the insurance cover on bank
deposits from 1 lakh to [1], have been brought to strengthen the financial stability of cooperative banks and
boost public confidence in the banking system.
The move to bring cooperative sector banks under RBI purview comes after the collapse of [2].
40. Which of the following will fill the blank space [1]?
(a) 2 lakh (b) 3 lakh (c) 4 lakh (d) 5 lakh
41. Which of the following banks will fill [2]?

(a) Saraswat Bank
(b) Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank
(c) Janata Sahakari Bank
(d) Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank
42. What was the main problem of [2] that had led RBI to impose curbs?
(a) The bank had made huge investments in bad loans that had gone out-of-control
(b) The bank had made huge divergence in bad loan reporting
(c) The bank had under-reported its profits to escape from tax-liabilities
(d) The bank had ignored on the PSL-norms
43. Which of the following will not be the consequences of the banks coming under the RBI purview?
(a) Qualification for appointment of directors and pre-permission will be required for the appointment of
CEO
(b) Audit and other norms of the RBI will be implemented in the sector
(c) The RBI will now be able to lend money to the cooperative banks
44. Amongst all these decisions, the Cabinet has also given its ‘in-principle’ approval for setting up a major
port at Vadhavan. In which state is Vadhavan situated?
(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Telengana
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.45-Q.49): The Union Cabinet has cleared a long-pending change to the Medical Termination of
Pregnancy Act, 1971 that raises the legally permissible limit for an abortion to [1] weeks from the current
20 weeks. Following the efforts of the Health Ministry, the change also accepts failure of contraception as
a valid reason for abortion not just in married but also in unmarried women.
The above decision to increase the period of abortion comes with the proviso that for pregnancies that are
between 20-[1] weeks opinions will be required from two doctors rather than one. This has been specially
done keeping in mind “vulnerable women including survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable
women (like differently-abled women, Minors) etc”.
Recently several petitions were received by the Courts seeking permission for aborting pregnancies at a
gestational age beyond the present permissible limit on grounds mainly of [2] or pregnancies due to sexual
violence faced by women. The proposed increase in gestational age will ensure dignity, autonomy,
confidentiality and justice for women who need to terminate pregnancy.
45. Which of the following will fill [1]?

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 28
46. Which of the following reasons will fill [2]?

(a) foetal abnormalities (b) pregnancies before marriage
(c) societal pressures (d) both (b) and (c)
47. What is the main reason that the new amendment has proposed to include the contraceptive failure clause
for unmarried women as well?
(a) Previously the unmarried women with pregnancies were being left to the quacks
(b) The amendment has taken care of the societal pressure that is felt by the unmarried pregnant women
(c) To stop births out of wedlock
(d) All of the above
48. What is the gestational age in terms of a pregnancy?

(a) The period taken by the fetus to develop the final shape
(b) It is the common term used during pregnancy to describe how far along the pregnancy is
(c) It is the time period from 0 to 20 weeks of pregnancy
(d) It is the time period from conceiving to 3 months of pregnancy
49. Which of the following countries has recently announced a bill to decriminalize abortion so that it can be
treated as a health issue, rather than a crime?
(a) USA (b) Russia (c) China (d) New Zealand
(Q.50-Q.54): The highest incidence of children and women being trafficked were observed from the cities
of [1] and [2], according to the latest study by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). The data on
missing children and women was compiled on the directions of the Supreme Court.
In 2011, the SC constituted a panel which submitted its report in 2019. The panel has asked the apex court
to direct the NCRB to compile data on missing children and women to identify the areas prone to trafficking.
According to the NCRB study, the common causes of trafficking were forced marriages, child labour,
domestic help and sexual exploitation, among others.
[3] recorded the maximum number of cases of missing children while [4] reported the most cases of missing
women.
50. Which of the following states will fill [1] and [2]?
(a) Indore and Mumbai (b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Delhi and Kolkata (d) Delhi and Indore
51. Which of the following states will replace [3]?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
MOCK CLAT #15
52. Which of the following states will replace [4]?

(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
53. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this report?

(a) More than 600 women and 180 children go missing every hour in India
(b) Maharashtra has shown a steep fall in missing children
(c) In 2011, the SC constituted a panel which submitted its report in 2019 that had asked the apex court
to direct the NCRB to compile data on missing children and women to identify the areas prone to
trafficking
(d) Assam has registered the maximum decline in number of missing children
54. Which of the following cities is the most populated city as per the Census 2011?
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
(Q.55-Q.59): The [1] caucuses is traditionally the first event in the US presidential election calendar. These
signal the start of the long process by which the two major parties choose their nominees for the presidential
election.
Caucuses and primaries are the processes available to the 50 American states (plus Washington DC and
outlying territories) to choose the two major parties’ nominees for President. Some American states hold
primaries, some hold caucuses, and a third group holds a combination of the two systems.
Until the 1970s, most states held caucuses, but primaries are more popular now. 10 states and three
territories have a system of caucuses. This year, however, the Democrats will hold caucuses in just [2]
states.
However, chaos erupted as the results of the [1] caucuses were delayed much beyond the usual early
evening announcement. There were many repeated “inconsistencies” were found in the Iowa Democratic
Party’s reporting, primarily due to a mobile application failure.
55. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) New Hampshire (b) Iowa (c) Nevada (d) North Dakota
56. Who was declared the winner of the Democrats [1] caucuses?
(a) Joe Biden (b) Bernie Sanders (c) Pete Buttgieg (d) Elizabeth Warren

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
58. Which of the following statements regarding the primary race is incorrect?
(a) Primary elections are conducted by governments, while caucuses are private events held by the
parties
(b) Caucuses are much lengthier processes than the primaries
(c) Caucuses can be either ‘open’ or ‘closed’
(d) Bernie Sanders won the first primaries of the Democrats in 2020
59. The failure of technology in the [1] caucuses has led to fear for the same in India’s electoral environment.
Which Indian state recently piloted facial recognition to verify voters against their voter ID photographs,
resulting in 65-86% accuracy?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telengana (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.60-Q.64): NASA astronaut [1] returned to Earth from the International Space Station, where she set the
record for the longest single spaceflight in history by a woman. [1] arrived along with Soyuz Commander
Alexander Skvortsov of Roscosmos and Luca Parmitano of European Space Agency.
[1] had completed [2] days in space. The previous longest single spaceflight by any woman was 289 days
by Peggy Whitson, also an American, who set that record in 2017. Among Americans across genders, just
Scott Kelly (340 days) is ahead of Koch.
Koch’s extended mission will provide researchers the opportunity to observe effects of long-duration
spaceflight on a woman as the agency plans to return humans to the Moon under the [3] program and
prepare for human exploration of Mars.

(a) Jessica Meir (b) Anne McClain (c) Christina Koch (d) Sally Ride
61. Which of the following will replace [2], which is the number of days [1] had spent in space?
(a) 295 (b) 306 (c) 328 (d) 335

(a) Artemis Mission (b) Project Gemini (c) DART Mission (d) Mission Magellan
63. Who holds the world record for the most number of cumulative days in space across all genders?
(a) Gennady Padalka (b) Valery Polyakov
(c) Jeff Williams (d) Don Pettit
64. Which of the following experiments did [1] take part in the current mission?
(a) Vertebral Strength investigation
(b) Microgravity Crystals investigation
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
(Q.65-Q.68): The government has cleared an ambitious gene-mapping project that is being described by
those involved as the “first scratching of the surface of the vast genetic diversity of India”. The project is
said to be among the most significant of its kind in the world because of its scale and the diversity it would
bring to genetic studies.
The Project will involve 20 leading institutions including the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bengaluru
and a few IITs, and will be rolled out soon.
Cleared by the Department of Biotechnology (under the Department of Science and Technology) late last
month, the first stage of the project will look at samples of “[1] persons from all over the country” to form a
“grid” that will enable the development of a “[2]”.

(a) 5000 (b) 10,000 (c) 15,000 (d) 20,000
66. Which of the following terms will fill [2]?

