@NEETpassionate AIATS 3 (2021)

08-11-2020 A
Entrance Exam - 2021
TEST No. 3
(XII Studying Students)
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Test No. 3
Alternating Currents, Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments,

Wave Optics.
d and f-Block elements, Coordination compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers.
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare,

Organisms and Populations, Human Health and Disease, Strategies for
Enhancement in Food Production - Animal Husbandry and Apiculture.
Test-3 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
MM : 720 TEST - 3 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The electric current flowing in a circuit is given by 5. In an alternating series circuit, current is i = 100
 2t   
i    A for some time. The rms value of current sin(100t) A and voltage is V = 100 sin  100t   V.
 3   6
for the period t = 0 to t =  is The average power dissipated in the ac circuit is
2 2 (1) 25000 W
(1) A (2) A
3 3 (2) 2500 3 W
2 2 (3) 5000 W
(3) A (4) A
3 3 3 (4) 5000 3 W
2. An alternating current having peak value 1.4 A is 6. The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible
used to heat a metal wire. To produce the same that the circuit contains
heating effect in same metal wire, a constant (1) An inductor and a capacitor
current i can be used, where i is nearly (2) An inductor but no capacitor
(1) 1.4 A (2) 0.2 A (3) An inductor and a resistor but no capacitor
(3) 0.7 A (4) 1.0 A (4) A capacitor but no inductor
3. The primary and secondary coils of an ideal 7. A bulb rated 100 W, 220 V is connected across a
transformer have 100 and 4000 turns respectively. household supply of alternating voltage of 220 V.
The magnetic flux linked with the primary coil is The maximum instantaneous current through the
given by  = 20t + 20. The output voltage across the filament is
secondary coil is (all quantities are in SI units) (1) 0.45 A (2) 0.32 A
(1) 800 V (2) 400 V (3) 0.64 A (4) 0.16 A
(3) 500 V (4) 80 V 8. A series AC circuit contains an inductor (20 mH), a
4. For series LCR circuit, quality factor at resonance capacitor (100 F), a resistor (50 ) and an AC
will be (symbols have their usual meaning) source of 12 V, 50 Hz. The energy dissipated in the
circuit in one second is nearly
r L 1
(1) (2) (1) 2.3 J
R r RC
(2) 4.6 J
1 L (3) 1.2 J
(3) (4) All of these
R C (4) 3.9 J
Space for Rough Work
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1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)
9. An AC having voltage  = 10[cos{100(rad/s)t} 13. The amplitude of electric field in a parallel beam of
+ cos{500(rad/s)t}] is connected in series with a light of intensity 1.5 W/m2 is
capacitor and a resistor. The current in the circuit is  10 4 N
found out to be i = i1[cos{100(rad/s)t + 1}] (1)  
 
+ i2[cos{500(rad/s)t + 2}]  0 C
Choose the correct option  10 4 N

(2)  
  C
(1) i1 = i2  0 
(2) i1 > i2  1 N
(3)  
(3) i1 < i2
 0  C
(4) Information is insufficient to find the relation
1 N
between i1 and i2 (4)
0 C
10. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is
given by E = (50 N/C) sin(t – kx). The energy 14. If IR, x and  represents the wavelengths of
contained in a cylinder of cross section 1 m2 and infrared rays, X-rays and Gamma rays respectively,
length 25 cm along the x axis is nearly then
(1) 2.77 mJ (2) 2.77 nJ (1) x >  > IR
(3) 5.5 nJ (4) 5.5 mJ (2) IR > x > 
11. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor being (3) > x > IR
charged by a battery. If M and N are two closed (4) IR >  > x
 
curve, then during charging  B.dl is zero along the 15. There is a small air bubble inside a glass sphere
curve ( = 1.5) of radius 10 cm. The bubble is 6 cm below
the surface and viewed normally from just outside of
the same surface. The apparent depth of the bubble
is
(1) 5 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 3 cm
16. A point object is placed at a distance 40 cm from a
(1) M only (2) N only
convex mirror of focal length 40 cm. The image will
(3) Both M and N (4) Neither M nor N form at
12. Which of the following have zero average value in (1) Infinity
plane electromagnetic wave?
(2) Focus
(1) Electric energy (2) Magnetic energy (3) Between centre and focus
(3) Magnetic field (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Between focus and pole
2/20
17. Figure shows three transparent media of refractive 20. A converging beam of light rays is incident on a thin
indices 1, 2 and 3. lens. After passing through the lens, the rays
intersect at a point 20 cm from the lens on the
opposite side. If the lens is removed, the point
where the rays intersect moves 10 cm closer. The
focal length of the lens is
(1) 30 cm (2) –20 cm
(3) –30 cm (4) –10 cm
21. A microscope is focussed on a point mark on a piece
A point object O is placed in the medium 2. If the of paper. Now a glass slab of thickness 6 cm and
entire medium on right side of spherical surface has refractive index 1.5 is placed over paper. How
refractive index 1, the image is formed at I1. If the should the microscope be moved to get the mark in
focus again?
entire medium on right of spherical surface is 3,
(1) 2 cm downwards (2) 2 cm upwards
then image is formed at I2. Now in the situation
(3) 4 cm upwards (4) 4 cm downwards
shown above
22. A converging lens is made up of material having
(1) The image forms between I1 and I2 refractive index 1.3. If it is dipped in a liquid having
(2) The image forms left to I1 refractive index 1.4, then it will behave like
(3) The image forms right to I2 (1) A converging lens (2) A prism
(4) Two images will form one at I1 and other at I2 (3) A rectangular slab (4) A diverging lens
18. The image of an extended object, placed 23. A point source S is placed midway between two
perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror, will be converging mirrors of equal focal length f as shown
in the figure.
erect if
(1) The object and image both are real
(2) The object and image both are virtual
(3) One of the object and image is real and one is
virtual
(4) Both (1) and (2)
19. Two thin lenses of powers P1 and P2 are in contact
and coaxial. The focal length of the combination is
P1P2 P1  P2
(1) (2) The value of d for which only one image is formed,
P1  P2 P1P2
may be
1 (1) 2f (2) 4f
(3) P1 + P2 (4)
P1  P2 (3) 3f (4) Both (1) and (2)
3/20
24. A light ray is incident normally on the face AB of a 26. Three thin lenses in contact have a combined focal
 2  length of 15 cm. When third lens is removed, the
right angled prism ABC     as shown in the 60
 3 combined focal length becomes cm. The third
7
figure
lens is
(1) A converging lens of focal length 20 cm
(2) A converging lens of focal length 30 cm
(3) A diverging lens of focal length 20 cm
(4) A diverging lens of focal length 30 cm
27. A disc is floating on the surface of water in
The largest value of angle , for which the light ray swimming pool. The water has refractive index 4/3.
is totally reflected at the surface AC is A light bulb is placed 2 m below the surface of water.
The minimum area of disc so that light does not
(1) 30°
come out from surface of water
(2) 60°
(1) 16.16 m2 (2) 8.8 m2
(3) 45°
(3) 32.32 m2 (4) 24.24 m2
(4) 90°
28. Light takes 2 ns to travel a distance of 60 cm in
25. In the situation shown, the distance between the vacuum and takes 30 ns to travel 6 m in a medium.
object and its image is 30 cm. The object is 6 cm The critical angle for corresponding medium is
above the liquid level and the beaker containing  1
(1) sin1  
liquid upto height 12 cm is kept on a plane mirror. 2
The refractive index of the liquid is 3
(2) sin1  
4
2
(3) sin1  
5
2
(4) sin1  
3
29. In displacement method, there are two positions of
a lens for which we get real image of one pin over
other placed at fixed distance. The first position of
the lens is at 45 cm from object and second is at
(1) 1.5 90 cm, the focal length of the lens is
(2) 1.33 (1) 40 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 1.25 45
(4) 1.4 (3) 45 cm (4) cm
2
4/20
30. Two identical thin plano-concave lenses 34. A prism can produce a minimum deviation  in a light
( = 1.5), each having radius of curvature 30 cm are beam. If five such prisms are combined with
placed in contact with common axis as shown in the opposite prism angles, then the minimum deviation
figure. that can be produced in this beam is
(1) 0 (2) 
(3) 3 (4) 5
35. Huygen’s principle of secondary wavelets may be
used to
(1) Explain the particle behaviour of light
If the intervening space is filled with oil of refractive
(2) Explain Snell’s law
index 1.8, the focal length of the combination is
(3) Find position of secondary wave front
(1) 50 cm (2) –50 cm
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) 25 cm (4) –25 cm
36. A light wave travels in vacuum along z-axis. Which
31. A compound microscope has an objective of focal
of the following ray represent the wavefronts?
length 2 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm.
(1) x = c (2) y = c
An object has to be placed at a distance of 2.4 cm
away from the objective for normal adjustment. The (3) z = c (4) x + y + z = c
angular magnification and length of microscope 37. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
tube respectively are wavelength 500 nm passes through a slit of width
(1) –25, 5 cm (2) –50, 12 cm 0.2 mm. The angular divergence in which most of
the light is diffracted will be
(3) –25, 17 cm (4) –50, 17 cm
32. A boy can adjust the power of his eye lens between (1) 5 × 10–3 rad (2) 5 rad
40 D and 60 D. If his far point is at infinity, then his (3) 0.5 rad (4) 5 × 103 rad
near point will be 38. A light of wavelength 550 nm is coming from a
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm distant star. The limit of resolution of telescope
(3) 25 cm (4) 50 cm whose objective has diameter of 2.5 m, is nearly
33. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal (1) 2.7 × 10–5 rad (2) 2.7 × 10–7 rad
length 100 cm and an eye piece of focal length (3) 4.7 × 10–7 rad (4) 5.4 × 10–7 rad
2.0 cm. The telescope is focussed to see an object 39. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in
20 km from the objective. The final image is formed air then in a medium other than air. It is found that
at infinity. The angular magnification produced by 7th bright fringe in medium lies where 4th dark fringe
the telescope is lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is
(1) –50 (2) –25 (1) 1.5 (2) 1.8
(3) –40 (4) –200 (3) 2.2 (4) 2.0
5/20
40. Two polaroids A and B are placed with their 43. In YDSE, when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5
transmission axis crossed. Unpolarised light of and thickness t is placed in the path of one of the
intensity I0 is incident on first polaroid. A third interfering beams (wavelength 600 nm), intensity at
polaroid ‘C’ is now kept in between them such that the position where central maxima occurred
its transmission axis makes an angle 30° with previously is unchanged. The minimum thickness of
polaroid B. The intensity of the transmitted light
the glass plate would be
through polaroid B is
(1) 12 nm (2) 6 m
3I0 I0
(1) (2) (3) 1.8 m (4) 1.2 m
16 32
3I0 3I0 44. The human eye has an approximate angular
(3) (4) resolution of 5 × 10–4 rad and a typical photoprinter
32 8
prints a minimum 500 dots per inch (1 inch = 2.54 cm).
41. White light is incident normally on a glass plate of
At what minimum distance should a printed page be
thickness 0.50 × 10–6 m and refractive index 1.5.
held so that one does not see individual dots?
The wavelength in visible region which are strongly
reflected by the plate are (visible range is from 400 (1) 10.16 cm (2) 15.6 cm
nm – 700 nm) (3) 20.16 cm (4) 14.16 cm
(1) 429 nm, 500 nm (2) 429 nm, 600 nm 45. If light from a galaxy observed on the earth surface
(3) 529 nm, 600 nm (4) 529 nm, 659 nm has a blue shift, then
42. The intensity of light coming from one of the slit in (1) Galaxy is receding from earth
YDSE is three times the intensity from the other slit.
(2) Galaxy is stationary w.r.t. earth
The ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity
in the interference fringe pattern will be nearly (3) Galaxy is approaching the earth
(1) 14 (2) 28 (4) Both (1) and (2)

