APHG Unit 1 Review- Nature and Perspectives

Multiple Choice Practice:

1. According to the surviving evidence the first person to write the word geography was:
A. Aristotle C. Strabo E. Thucydides
B. Eratosthenes D. Thales of Miletus
2. Scale is:
A. The system used by geographers to transfer locations from a globe to a map.
B. The spread of a phenomenon over a given area.
C. The difference in elevation between two points in an area.
D. The relationship between the length of an object on a map and that feature on landscape.
E. The ratio of the largest to smallest areas on a map.
3. 1:24,000 is an example of what kind of scale?
A. A bar line C. A graphic scale E. A ratio or fraction
B. A metric scale D. A written scale
4. A map projection may distort a continent, making it appear stretched in some areas and smashed in others in order
to:
A. Distort the shapes of other continents.
B. Distort the distances and relative sizes of countries and continents.
C. Depict a map that accurately represents a globe in every detail.
D. Depict accurately the physical area of a country or continent.
E. Depict accurately the shape of that same continent.
5. Which of the following types of maps would have the largest scale?
A. world C. state E. country
B. continent D. city
6. The acquisition of data about earth’s surface from a satellite, spacecraft, or a specially equipped high-latitude
balloon is:
A. GIS C. remote sensing E. USGS
B. GPS D. aerial photography
7. A computer system that stores, organizes, retrieves, analyzes, and displays geographic data is:
A. GIS C. remote-sensing E. topographic analysis
B. GPS D. USGC
8. Situation identifies a place by its:
A. Location relative to other objects or places. D. Unique, internal physical and cultural
B. Mathematica location on earth surface. characteristics.
C. Nominal location. E. Primary dimensions.
9. Sites identifies a place by its:
A. Location relative to other objects in places. D. Unique, internal physical and cultural
B. Mathematica location on earth surface. characteristics.
C. Nominal location. E. Primary dimensions.
10. Which of the following are fundamental elements of culture?:
A. Customary beliefs, volcanic mountain ranges, and river settlements.
B. Material beliefs, customary forms, physical norms, and material social traits.
C. Social forms, material traits, customary beliefs, and physical environments.
D. Customary beliefs, material traits, and social forms.
E. Physical environments and material traits.
11. Which of the following is most likely a functional region?
A. An area where new ideas seem to be circulating the fastest.
B. The area of dominance of a particular church or sect.
C. The area that a person regards as a hometown.
D. The area of dominance of a television station.
E. Area where people tend to be fans of a particular professional football team.
12. Which of the following best describes the idea of a cultural landscape?
A. A landscape that has been completely modified, like a city center.
B. A landscape set aside for historical preservation, like a Civil War battlefield.
C. Land that has been developed with museums, concert halls, and schools.
D. A landscape where each human activity has modified the natural environment in some way.
E. A landscape untouched by human activity, featuring mountains, rivers, and plants.
 13. The name of a location on Earth's surface is a
A. scale name. C. situation. E. geonym.
B. site. D. toponym.
14. The township and range system
A. established a gridlike pattern for much of present-day land use in the United States.
B. is in use nearly everywhere in the world.
C. was used for navigation by early pioneers, traders, and explorers in North America.
D. established a gridlike pattern for much of present-day Europe and the United States.
E. was used throughout Europe until the mid-1800s, after which the United States adopted it.
15. The frequency of something within a given unit of area is
A. concentration. C. distribution. E. dispersion.
B. density. D. pattern.
16. A hearth is
A. a region from which a phenomenon originates.
B. the process by which a feature or trend spreads.
C. an area defined by one or more distinctive features or trends.
D. the modification of a culture as a result of contact with a more powerful one.
E. the perimeter or boundary marked by a regional feature.
Use the figure to the right to answer questions 17 and 18.
17. In this figure, which two boxes have the highest concentration of dots?
A. A, C
B. B, D
C. A, B
D. C, D
E. All of these boxes have the same concentration of dots.
18. In this figure, which two of the four boxes have the highest density of
dots?
A. A, B
B. B, C
C. C, D
D. A, D
E. all of these boxes have equivalent density
19. Which of the following are forms of expansion diffusion?
A. contagious and eponymous E. relocation and
B. hierarchical and formal stimulus
C. economic and relocation
D. contagious and hierarchical
20. The types of diffusion shown in part A and B of the image to the right are which types of
diffusion, respectively?
A. Contagious, hierarchical E. Relocation,
B. Hierarchical, relocation stimulus
C. Contagious, stimulus
D. Stimulus, contagious