(a) Base Genome (b) Indian Genome
(c) Reference Genome (d) Primary Genome
67. What is the total outlay for the Genome India Project?
(a) Rs. 156 crore (b) Rs. 187 crore (c) Rs. 238 crore (d) Rs. 365 crore
68. The first migration of human beings as pointed out by scientists has taken place from –
(a) Europe to India (b) Africa to India (c) India to Africa (d) Africa to Europe
MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q. 69- Q.103): Read the comprehension and answer the following questions.
(Q.69-Q.73): Section 46(4) was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter referred to
as the code) in the year 2005 and the proviso for (1) of the section was inserted in the year 2009, this
provision describes the procedure for the arrest of a woman, section 46 of the act is read as under:-
” Arrest how made –
(1) In making an arrest the police officer or other person making the same shall actually touch or confine
the body of the person to be arrested unless there is a submission to the custody by word or action.
Provided that where a woman is to be arrested, her submission to custody on an oral intimation of
arrest shall be presumed and, unless the police officer is a female, the police officer shall not touch the
person of the woman for making her arrest.
(2) If such person forcibly resists the endeavor to arrest him, or attempts to evade the arrest, such police
officer or other person may use all means necessary to affect the arrest.
(3) Nothing in this section gives a right to cause the death of a person who is not accused of an offense
punishable with death or with imprisonment for life.
(4) Save in exceptional circumstances, no women shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise, and
where such exceptional circumstances exist, the woman police officer shall, by making a written report,
obtain the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose local jurisdiction the
offense is committed or the arrest is to be made.
Therefore, the requirement of the provisions of sub-section (4) of Section 46 of the said Code is two-fold. -
If the Police Officer wants to arrest the woman after sunset and before sunrise, there must exist exceptional
circumstances for such arrest. In cases where in such exceptional circumstances do exist, a Lady Police
Officer shall make a written report and obtain the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate, First Class in
whose jurisdiction the offense is committed or the arrest is to be made.
Also, section 60A of the code states that –“No arrest shall be made except in accordance with the provisions
of this code or any other law for the time being in force providing for arrest.”
Sedition is punishable with death.
{Extracted with edits, revisions, and with additions, from Procedure of Arrest of a woman and its awareness
among the public, Saman2719, Lawctopus, 2019.}
69. The police had intelligence that a certain car is being used to smuggle drugs from Delhi to Patiala and they
stopped the alleged car in a RTO which was located on the outskirts of Patiala. The police on finding drugs
in the car, tried to arrest the driver who as a matter of fact was deaf. Despite repeated oral requests from
the police officer to enter the police van she stood mute and still upon which the head constable lost his
cool and grabbed her arm in order to take her to the police car. Can the constable be held liable for violating
the aforesaid provisions?
(a) No, because the woman was deaf, she couldn’t hear anything he said to her which left him with no
option but to grab her arm.
(b) No, because she tried to evade the arrest by not remaining still and not following the officer’s orders.
Thus, allowing the police officer to use all means necessary to make the arrest.
(c) Yes, because the police officer should’ve waited for a female constable to arrive and make the arrest.
(d) Yes, because she was a woman and by grabbing her arm he touched her directly violating the provision
mentioned in the paragraph.
MOCK CLAT #15
70. On 30th December the police received reports that a female suicide bomber has check in a hotel planning
to bomb herself in the midnight of 1st January. The female Inspector on hearing the news immediately sent
a written request to the judicial magistrate of the concerned area at 5pm when it became evident that the
arresting her before sunset wouldn’t be possible for her team. Since he was not in his office due to a
meeting, he didn’t get to know about it and thus couldn’t grant the permission. On not receiving permission
for more than 4 hours, the inspector decided to make the arrest. Can the inspector be held liable for violating
section 46 of the CrPC.
(a) No, since she sent the written request at 4pm before sunset and thus didn’t violate section 46.
(b) No, because arresting a suicide bomber was very important for safety of the public which over-rides
the CrPC provisions.
(c) Yes since she made the arrest after sunset.
(d) Yes since there was no urgency and the police could’ve arrested her next morning because she
anyways wasn’t going to act before midnight leaving police with ample time to act.
71. In the above question assuming the facts to remain same except that the sub-divisional magistrate of the
same jurisdiction , who is of same rank as the judicial magistrate first class, came to know about the issue
and granted the permission to police so that they can arrest the bomber before she harms anyone. Is such
arrest valid under Section 46 of CrPC.
(a) No, since SDM didn’t have the power to grant such permission.
(b) No, since the permission wasn’t granted by judicial magistrate first class.
(c) Yes, because SDM is also a magistrate and that too, of same rank.
(d) Yes, because under such a grave circumstance, it was only logical of the SDM to grant permission.
72. X is a student who made a video explaining how the current government is violating the constitutional
provisions of the country and targeting a certain class of the society calling for all other students to come
out and protest against such actions by the government. On viewing this video, a lawyer filed a case
accusing her of sedition. In furtherance of the complaint, the police went in to arrest her to which she
resisted by hitting a policeman on head by a baseball bat making the fellow policeman to shoot X which
resulted in her death. Is police liable for her death under section 46?
(a) No, since she hit the policeman first.
(b) No, since she was accused of sedition which is punishable by death.
(c) Yes, because she didn’t make the seditious video and was wrongly accused of sedition.
(d) Yes, because she was fighting to safeguard the constitutional provisions.
73. In the above question had few people edited her video by adding sentences like “this government should
be overthrown”, “army is corrupt” and it was a result of this edited video that the lawyer filed a complaint
accusing her of sedition and ultimately caused her death during arrest, would the answer be any different?
(a) Yes, since she was wrongfully accused of sedition.
(b) Yes, instead people who edited her video shall be liable for sedition
(c) No, the content of video is immaterial to the question
(d) No, since she forcibly arrested her arrest allowing policeman to use all means necessary
(Q.74-Q.78): Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), dating back to 1861, makes sexual activities
"against the order of nature" punishable by law and carries a life sentence. The law replaced the variety of
punishments for Zina (unlawful intercourse) mandated in the Mughal empire's Fatawa-e-Alamgiri, these
ranged from 50 lashes for a slave, 100 for a free infidel, to death by stoning for a Muslim. Similarly, the
Goa Inquisition once prosecuted the capital crime of sodomy in Portuguese India, but not lesbian acts.
In September 2018, a 5-judge constitutional bench of Supreme Court of India invalidated part of Section
377 of the Indian Penal Code, hence making homosexuality legal in India. In striking down the colonial-era
law that made gay sex punishable by up to 10 years in prison. This ruling also applies to Jammu and
Kashmir State under Article 141 of the Constitution of India and Delhi Agreement 1952.
There are no official demographics for the LGBT population in India, but the government of India submitted
figures to the Supreme Court in 2012, according to which, there were about 2.5 million gay people recorded
in India. These figures are only based on those individuals who have self-declared to the Ministry of Health.
MOCK CLAT #15
There may be much higher statistics for individuals who have concealed their identity since many
homosexual Indians are living in the closet due to fear of discrimination.
The Supreme Court upheld that the right to individual privacy is an "intrinsic" and fundamental right under
the constitution. In its 547-page decision on privacy rights, the nine-judge bench also held that "sexual
orientation is an essential attribute of privacy". The judgement noted, "Discrimination against an individual
based on sexual orientation is deeply offensive to the dignity and self-worth of the individual. Equality
demands that the sexual orientation of each individual in society must be protected on an even platform.
The right to privacy and the protection of sexual orientation lie at the core of the fundamental rights
guaranteed by Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution.
Article 15 states that
(1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place
of birth or any of them
(2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject
to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to
(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and palaces of public entertainment; or
(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out
of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
However, the Supreme Court struck down the part of section 377, a British-era provision, criminalising
consensual homosexual activities, it upheld that other aspects of section 377 criminalising unnatural sex
with minors and animals will remain in force.”
74. After Supreme court’s decision to strike down Section 377, Sheldon Cooper, an American citizen residing
in India for five years, went to a court citing that his Indian partner has been restricted by his family and are
not letting them live together, which violates their fundamental rights under Article 14, 15, and 21. The
court, however, turned down his petition. Based on the information given in the passage, what could be the
reason Sheldon’s appeal was rejected?
(a) Since Sheldon is yet not an Indian citizen, his claim for fundamental rights does not qualify.
(b) Due to the absence of Sheldon’s partner from the court, it could not be determined that their relationship
is consensual.
(c) If Sheldon’s partner’s parents do not want to take their son’s sexual orientation publically, it’s their right