(3) 7 (4) 20
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Aqueous solution of which of the following is 48. Which among the following has highest density?
colourless? (1) Sc (2) Ti
(1) Sc 3+
(2) Mn 3+ (3) Ni (4) V
49. Correct electronic configuration of Terbium (Tb) is
(3) Cr2+ (4) Fe2+
(Atomic Number of Terbium (Tb) is 65)
47. Element having least melting point among the (1) [Xe]4f 106s0
following is
(2) [Xe]4f 45d 56s2
(1) Ti (2) Cr (3) [Xe]4f 96s2
(3) Mn (4) Fe (4) [Xe]4f 116s0
6/20
50. S 2 O 32  on reaction with MnO 4 in neutral or faintly 57. Oxidation state of Pt in [Pt(NH3)2(bpy)(ox)]Cl2 is
alkaline medium gives (1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) 0
(1) S4O62 (2) SO2
58. Number of unpaired electrons present in metal or
(3) SO3 (4) SO 42  metal ion of d6 configuration in high spin octahedral
complex is
51. Magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is (Atomic number of
(1) 4 (2) 2
Mn is 25)
(3) 6 (4) 0
(1) 8 BM (2) 15 BM
59. Neutral ligand among the following is
(3) 24 BM (4) 35 BM (1) en (2) gly
52. The number of mole of K2Cr2O7 required to oxidize (3) ox (4) dmg
0.2 mol of H2 S in acidic medium is 60. In which of the following co-ordination entities, the
magnitude of  (CFSE in octahedral field) will be
(1) 0.6 mol (2) 0.067 mol
maximum (atomic number of Fe = 26)
(3) 0.2 mol (4) 0.4 mol
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Fe(NH3)6]2+
53. Pair of elements which show +3 oxidation state only (3) [Fe(H2O)4 Cl2] (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
is
61. Which one of the following complexes will exhibit the
(1) Th, Ac (2) Ac, Np minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(3) Am, Cm (4) Cf, No (Atomic Number of Cr = 24, Co = 27)
54. Pair of ions having equal unpaired electrons present (1) [Cr(H2O)6] 3+ (2) [Cr(CN)6]3-
in f-orbital is (3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (4) [CoF6]3-
(1) Ce3+, Tm2+ (2) Eu2+, Yb2+ 62. Magnetic moment of [Ni(NH3)6] Cl2 is
2+
(3) Sm , Tm 2+ 2+
(4) Yb , Ce 3+ (Atomic number of Ni is 28)
55. Select the incorrect statement among the following (1) 2 BM (2) 8 BM
(1) All the lanthanoids are silvery white soft metals (3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
and tarnish rapidly in air
63. Which of the following carbonyls will have the
(2) Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured both highest bond order of C – O bond?
in solid state and in aqueous solutions
(1) [Fe(CO)4]2– (2) [Co(CO)4]+
(3) Mischmetal contains around 95% lanthanoid (3) [V(CO)6]– (4) [Mn(CO)5]–
metal and around 5% phosphorus
64. Which of the following complexes is not expected to
(4) Photographic industry relies on the special light- exhibit geometrical isomerism?
sensitive properties of AgBr (1) [Pt(NH3)2 Cl2]
56. The hybridization involved in complex [ZnBr4]2– is (2) [Ni(en)2Cl2]
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) [Pd(NH3)3 Cl] Br
2 3 2
(3) dsp (4) sp d (4) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2ClBr]I
7/20
65. Number of possible isomers for the complex 69. Major product of the following reaction is
[Co(en)2 Br2]Cl is (en = ethylenediamine)
P (Major)
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 2
66. Which one is the most reactive towards SN1
reaction? (1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br (2)
(1) C6H5CH2CH2Br (2) (3) (4)
(3) C6H5Br (4) CH3Br

67. Correct order of nucleophilicity of given species in 70. Which among the following undergoes nucleophilic
polar protic solvent is substitution reaction most easily?
(1) F– < CI– < Br– < I–
(2) F– < Br– < CI– < I–
(1) (2)
(3) I– < Br– < CI– < F–
(4) I– < CI– < Br– < F–
68. Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?
(3) (4)
(1)
71. The compound which is most difficult to hydrolyse is

(1) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl (2)
(2)
(3) (4) (CH3)3C – Cl

(3)
72. The alkane that gives only one monochloro product
on reaction with Cl2 in presence of sun light is
(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2)

(4)
(3) (4) (CH3)2 C (CH3)2
8/20
73. Major product of the given reaction is

76.
Major product (B) among the following will be
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
77. Consider the following reaction

74. Major product of the following reaction is
The reaction will be fastest in which solvent?

(1) Acetone
(2) DMSO
(3) Ethanol
(1) (2)
(4) N,N-Dimethylformamide
78. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is
(3) (4) (1) CH3 – O – CH3 (2) C2H5 – O – C2H5
(3) Ph – O – CH3 (4) Ph – O – Ph
75. Compound of maximum dipole moment is
79. 1° alcohol among the following is
(1) (2) (1)

(2) (CH3)3C – OH
(3)
(3) (4)
(4)
9/20
80. Major product formed in the reaction 84. Select the incorrect statement among the following
(1) Glucose and Fructose undergo fermentation in
the presence of zymase, which is found in yeast
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) Fermentation takes place in anaerobic
conditions
(3) Denaturation of alcohol is mostly done by
(2) adding sugar in it
(4) Currently large quantities of ethanol are
obtained by hydration of ethene
(3)
85. Among the following alcohol, which will be
(4) CH3CH2CHO dehydrated most easily in acidic medium?
81. Compound of highest pKa value among the
following is (1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) 86. Select the reaction representing incorrect major
product
82. Compound which shows turbidity immediately in

Lucas test is (1)
(1) CH3OH (2) CH3CH2OH
(3) (CH3)3C-OH (4) (CH3)2CH-OH
83. Product (B) obtained in the reaction is
(2)
(1) (2) (3)
(3) (4) (4)
10/20
87. Electrophile involved in Kolbe’s reaction for

formation of 2-hydroxybenzoic acid from phenol is (1) (2)
(1) CO (2) CO2
(3) CHCl3 (4) :CCl2
(3) (4)
88. Which one is most reactive towards electrophilic
reagent? 90. In the given reaction product P is
(1) (2)
(1)
(3) (4)
(2)
89. The major product of the reaction is

