1- A project team member is talking to another team member and

complaining that so many people are asking him to do things.If he

works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction
to the team member?

a. The project manager

b. The functional manager
c. The team
d. Tight matrix

2- A stakeholder is...?
a. Anyone who is involved in the project
b. Anyone positively or negatively impacted by the project
c. Anyone who can influence the direction of the project
d. Anyone who can impact/be impacted positively or negatively by
the project

3- The project life cycle differs from the product life cycle in that the
project life cycle:
a. Does not incorporate a methodology.
b. Is different for each industry.
c. Can spawn many projects.
d. Describes project management activities.

4- The Human resource plan is an output of the Develop Human

Resource Plan process. Which of the following will most likely be
created in support of this activity?

a. WBS Dictionary
b. Stakeholder Register
c. Risk Breakdown structure
 d. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
5- Management by objectives works only if:

a. It is supported by management.
b. The rules are written down.
c. The project does not impact the objectives.
d. The project includes the objectives in the project charter.

6- A program is defined in the PMBOK as:

a. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain
benefits not available from managing them individually
b. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components
enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired
outcome
c. A project plan developed by key management personnel to
obtain a desired outcome
d. The framework project management uses to ensure the
completion of projects

7- An example of a project is:

a. Billing customers
b. Managing an organization
c. Constructing a building or facility
d. Providing technical support

8- A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:

a. Risk Identification
b. Risk Solicitation
 c. Quantitative Risk Analysis
d. Risk Response Planning
9- Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area:
a. Communications Management
b. Procurement Management
c. Change Control Management
d. Project Integration Management

10- The project management life cycle consists of initiating, planning,

executing, monitoring and controlling and closing. What cycle is the
basis for quality improvement?

a. Analyze, Review, Execute, Control

b. Plan, Do, Check, Act
c. Prepare, Execute, Analyze, Act
d. Initiate, Design, Observe, Verify

11- Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is
expected to experience the highest resource usage?

a. Initial phase(s)
b. Intermediate phase(s)
c. Closing phase(s)
d. Staffing phase(s)

12- Ideally, communication between the project manager and the

project team members should take place:

a. Via daily status reports.

b. Through approved documented forms.
 c. By written and oral communication.
d. Through the formal chain of command.

13- In which project management process group is the detailed project

budget created?

a. Initiating
b. Before the project management process
c. Planning
d. Executing

14- A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:

a. Project budget.
b. Work breakdown structure.
c. Project management plan.
d. Detailed risk assessment.

15- Theory Z is a leadership theory created by:

a. W Edwards Deming
b. Bruce Tuckman
c. William Ouchi
d. Ken Blanchard

16- The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team
has begun working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the
project manager, requesting that the responsibility assignment matrix
be issued. The project has a budget of U.S. $100,000 and is taking
 place in three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk
expected for the project and the project manager has managed many
projects similar to this one. What is the next thing to do?

a. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects.

b. Create an activity list.
c. Make sure the project scope is defined.
d. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment
matrix.

17- The project manager that you just hired said that she came from a
Projectized organization prior to working for your company. Your VP
just asked you what that means in terms of her level of authority. You
responded:

a. she had responsibility for the project but not for the budget
b. she had little responsibility for the project or the budget
c. she split the project and budget responsibilities with the functional
manager
d. she was responsible for the budget and the project almost 100%

18- During project executing, the project manager determines that a

change is needed to material purchased for the project. The project
manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the
change. This is an example of:

a. Management by objectives.
b. Lack of a change control system.
c. Good team relations.
d. Lack of a clear work breakdown structure.
19 -The Company you are working for has decided to adopt Scrum as a
project management method. You've never heard of Scrum before
but decide to do some research and discover that Scrum is an agile
method. What kind of project phase method is being adopted here?

a. Iterative
b. Sequential
c. Overlapping
d. Phase-neutral

20- Maintaining or increasing the efficiency and effectiveness of

stakeholder engagement activities is a key benefit of which process?
a. Identify stakeholders
b. Control Stakeholder engagement
c. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
d. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
21- The implementation of which of the following processes decreases
the risk of project failure?

a. Manage stakeholder engagement

b. Control stakeholder engagement
c. Plan stakeholder management
d. Develop stakeholder engagement