to privacy.
(d) This is a family matter and should be raised in the family court instead of criminal court.
75. An Indian homosexual was arrested by police on the pretext of having intercourse with the same gender.
In the FIR, the complainant maintains the claim of being forced by the complainee to have unnatural
intercourse. However, the complainee claims not being guilty since Section 377 has been abolished. Based
on the above passage, is the complainee right?
(a) Yes. Abolishment of Section 377 has already decriminalised homosexuality.
(b) No. Though the law struck down S. 377, the state still holds the right to prosecute the acts of sodomy.
(c) No. Section 377 is not abolished entirely. Non-consensual homosexual activities are still a crime.
(d) Not sure. First, it is important to determine that if any of the party does not happens to be a minor.
76. Alex, an Indian national, challenged his kin in the court of law for banishing her from the inherited property
on the grounds of her being a homosexual. Apart from that, she says, she was also targeted because she
is a woman. Her kin, however, claims that the complainant does not hold any right on the family property
since the complainant is homosexual, and therefore belongs to the third gender. And the will clearly state
the beneficiary to be he or she. Based on the information provided in the above passage, will Alex’s kin
succeed?
(a) No. One’s sexual preference is a matter of personal preference and is covered by the right to privacy.
(b) Yes. Alex may not be a third gender, but being a homosexual nullifies her claim on the family
inheritance.
(c) Yes. The will is a document of law and must be abided in all conditions. If it says that Alex holds no
claim, it must be right.
(d) Alex’s kin’s claim about Alex being a transgender should be confirmed first.
MOCK CLAT #15
77. Free Willy works in an MNC and was constantly being tormented by his manager ever since he stepped
out of his closet. Frustrated and fed up, Free Willy raised a complained with upper management and
threatened to drag the company in the court of law if it went unheeded. Based on the information given in
the passage, can Free Willy do that?
(a) No. When Free Willy made his sexual orientation public, he waived his right to privacy.
(b) Yes. He can do that on the grounds of discrimination based on sexual orientation.
(c) No. Section 377 has been surely decriminalised, however, it’s the company's internal matter. Free Willy
holds no basis to file a lawsuit against his company.
(d) Yes. But it could be done but only after he submits an affidavit before the health ministry declaring
himself homosexual. Since the government doesn’t have proper statistics of homosexual in India, it is
difficult to provide them with any legal aid.
78. Parents of a 17 Year old residing in Goa lodged an FIR against a middle-age woman, Alex, for allegedly
kidnapping their minor girl and forcing her into homosexual activities. However, Alex, maintained that it was
consensual and after the abolishment of S. 377, it does not qualify as a crime. While the girl says, choice
of sexual preference is her right to privacy. Based on the information given in the passage, who is right?
(a) The girl. Right to privacy is her fundamental right.
(b) Alex. All the facts she stated are correct. The law backs her.
(c) The parents. While the law allows the choice of sexual orientation, the girl is still a minor.
(d) No one. The police shouldn’t have booked Alex in the first place. Goa was a Portuguese capital and by
the law established by them, lesbian acts are not a crime.
(Q.79-Q.83): A not for profit organization Youth for Equality has questioned the constitutional validity of the
103rd constitutional amendment act which provides for 10 per cent quota for economically weaker sections.
Youth for Equality has questioned the constitutional validity of the 103rd constitutional act. The amendment
which inserts Articles 15(6) and 16(6) in the Constitution would alter the basic structure of the Constitution
and annul various binding judgments of the Supreme Court.
The amendments fail to consider that Articles 14 and 16 form the basic feature of equality. The amendment
act violates restraints that were imposed on the reservation policy, i.e. the 50% ceiling limit and the
exclusion of economic status as a sole criterion.
The amendment act shows complete disregard for the Supreme Court’s nine-judge bench judgment in
Indira Sawhney (Mandal) case which held that the sole economic criteria could not be a basis for
reservation and that the 50% ceiling limit ought not to be crossed.
The petition also cites the judgment in the case of M Nagraj vs Union of India which had upheld the
constitutional validity of Art 16(4A), 16(4B), subject to certain conditions like undertaking proper exercises
by the State to show that there was inadequacy in the representation.
The expression economically weaker section remained undefined by the amendment and was left to be
notified by the state.
It is unclear whether the central government and state governments can both define the expression
separately, but they both may define it differently. This level of untrammeled vagueness makes the insertion
arbitrary and unworkable. The bill was introduced in the parliament at haste just months ahead of the 2019
general election. Even this put the intention of the government in questions.
79. Raghav is a Dalit student who comes from an economically sound family. As a minority, he gets reservation
under the Constitution’s Art. 16? Would the 103rd amendment disqualify him as a candidate for the same?
(a) Yes, as it creates a new law for reservation overthrowing the previous one.
(b) No, as the above amendment does not affect economically sound sections of dalit community and it
doesn’t concern him at all.
(c) Yes, as he is from an economically well off family and hence will not qualify for the reservation anymore.
(d) No, as it tries to include the economically backward category as a separate qualification for availing
reservation, and it doesn’t concern him.
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80. What according to the author is the man impact of the above amendment?
(a) The powers of deciding reservation quota would be divided between the center and State, hence they
would be according to geographical requirements.
(b) The reservation quota would acknowledge the economically backward as oppressed along with socially
oppressed hence help in their development.
(c) It would bring the much required change in the archaic judicial application of reservation’s definition,
hence helping the under privileged.
(d) It would help in bringing proper adequacy of representation in each sector with inclusive quotas.
81. Several NGOs, have filed a petition against the above, along with Youth for Equality, as they are concerned
about the several aspects related to the proposed bill. What is the main ground used to disqualify the
amendment in the above petition?
(a) That it violates the judicial declaration of what is deemed as appropriate reservation quota i.e not more
than 50%.
(b) That it violates other constitutional articles such as article 14 and 16 of the Indian Constitution which
promote equality as a fundamental right.
(c) That it is undefined in its scope and provides room for arbitrary action on behalf of authorities.
(d) That it alters the basic structure of the constitution by conflicting with the existing fundamental rights
and judicial claims.
82. What according to the above passage is the biggest loophole in the above amendment?
(a) The definition and scope can be defined by both center and State which makes the insertion vague
arbitrary and unworkable.
(b) The act is unconstitutional in its application and objective and shouldn’t have been passed.
(c) The bill was passed in a haste, before the election, putting the intention of the government in question.
(d) It causes inequality among the already reserved classes are the percentage lowers their existing
reservation quotas.
83. A community called the ‘Naromis’ have been an oppressed minority in the Country since past 80 years
when their ancestors travelled here as refugees. They have been asking for a reservation quota as they
do not fall under the already existing ones in the Indian Constitution. What is the State’s requirement to
prove such amendment as valid in accordance to the above passage?
(a) The State has to abide by the judgments of Indira Swahney’s case and other judicial proclamation
regarding reservations.
(b) The State has to abide by the principles described in Article 14 and 16 to decide reservation quotas.
(c) The State has to prove adequate evidence to prove there is inadequacy in representation to provide
reservations.
(d) The State has to approve the reservation quotas according to the Center’s quotas in accordance to the
Constitution of India.
(Q.84-Q.89): On May 31 2019, a Chandigarh high court held that the “entire animal kingdom including
avian and aquatic” species has a “distinct legal persona with corresponding rights, duties, and liabilities of
a living person.” This was in connection with a cow-smuggling case.
The court said that “all the citizens throughout the State of Haryana are hereby declared persons in loco
parentis as the human face for the welfare/protection of animals,” implying that citizens have legal
responsibilities and functions similar to those of a parent vis-à-vis minor children.
The court arrived at the decision in a criminal revision petition filed by individuals convicted of unlawfully
exporting cows from Haryana under Section 4B of the Punjab Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, a statute
applicable to both Punjab and Haryana. The judge upheld the conviction of the accused but did not mete
out a prison sentence, saying that the accused “are suffering agony and trauma by facing criminal
proceedings for about 15 years.” Haryana police arrested the convicts in 2004.
“All animals have honour and dignity. Every species has an inherent right to live and is required to be
protected by law. The privacy and the rights of animals are to be respected and protected from unlawful
attacks,” the judge said. The judgment relies on jurisprudence from India’s Supreme Court, which had ruled
in Animal Welfare Board of India vs. Nagaraja that the right to dignity and fair treatment as enshrined in
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and arising out of Article 21 of India’s Constitution is “not confined to human beings alone, but animals as
well.”
Article 21 secures two rights: the right to life, and right to personal liberty to all on Indian soil.
The 104-page judgment said the state government must ensure that draft animals do not carry loads
exceeding prescribed limits and the weight must be halved if the route traversed involves an ascent
exceeding the limit prescribed by the court, and that they are kept in humane temperatures. No more than