(3)
+ HI (1 equivalent) 
(4)
is
[BIOLOGY]
91. It is possible to obtain virus free clones of plants 93. During somatic hybridisation, all of the given
through induces fusion of protoplast, except
(1) Meristem culture (2) Protoplast culture (1) Polyethylene glycol
(3) Embryo culture (4) Somatic hybridisation (2) IAA and kinetin
92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. single cell (3) Electric field with short current pulse
protein
(4) Sodium nitrate
(1) An alternative source of proteins for animal and
94. A cyanobacteria which can serve as food being very
human nutrition
rich in proteins is
(2) Is protein-rich biomass which is used as food or
(1) Spirulina
feed
(2) Nostoc
(3) Is only obtained from unicellular micro-
organisms (3) Anabaena
(4) Is rich in good quality protein (4) Oscillatoria
11/20
95. In plant breeding programmes, a progeny with Statement-B : The lysine-rich maize varieties
desired superior traits is obtained by developed in India are Protina, Shakti and Rattan.
(1) Cross-hybridisation among the selected parents Statement-C : Pusa Sawani bred by hybridisation
(2) Germplasm collection and selection for shoot and fruit borer is a variety of
flat bean.
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents
A B C
(4) Testing of superior recombinants
(1) T T F
96. The method of producing thousands of plants
(2) T F T
through tissue culture is called
(3) F T T
(1) Somatic hybridisation
(4) T T T
(2) Micropropagation
101. How many of the given vegetable crop(s) is/are
(3) Protoplast fusion
vitamin-A enriched?
(4) Germplasm collection
Carrot, Pumpkin, Tomato, Bathua, Lablab,
97. Which protein enriched variety of wheat has been
Garden peas
used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat?
(1) Sonara-64 (2) Sonalika (1) 3 (2) 1
(3) Kalyan sona (4) Atlas 66 (3) 4 (4) 2
98. Statement-A : High yielding Mexican wheat were 102. Read the given steps (A-D) of conventional
originally red grained. breeding
Statement-B : The improved variety of Mexican A - Selection and evaluation of hybrids.
wheat is Sharbati Sonora. B - Hybridisation of selected parents.
(1) Only A is correct C - Screening germplasm for resistance sources.
(2) Both A and B are correct D - Testing and release of new varieties.
(3) Only B is incorrect Select the correct sequence of above steps w.r.t.
(4) Both A and B are incorrect conventional breeding.
99. Karan Rai bred by hybridisation and selection for (1) C  B  A  D (2) A  B  C  D
resistance to white rust, is a variety of (3) B  A  D  C (4) D  A  B  C
(1) Wheat (2) Cowpea 103. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Saccharum
(3) Chilli (4) Brassica officinarum.
100. Read the given statements stating them as true (T) (1) Is a tropical cane grown in South India
or false (F) and select correct option. (2) Had lower sugar content
Statement-A : Breeding of crops with higher levels (3) Had thicker stem
of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and (4) Did not grow well in North India due to low winter
healthier fats is called biofortification. temperature
12/20
104. Due to development of semi-dwarf varieties of 110. During preparation of bread, the puffed-up
wheat, from 1960 to 2000, wheat production appearance of dough is due to
increased from A million tonnes to B million (1) Production of ethyl alcohol
tonnes. (2) Production of CO2
Complete the above statement by choosing correct (3) Release of maltase
option for A and B. (4) Release of amylase
(1) A-11, B-75 (2) A-21, B-75 111. Which of the given is not commercially produced by
(3) A-31.5, B-89.5 (4) A-3.5, B-89.5 bacteria?
(1) Lactic acid
105. The gene norin-10, responsible for dwarfing in
wheat, was reported in (2) Butyric acid
(1) Taiwan (2) Japan (3) Citric acid
(3) Mexico (4) Philippines (4) Acetic acid
106. Which of the given is used as an 112. A traditional drink of some part of South India is
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant (1) Wine (2) Toddy
patients? (3) Beer (4) Rum
(1) Statins (2) Streptokinase 113. Match the columns A and B w.r.t. bioactive
(3) Cyclosporin-A (4) Lipase molecules and their sources.
107. Select the incorrect match. Column-A Column-B

a. Lipase (i) Monascus purpureus
(1) Glomus – Mycorrhiza
b. Streptokinase (ii) Candida lipolytica
(2) Aulosira – Most active, non-symbiotic
nitrogen fixer in rice field c. Amylase (iii) Streptococcus
(3) Rhizobium – Symbiotic association with root d. Statins (iv) Aspergillus

nodules of leguminous plants (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) VAM – Ectomycorrhiza (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
108. Which of the given cheese is/are ripened by a 114. Primary sewage treatment is mainly a
fungus genera? (1) Biological process
(1) Swiss cheese (2) Roquefort cheese (2) Physical process
(3) Camembert cheese (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Chemical process
109. The fermented preparation of rice and black gram is (4) Physico-chemical process
prepared by 115. Major component of biogas is
(1) Streptococcus (2) Yeast (1) Methane (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Lactobacillus (4) Acetobacter aceti (3) Hydrogen (4) Hydrogen sulphide
13/20
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘antibiotics’. 121. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(1) Are regarded as one of the most significant correct option.
discoveries of the twentieth century Column-I Column-II
(2) Have greatly contributed towards the welfare of a. Natality (i) Number of individuals
human society of the same species
(3) The first antibiotic penicillin was discovered by that have come into
the habitat from
Chain and Florey.
elsewhere.
(4) Have improved our capacity to treat deadly
b. Immigration (ii) Number of birth
diseases
during a given period
117. The technology of biogas production was developed in population
in India mainly due to the efforts of
c. Mortality (iii) Number of death in
(1) Ministry of Environment and Forest the population during
(2) IARI and Ministry of Environment a given period
(3) IARI and Ministry of Forest (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) Indian Agricultural Research institute (IARI) and (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
Khadi and Village Industries commission (KVIC) 122. The interaction between two organisms of different
118. How many of the given statement(s) is/are correct species in which one species inhibits the growth of
w.r.t. methanogens? other species by secreting chemicals is called
A. Are commonly found in anaerobic sludge during (1) Amensalism (2) Competition
sewage treatment. (3) Mutualism (4) Parasitism
B. Helps in fermenting black gram and rice. 123. Which shape of age pyramid is possible when there
C. Grow anaerobically on cellulosic material and are small number of pre-reproductive individuals
produce large amount of CO2 along with H2S. followed by a large number of reproductive
individual?
D. Are present in the rumen of cattle.
(1) Triangular
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Bell-shaped
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Rectangular
119. Select the odd one w.r.t. biofertilisers.
(4) Urn-shaped
(1) Anabaena (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
124. If in a pond there were 50 fishes last year and
(3) Azotobacter (4) Azospirillum through reproduction, 10 new fishes are added,
120. Which of the given biocontrol agents is meant for taking the current population to 60. What will be the
use in the treatment of plant disease? birth rate per fish per year?
(1) Dragonflies (2) Nostoc (1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) Ladybird (4) Trichoderma (3) 0.1 (4) 0.25
14/20
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘altitude 128. Which of the given age pyramids reflects a positive
sickness’. growth in population?
(1) Can be experienced at high altitude

(1)
(2) Body decreases RBCs production
(3) Body decrease binding capacity of haemoglobin
and increases breathing rate
(2)
(4) Body does not get enough oxygen due to low
atmospheric pressure
126. Read the below given statements and select the (3)
correct option.
Statement-A : Most of the mammals and birds are
eurythermal. (4)
Statement-B : Polar bears, Lizards, Abies are
stenothermal. 129. The salt concentration (measured as salinity in parts
(1) Only statement A is correct per thousand) for inland water is
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) < 5 (2) 30-35

(3) > 50 (4) > 100
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
130. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect representation of response of organisms to abiotic
127. Find the correct graphical representation of factors. Select the correct statement w.r.t. A, B
organismic response w.r.t. ‘conformers’. and C.
(1) (2)
(1) ‘B’ are able to maintain homeostasis