22- The structured review of the procurement process from Plan

Procurements through Administer Procurements is known as a:
a. Structure procurement review
b. Records review
c. Procurement audit
d. Procurement verification and validation
23- The process of determining which risks have the most potential
impact on the project is known as a?
a. Risk probability and impact assessment
b. Risk data quality assessment
c. Sensitivity analysis
d. Expert judgment

24- All of the following are key risk register components with the
exception of:
a. Identification of the risk trigger
b. The risk owner
c. Who identified the risk
d. The risk response strategy
-27
25- What is the expected monetary value (EMV)?
a. The potential cost/benefit of a risk, positive or negative
b. What the project ROI will be
c. The amount of the risk contingency budget
d. The cost baseline minus the risk contingency
26- An assumptions analysis is used to:
a. Identify historical information for risk analysis
b. Identify root causes
c. Assess the validity of risk assumptions
d. Assess the effectiveness of potential risk responses

27- You are managing three offshore teams: one in India, one in the
Ukraine, and one in South America. What would be the best approach
for handling communications with these offshore entities?
a. E-mail
 b. Instant messaging (IM)
c. Video-teleconferencing
d. E-mail + IM

28- You have been asked for a report by senior management that
indicates current budget, current schedule, and where the project may
complete in terms of budget and timeline. The best type or report to use
in this situation is called:
a. A forecast report
b. A status report
c. A progress report9-16
d. A cumulative report

29- When a message is being sent to a single receiver or a group of

receivers, whose responsibility is it that the message is correctly
understood?
a. The receiver – by giving the ender feedback
b. The sender – by correctly encoding the message in a form the
receiver can understand
c. Both the sender and the receiver
d. It depends on the communication medium

30- The project manager can perform all the following functions in a
procurement except:
a. Be the lead negotiator in procurement
b. Have authority to authorize changes to the procurement
c. Help to clarify and finalize the contract terms and conditions
d. Take a lead role in auditing the seller’s work product
31- A variance analysis is used for:

a. Comparing baselines to actuals

b. Determining future performance
c. Status reporting
d. Statistical modeling
32- What is scope decomposition?
a. Breaking down the work into increments of less than 40 hours
each
b. Breaking down the work to the work package level
c. Breaking down the work to the lowest level of detail possible
d. Breaking down the work by functional area

33- The project manager is managing a nine member team. Two

members are removed and reassigned from the team. How many lines
of communication have been removed from the team?
a. 17
b. 16
c. 15
d. 14

34- You are managing a project in which there is a large procurement

activity. One of the stakeholders approaches you with the need for a
change. You have an off-line meeting with the stakeholder and discuss
the change, decide it can be done and agree to implement. What
mistake has the project manager made here?
a. You forgot to consult with senior management
b. You forgot to consult with other stakeholders on the team
c. Contract changes require a formal written approval
 d. You forgot to perform an impact assessment

35- Validate Scope defines a process that:

a. Allows the customer to verify what was built against the
requirements
b. Occurs at the end of the project prior to closing
c. Formalizes acceptance of completed project deliverables
d. Verifies the scope management plan is aligned with the project
management plan

36- A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a

major work package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you
and tells you to complete the paperwork to make the change. This is
an example of:
a. Management attention to scope management.
b. Management planning.
c. A project expediter position.
d. A change control system.

37- What is the best definition below of the difference between the
Collect Requirements process and the Define Scope process?
a. Collect Requirements is really a part of Define Scope
b. Collect Requirements details stakeholder needs while Define
Scope describes in detail, the project
c. Collect Requirements addresses all the detail necessary to
deliver the product of the project, while Define Scope identifies
project boundaries and constraints
 d. Both Collect Requirements and Define Scope use facilitated
workshops as a tool and technique

38- Who creates the scope baseline?

a. The project team

b. The project manager
c. All the stakeholders
d. Senior management

39- The project management plan is an input to which of the following?

a. Define scope
b. Control scope
c. Create WBS
d. Collect requirements
40- Your project is experiencing resource constraints at certain times in
the project timeline, requiring you to adjust start and finish dates on the
schedule. What tool is best to use in this situation?

a. Resource leveling
b. Feeding buffer
c. Critical Path method
d. Resource smoothing

41- The project optimistic estimate is 10 weeks and the pessimistic

estimate is 40 weeks. What is the standard deviation of the estimate?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6.7
d. 7.5
42- Project cost management is primarily concerned with
____________________________?
a. Cost of human resources
b. Basis of estimates
c. Assessing total cost of ownership
d. Establish the cost performance baseline

43- While executing the project it becomes obvious that you're not
going to hit your end date. The project may be delayed by at least two
months. This may impact the start date of another project that was due
to start right after yours completed. What type of float best describes
this situation?
a. Total float
b. Project float
c. Free float
d. Slack float

Create the Network Diagram using the grid above. All times in weeks.
Use for the next three questions.