four people, excluding the driver and children below six years of age, are allowed to ride an animal-drawn
vehicle. Rules around their veterinary care, housing, and food for animals were also established.
Although most countries don’t bestow human rights on animals, there are places that at least consider
them sentient beings. For instance, in certain American states, the wellbeing of pets is being taken into
account during a custody battle in connection with a divorce case, like it is for children. In New Zealand,
the use of animals in cosmetic testing was banned four years ago.
84. Babu bhaiya, a resident of UP, owns a dairy farm. Some of his cattle are too old to be used in his business.
Neither he could find any interested party to trade off his old cattle. To get rid of the liability, he decides to
put an end to their life by injecting them with poison. However, before he could do that, he gets arrested
for attempted murder. Babu bhaiya now claims that since old cattle are a threat to his livelihood. So, what
he was about to do is valid by law based on the information provided in the passage, is Babu bhaiya right?
(a) Yes. Under Article 21, Babu bhaiya has the right to do it as cattle are his personal property.
(b) No. By the law, he should have filed a mercy killing petition first.
(c) No. under article 21, the cattle have the right to life.
(d) Yes. As Babu bhaiya is not a resident of Punjab or Haryana and is not a registered criminal, the ruling
of Chandigarh high court doesn’t apply to him.
85. An animal welfare NGO sued a school after a video of a student dissecting a mouse went viral. In their
defence, the school stated that it only meant for educational purposes and the students are juveniles.
Therefore, they shouldn’t be held responsible. According to the above passage, are they right?
(a) No. Since the students are juveniles and the act happened under the supervision of the teacher,
School clearly violated the mouse’s right to life.
(b) Yes. All and any measures should be taken to enlighten the young minds.
(c) Yes. Mice do not qualify under Article 21.
(d) Can’t say. It is important to check first if the viral video isn’t doctored.
86. Penny, an American national, comes to India along with a year-old pig of endangered species. She tries to
sell the animal to a pharmaceutical lab to carry experiments on it against a hefty amount of cash but gets
caught. She is accused of violating article 21. In the court of law, she maintains that since the animal is not
found in India, she is not guilty. Based on the information provided above, is she guilty?
(a) No. The animal is clearly not an Indian domicile.
(b) Yes. She violated the pig’s right to life under article 21.
(c) No. She may have violated article 21, but as she is not an Indian citizen, she can’t be held guilty.
(d) Yes. But Penny is held under wrong charges. She should be held for making a heavy cash
transaction.
87. Raju, a domicile of Bhopal, files a petition in the court of law saying that animals too should be allowed to
vote. He cites the ruling of Chandigarh high court that says “entire animal kingdom including avian and
aquatic” species has a “distinct legal persona with corresponding rights, duties, and liabilities of a living
person.” But his petition was rejected outright in the court. Based on the passage, can you tell why?
(a) Because the ruling of Chandigarh high court has nothing to do with Bhopal.
(b) Because Raju does not own any animals by himself.
(c) Because animals cannot make decisions, it would be a violation of article 377.
(d) Because animals fall under article 21, which does not guarantee the right to vote.
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88. Raju, a resident of Chandigarh, sued his neighbour Shyam after Shyam’s dog bit Raju. Raju seeks a hefty
compensation for the injury inflicted by the dog. Shyam, in his defence, states that his dog didn’t consult
him before the act, and the animal holds its freedom under article 21, so he shouldn’t be held responsible.
But the court instructs Shyam to compensate Raju. Based on the information given in the passage, can
you tell why?
(a) Because the dog belongs to Shyam, so he is responsible for it.
(b) Because the section 14B of the Indian constitution allows Raju such compensation.
(c) Because there are chances of Raju of contracting rabies from the dog bite.
(d) Because Raju has been protected under article 15.
89. According to the information provided in the above passage, as per Chandigarh high court’s ruling, avian
from the animal kingdom are not entitled to;
(a) Proper veterinary care (b) Equality before the law
(c) Proper nutrition (d) All of the above
(Q.90-Q.93): Curative petition is the last constitutional remedy available to a person whose review petition
has been dismissed by the Supreme Court. Before the origin of curative petition in Rupa Hurra Case, a writ
petition was filed under Article 32 of the Constitution in the Supreme Court for the second time in the same
case for reconsideration of a final judgement by the court to set aside the miscarriage of justice. This was
done in the case of A.R Antulay v. R.S. Nayak & Anr where the majority judges opined that a previous
judgement could be recalled under a petition under Article 32 and 136 of the constitution. But this view was
later doubted, leading to the reference which was answered in Rupa Hurra case. There, the Court said an
earlier judgment of the Court cannot be challenged under Article 32 of the Constitution. This was in line
with the 1966 decision of a nine-judge bench of SC in Naresh Shridhar Mirajkar and Ors. v. State of
Maharashtra and Anr, which held that a judicial order cannot be challenged as violating fundamental rights.
At the same time, the Court in Rupa Hurra gave shape to the contours of curative jurisdiction, in order to
do complete justice. Even though there is a narrow line that differentiates between a curative petition and
review petition, the apex court has laid down distinct grounds for filing both these petitions and this makes
it evident that both the petitions are different in totality.
Thus it can be said that the idea of the curative petition is a Constitutional remedy which is a last resort that
was originated to rectify the decision of the Supreme Court by themselves as a legal and moral obligation
in deciding rarest of rare cases.
A petitioner is entitled to relief under curative petition, if he establishes:
I. Violation of principles of natural justice where he was not a party to the litigation but the judgement
adversely affected his interests.
II. He was a party to the litigation, but he was not served with notice of the proceedings and the matter
proceeded as if he had the notice.
III. Wherein the proceedings a Learned Judge failed to disclose his connection with the subject-matter.
IV. The parties giving scope for an apprehension of bias and the judgement adversely affects petitioner.
It was explained in the said decision that the curative power of the Court flows from Article 142 of the
Constitution, which gives Court power to do complete justice.
90. After being dismissed to from the High Court, Ramesh filed a case in the Supreme Court under Article 32
of the Indian constitution, seeking remedy for his fundamental rights which were violated. Would the court
hear the same as a curative petition?
(a) Yes, as there is an apprehension of judgement which adversely affects the petitioner, i.e. Ramesh.
(b) No, as he does not fulfil the qualifications required to file the curative petition as given in the above
passage.
(c) Yes, as Article 32, after the Rupa Hurra Case, allows the Court to invoke curative petition for cases.
(d) No, as curative petition applies only to petitions which have been heard by the Supreme Court only.
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91. Rishank has just found out that a suit to which he was made a party, earlier dismissed from the court has
now been opened for review and an order has been passed against his interest without his information.
What remedy is available to him?
(a) No remedy is available as no following the orders of the courts is contempt and an offence.
(b) No remedy is available as he did not stay vigilant through the course of the case and hence missed his
chance to argue.
(c) He can ignore the orders, as he was not informed of the same and hence and the same wouldn’t apply
to him, hence there is no need for any remedy.
(d) He can file a petition under the curative clause, as he was a party to the lis, but he was not served with
notice of the proceedings and the matter proceeded as if he has the choice.
92. In the case of Navtej Johar v. UOI the Supreme Court heard the curative petition based on the rights of
LGBTQ community, even though the same had been dismissed by the court earlier on the same issues.
Which of the following requirements were fulfilled by the petitioner in getting the same heard?
(a) Violation of principles of natural justice where he was not a party to the litigation but the judgement
adversely affected his interests.
(b) They proved a legal and moral obligation in deciding their rarest of rare case.
(c) The parties giving scope for an apprehension of bias and the judgement adversely affects petitioner.
(d) They had exhausted any other remedy available to them for the same.
93. Shikha is aggrieved by the judgment delivered by the Supreme Court against her petition under Article 32
of the Indian Constitution. According to the case of A.R.Antulay what remedy does she have?
(a) The above case’s judgement doesn’t amount to anything as it was overruled later by the court.
(b) The court stated that no other remedy can be recalled against a Supreme Court judgement regarding
Art 32 or 136.
(c) She can file a curative petition against the same, as it was declared in Rupa Hurra case, dismissing
the A.R. Antulay case.
(d) She cannot file a curative petition but she can file for review against the same.
(Q.94-Q.98): The Supreme Court has taken a timely decision by agreeing to hear a plea from the Election
Commission of India (ECI) to direct political parties to not field candidates with criminal antecedents. The
immediate provocation is the finding that 46% of Members of Parliament have criminal records. While the
number might be inflated as many politicians tend to be charged with relatively minor offences —“unlawful
assembly” and “defamation” — the real worry is that the current cohort of Lok Sabha MPs has the highest
(29%) proportion of those with serious declared criminal cases compared to its recent predecessors.
Researchers have found that such candidates with serious records seem to do well despite their public
image, largely due to their ability to finance their own elections and bring substantive resources to their
respective parties. Some voters tend to view such candidates through a narrow prism: of being able to