(3) (4) (2) ‘A’ represents regulators
(3) ‘B’ represents nearly all plants
(4) ‘C’ represents all birds
15/20
131. In North American desert, the kangaroo rats do not 138. A disease which can be easily transmitted from one
need to drink water because they/their person to another is called
(1) Meet their water requirement through internal fat (1) Non-Infectious disease
oxidation (2) Infectious disease
(2) Are able to concentrate urine (3) Deficiency disease
(4) Infestational disease
(3) Can survive below 0°C
139. Read the following statements A and B and choose
(4) Body size is small the correct option.
132. The mathematical expression for the most realistic Statement-A : Mind influences our immune system
growth curve is through neural and endocrine systems which in turn
maintains our health.
dN dN  K N 
(1)  rN (2)  rN   Statement-B : Lifestyle, infections and genetic
dt dt  K  disorders can affect our health.
B dN (1) Statement A is correct
(3)  100 (4)  (b  d)  N
D dt (2) Statement B is correct
133. The interaction is detrimental for both of the (3) Both statements A and B are correct
interacting species in (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
140. Match diseases in column-I with their symptoms in
(1) Competition (2) Parasitism
column-II. Choose the correct option.
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
Column-I Column-II
134. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Lichens’.
a Pneumonia (i) High fever,
(1) It is a mutualistic relationship weakness, stomach
(2) A fungus remains in association with pain, loss of appetite
and constipation
photosynthesizing green algae or cyanobacteria
b Amoebiasis (ii) Nasal congestion and
(3) Mycobiont produces food
discharge, cough,
(4) Fungi absorbs nutrient from soil sore throat and
135. Bear escapes in time during winter by a process headache
called c Common cold (iii) Difficulty in
(1) Hibernation (2) Aestivation respiration, fever,
chills, cough,
(3) Diapause (4) Thermoregulation headache and
136. Choose the odd one w.r.t. viral diseases. cyanosis in severe
cases
(1) Measles (2) Chicken pox
d Typhoid (iv) Constipation,
(3) Rabies (4) Tuberculosis
abdominal pain,
137. Who among the following disproved the ‘good cramps and blood
humor’ hypothesis of health? clots in stool
(1) William Harvey (2) Karl Landsteiner (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(vi) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Louis Pasteur (4) Mary Mallon (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
16/20
141. Which of the following viral diseases are transmitted 147. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. malaria.
by mosquitoes? (1) Malignant malaria is caused by Plasmodium
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue falciparum
(2) Hemozoin is malarial toxin released from
(2) Malaria and yellow fever
ruptured RBCs of mosquito
(3) Malaria and dengue
(3) Sporozoites reproduce asexually in liver and
(4) Chikungunya and dengue RBCs of human
142. Disease causing organisms are called (4) Male and female gametocytes develop within
RBCs of human
(1) Paratopes (2) Pathogens
148. Vaccination and immunisation programmes have
(3) Allergens (4) Interferons
enabled us to completely eradicate which deadly
143. Find the progressing disease where cholinergic disease from world?
neurons degenerate and affects memory, thinking (1) Small pox (2) AIDS
and behaviour of a person. (3) Hepatitis-B (4) Genital herpes
(1) Alzheimer’s disease (2) Parkinson’s disease 149. Select mismatch w.r.t. pathogen and disease
(3) Huntington chorea (4) Myasthenia gravis caused by them
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti – Elephantiasis
144. Widal test is used to diagnose
(2) Trichophyton – Ringworm
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria (3) Streptococcus – Common cold
(3) Diphtheria (4) Dengue (4) Entamoeba histolytica – Amoebiasis
145. Which of the following are reasons for rheumatoid 150. Read following statements A to D and choose the
arthritis? Choose option containing all correct option that correctly identifies true and false
reasons. statements.
a. Innate immunity is non-specific, present since
a. It is not an immune response against
birth.
autoantigens
b. Mucus coating of digestive, respiratory and
b. Body attack self cells reproductive tract is considered as physiological
c. Lack of antibodies in the body due to barrier.
suppression of B-lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells are specialized B
lymphocytes and participate in humoral
d. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign immunity.
molecules from self cells is lost d. Interferons are proteins which protect virus
(1) a and b (2) b and d infected cells.
(3) c and d (4) a and c a b c d
146. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female
(1) True True False False
Anopheles bites a human being are stored in
(1) Liver of human (2) True False False False
(2) RBCs of mosquito (3) False True False True
(3) Salivary glands of mosquito
(4) True False True False
(4) Gut wall of mosquito
17/20
151. Colostrum provides which of the following type of 157. All of the following drugs are used to quickly reduce
immunity to infants? symptoms of allergy except
(1) Auto immunity (2) Passive immunity (1) Anti-histamine (2) Adrenalin
(3) Active immunity (4) Innate immunity (3) Glucocorticoids (4) Histamine
152. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen 158. The lymphoid organ where immature lymphocytes
elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response. It is differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes is
primarily due to presence of (1) Spleen (2) Lymph nodes
(1) Memory cells (2) IgM antibodies (3) Thymus (4) Tonsils
(3) Macrophages (4) Mast cell 159. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t lymphoid
153. Antigen binding site of an antibody is situated organs.
towards (1) All blood cells including lymphocytes are
produced in bone marrow
(1) N-terminal of light chain only
(2) Thymus is a bilobed endocrine gland situated
(2) C-terminal of both light and heavy chains
ventral to breast bone
(3) N-terminal of heavy chain only
(3) Spleen is bean shaped organ and acts as
(4) N-terminal of both light and heavy chains reservoir for erythrocytes
154. Which antibodies are received by foetus from (4) Lymph nodes serve to trap the microorganisms
mother during pregnancy? or other antigens
(1) Ig M (2) Ig A 160. Read following statements A and B and choose the
(3) Ig G (4) Ig E correct option.
155. Cholera is caused due to infection of a bacterium Statement-A : Cyclosporin is an immune-
named Vibrio cholerae. Choose the option that suppressive drug given to a person who has
correctly explain why these patients are undergone organ transplantation.
administered with saline drips. Statement-B : Incompatibility of transplant organ
(1) NaCl is an important constituent of our blood triggers immune response in recipient.
which maintains the shape of RBCs. (1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Sodium ions help to retain water in the body and (2) Both statements are correct
selective transport through plasma membrane (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) Chloride ions are essential component of blood (4) Only statement B is correct
plasma 161. Which of the following cell types are not directly
(4) Chloride ions help in formation of HCl in the associated with immune system?
stomach (1) T cells
156. Which of the following is an auto-immune disease? (2) Plasma cells
(1) Pernicious anaemia (2) Genital warts (3) Thrombocytes
(3) Swine flu (4) Rabies (4) Cytotoxic cells
18/20
162. Choose the correct statement w.r.t hepatitis B 167. Mules are product of
vaccine. (1) Cross-breeding
(1) It is prepared from yeast (2) Inbreeding
(2) This is a third generation vaccine (3) Out-crossing
(3) It induces passive immunity (4) Interspecific hybridization
(4) It is given only to a person below age of 14 years 168. Rearing of honey bees and maintenance of their
163. MALT constitute about 50% of the total hives for the production of honey is done under
(1) Blood (2) Lymphoid tissue (1) Pisciculture (2) Apiculture
(3) Neural tissue (4) Connective tissue (3) Sericulture (4) Poultry
164. Select bacterial diseases in following box and 169. Choose odd one w.r.t. bacterial diseases in poultry.
choose correct option.
(1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis
Cholera, Tetanus, Malaria, Smallpox, Leprosy, (3) Spirochaetosis (4) Ranikhet disease
Diphtheria, Measles 170. ‘Pashmina’ wool is obtained from
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) Goat (2) Sheep
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) Rabbit (4) Tibetan antelope
165. Read following statements and select the option 171. Read following statements carefully w.r.t. AIDS.
with all incorrect statements. Choose the option given below with all correct
a. Physical, chemical or biological agents are statements.
responsible for oncogenic transformation. a. HIV has a protein coat and one molecule of RNA
b. In some cancers, mutations destroy telomerase and reverse transcriptase
inhibitors. b. Macrophages acts like an HIV factory
c. Cancer cells show property of contact inhibition. c. Viral RNA incorporates into host genome to
d. Tumor cells are sloughed from malignant produce new viral RNA
tumors and reach distant sites through blood is d. Initially HIV starts destroying helper-T
called metagenesis. lymphocytes
(1) a and b (2) b and c (1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) a and d (3) c and d (4) b and d
166. All of the following are true fishes in fishery industry 172. Which of the following is a non-ionizing radiation
except responsible for oncogenic transformation?
(1) Shell fish (1) X-ray
(2) Common carp (2) Gamma rays
(3) Pomfrets (3) UV light
(4) Hilsa (4) Visible spectrum of light
19/20
173. Choose non-invasive and safest technique for 178. Choose the correct option to complete analogy
detection of cancer. Crack : Stimulant : : heroin : _______
(1) MRI (1) Stimulant (2) Depressant
(2) Histopathological studies (3) Sedative (4) Hallucinogenic
(3) Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
179. Identify the following molecule (drug) whose
(4) Radiography (X-ray)
receptors are present in CNS and cardiovascular
174. A poisonous fungus containing hallucinogens is system?
(1) Cannabis sativa (2) Morchella esculenta
(3) Amanita muscaria (4) Atropa belladona
175. Receptors for which of the following drugs are
present in our CNS and gastrointestinal tract?
(1) Smack (2) Cocaine
(3) Atropine (4) Ganja
176. Nicotine present in cigarette smoke increases blood
(1) Morphine (2) Cannabinoid
pressure by stimulating
(3) Barbiturate (4) Amphetamine
(1) Adrenal gland (2) Thyroid gland
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Parathyroid gland 180. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in
females include all, except
177. Which age group is considered as adolescence
period that bridge between childhood and (1) Breast enlargement
adulthood? (2) Deepening of voice
(1) 9-13 years (2) 12-18 years (3) Enlargement of clitoris
(3) 18-25 years (4) 20-30 years (4) Increased aggressiveness

20/20
Test Booklet Code A
Test No. 2
AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN
RI
AL L
ES
2021
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
Test-2 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021
TEST - 2 (Code-A)
Test Date : 20/09/2020
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (2) 43. (3) 79. (1) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (1) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (1) 159. (3)
16. (3) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (3)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (1) 60. (1) 96. (1) 132. (Deleted) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (3)
1/16
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) 6. Answer (2)
mv Hint & sol.:
Hint: r 
qB 0Inr 2
B 3
1
Sol. eV  mv 2
2

2 r  2
x 
2 2
1 0Inr 2
 2eV 2 B 3
v 
 m 


2 r 2  8r 2  2
1
m  2eV  2 0Inr 2
r B
qB  m  2  27r 3
 0In
1 B
 2mV 2 54r
r   .
 eB2  7. Answer (2)
2. Answer (4) Hint: At neutral point magnetic field due to
   conductor, balance the horizontal magnetic field
Hint: F  i .l  B of earth.