44- What is the critical path of the network described above?

 a. A-B-D-F-end
b. A-C-D-F-end
c. A-C-E-F-end
d. A-C-E-G-end

45- The customer has asked that you reduce activity D by 2 weeks.
What impact does this have on the schedule?
a. None. It is not on the critical path
b. It will reduce the schedule like two weeks
c. It will only work if you also reduce activity B by two weeks
d. It will only work if you also reduce activity F by two weeks

46- You have just completed your project activity, work package, and
contingency reserve estimates. What have you created as a result of
completing these estimates?
a. Bottom-up estimate
b. Cost budget
c. Cost baseline
d. Definitive estimate

47- What typifies an analogous estimate?

a. More expensive than other estimate types
b. Relies on extensive historical data
c. Essentially a top-down approach
d. May not scale effectively

48- At the last team meeting, several of the team members were tasked
with delivering a short presentation to some of the stakeholders on
certain product features under development. When the presentation has
completed, one of the stakeholders asked a team member, who was
responsible for delivering a specific set of features for one of the
product components? The team member appeared a bit flustered and
asked the PM for assistance with the question. What is most likely what
the PM forgot to do?
a. Create a WBS
b. Create Resource breakdown structure
c. Create a RACI matrix
d. Create a staffing management plan

49- Who is responsible for project quality?

a. senior management
b. the project manager
c. the sponsor
d. the project team

50- The RFP is:

a. A tool and technique of the Conduct Procurements process
b. An output of the Plan Procurements process
c. An input to Administer Procurements process
d. A tool and technique of the Plan Procurements process

51- Cost estimates are based on all the following except?

a. The scope baseline
b. Procurement contract award
c. Human resource plan
d. Risk register

52- You are three months into a six month project. Assume the budget
burn rate is constant. The budget at completion (BAC) is $120,000. AC
= $65,000. The SPI = 1.2. What is the CPI of this project? (Round to 2
decimal places)
 a. 1.32
b. 1.25
c. 1.11
d. It cannot be determined from the information given

53- All of the following are incorrect regarding the computation of EAC
except?
a. EAC calculations always include the AC or the BAC, but usually
both
b. EV is always included
c. SPI is always included
d. ETC is never used in an EAC calculation

54- The project team has done outstanding work on a current project.
While the stakeholders are satisfied with the product of the project, they
have been consistently whining about the cost and have asked you, the
project manager, to review options that would help reduce costs on the
project. Given that this scope has been reduced to the most essential
must-have items, where are your best options for reducing costs?
a. Fixed and variable costs
b. Direct and indirect costs
c. Direct and variable costs
d. Fixed and indirect costs

55- The estimate of the work accomplished is defined as:

a. Actual cost
b. Estimate at completion
c. Earned value
d. Budget at completion

56- The cost of performing quality assurance activity falls under

________________________?
 a. Rework
b. Warranty work
c. Nonconformance work
d. Conformance work
57- One of the purposes of a statistical process chart is to measure the
variances in a process and to help determine whether those variances
are random variations in the process or ‘attributable’ causes. What does
the standard deviation in the chart measure?
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Variance
d. Process Capability

58- The hierarchy of needs is a motivational theory developed by:

a. Herzberg
b. McGregor
c. Maslow
d. McClelland

59- All of the following elements are external impacts of poor quality
except:
a. Cost to regain lost business
b. Decreased efficiency
c. Negative press
d. Rework

60- Senior management has received ongoing progress reports on the

current project you are managing. It seems that one of the technical
team has done an outstanding job of delivering certain aspects of the
product in development, and management has taken notice. A Sr. VP
has commented to you that they would like to move this resource onto
the strategic planning team because of his outstanding job in the
development area. In management this is known as:

a. The Achievement effect

b. The Halo effect
c. The Expectancy effect
d. The Hygiene effect

With my Best Wishes, Good Luck

ENG. Lamiaa Saraha, PMP, CCP