represent their interests by hook or by crook. Others do not seek to punish these candidates in instances
where they are in contest with other candidates with similar records. Either way, these unhealthy
tendencies in the democratic system reflect a poor image of the nature of India’s state institutions and the
quality of its elected representatives. But these have not been a deterrent to legislators with dubious
credentials. Perhaps what would do the trick is a rule that disallows candidates against whom charges have
been framed in court for serious offences, but this is something for Parliament to consider as an amendment
to the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This denouement, however, is still a pie in the sky given the
composition of the Lower House with a number of representatives facing serious cases. Ultimately, this is
a consequence of a structural problem in Indian democracy and the nature of the Indian state. While
formally, the institutions of the state are present and subject to the electoral will of the people, substantively,
they are still relatively weak and lackadaisical in governance and delivery of public goods, which has
allowed cynical voters to elect candidates despite their dubious credentials and for their ability to work on
a patronage system. While judicial pronouncements on making it difficult for criminal candidates to contest
are necessary, only enhanced awareness and increased democratic participation could create the right
conditions for the decriminalisation of politics.
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94. According to the author what is the ultimate measure through which such electoral system would be
improved to help democracy?
(a) The one that doesn’t allow candidates with criminal record participate in elections.
(b) The one that doesn’t allow candidates with serious criminal records to participate in elections.
(c) The one that enhances awareness and democratic participation in choosing the right candidate.
(d) The one that does not allow people without knowledge of their candidates’ history to vote.
95. Ms. X is a an MLA from the State of Uttar Pradesh and elected with a majority. She has been an excellent
representative of the people and has managed to fulfil all the responsibilities towards his voters in a dutiful
manner. She has in the past a criminal record for the adultery, by her ex-husband Mr. Y when it was still
an offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the theme in the above passage, should she
be disqualified?
(a) Yes, as even if it’s no longer an offence, it still shows his participation in criminal act under the Penal
Code.
(b) No, as it’s no longer an offence and hence it shouldn’t be accounted for.
(c) Yes, as his personal feud and criminal record could hamper his performance and work towards his
people.
(d) No, as the above passage states that people with serious offences should be disqualified if it shows
antecedents of hampering public welfare.
96. Hypothetically, the above amendment gets passed, what would the same seek to correct about our
electoral creation?
(a) To ensure punishments to the people who partake in criminal behaviour.
(b) To ensure that no people do not vote for candidates with criminal records.
(c) To create vacancy in Lok Sabha by eliminating all the candidates who have a criminal record.
(d) To strengthen the structural democracy of our nation.
97. In the village of Karnvi Nagar,(fictitious) the people have been voting for a certain candidate despite
knowing about his criminal; antecedent towards corruption, according to the above passage what could be
the reason behind it?
(a) Because he has been able to procure funds for this electoral campaigns.
(b) Because he serves the people well, and doesn’t let his past behaviour hamper his public services.
(c) Because people in the village are uneducated and unaware of his criminal record and how it affects his
work.
(d) Because he is a better candidate compared to the others with criminal records as well.
98. Supposing the law gets passed disqualifying all the candidates with the criminal record, what would be the
next step for the vacancy created?
(a) To let people decide on how to handle the situation with their votes.
(b) By allowing people to vote for vacancies with other candidates with a clean record.
(c) By reducing the number of seats available in the parliament itself.
(d) By educating the masses to vote wisely with complete information about their candidates.
(Q.99-Q.103): The proper way to understand the Constitution is firstly to sympathize with the ideals which
motivated it. For a long time before the Constitution was framed, the movement towards bringing about
greater economic equality was gathering force in the country. Various land reforms Acts and tenancy
legislations had been enacted even in British India to give greater protection to the tillers of the soil. Income-
tax Act and other progressive taxation measures had also been introduced to bring about more even
distribution of wealth. Nehru had been advocating democratic socialism. The debates of the Constituent
Assembly echo these sentiments. It is in the background of these sentiments that we have to read the
Constitution. So read, it would be obvious that the fundamental rights were not to be worshipped in isolation.
On the other hand, they were a part of the integrated system of democratic socialism. If they are the
democracy, then socialism was contained in the preamble and in the directive principles of state policy.
The constitutional system is neither democracy simpliciter nor socialism much the less communism
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simpliciter. It is the mixed polity and economy of democratic socialism. The rights of the individual are
balanced in it with the duties of the individual to the society. Such duties are to obey and conform to the
restrictions which may be imposed on the fundamental rights by the state to give effect to the directive
principles of state policy. The reasonable restrictions placed on the fundamental rights in part III have,
however to be spelt out in each individual case by the courts. The effective interpretation of the Constitution
is, therefore, contained in the decisions of the courts. This led Chief Justice Hughes of the U.S. Supreme
Court to observe that the Constitution is what the court says it is. The observation of Justice Holmes that
the personal philosophy of a judge acts as ''the inarticulate major prenrse" in his decisions has also been
widely quoted.
99. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution inscribes equality for all citizens prohibits inequality on the basis of
caste, religion, place of birth, race, or gender. It also ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment and prevents the State from discriminating against anyone. Alexis a girls born in Germany,
who completed her college education and applied of a job in an Indian Company where she was denied a
job due her gender. Can she sue the company for violation of her fundamental rights?
(a) Yes, as her fundamental right has been violated and our country upholds it.
(b) No, as she is not a citizen of the country and art 14 is not available for non-citizens.
(c) Yes, as any kind of gender discrimination is not allowed and it’s wrong for any institute to do so.
(d) No, as we do not know if it’s a State owned company or not, Art 14 only assures the rights against State
Discrimination.
100. Supreme Court in K Puttuswamy Case, stated that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right, under Article 21
which guarantees right to personal liberty, even though it’s not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Does
the court have the power to do so?
(a) No, as the court only has power to interpret what is written in the constitution.
(b) Yes, as the court has the power to interpret each fundamental right and its scope and restriction in each
individual case.
(c) No, as fundamental rights are to be interpreted only in accordance to directive principles or fundamental
duties.
(d) Yes, as the Court can direct the State to follow any policy it manifests within its powers of Constitution
101. Supreme Court in its decision of ‘Shyam Chouksey v. UOI.’ stated that one doesn’t have to Stand up for
the National Anthem in cinemas, as you ‘don’t have to wear your patriotism on your sleeve’, even though
it is one of the fundamental duties to respect the National Anthem. Will the judgment prevail?
(a) Yes it’s possible as the fundamental right to choice and personal liberty is guaranteed and is more
important than fundamental duties.
(b) No, it’s not possible as court cannot reach fundamental duties in isolation, they are as important as any
other parts of the constitution.
(c) Yes, as nothing in the constitution has to be read strictly and the interpretation by the court in its
application is within the court’s power to decide.
(d) No, as it’s not possible as any disrespect to the national anthem is unpatriotic and seditious in nature.
102. A law has been passed in accordance to the DPSP in the constitution to protect the wildlife and nature, but
it restricts the right of the people to visit such protected areas, hence violating their fundamental right to
movement. Is the same allowed in accordance to the above paragraph?
(a) Yes the law will be allowed to be enforced as resection on a fundamental right to fulfill a state policy
can be given effect if it’s constitutionally approved.
(b) Yes it would be allowed a right to movement is not an absolute right.
(c) No it won’t be allowed because it’s the fundamental duty of the state to ensure effective application of
fundamental rights, not its restriction.
(d) No it won’t be allowed as the court is the only authority to decide what restriction can be imposed on a
right from case to case basis.
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103. What according to the above passage defines our democracy and our socialism in the Constitution?
(a) It’s not mentioned in the above passage.
(b) Our struggle for freedom defines democracy and our need to be economically robust defines out
socialism, which is read in your constitutional interpretation
(c) Our fundamental rights define our democracy and our preamble and DPSP defines our socialism.
(d) Our constitutional system is neither democracy simpliciter nor socialism simpliciter.
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SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.104- Q.108): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
it:
There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family.
They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
The Manager D is married to A.
C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
B is the mother of F and E.
There are two married couples in the family.
104. What is the profession of E?