Sol. F  i .lB sin 
F will be maximum when  = 90°.
3. Answer (2) Sol.:
  
Hint:   M  B
Sol. M = r2I
 = MBsin60°
 0I
B
r 2IB  3 2r

2 0I
 BH
2
3r IB 2 r
 .
2 2  107  10
 2  107
4. Answer (1) r
Hint & Sol.: Moving charge can produce both r = 10 m.
electric and magnetic field 8. Answer (4)
5. Answer (1) Hint: Magnetic field of the centre of the circular
loop having current I and number of turn n will be
0I
Hint & sol.: B  0 I n
2r
2r
Sol.:
1
B
r
2/16
Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
B = B1 – B 2 Rsin  d
0I1n1 0I2n2 Rsin90  2a
 
2r1 2r2 mv
 2a
0  10  24 0 15  18 qB
 2

2  25  10 2  15  102 v
2aqB
m
= 240 × 20 – 9000
2aqB
= 4800 – 9000 Vmax 
m
= 4200 T 12. Answer (1)
9. Answer (1) Hint : magnetic field due to semi-circular arc at its
NBA  I
Hint : Current sensitivity = center is 0 .
k 2r
Magnetic field due to semi-infinite wire at distance
 Current sensitivity  A NA  I
Sol.:  d is 0 .
 Current sensitivity B NB 4d
200

100
(current sensitivity)A = 2(Current sensitivity)B
Sol.:
10. Answer (2)
RGIG
Hint : Rs 
  IG 
I
B = B1 + B 2 + B 3
600 0I  I  I
Sol.: RG 
20

4 r
 
kˆ  0 kˆ  0 kˆ
4 r 4r
= 30  0I ˆ
 k.
30  20  10 3 4r
RS 
10  20  103 13. Answer (4)
Hint: Magnetic field due to current carrying long
 600   I
RS   
 10000  20  wire at a distance B is 0 .
2 r
  Rs  0.06  B1 r2
Sol.: 
11. Answer (2) B2 r1
Hint: To not enter in the region x > 3a deflection of
B 9
particle when it will reach at x = 3a, should be 
greater than 90°. B2 3
Sol.: B
B2   
3
14. Answer (3)
Hint: Magnetic field at the centre of circular wire is
 0I
and magnetic moment of the coil is IR2 .
2R
0I
B
Sol.:  2R
M I R 2
0

2R 3
3/16

Hint and Sol. : When charged particle moves in qB
uniform magnetic field the kinetic energy always Sol.: f 
2 m
remains constant because magnetic field does no
work. 1.6  1019  1.4
16. Answer (3) 
2  3.14  1.67  1027
Hint: Use Ampere’s circuital law.
= 2.2 × 107 s–1
Sol.: For r < a
19. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Ampere circuital law
 
Sol.:  B.dI  0Ienc
Ienc  4  1 = 3 A
 
 B.dI  30 .
20. Answer (4)
I a
2 Hint: Work done by magnetic field be zero.
I1  2
x  
a 3 Sol.: By work energy theorem
I Wnet  K
I1 
9
 
  2
1
WE  WB  62  82
 B.dl  0I1 2
m
a  0I Q x0 E0 = 50m
B1  2 
3 9
50 m
 0I x0 
B1  qE0
6 a
For r > a 50
x0  .
I2 = I E0
 
 B.dl  0I 21. Answer (3)
3a Hint and sol.: The direction of magnetic field lines
B2  2  0I
2 of force produced by passing a direct current in
0I conductor is given by Right hand palm rule.
B2 
3a  22. Answer (2)
 0I Hint: Magnetic field due to bar magnetic at its axial
B1 6 a 20M
 position is and on its equatorial position
B2  0I
4d 3
3 a
0 M
 1 .
  4d 3
2
Sol.:
17. Answer (4)
Hint: magnetic field inside the current carrying
 NI
toroid B  0 .
2r
4  107  3000  10
Sol.: B 
2  25  102
B = 24 mT.
4/16
25. Answer (3)

Hint & sol.: r = (1 + m)
= (1 + 0.725)
= 1.725.
26. Answer (3)
Hint and sol.: A magnet attract ferromagnetic
|B1| = |B3| = 2|B2|
substance strongly and paramagnetic substance
10 weakly. But it repel diamagnetic substance.
|B2| = =5T
2
27. Answer (3)
|B2| = 10 T
Hint: Resultant magnetic moment will be equal to
23. Answer (1)
vector sum of magnetic moment of all the
Hint: B = 0(H + I) magnets.
Sol.:
Sol.:
Magnetic moment
Intensity of magnetisation 
Volume
6
I
30  10 6
106
I  2  105
5
 5000 
B  4  107   2  105 
 4  
M Net   Miˆ  2M cos 60 iˆ  3M cos 60 iˆ  2M sin 60  jˆ
–4 –2
B = 5 × 10 + 8 × 10
 3 M sin 60  ˆj
= 0.2517 T.
24. Answer (1) 3M ˆ
Mnet   M  M  iˆ  i  M sin 60 ˆj
2
I
Hint: T  2
MBH  3M ˆ 3M ˆ
M net  i j
2 2
I
Sol.: T  2  M
MBH | M net | 93
2
I
T0  2 = 3M .
MBH
28. Answer (2)
I
T  2 Hint and sol.
MB
When all the molecule in a magnet arrange
 B  themselves in the direction of magnetic field the
B H 
 cos   condition is called saturation.
I cos  29. Answer (1)
T  2
MBH Hint: Use work energy theorem.
I 1 Sol.: Wnet = k
T  2  cos   2 –U = k
MBH
1 –(Uf – Ui) = kf – ki
T  T0  cos   2
–(–MB cos)= kf
T 2
 T02  cos   . kf = 80 J.
5/16

 
Hint: In stable equilibrium position angle between Hint:   B.A
net magnetic moment and magnetic field will be
zero.  
Sol.:   20iˆ  9kˆ  10 .10  10 kˆ
4 4
 = –90 × 10–8
= –900 ×10–9
Sol.: || = 900 nWb

35. Answer (1)
 
Hint:   B.A .
Sol.: Magnetic field produced by coil having
3M current will be perpendicular to area vector of other
tan 
M coil  = BAcos90°
 = 60.  = 0.
31. Answer (1) Change in flux in other coil will be zero therefore
Hint : At a position where angle of dip is . The no current will flow in other coil.
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field 36. Answer (3)
BH = Bcos and vertical component of earth’s dIP
Hint:  s  M
magnetic field BV = Bsin. dt
 Bv  A B sin30 Sol.: 2000 

10(Im  0)
Sol. :  = 1 : 1.
 BH B B cos 60 t
Im = 200 × 10–3
32. Answer (3)
Im = 0.2 A.
 dH  2 E2 37. Answer (2)
Hint : Rate of heat dissipation   = I R = .
 dt  R Hint: Heat developed in R1 will be equal to energy
Sol.: E = Bvl stored in the inductor
1 2
dH B 2v 22 Sol.: H  U  LI
 2
dt R
 E 
dH I  
 v2
dt  R2 
dH2  dH  1 LE 2
 4 1  H .
dt  dt  2 R22