FRQ Practice:
- Discuss the ethical or moral implications of dedicating geographical research to the
diffusion of a large corporation such as McDonald's. If you could design such a research
project, explain whether and how you might focus more on consumer behaviors,
environmental impacts (including the global market for meat), health issues involved in
eating fast food (and the U.S. obesity epidemic), or other ethical issues. How important
should these issues be to geographers, and why?
- Name and discuss various (and perhaps overlapping) "regions" that your community or school is located within.
Why does it pertain to each? What types of regions are these, according to the types discussed in this class?
- How does geographic imaging systems such as GIS vs GPS, show data that relates to absolute and relative
location? Give a real world example of when these two tools would be utilized.

APHG Unit 2 Review- Population

Multiple Choice Practice:
1. The Earth area of permanent human settlement is called the
A) hot zone. C) geophenom. E) subpolar region.
B) civilized world. D) ecumene.
2. The countries depicted as smaller, or more limited in size, on the population cartogram have
A) higher levels of wealth and higher populations. D) lower populations and lesser land areas.
B) lower levels of wealth and higher populations. E) lower technical proficiency in cartography and geospatial
C) lower populations. reasoning.
3. Among the following world regions, the least densely populated is
A) East Asia. C) Sub-Saharan Africa. E) South Asia.
B) Southeast Asia. D) Europe.
4. Physiological density is the number of
A) acres of farmland per the total area of a country. D) people per area suitable for agriculture.
B) farmers per area of farmland. E) farm animals per area suitable for agriculture.
C) people per area of flat land.
5. India and the United Kingdom have approximately the same arithmetic density although their landscapes and sizes are quite
different. From this we can conclude that the two countries have roughly the same
A) level of output per farmer. D) number of farmers per area of land.
B) number of people per area of land. E) number of people per area of arable land.
C) pressure placed by people on the land to produce food.
6. A country with a large amount of arable land and a small number of farmers will have a
A) high physiological density. C) high agricultural density. E) low arithmetic density.
B) low physiological density. D) low agricultural density.
7. The average number of births women bear in their lifetimes is
A) total birth rate. C) total fertility rate. E) crude fertility rate.
B) crude birth rate. D) total increase rate.
8. The Phatak family in India decides to have five children, although India's official approach to demographic growth includes a public
relations campaign encouraging smaller families. This illustrates
A) that children represent an economic liability to rural families, despite India's policy.
B) this family fears that high infant mortality rates are associated with smaller family sizes.
C) that the women in this family have little or no power in relation to family planning.
D) an example of conflict between individual and government fertility goals.
E) the demographic realization that India's population pyramid is skewed because of preference for male children.
9. Approximately 500 babies were born in Country D in 2011, but 35 of them died before reaching their first birthday. These data can
be used to report Country D's
A) crude death rate. C) early life expectancy. E) terminal increase rate.
B) infant mortality rate. D) murder rate.
10. We can hypothesize with some confidence that Costa Rica has a lower crude death rate than the United States because Costa Rica
A) has a higher sex ratio. D) is in Stage 4 of the demographic transition.
B) has more hospitals per person. E) has a lower percentage of elderly people.
C) has a milder climate.
11. The population pyramid of a city in southern Florida, Arizona, or even northern Japan may appear ________ because the city's
population is dominated by elderly people.
A) "upside down" C) to have perfectly vertical sides E) "rightside-up"
B) to have a wide base D) to be an "age-sex ratio"
12. The highest natural increase rates are found in countries in which stage of the demographic transition?
A) Stage 1 C) Stage 3 E) Stage 5
B) Stage 2 D) Stage 4
13. The lowest crude birth rates are found in countries in which stage of the demographic transition?
A) Stage 1 C) Stage 3
B) Stage 2 D) Stage 4
E) none of these stages