(a) Doctor (b) Jeweller (c) Manager (d) None of these
105. How is A related to E?

(a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Father (d) Grandfather
106. How many male members are there in the family?

(a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Can't be determined
107. What is the profession of A?

(a) Doctor (b) Lawyer (c) Jeweller (d) Manager
108. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family?
(a) AB (b) AC (c) AD (d) Can't be determined
Directions (Q.109 and Q.110): Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have
to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
109. Statements:
All English movies are violent.
Some people like watching English movies.
Conclusions:
I. All people watching English movies like violence.
II. All people who like violence watch English movies.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows (d) Both I and II follow
110. Statement:
(a) All students like excursions.
(b) Some students like laboratory experiments.
Conclusions:
(I) Students who like laboratory experiments also like excursions.
(II) Some students do not like laboratory experiments but like excursions.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
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111. A recent development in the marketplace for consumer technology goods has been the premium placed
on design —products with innovative and appealing designs relative to competing products can often
command substantially higher prices. Because design innovations are quickly copied by other
manufacturers though, many consumer technology companies charge as much as possible when it
comes to their new designs to extract as much value as possible from their new designs. But large profits
generated by the innovative design will give competitors stronger incentives to copy the designs.
Therefore, the best strategy to maximize overall profit from an innovative new design is to charge
less than the greatest possible price.
In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(a) The first is an assumption that assists a course of action criticized by the argument; the second
provides a consideration to support the argument’s recommended position.
(b) The first is a consideration that helps explain the appeal of a certain strategy; the second presents
an alternative strategy endorsed by the argument.
(c) The first is an assumption that justifies a specific strategy; the second is that strategy.
(d) The first is a consideration presented to demonstrate that a particular strategy will not apply; the
second is a factor cited to support the argument’s main position.
112. Smoking is a known cause of certain serious health problems, including emphysema and lung cancer.
Now, an additional concern can be added to the list of maladies caused by smoking. A recent study
surveyed both smokers and nonsmokers, and found that smokers are significantly more anxious and
nervous than nonsmokers.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument rests?

(a) Anxiety and nervousness can lead to serious health problems.
(b) Anxiety and nervousness do not make individuals more likely to start smoking.
(c) Equivalent numbers of smokers and non smokers were surveyed for the study.
(d) Smokers are aware of the various health problems attributed to smoking, including lung cancer
and emphysema.
113. The number of new cases of tuberculosis diagnosed in Country X increased dramatically this year. The
country’s news media have speculated that the sharp increase in new cases is the result of the tuberculosis
outbreak that occurred in neighboring Country Y last year. Health officials in Country X have therefore
proposed that all visitors from Country Y must submit to a medical examination before entering Country X.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly suggests that the proposed medical examinations will NOT
help curb the spread of tuberculosis in Country X?
(a) Country Z, which also neighbors Country Y, has not experienced an increase in cases of
tuberculosis.
(b) Current medical technology is not capable of detecting all carriers of tuberculosis.
(c) Country X does not have the resources to examine all visitors from Country Y.
(d) Tuberculosis is not spread through human contact.
114. The people of Prohibition land are considering banning the service of alcoholic beverages in restaurants
to curb unruly behavior on the part of its residents. Proprietors of restaurants in Prohibition land are
protesting the ban on the grounds that it will reduce their revenues and profits. However, several provinces
in Prohibition land enacted restrictions on alcoholic beverages last year, and the sales taxes paid by the
restaurants in those provinces rose by an average of 50 percent. In contrast, the sales taxes paid by
restaurants located in areas of Prohibition land that did not have any restrictions rose by an average of 30
percent.
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Which of the following, if true, supports the restaurant proprietors’ economic stance against the ban?
(a) In the provinces that restricted alcoholic beverages, there was a short-term negative impact on
restaurant visitation in the beginning of last year.
(b) The sales tax in Prohibition land is lower on food and beverages than it is on other consumer goods,
such as clothing.
(c) The consumption of alcoholic beverages in Prohibition land has been on a gradual decline the last
20 years.
(d) The restrictions on alcoholic beverages enacted last year allowed for the service of drinks
beginning around dinnertime each evening.
115. Serious individual art collectors are usually discreet when making significant purchases or sales related to
their collections. At art auctions, for example, these collectors often place anonymous bids for major
artwork. Therefore, the whereabouts of most of the world’s most valuable artwork is probably unknown.
Each of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion above EXCEPT:
(a) The value of a piece of art is purely subjective.
(b) Serious art collectors usually publicize their new artwork several months after making a purchase.
(c) Museums own the vast majority of the world’s most valuable artwork.
(d) Of all the individuals in the world who own extremely valuable artwork, only a few are considered
serious art collectors.
(Q.116 - Q.119): Insect behavior generally appears to be explicable in terms of unconscious, inflexible
stimulus-response mechanisms. For instance, a female sphex wasp leaves her egg sealed in a burrow
alongside a paralyzed grasshopper, which her larvae can eat upon hatching. Before she deposits the
grasshopper in the burrow, she inspects the burrow; if the inspection reveals no problems, she drags the
grasshopper inside by its antennae. As thoughtful as this behavior appears, it reveals its mechanistic
character upon interference. Darwin discovered that prior removal of the grasshopper's antennae prevents
the wasp from depositing the grasshopper, even though the legs or ovipositor could also serve as handles.
Likewise, Fabre moved the grasshopper a few centimeters away from the burrow's mouth while the wasp
was inside inspecting. The wasp returned the grasshopper to the edge of the burrow and then began a
new inspection. Fabre performed this disruptive maneuver forty times; the wasp's response never changed.
116. What is the structure of the argument?