  
Hint:  
d 
.  
Hint:   v  B .l eff
dt
Sol.: leff = 2lcos45
Sol.:  = BAcos
 = Br2

d
dt

B r 2 
dr
  B  2r
dt
 4 Ba
6/16
= 2l 3=–L+6
L = 3 H.
  2Blv
43. Answer (3)
By right hand palm rule P will be at higher
Hint: Voltage across the inductor will be equal to
potential.
voltage across the 10  resistor.
39. Answer (1)
Sol.: At t = 0 current in the inductor will be zero but
Hint and sol.: By Lenz’s law induce current rate of change of current will be maximum
produced in ring oppose its cause.
40. Answer (3)
Hint and Sol.: The mutual inductance of the pair
of coil depends upon position and orientation of
the coil.
41. Answer (2)
Hint.: Rotational emf. induced in a rod of length l
inside the uniform perpendicular magnetic field B
Bl 2 3
rotating about one end is   . I
2 15
Sol. : 1
I A
5
dI
L  IR
dt
dI 1
L   10
  2l  B
2 dt 5
VO  VC  (i) dI  2 
2  A/s
= 2l2B dt  5 
44. Answer (2)
l 2B
VO  VA  (ii) d
2 Hint:   
dt
From (i) and (ii)
T d
2 l 2B Sol.: For 0 < t < , is constant and negative,
VA  VC  2l B  2 dt
2 d
 which will be positive constant.
3l 2B dt
 .
2 T d
For < t < T is constant and positive,
42. Answer (4) 2 dt
Hint : Use KVL d
 which will be negative constant.
Sol. : Case–I dt
45. Answer (4)
d  
Hint:   and i 
dI dt R
Va  Vb  L  IR
dt Sol.:   4t 2  12t  7
12 = L + 3R …(i) d
Case–II  8t  12
dt
d
I will be zero, when will be zero
dt
dI d
Va  Vb  L  IR Hence  8t  12  0
dt dt
3  L  2R (ii) 12
t  1.5 s
15 = 5R  R = 3  8
7/16
[CHEMISTRY]
Hint.: Chemisorption is specific in nature Hint: Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic
Sol.: Physical adsorption is not specific in nature. sols
47. Answer (3) Sol. Smaller is the size and lesser the viscosity,
faster is the Brownian movement
Hint: Adsorption is exothermic in nature
57. Answer (4)
Sol. Higher is the temperature, less will be the
adsorption Hint: Boiling, persistent dialysis and mixing of two
oppositely charged sols resulted in coagulation
48. Answer (2)
Sol. Peptization is the process of converting a
Hint: Gas of highest critical temperature will be precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking it with
adsorbed most easily dispersion medium in the presence of a small
Sol. CO2(g) has highest critical temperature amount of electrolyte.
among the given gases. So, it is most easily 58. Answer (4)
adsorbed.
Hint.: Magnetite is Fe3O4
49. Answer (3)
59. Answer (4)
Hint: When physical state of catalyst is different
from physical state of reactants and products then Hint: Removal of unwanted material from the ore
it is an example of heterogeneous catalysis. is known as concentration of an ore
Sol.: Calcination is not a method of concentration.
Sol.: 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  
Pt(s)
 4NO(g) + 6 H2O(g) is an
example of heterogeneous catalysis 60. Answer (1)
50. Answer (1) Hint: Roasting is carried out for sulphides ores to
convert into oxide
Hint: Sucrose 
Invertase
 Glucose + fructose
Sol.: 2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2
51. Answer (3)
61. Answer (3)
Hint: Paint is an example of sol
Hint: Reaction in which metal oxide on reaction
Sol.: Paints contain solid as dispersed phase and with metal sulphide forms metal is self reduction
liquid as dispersion medium
62. Answer (1)
52. Answer (1)
Hint: Vapour phase refining is used for refining of
Hint: For soaps the CMC value is 10–4 to 10–3 mol Nickel.
L–1
Sol: Ni + 4CO 
330 – 350K
 Ni(CO)4
53. Answer (4)
Hint: CdS and charcoal are negatively charged sol Ni(CO)4 
450 – 470K
 Ni + 4CO
Sol.: Al2O3  xH2O is a positively charged sol
Hint: The emulsifying agent forms an interfacial Hint: Silver and gold is concentrated by leaching
film between suspended particles and the using aqueous NaCN solution.
medium. Sol.:
Sol.: The principal emulsifying agents for oil in
water emulsion are proteins, gums, natural and
synthetic soaps etc.
55. Answer (3)
Hint: mmol of electrolyte required for coagulation
64. Answer (4)
of 1000 mL of sol is called coagulation value.
Hint: Zone refining method is very useful for
Sol. For 20 mL, mmol of NaCl required = 1
producing semiconductor and other metals of very
Hence, for 1000 ml, mmol of NaCl required = 50 high purity
8/16

Hint: Depressant, selectively prevents ZnS from Hint: Species with central atom having 1 lone pair
coming to the froth but allows PbS to come with and 4 bond pair of electrons acquire see saw
the froth. shape
Sol.: NaCN is used to convert ZnS into water Sol.: SF6(g) has octahedral shape.
soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
76. Answer (4)
66. Answer (4)
Hint: Bauxite ore contains impurities of SiO2, Iron Hint: Generally larger is the bond length, smaller
oxides and titanium oxide (TiO2) is the bond enthalpy
67. Answer (2) Sol.: I2 has least bond enthalpy among the
Hint: Ellingham diagram is based only on the halogen molecules.
thermodynamics concepts. 77. Answer (1)
Sol.: Ellingham diagram does not say about the Hint: Weakest acid has highest pKa value.
kinetics of the reduction processes.
Sol.: Order of pKa;
68. Answer (3)
HF > HCl > HBr > HI
Hint: In lower temperature range (500 K – 800 K) in
blast furnace, Fe2O3 is mainly reduced by CO. 78. Answer (4)
Sol.: At 900–1500 K (higher temperature range in Hint:
the blast furnace) reactions are 3Cu + 8HNO3(dilute)  3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
C + CO2  2CO 79. Answer (1)
FeO + CO  Fe + CO2 Hint: Ionic character of metal halides decreases
69. Answer (4) as the size of halide increases
Hint: Cu2S : copper glance Sol.: Ionic Character
70. Answer (4) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
Hint: NaNO3 is called as chile saltpetre (Where M is a monovalent metal)
Sol.: KNO3 is known as Indian saltpetre 80. Answer (3)
71. Answer (2)
Hint: Compound containing hydrogen on reaction
Hint: AgCl(s) is white compound with Cl2, forms HCl.
Sol.: Sol. 2 Ca(OH)2 + 2 Cl2  Ca(OCl)2 + CaCl2
Zn(OH)2(s) is white compound + 2H2O
 Fe2O3 · xH2O(s) is brown compound 81. Answer (2)
 [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is deep blue compound Hint: Halous acid of only chlorine exist.
72. Answer (2)
Sol.: HOBrO is least likely to exist
Hint:  NO is neutral oxide
82. Answer (4)
 N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 are acidic in nature
Hint:
Sol.: N2O3 is blue coloured solid which is acidic in
nature 6XeF4 + 12H2O 4Xe + 2XeO3 + 24HF + 3O2
Hint: Hypophosphorous acid is also known as Hint: Molecule with 1 lone pair and 6 bond pairs of
phosphinic acid electrons around central atom has distorted
octahedral shape.
Sol.: Phosphinic acid is H3PO2
Sol.
74. Answer (4)
Hint: In solid state, PCl5 exists as an ionic solid
– XeF6 :
[PCl4]+ [PCl6]
Sol.: The hybridization of P in [PCl4]+ is sp3
9/16
84. Answer (3) 

3Mg  N2   Mg3N2
Hint: XeF2 and XeF4 are fluorinating reagent.
89. Answer (4)
Sol.:
Hint: H2SO4 gives charring action with
 XeF4 + O 2F2 
143K
 XeF6 + O 2 carbohydrates
  Xe(g) + 3F2 (g) 
Xe:F2 = 1: 20
 XeF6 (s) Sol.:
573 K, 60 – 70 bar
85. Answer (4)  Ca3P2 + 6H2O  2PH3(g) + 3Ca(OH)2

Hint: Depending upon the relative excess amount (A)
of NH3 and Cl2, different products are formed.  2PH3(g) + 3CuSO4 
 Cu3P2 + 3H2SO4
Sol.:
(B) (C)
 NH3 + 3Cl2 (excess)  NCl3 + 3HCl
  PH3 is a colorless gas with rotten fish smell. It
8 NH3 (excess) + 3Cl2  6NH4Cl + N2
 is slightly soluble in water. It explodes in contact
86. Answer (3) of trace amount of HNO3.
Hint: Catalyst used in Deacon’s process is CuCl2 90. Answer (3)
Sol. Catalyst used in contact process is V2O5 Hint: In all oxoacids of phosphorous one P = O
Catalyst used in Haber’s process is Fe2O3 with bond is present for every phosphorous atom.
K2O and Al2O3. Catalyst used in ostwald’s process
Sol.: Formula Structure
is platinized asbestos.
87. Answer (4)
Hint: Due to presence of H-bonding, Melting point Phosphonic Acid H3PO3
of NH3 is exceptionally high
Sol.: Order of melting point of
NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 Orthophosphoric Acid H3PO4
88. Answer (4)

Hint: The bond enthalpy of N2 is high
 Hypophosphoric acid H4P2O6
Sol.: 2 NaN3   2 Na + 3N2 (pure)
 At high temperature, with some metals it
predominantly form ionic nitrides e.g.
Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7