14. The government of Bangladesh has helped reduce birth rates mainly by providing
A) an economy as developed as any in Europe.
B) access to and information about universities that women can attend.
C) information about choosing sexual abstinence.
D) access to and information about various methods of contraception.
E) religious reasons for improving the quality of life on Earth.
15. The low rate of contraceptive use in Africa reflects the region's
A) improving education of women. D) low status of men.
B) low status of women. E) high rates of religious adherence.
C) rapid diffusion of contraceptives.
16. Thomas Malthus concluded that
A) population increased arithmetically while food production increased linguistically.
B) the world's rate of population increase was higher than the development of food supplies.
C) so-called "moral restraint" was producing lower crude birth rates.
D) population growth was outpacing available resources in every country, according to algebraic calculations.
E) crude birth rates must balance crude death rates.
17. In comparing Malthus's theory to actual world food production and population growth during the past half-century, the principal
difference is that
A) actual food production has been much higher than Malthus predicted.
B) Malthus's theory predicted much higher food production than has actually occurred.
C) actual population growth has been much higher than Malthus predicted.
D) Malthus's theory predicted much higher population growth than has actually occurred.
E) population increased geometrically while food production increased exponentially.
18. The stages of the epidemiologic transition are based on
A) causes of death at varying stages of the demographic transition.
B) the means through which disease is transmitted spatially.
C) non-contagious diseases such as heart disease, obesity, or diabetes.
D) new food sources which produced population explosions.
E) pandemics like the bubonic plague, influenza, or AIDS.
19. A country has net in-migration if immigration ________ emigration.
A) equals C) is closer to net migration than E) varies more than
B) exceeds D) is less than
20. Refugees migrate primarily because of which type of push factor?
A) economic C) cultural E) All of these answer choices are
B) environmental D) circulation correct.
21. A boy migrated from Honduras through Guatemala and Mexico, then entered the United States without immigration documents,
because members of his ethnic group were being targeted for torture or assassination in his home country. Although the U.S.
government does not grant the boy refugee status, his case is an example of international and ________ migration.
A) forced C) voluntary E) transitional
B) human rights D) economic
22. In the United States, which is likely to cause virtually all population growth in the next few decades?
A) natural increase rate C) crude birth rate E) urban expansions
B) net in-migration D) declining death rate
23. Which of the following current migration flows is the least significant in terms of total numbers of people?
A) from Asia to Europe D) between and among Asian countries
B) from Africa to Europe E) from Latin America to North America
C) from Asia to North America
24. Most guest workers head for which parts of Europe?
A) north and east C) central E) south and east
B) north and west D) south and west
25. A young man in Vietnam wishes to migrate to another country to help support his family. Judging by current trends, he would
most likely migrate to
A) China. C) Europe. E) Australia.
B) the United States. D) the Philippines.