(a) prove, based on examples, that insects lack consciousness
(b) argue that insects are unique in their dependence on rigid routines
(c) analyze the maternal behavior of wasps
(d) argue that insect behavior relies on rigid routines which appear to be unconscious
117. The author mentions the work of Darwin and Fabre in order to
(a) provide experimental evidence of the inflexibility of one kind of insect behaviour
(b) contradict the conventional wisdom about “typical” wasp behaviour
(c) illustrate the strength of the wasp's maternal affection
(d) explore the logical implications of the thesis articulated earlier
118. Which of the following hypothetical variations in the experiments described in the passage would most
weaken the primary claim of the passage?
(a) Darwin removes the ovipositor, a small appendage, instead of the antennae; the wasp fails to deposit
the grasshopper in the burrow.
(b) Darwin restrains the grasshopper while the wasp attempts to drag it by its antennae, which
subsequently break off; although Darwin then releases the grasshopper, the wasp ignores it.
releases the grasshopper, the wasp ignores it.
(c) Fabre moves the grasshopper several meters away during the wasp's inspection; the wasp takes
significant time to retrieve the grasshopper, then re-inspects the burrow.
(d) Fabre replaces the grasshopper with a paralyzed praying mantis, a rather different insect that the
wasp inspects and then deposits in the burrow.
MOCK CLAT #15
119. The passage supports which of the following statements about insect behavior?
(a) Reptiles such as snakes behave more flexibly than do insects.
(b) Insects such as honeybees can always be expected to behave inflexibly.
(c) Many species of insects leave eggs alongside living but paralyzed food sources.
(d) More than one species of insect displays inflexible, routine behaviors.
120. As pitch depends upon the frequency at which sound waves strike the ear, an object may emit sound waves
at a constant frequency, yet may produce different pitches in ears differently situated. Such a case is not
usual, but an example of it will serve a useful purpose in fixing certain facts as to pitch. Conceive two
railroad trains to pass each other, running in opposite directions, the engine bells of both trains ringing.
Passengers on each train will hear the bell of the other, first as a rising pitch, then as a falling one.
Passengers on each train will hear the bell of their own train at a constant pitch.
Which of the following statements best describes the main discrepancy presented by this passage?
(a) The continuity of sound waves emitted by an object varies in the unreliability of individual
perceptions.
(b) It is unusual for people to hear the same sounds in different ways
(c) Two trains that are travelling in opposite directions meet at a common point at the moment that
they pass each other.
(d) Though theoretically two trains may emit identical sounds from their bells, the sound emitted is
irrelevant to the sound that is heard.
121. The wear on a well-designed gas valve operating mechanism is practically nil; and even if there was wear,
the effect would be to cause the valve to open a trifle later and close sooner than it would otherwise, i.e., it
would remain open a shorter time during each charging stroke. This in turn (other conditions remaining the
same) would give us a weaker mixture; and although too weak a mixture is preferable to a too rich one, we
should have to adopt some means of increasing the richness of the mixture; otherwise the maximum power
of the e would soon be seen to diminish.
Choose the option that identifies a topic which, if added to the passage in more detail, would best
strengthen the author's argument.
(a) How to maintain the best overall function of an engine.
(b) Whether the quality of a gas valve's design will adversely affect engine performance.
(c) Whether a richer mixture is more detrimental to engine performance than a weaker one.
(d) The destructive effects of wear on a gas-valve over time.
(Q.122 – Q.124): The difference between the ways in which snow and rain are formed is very slight. In
both cases water evaporates and its vapor mingles with the warm air. The warm air rises and expands. It
cools as it expands, and when it gets cool enough the water vapor begins to condense. But if the air as it
expands becomes very cold, so cold that the droplets of water freeze as they form and gather together to
make delicate crystals of ice, snow is formed. The ice crystals found in snow are always six-sided or six-
pointed, because, probably, the water or ice molecules pull from six directions and therefore gather each
other together along the six lines of this pull. At any rate, the tiny crystals of frozen water are formed and
come floating down to the ground; and we call them snowflakes. After the snow melts it goes through the
same cycle as the rain, most of it finally getting back to the ocean through rivers, and there, in time, being
evaporated once more.
122. The use of the phrase, "at any rate" reveals which of the following about the sentence preceding it?
(a) That the information in that sentence is essential to understanding the passage
(b) That the information in that sentence cannot be scientifically proven
(c) That the information in that sentence is an unnecessary digression
(d) That the process described in that sentence is not true in every case
MOCK CLAT #15
123. Consider the context of this passage to decide which of the following most accurately identifies the type of
writing exhibited.
(a) Narrative (b) Expository (c) Editorial (d) Compare/contrast
124. Based on the information in this passage, decide which of the following meteorological events is a result
of the same process described here.
(a) A rainbow (b) Fog (c) Wind chill (d) Degree days
(Q.125 and Q.126): Sound is the sensation peculiar to the ear. This sensation is caused by rapidly-
succeeding to-and-fro motions of the air which touches the outside surface of the drum-skin of the ear.
These to-and-fro motions may be given to the air by a distant body, like a string of a violin. The string moves
to and fro, that is, it vibrates. These vibrations of the string act on the bridge of the violin, which rests on
the belly or sounding-board of the instrument. The surface of the sounding-board is thus set trembling, and
these tremors, or vibrations, spread through the air in all directions around the instrument, somewhat in the
manner that water-waves spread around the place where a stone has been dropped into a quiet pond.
These tremors of the air, however, are not sound, but the cause of sound. Sound, as we have said, is a
sensation; but, as the cause of this sensation is always vibration, we call those vibrations which give this
sensation, sonorous vibrations.
125. What is the correct definition of peculiar as it is used in the first sentence of this passage?
(a) Odd
(b) Uncommon
(c) Distinctive in character or nature from others
(d) Belonging characteristically
126. Consider the content of the passage and select the most likely audience for this information.
(a) Musicians (b) Violin manufacturers
(c) Students (d) Sonography technicians
(Q.127 and Q.128): Evapotranspiration is water transpired from plants and evaporated from the soil. Rising
air currents take the vapor up into the atmosphere where cooler temperatures cause it to condense into
clouds. Air currents move water vapor around the globe, cloud particles collide, grow, and fall out of the
sky as precipitation. Some precipitation falls as snow or hail, and can accumulate as ice caps and glaciers,
which can store frozen water for thousands of years.
127. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following would be an appropriate visual
representation of the text.
(a) A Venn diagram (b) A list (c) A flow chart (d) A time line
128. Based on the sequence of information in this passage, which of the topics listed below might logically be
discussed in the paragraph immediately following this one?
(a) Different cloud formations
(b) Other forms of precipitation
(c) Water evaporated from lakes and ponds
(d) Glaciers and ice caps
129. Lakes which fill rock-basins are such as are confined on all sides by the common rock of the country, so
that in some cases a person can walk entirely around them without stepping off the solid rock; and in all
cases they would be found to have a rocky rim inclosing them, were the superficial material removed. How
such spoon-shaped depressions could be scooped out, was for a long time an enigma which eluded the
search of the most painstaking observers.
As facts accumulated, however, it was noticed that the sides and bottoms of such lakes are smoothed, in
many cases polished, and almost always covered with grooves and scratches; and also that in their vicinity
beds of clay are usually found, intermixed with pebbles and large bowlders which, like the rocky basins,
MOCK CLAT #15
are also smoothed and frequently scratched. It was noticed, too, that the rock from which these bowlders
and pebbles had been formed commonly differed from the rocks in place on the shores of the lakes. Thus,
throughout New York and Ohio, huge bowlders are common, composed of crystalline rock found in place
nowhere nearer than the Canadian Highlands, a hundred miles to the northward ; while the peculiar native
copper of Northern Michigan is sometimes found mingled with the bowlders and striated stones of the drift
far southward in Ohio.
The problem now was to discover what forces in Nature could polish and scratch both rock-surfaces and
detached stones, and could also transport masses of rock, tons in weight, far from their native home. It is
well known that the loose stones and pebbles along the sea- shore are made very smooth and round, and
often polished, by the action of the waves. It might be thought from this that the pebbles found on the
shores of the lakes, and imbedded in the clays, were fashioned in the same manner. On one occasion, at
the Cape of Good Hope, the writer, after wandering for a time along the sloping sandy beach of Table Bay,
came suddenly to a little rocky cove exposed to the full swell of the South Atlantic. As each wave broke on
the steep, rocky beach and retreated, it was followed by a sharp, rattling sound that could be distinctly
heard above the roar of the waves; we noticed, too, that the stones all along the shore were in motion,
rolling down the beach, only to be caught up by the next white-capped wave that came in from the ocean,
and again carried up the beach, and rolled and pounded against each other by the untiring waters, that
were fast reducing them to sand and dust. On examining these water-worn stones, we found them all
smoothed and rounded, and often beautifully polished; but in no case could we discover, even with a
magnifying-glass, any that were scratched, or in any way marked similarly to the stones which we have so
often examined in the clays and hard-pans that cover so great a portion of our Northern States. From this
fact, and also from watching the action of the waves on many other coasts, we conclude that the sea tends
to smooth and wear away the stones and rocks along its shores, but has no power to cover them with
grooves and scratches; and that, instead of wearing the coast into pockets and basins, it tends only to grind
down the islands and continents to one uniform level.
In order to satisfy the writer's hypothesis that the action of the waves creates smooth surfaces on the stones
on the shoreline, what additional steps should he take?
(a) Collect and label samples from Table Bay
(b) Create an experiment that tests the hypothesis
(c) Do background research
(d) Publish a report of the results
(Q.130 and Q.131): Niccolo Machiavelli's seminal work, The Prince, is considered to be one of the first
works of modern political philosophy; it is also one of the most controversial. Nonetheless, The Prince has
influenced Western thought related to governance ever since its publication in 1532. Machiavelli uses his
treatise to outline leadership and success relative to royal (or political) rule. In today's world it is quite
controversial as The Prince negates the importance of personal virtue in leaders and lofty political
idealism - realism is the goal of the treatise and the reality of the world is that successful outcomes
go to the strongest in the fight for survival and the battle of the wits. Despite its controversial
message, The Prince is written in eloquent, yet simple language that relays its message with surgical
precision. Nearly all English speakers are well-acquainted with the polemical aphorism that lies at
the thematic heart of The Prince: The end justifies the means.
130. The two portions in bold-face are related to each other in which of the following ways?
(a) The first bold-faced section undermines the conclusion drawn by the second bold-faced section
(b) The first bold-faced section is an extrapolation on the conclusion drawn by the second boldfaced
section
(c) Both bold-faced sections challenge the author's position
(d) The first bold-faced section is a position that the author does not agree with; the second boldfaced
section is a position that the author does agree with
MOCK CLAT #15
131. The author most clearly makes a case for the fact that
(a) Polemical books are often among the most influential
(b) Leadership requires a combination of virtue and vice
(c) Political ideas often evolve
(d) Human nature remains the same as political systems change
(Q.132 and Q.133): Many scholars hold Karl Marx to be one of the founding fathers of modern day social
science. Karl Marx is and always has been a polemical figure, but his conceptualization of the dialectic that
shapes all societal conflicts, class struggle, has fundamentally changed the way that many politicians,
academics, and lay people view and analyze global power relationships. The theories of Karl Marx, known
as Marxism, are most often employed as methods of critiquing not only capitalism, but also the very political
systems that they engendered: socialism and communism. Thus, Marxism can be a highly useful and self-
reflexive analytical tool.
132. According to the author, Marxism is a self-reflexive analytical tool because