6Li + N2   2Li3N
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) Hence YY × yy
Hint : Recessive traits are expressed in    
homozygous condition only
Yy all green pods
Sol. : Terminal flower – Recessive traits Will not have any progeny with yellow pods.
position, constricted
93. Answer (1)
pod
Hint : Formula to calculate number of different
Yellow seeds, Violet – Dominant traits
types of gametes produced is = 2n.
flower
Sol. : Number of heterozygous locus ‘n’ = 3.
92. Answer (4)
Hence 2n = 23 = 8 types of gametes.
Hint : Yellow pod is recessive trait of pea plants.
94. Answer (2)
Sol. : To produce recessive feature in F1
generation, both the parents must have at least a Hint : Flower colour in snapdragon plant is an
recessive allele. example of incomplete dominance.
10/16
Sol. : In the given cross Sol. : Total number of offsprings heterozygous for
both the traits = 4.
99. Answer (4)
Hint : In test cross an individual with recessive
phenotype is crossed with individual with dominant
phenotype.
Sol. : In 4 O’ clock plant, flower colour show
incomplete dominance. So for this plant, if plant is
showing red coloured flowers it means plant is
homozygous dominant for red colour.
100. Answer (2)
Sol. : Term linkage was coined by T. H. Morgan.
F2 phenotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 101. Answer (2)
95. Answer (3) Hint : Pleiotropic gene controls multiple
Hint : To have child with O blood group both the phenotypes.
parent must have one IO allele. Sol. : In pea starch synthesis gene shows
Sol. : incomplete dominance.
102. Answer (4)
Hint : Kernel colour in wheat show polygenic
inheritance.
Sol. : Intermediate red kerneled wheat = AaBb
White kerneled wheat = aabb
AaBb × aabb
ab
AB AaBb Intermediate red wheat
Ab Aabb Light red wheat
aB aaBb Light red wheat
ab aabb White kernel wheat
Phenotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
Genotypic ratio = 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Thus only statement (ii) is correct
103. Answer (1)
96. Answer (1)
Sol. : Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
Hint : A modified allele can produce normal or less
given by Sutton and Boveri.
efficient enzyme.
104. Answer (3)
Sol. : If modified allele is produced due to silent
mutation it will have same phenotype and it can be Hint : An experimental material must be easily
a dominant allele. grown and have short life span.
97. Answer (4) Sol. : Both Drosophila and garden pea have short
life span.
Sol. : Punnett square is the graphical
representation of possible genotypes of offsprings But only Drosophila can be grown in laboratory
of a genetic cross given by R. C. Punnett. and have distinguishable opposite sexes.
Hint : In Mendelian dihybrid cross 8 offsprings Hint : Recombination frequency (RF) is directly
have genotype heterozygous for single trait. proportional to distance between genes.
11/16
Sol. : Recombination or crossing over occurs 115. Answer (4)

between homologous chromosomes. Higher RF Hint : Cytidine is a nucleoside of RNA molecule.
value indicates that genes are distantly
Sol. : A cytidine contains a ribose sugar a
situated on a chromosome not on separate
pyrimidine nitrogenous base (6 membered) and N-
chromosomes.
glycosidic bond.
106. Answer (4)
But since it’s a nucleoside it lacks phosphoester
Sol. : In moth, females produce two types of bond.
gametes i.e. heterogametic.
116. Answer (3)
107. Answer (4)
Sol. : Guanine is a purine base, rest three are
Hint : Infra red radiations due to high wavelength pyrimidine nitrogenous bases.
have very low energy.
117. Answer (2)
Sol. : Being low energy radiations, infra red Hint : Watson and Crick were the first to propose
radiations are not capable to directly damage the the idea of base complimentarity in DNA.
DNA.
Sol. : Watson and Crick were the first to propose
108. Answer (3) the base pairing between two strands of DNA.
Hint : Male cannot be carrier for X-linked recessive 118. Answer (4)
disorders.
Sol. : DNA packaging in prokaryotes involves non-
Sol. : For haemophilia male can either be histone basic protein polyamines.
diseased or normal 119. Answer (1)
109. Answer (1) Hint : Reverse transcriptase catalyse the
Sol. : Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal synthesis of DNA over RNA.
dominant disorders. Sol. : Reverse transcriptase is found in retro
110. Answer (3) viruses and is RNA dependent DNA polymerase.
It follows principle of complementarity. Viruses
Hint : Colour blindness is X-linked recessive
have very few enzymes such as reverse
disorder.
transcriptase, neuraminidase etc.
Sol. : If a female is suffering from Colour blindness
120. Answer (3)
then she must have genotype 44 + XCXC. This
female can pass Colour blindness gene to her Sol. : Hershey and Chase proved that DNA act as
daughters as well as sons. Female ‘X’ must have genetic material.
received Colour blindness gene from both of her 121. Answer (3)
parents. Hint : RNA transmits genetic information from
111. Answer (1) DNA to protein.
Hint : In sickle cell anaemia HbS peptide have Sol. : RNA is better material for transmission of
valine in place of glutamic acid. genetic information than DNA.
Sol. : m-RNA 122. Answer (4)
HbA peptide – 5 – GAG – 3 Hint : DNA polymerase has both exonuclease and
S polymerase activity.
Hb peptide – 5 – GUG – 3
Sol. : DNA polymerase is capable to synthesise
112. Answer (2)
DNA as well as remove RNA primer. Joining of
Hint : Phenylketonuria gene controls multiple Okazaki fragments is a function of ligase enzyme.
phenotypic expressions.
123. Answer (1)
Sol. : Gene responsible for phenylketonuria is a
Hint : m-RNA have bases sequences
pleiotropic gene.
complimentary to the non-coding DNA strand.
113. Answer (1)
Sol. : m-RNA transcribed from the given DNA
Sol. : Four phenotypes A, B, AB and O are strand will be.
possible for blood group in human population.
114. Answer (2)
Sol. : Turner female have 44 + XO genetic 5th codon is stop codon i.e. UGA, hence only four
complement. amino acids will be coded by this m-RNA.
12/16
124. Answer (3) 134. Answer (1)

Hint : Translation occurs inside cytoplasm. Sol. : Chromosome 1 has the most genes i.e.
Sol. : Charging of t-RNA a step of translation occur 2968.
inside cytoplasm. 135. Answer (2)
125. Answer (3) Hint : UTRs are found towards 5 and 3 end.
Hint : Most of the rRNA are synthesised by RNA Sol. : UTRs are found toward 5 end before start
polymerase I. codon and 3 end after stop codon in m-RNA.
Sol. : 136. Answer (4)
RNA polymerase I : 5.8 S, 18 S, 28 S rRNA Hint : Identify a bacterial disease.
RNA polymerase III : 5 S rRNA Sol. : Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria Neisseria
gonorrhoeae.
RNA polymerase II does not catalyse synthesis of
any rRNA. Genital herpes – Herpes simplex virus
126. Answer (4) Genital warts – Human papilloma virus
Hepatitis B – Hepatitis B virus
Hint : VNTR is polymorphic DNA.
137. Answer (2)
Sol. : VNTR are/have
Hint : It is called fertile period.
 Size 0.1 to 20kb
Sol. : During periodic abstinence, couples abstain
 Found in eukaryotes from coitus from day 10-17 of menstrual cycle,
 Non expressed part of DNA when ovulation is expected.
127. Answer (3) 138. Answer (1)
Sol. : Semiconservative mode of DNA replication Hint : Identify a copper releasing IUD.
was experimentally verified by Meselson and Stahl Sol. : Cu ions present in copper releasing IUDs
using heavy nitrogen i.e. N15. suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of
128. Answer (3) sperms. Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
releasing IUDs.
Hint : Snurp catalyse splicing process.
139. Answer (3)
Sol. : Splicing i.e. removal of introns is not found
Hint : Identify the hormone released by growing
in prokaryotes.
follicles.
129. Answer (2)
Sol. : Progestogens prevent ovulation and
Hint :  is the initiation factor of transcription. implantation and alter the quality of cervical mucus
Sol. : (2) is holoenzyme. Only 2 is which does not let sperms meet the ovum.
considered as core enzyme. Estrogen alone is not effective to carry out these
functions.
130. Answer (1)
140. Answer (2)
Hint : There are no t-RNAs for stop codons.
Hint : Identify a technique.
Sol. : UAG is a stop codon for which there is no t-
Sol. : Infertile childless couples could be assisted
RNA.
to have children through special techniques
131. Answer (1) known as assisted reproductive technologies
Hint : -galactosidase hydrolyses lactose into (ART). A popular method is test tube baby
glucose and galactose. programme.
Sol. : The gene lac z codes for enzymes MTP – Medical Termination of Pregnancy
-galactosidase. RCH – Reproductive and Child Health Care
132. Deleted STI – Sexually Transmitted Infection
133. Answer (3) 141. Answer (4)
Hint : Repeated sequences are non-coding Hint : Amniotic fluid contains foetal cells.
sequences. Sol. : In amniocentesis, amniotic fluid around the
Sol. : A very large portion of human genome developing fetus is taken to analyse fetal cells to
contain non coding sequences or repetitive DNA. check for genetic disorders.
13/16
142. Answer (4) 149. Answer (3)