APHG Unit 3 Review- Culture Patterns and Processes

Multiple Choice Practice:
1. Jeans provide a good example of material culture that is adopted by a number of different societies. They are also an example of
A) punk culture. C) folk culture. E) youth culture
B) popular culture. D) white-collar culture.
2. In contrast to folk culture, popular culture is more likely to vary
A) from place to place at a given time. measure.
B) from time to time at a given place. D) neither from place to place nor from time to time.
C) both from place to place and from time to time, in equal E) only in more developed countries.
3. Judging from the discussions of other clothing in this chapter, we could say that hoodies are an example of ________ adopted by a
number of different groups segmented by age, class, ethnicity, and other factors. Hoodies are a versatile element of popular culture.
A) punk culture C) folk culture E) youth culture
B) material culture D) immaterial culture
4. Folk songs are more likely than popular songs to
A) tell a story about life-cycle events, work, or natural with dance clubs.
disasters. D) be transmitted in written form.
B) be considered examples of culture. E) be written by specialists for commercial distribution.
C) feature instruments and styles of performance associated
5. A taboo against pork is a characteristic of
A) Judaism and Islam. C) Christianity and Buddhism. E) Islam and Hinduism.
B) Judaism and Buddhism. D) Christianity and Hinduism.
6. The ________ is an important source area for U.S. folk house types.
A) Lower Chesapeake C) Northeast E) Southwest
B) Southern Atlantic D) Upper New York highland
7. Diffusion of popular customs can adversely impact environmental quality in two ways:
A) reducing demand for foreign products and promoting local crafts.
B) increased diversity and decreased demand.
C) depletion of scarce resources and pollution.
D) diversity of products and depletion of change.
E) using renewable materials and recycled designs.
8. A group of languages that share a common origin but have since evolved into individual languages is a
A) dialect. C) language family. E) language root.
B) language branch. D) language group.
9. The two largest language families in the world are
A) Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic. C) Afro-Asiatic and Sino-Tibetan. E) Altaic and Nilo-Saharan.
B) Sino-Tibetan and Indo-European. D) Balto-Slavic and Sino-Tibetan.
10.Dialects developed within England primarily because
A) different Germanic invaders settled in different regions.
B) the Normans invaded from the south.
C) the Viking invaders did not remain long in England.
D) British Received Pronunciation became the standard dialect.
E) commerce developed more slowly in England than on the European continent.
11. The two most important languages in South America are
A) Dutch and English. C) French and Spanish. E) Creole and Portuguese.
B) English and Spanish. D) Portuguese and Spanish.
12. According to Colin Renfrew's research, Indo-European languages diffused across Europe
A) entirely by sea. D) with the diffusion of agriculture.
B) by way of the Kurgan homeland. E) following the traders on the silk road.
C) with the conquests of warriors on horseback.
13. An isogloss is
A) a form of a language spoken in a local area. D) a blending of two language families.
B) a collection of unique words. E) a line that separates literary traditions
C) a boundary between language regions.
1