(a) It accurately deconstructs power structures within capitalistic societies
(b) It can be used as a method of critically examining its own economic systems
(c) It elucidates important issues related to class conflict
(d) It helps academics set up a dialectical research framework
133. The term "dialectic" in the passage is most analogous to

(a) The scientific method (b) Reason engendered by discussion
(c) Protest (d) Political dialogue
134. It pays to work hard in college. Literally researchers have concluded that slacker students in college are at
the highest risk for credit card debt, unemployment, and hunkering down for a permanent stay in mom and
dad's basement. Even more troubling is the fact that these students lack critical job skills - they run the
highest risk of not improving their reasoning, writing, and critical thinking skills by the time they walk across
the stage to accept their diploma. Many students believe college to be a time of fun and exploration, but if
such experiences are not combined with hard work, future success is not a guarantee.
The author's claims about slacker students would be weakened by all of the following except
(a) Several examples of students who were slackers yet still succeeded after college
(b) Research that demonstrated slacker college students improving their academic skills despite low
work ethics
(c) Evidence that slacker college students obtained post-graduation jobs as easily as their
hardworking counterparts
(d) Evidence that slacker students do not struggle with financial issues any more than their hard
working counterparts
135. According to recent psychological research published in the British Journal of Psychology, men are more
likely to display altruistic behavior in the presence of attractive women. Conversely, women's behavior
remains constant regardless of the attractiveness of their male company. Psychologists conclude that male
behavior is determined by the need to impress prospective mates, while female behavior is based less on
the need to impress and more on the need to be selective and receptive with respect to potential male
partners.
The author primarily makes his or her point by

(a) Objectively evaluating the facts (b) An emotional appeal to the reader
(c) Providing both a view and counterview (d) Offering a source of authority
MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136 - Q.140): Refer to the line graph below and answer the questions that follow
Turnover in 2002 No. of distributors in

Rank Company
(in Rs. Cr) 2002 (in lakhs)
1. Wamay 472 3.65
2. Codimare 165 4.95
3. Nova 110 0.68
4. Balife 78 0.2
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
136. What is the average simple annual growth rate of turnover of direct selling business in India during
the given period?
(a) 42% (b) 60% (c) 78% (d) 137.5%
137. If Wamayand Nova were the only companies in the direct selling business in India till 1998 with the
Wamaymarket share three times that of Nova, then what is the percentage growth in Nova’s turnover
during the given period?
(a) 10% (b) 15.6% (c) 35% (d) 46.7%
138. Balifewas launched in 2000. Since then, the number of its distributors is increasing by 25% every year
and its turnover by 20%.Then what was the approximate ratio of Balife turnover to number of
distributors during its launching year?
(a) 36120 (b) 39820 (c) 42320 (d) 45720
139. Which of the following is definitely false?

(a) The ratio of turnover to number of distributors is maximum for Balife during 2002.
(b) Top four companies together have more than 80% of total number of distributors in the
direct selling business in India during 2002.
(c) There are not more than18 companies in direct selling business in India during 2002.
(d) None ofthese
140. During which year, the ratio of turnover to number of distributors shown maximum percentage
increase over the previous year?
(a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 2001 (d) 2002
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
(Q.141 – Q.145): Study the following bar charts and answer the questions.
Foreign Trade (Imports and Exports) by countries for the year (1993 - 1994)
Trade Surplus = Export – Import

Trade Deficit= Input - Export
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
141. The ratio of the maximum exports to the minimum imports was closest to ?
(a) 64 (b) 69 (c) 74 (d) 79
142. How many countries exhibited a trade surplus ?

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
143. The total trade deficit/surplus for all the countries put together was ?
(a) 11286 surplus (b) 11286 deficit
(c) 10286 deficit (d) None of these
144. The highest trade deficit was shown by which country ?

(a) C (b) G (c) H (d) L
145. The ratio of Exports to Imports was highest for which country ?
(a) A (b) I (c) J (d) K
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.146 – Q.150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
Virat kohli scored runs against different countries in three different years.
NOTE: Total runs scored in a year= Australia + England + Others
2015: The total runs scored in 2015 were 1200. The runs scored against England were 1/3rd of the runs
against Others in 2016. The average runs scored against Australia and England was 300.
2016: The total runs scored against Australia and Others was 1200. The ratio of the total runs scored
against Others in 2015 to that of the total runs scored against Others in 2016 is 4:3. The total runs scored
against England in 2016 were equal to the total runs scored against England in 2017.
2017: The sum of the total runs scored against Australia and England is equal to the total runs scored
against Others. The total runs scored in 2017 were 1400. The runs scored against Australia were twice of
the runs scored against England in 2015.
146. What were the total runs scored in 2016?

(a) 1100 (b) 1500 (c) 1600 (d) 1400
147. What is the sum of the runs scored against England in all three years?
(a) 800 (b) 950 (c) 850 (d) 1050
148. What is the ratio of the total runs scored against Australia in 2015 to that of the total runs scored against
England in 2017?
(a) 7 : 9 (b) 9 : 7 (c) 11 : 7 (d) 9 : 8
149. What is the difference between the total runs scored against others in 2015 to the total runs scored
against Others in 2016?
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 300
150. The total runs scored against Australia in 2016 is what percentage of the total runs scored against
Australia in 2017?
(a) 125% (b) 100% (c) 250% (d) 200%
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
Use for Rough Work
MOCK CLAT #15
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2020

MOCK CLAT #15

candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1. What does the author mean by ‘lab-duel’?

3. Which of the following best represents the tone of the passage?

5. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

6. What does the author mean by ‘motley’?

7. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

9. Which of the following best represents the attitude of the author?

27. The author's primary purpose in this passage is to

SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

31. Which of the following pathogens have been replaced by [2]?

32. Which of the following diseases is not an example of zoonotic diseases?

33. In what shape do antibodies exist?

34. Which of the following options about antibodies is correct?

36. Which of the following countries will fill [2]?

41. Which of the following banks will fill [2]?

45. Which of the following will fill [1]?

46. Which of the following reasons will fill [2]?

48. What is the gestational age in terms of a pregnancy?

51. Which of the following states will replace [3]?

52. Which of the following states will replace [4]?

53. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this report?

55. Which of the following will replace [1]?

57. Which of the following will replace [2]?

60. Which of the following will replace [1]?

62. Which of the following will replace [3]?

65. Which of the following will replace [1]?

66. Which of the following terms will fill [2]?

SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING

SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

104. What is the profession of E?

105. How is A related to E?

106. How many male members are there in the family?

107. What is the profession of A?

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument rests?

116. What is the structure of the argument?

132. According to the author, Marxism is a self-reflexive analytical tool because

133. The term "dialectic" in the passage is most analogous to

The author primarily makes his or her point by

SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Turnover in 2002 No. of distributors in

Use for Rough Work

139. Which of the following is definitely false?

Use for Rough Work

Trade Surplus = Export – Import

Use for Rough Work

142. How many countries exhibited a trade surplus ?

144. The highest trade deficit was shown by which country ?

Use for Rough Work

146. What were the total runs scored in 2016?

Use for Rough Work

Use for Rough Work

Use for Rough Work

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