Hint : Not a goal of RCH. Hint : First trimester.
Sol. : Unprotected sexual co-habitation will lead to Sol. : MTP is considered relatively safe during the
more pregnancies, hence it encourages first trimester i.e. upto 12 weeks of pregnancy,
population growth. second trimester abortions are much more riskier.
143. Answer (3) 150. Answer (4)
Hint : Natural methods involve lactational
Hint : Zygote is single celled.
amenorrhea.
Sol. : The zygote or early embryos formed after in-
Sol. : Natural methods of contraception work on
vitro fertilisation are transferred into fallopian tube
the principle of avoiding chances of meeting
(ZIFT) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
between ova and sperms. IUDs are one of the into the uterus (IUT), to complete its further
most widely used contraceptives in India. development.
144. Answer (3)
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Ovum donor is required.
Hint : Vasectomy and tubectomy
Sol. : Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer involves
transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the Sol. : Surgical methods also called sterilisation are
generally considered as a terminal methods to
fallopian tube of another female who cannot
prevent any more pregnancies. These techniques
produce one, but can provide suitable environment
are highly effective but their reversibility is very
for fertilisation and further development.
poor.
145. Answer (3)
152. Answer (2)
Hint : MTP
Hint : 2 percent.
Sol. : Complications of reproductive tract
infections, if not treated early include pelvic Sol. : According to 2011 census report, the
inflammatory disease, abortions, still births, population growth rate was less than 2 percent i.e.,
ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of 20/1000/year, a rate at which our population could
increase rapidly.
reproductive tract. Haemophilia is a genetic
disease and is not related with RTIs. 153. Answer (2)
146. Answer (3) Hint : Reducing atmosphere.
Hint : Viral STIs are generally incurable. Sol. : The early atmosphere was reducing in
Sol. : Hepatitis B, HIV and genital herpes are nature containing CH4, NH3, H2, etc.
incurable. Family planning programmes in India 154. Answer (2)
were launched at national level to attain total Hint : Swan neck flask experiment.
reproductive health as social goal.
Sol. : Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of
147. Answer (4)
spontaneous generation which stated that life
Hint : Non-steroidal pill. arose from decaying and rotting matter like straw,
Sol. : ‘Saheli’ the new oral contraceptive for mud etc.
females contains a non-steroidal preparation – 155. Answer (1)
centchroman. It was developed by CDRI,
Hint : Selection by nature.
Lucknow. It’s a once a week pill with very few side
effects and high contraceptive value. Sol. : According to Darwin, fitness is the end result
of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Chemical contraceptives include foams, 156. Answer (4)
jellies etc. Hint : Hypothesis on chemical origin of first life.
Sol. : Femidoms, Nirodh and chemical Sol. : Experimental evidence of chemical evolution
contraceptives can be placed by the user itself. was given by Urey and Miller. This hypothesis was
IUDs and implants are inserted by doctors or given by Oparin and Haldane who proposed that
expert nurses. Injections are also administered by first form of life could have come from pre-existing
healthcare providers.
non-living organic molecules.
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157. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)

Hint : Biogenesis. Hint : Directional selection.
Sol. : Water vapour condensed to form water Sol. : Selection of one type of moth (melanised)
bodies on earth. Thus, first forms of life were against non-melanised moth due to camouflage
probably unicellular and originated in water represents selection of one type of species while
environment only. the other is eliminated. Thus it represents
directional selection
158. Answer (3)
165. Answer (2)
Hint : They evolved oxygen.
Hint : Modification of axillary branch.
Sol. : First mammals were like shrews. Plants
Sol. : Divergent evolution is based on homology.
invaded land first and released oxygen which was
followed by arrival of animals. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
are modification of axillary branches.
159. Answer (3)
Tendrils of pea (Pisum) and spines of Cactus are
Hint : Reproductive fitness. modified leaves.
Sol. : The pre-existing advantageous mutations 166. Answer (2)
when selected by nature lead to appearance of Hint : Homology indicates common ancestry.
new phenotypes. This leads to speciation.
Sol. : When the same structure develops along
Variations occurring due to various reasons result
different direction due to adaptations to different
in changed frequency of genes and alleles in
needs, it results in divergent evolution and these
future generation.
structures are homologous.
160. Answer (2)
167. Answer (3)
Hint : Its height was 20 feet.
Hint : Common ancestor of cabbage and broccoli.
Sol. : Dinosaurs were land reptiles. Tyrannosaurus Sol. : Artificial selection of different parts of wild
rex was about 20 feet in height and had huge mustard was done to make broccoli, kohlrabi,
fearsome dagger like teeth. cauliflower etc.
161. Answer (1) Biston carbonaria was selected due to camouflage
Hint : Ichthyosaurs. during industrial melanism, Darwin’s finches
Sol. : Most dinosaurs probably evolved into birds. exemplify adaptation according to needs.
Coelacanth which was earlier thought to be extinct 168. Answer (1)
was the ancestor of modern day frogs and Hint : Sauropsids evolved into thecodonts.
salamanders. Sol. : Crocodiles and birds evolved from
162. Answer (3) thecodonts.
Hint : Convergent evolution. Turtles, Lizards, Snakes and Tuataras evolved
Sol. : The given example shows convergent from sauropsids.
evolution between placental mammals and 169. Answer (2)
Australian marsupials. Spotted cuscus (Australian Hint : Variations are small.
marsupial) and Lemur (placental mammal) show Sol. : According to Darwin, evolution is not a
convergent evolution. directionless process. It is a gradual process
163. Answer (2) based on chance events in nature. According to
Hint : Abrupt evolutionary change. Hugo de Vries, mutations cause evolution which
are sudden and directionless.
Sol. : Hugo de Vries worked on evening primrose
and brought forth the idea of mutation – large 170. Answer (4)
differences arising suddenly in a population. Hint : Adaptive convergence.
According to him, mutations cause evolution. Sol. : Flying phalanger shows adaptive convergence
Concept of branching descent was given by with flying squirrel. Wombat, Bandicoot and sugar
Darwin. Genetic drift involves a sudden changes. glider exhibit adaptive radiation.
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171. Answer (4) 176. Answer (3)

Hint : Adaptive radiation. Hint : Raisen district
Sol. : Darwin’s finches evolved due to adaptive Sol. : Cave paintings by pre historic humans can
radiation on Galapagos island. Others are be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen
examples of evolution by anthropogenic action. district of Madhya Pradesh.
172. Answer (4) 177. Answer (3)

Hint : Bryophytes lack vessels.
Hint : Heterozygotes are 2 pq.
Sol. : Bryophytes evolved from chlorophyte
Sol. : A population in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium ancestors during Paleozoic era. Tracheophyte
is represented by binomial expansion of (p + q)2 ancestors gave rise to Zosterophyllum in Silurian
i.e. p2 + 2pq + q2 where p2 represents homozygous
period.
dominant, 2pq represents heterozygous and q2
represents homozygous recessive individuals. 178. Answer (2)
173. Answer (4) Hint : Convergent evolution.
Sol. : Marsupials in Australia have eutherian look
Hint : Embryology.
alikes with superficially similar adaptation.
Sol. : Ernst von Baer disapproved the theory of Eutherians complete their embryonic development
Ernst Haeckel which stated that certain features in uterus whereas marsupials are born in under
during embryonic stage are common to all develop form and complete their development in
vertebrates, that may be absent in adult. an external pouch. Superficial similar adaptations
Reproductive fitness was a concept given by
are due to convergent evolution. Others are
Darwin.
examples of divergent evolution.
174. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)
Hint : Connecting link between ape and man. Hint : Unit of evolution.
Sol. : Australopithecines probably lived in East- Sol. : Micro evolution is the evolution on smallest
African grasslands and evidence suggests that scale that occurs due to change in allele
they ate fruits. Hominids were first human like frequencies in a population over generation.
beings. Chimpanzees were apes. Genetic variations refer to differences among
175. Answer (2) individuals in the composition of their genes or
other DNA sequences.
Hint : Hominids
180. Answer (3)
Sol. : Cranial capacities.
Hint : Chance event.
Homo erectus – 900 cc Sol. : Genetic drift operates mostly on small
Homo habilis – 650-800 cc populations. It is a chance event that can cause
allele frequencies to fluctuate unpredictably from
Neanderthal man – 1400 cc
one generation to next.
Cro magnon man – 1650 cc

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08-11-2020 A

Entrance Exam - 2021

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Alternating Currents, Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments,

d and f-Block elements, Coordination compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare,

MM : 720 TEST - 3 Time : 3 Hrs.

Space for Rough Work

Choose the correct option  10 4 N

Space for Rough Work

(1) 14 (2) 28 (4) Both (1) and (2)

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) C6H5CH2CH2Br (2) (3) (4)

(3) C6H5Br (4) CH3Br

71. The compound which is most difficult to hydrolyse is

(3) (4) (CH3)3C – Cl

(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2)

(3) (4) (CH3)2 C (CH3)2

Space for Rough Work

73. Major product of the given reaction is

Major product (B) among the following will be

(1) (2) (1) (2)

77. Consider the following reaction

The reaction will be fastest in which solvent?

(1) (2) (1)

Space for Rough Work

82. Compound which shows turbidity immediately in

(1) (2) (3)

(3) (4) (4)

Space for Rough Work

87. Electrophile involved in Kolbe’s reaction for

89. The major product of the reaction is

Space for Rough Work

(3) Mexico (4) Philippines (4) Acetic acid

107. Select the incorrect match. Column-A Column-B

(3) Rhizobium – Symbiotic association with root d. Statins (iv) Aspergillus

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) Can be experienced at high altitude

(2) Only statement B is correct (1) < 5 (2) 30-35

(1) ‘B’ are able to maintain homeostasis

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

15. Answer (4) 18. Answer (3)

25. Answer (3)

30. Answer (3) 34. Answer (1)

Sol.: || = 900 nWb

 Bv  A B sin30 Sol.: 2000 

33. Answer (3) 38. Answer (1)

65. Answer (2) 75. Answer (4)

84. Answer (3) 

85. Answer (4)  Ca3P2 + 6H2O  2PH3(g) + 3Ca(OH)2

88. Answer (4)

Sol. : Recombination or crossing over occurs 115. Answer (4)

124. Answer (3) 134. Answer (1)

142. Answer (4) 149. Answer (3)

157. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)