14. The survival of any language relies on

A) rapid migration into other areas. D) the spread of its speakers' material culture.
B) the efficient "corrections" of the global free market. E) the homogenization of its dialects.
C) the political and military strength of its speakers.
15. A pidgin language
A) has no native speakers. D) cannot exist for more than a generation.
B) is spread by folk culture. E) cannot exist without globalization.
C) stems from invasion.
16. A creolized language is
A) extinct. D) a possible prehistoric superfamily.
B) a mix of indigenous and colonial languages. E) a revived formerly extinct language.
C) an isolated language family.
17. With respect to the relationship between culture, religion, and the physical environment,
A) few religions derive meaningful events from the physical environment.
B) religious ideas may be responsible for some of the changes people make in the physical environment.
C) religion is no longer an important source of identification for a distinct cultural group.
D) all religions appeal primarily to people living in their land of origin.
E) religious ideas nearly all arise from changes in the physical environment.
18. Animists believe that
A) people should complete God's creation of the Earth. D) natural disasters are preventable.
B) inanimate objects and natural events have spirits. E) enlightenment can be achieved by all people.
C) people should make complete use of the Earth's resources.
19. The world's largest ethnic religion is
A) Confucianism. C) Hinduism. E) Islam.
B) Daoism. D) Shintoism.
20. In South America,
A) nearly all of the people are Catholic.
B) the great majority of the people are Catholic.
C) nearly all of the people are Protestant.
D) the population is almost equally divided between Catholics and Protestants.
E) about one-fourth of the people are Protestant, one-fourth Catholic, and the remainder practice traditional religions.
21. Almost 90 percent of people in the Western Hemisphere claim adherence to
A) Christianity. D) Eastern Orthodoxy.
B) Roman Catholicism. E) fundamentalist and nondenominational Christian churches.
C) Protestantism.
22. Which of the following is not a universalizing religion?
A) Buddhism C) Islam E) Christianity
B) Sikhism D) Judaism
23. Unlike other universalizing religions, Buddhism
A) remained primarily concentrated in one region of the C) was founded in China.
world. D) worships more than one god.
B) was not begun by an individual founder and then diffused E) diffused primarily by colonization.
elsewhere.
24. Some of the violence linked to religion in Israel and Palestine is also linked to
A) the immigration of Tibetan Buddhists into the area. D) a belief in the equitable sharing of resources regardless of
B) the ordination of women as leaders in some Protestant religious affiliation.
Christian denominations. E) ethnic groups, resources, and disputes over the control of
C) the existence of Mecca and Medina. land.
25. Judaism is classified as an ethnic rather than a universalizing religion, partly because
A) its main holidays relate to events in the life of its founder, C) its rituals derive from the agricultural cycle in Israel.
Abraham. D) it commemorates the Exodus from Egypt.
B) it uses a standard solar calendar rather than a lunar E) the holy text is the foundation of the religion.
calendar.
26. Asian Americans are clustered in what area of the United States?
A) Southwest C) Plains states E) Southeast
B) West D) Northeast
27. An examination of the distribution of ethnicities in the United States reveals
A) ethnicities are not often clustered in urban areas.
B) different ethnicities cluster in each U.S. region.
C) ethnic neighborhoods contain a heterogeneous mix of ethnicities, even in cities that were once known for their patterns of
segregation.
D) segregation and exclusion are a thing of the past for nearly all U.S. ethnic groups.
E) ethnic groups tend to cluster in urban areas and in different U.S. regions.
APHG Unit 4 Review- Political Organization of Space
Multiple Choice Practice:
1. Denmark is a good example of a nation-state because
A) nearly the entire population are ethnic Danes who speak Danish.
B) Danish and German nationalities intermingle in Schleswig-Holstein.
C) the people living on the Faeroe islands, which are controlled by Denmark, speak Faeroese.
D) Denmark consolidated its boundaries by giving Greenland to Norway.
E) it is an independent country that is a member of the United Nations.
2. Which of the following is not a strong centripetal force in the United States?
A) network television D) "The Star Spangled Banner"
B) the U.S. flag E) baseball
C) the many ethnic groups living in the United States
3. Ethnicities in the same country come into conflict partly because
A) they have conflicting traditions of self-rule. D) their national identity is shared.
B) they share a language. E) the national wealth is evenly distributed.
C) minority ethnicities are officially recognized.
4. Most of the conflict in Africa is widespread because of
A) colonial boundaries clearly demarcating the various ethnic and national populations.
B) numerous ethnic groups living in perpetual peace and understanding.
C) rapid economic development for the poor at the expense of the rich.
D) gradual economic development favoring the poor over the rich.
E) colonial boundaries in the midst of numerous ethnic and national groups.
5. Balkanization refers to
A) the creation of nation-states in southeastern Europe. organized into states.
B) the breakdown of a state due to conflicts among D) ethnic cleansing.
nationalities. E) religions splintering into opposing groups.
C) a small geographic area that cannot successfully be
6. Over the past half century, the number of sovereign states in the world
A) has remained approximately the same. D) has increased by more than a hundred.
B) has increased by a couple of dozen. E) has increased by more than a thousand.
C) has decreased by a couple of dozen.
7.The United Nations is primarily what kind of cooperative effort?
A) political C) economic E) environmental
B) military D) cultural
8. An area organized into an independent political unit is a
A) colony. C) nation. E) territory.
B) nationality. D) state.
9. The best example of a nation among the following is
A) an island with a long history of self-rule and a homogeneous ethnic identity, although the island has been under the control of a
colonial power for the last 30 years.
B) a group of islands inhabited by a homogeneous ethnicity, although the westernmost islands pertain to the territory of one country
whereas the easternmost islands pertain to another country.
C) a mountainous region inhabited by heterogeneous ethnicities and divided up administratively among various independent countries.
D) a mountainous region inhabited by heterogeneous ethnicities which share responsibility for maintaining an independent
government and a standing army.
E) a mountainous region inhabited by a mixture of peoples but recently colonized by a European nation-state.
10. Among the world's largest multinational states are
A) Russia and the United States. C) Japan and Denmark. E) Mexico and Japan.
B) Australia and New Zealand. D) Mexico and Russia.
11. Korea is a good example of a(n)
A) sovereign state. D) colony divided between more than one ethnicity.
B) nation-state existing in a unified condition. E) patron-state.
C) ethnicity divided between more than one state.
12. A frontier, in contrast to a boundary,
A) separates two states. D) is a region of ethnic conflict.
B) is an area rather than a line. E) is the westernmost part of a state.
C) has become a more common means to separate states.

13. The boundary between the United States and Canada is best described by which of the following?
A) geometric only C) water and linguistic E) water and geometric
B) linguistic and religious D) mountain and water
14. Extremely small island-states in the world, many of which are former European colonies, are called
A) island nations. C) microstates. E) island-colonies.
B) macrostates. D) small nation-states.
15. The Germans established the ________ known as the Caprivi Strip in present-day Namibia to access resources in central Africa,
including the Zambezi River.
A) causeway C) railroad E) proruption
B) disruption zone D) protraction
14. Swaziland makes ________ into a perforated state.
A) Madagascar C) Italy E) Zimbabwe
B) the United Kingdom D) South Africa
15. Which shape most easily fosters the establishment of effective internal communications for a smaller state?
A) compact C) fragmented E) prolonged
B) elongated D) prorupted
.

16. A state which places most power in the hands of a central government is a(n)
A) federal state. C) fragmented state. E) compact state.
B) anocratic state. D) unitary state.
17. The European Union has
A) replaced COMECON as the main organization for regional cooperation in Eastern Europe.
B) protected Western Europe from a Soviet invasion and improved Europe's environmental protections.
C) promoted economic growth and integration in Western Europe.
D) closed NATO military bases around the Mediterranean Sea in order to save money since the end of the Cold War.
E) protected Southwestern Asia and North Africa from Muslim incursions
18. When gerrymandering takes place, the kind of redistricting so that the opposition is spread across many districts as a minority is
termed a(n) ________ strategy.
A) wasted vote C) stacked vote E) excess vote
B) rightwing D) districting
19. When gerrymandering takes place, the kind of redistricting that concentrates opposition voters into a small number of districts,
allowing the party in power to gain control of numerous other districts, is termed a(n) ________ strategy.
A) excess vote C) stacked vote E) inexcess vote
B) red-state rigged D) wasted vote
20. Which of the following is not true of al-Qaeda?
A) Al-Qaeda has been implicated in several bombings since the attack on the United States in 2001.
B) Al-Qaeda is a single unified organization.
C) Most al-Qaeda cell members have lived in ordinary society, supporting themselves with jobs or crime.
D) Finance, media, legal-religious policy and military committees report to a council called Majiis al shura.
E) Al-Qaeda grew out of the war against the Soviet Union in Afghanistan.
21. Terrorism differs from assassinations and other acts of political violence because
A) attacks are never well coordinated. D) attacks use only personal and improvised weapons.
B) attacks are aimed at military targets or political leaders. E) attacks are typically made without regard for political
C) attacks are aimed at ordinary people. goals.
22. The boundary between the two Germanys was determined by
A) Cold War alliances and rivalries after World War II.
B) membership in the United Nations, along with nationalistic issues.
C) the growth of fascism in Europe.
D) the changing physical boundaries of Europe's major rivers and coastlines.
E) cultural issues involving shifting language patterns in Europe.

APHG Unit 5 Review- Agriculture and Rural Land Use

Multiple Choice Practice:
1. Which is not a form of subsistence agriculture?
A) Mediterranean D) intensive
B) shifting cultivation E) All of the above are forms of subsistence agriculture.
C) pastoral nomadism
2. Hunting and gathering societies
A) include about 15 percent of the world's people.
B) are found in isolated places in the world.
C) are characterized by large concentrations of people.
D) occur nearly everywhere but are especially common in Europe.
E) are responsible for most of the environmental degradation of the planet.

3. Which type of agriculture is found primarily in less developed countries?

A) Mediterranean C) truck farming E) mechanized
B) plantation D) commercial gardening

5. Which type of agriculture is practiced by the largest percentage of the world's people?
A) hunting and gathering C) pastoral nomadism E) plantation
B) shifting cultivation D) intensive subsistence

6. Which of the following is a typical practice in growing rice in Asia?

A) preparing fields with a plow drawn by oxen D) transplanting seedlings into the flooded field
B) flooding the plowed field with water E) All of these answers are correct.
C) growing seedlings in a nursery

7. The seasonal migration of livestock between mountains and lowland pastures is

A) pastoral nomadism. D) practiced mostly in the tropics.
B) transnomadism. E) livestock ranching.
C) transhumance.

8. Mixing crops and livestock allows farmers to

A) distribute the workload of the crops and livestock so that farmers hardly need to work during the summer season.
B) generate 90 percent of their income from the sale of livestock.
C) doublecrop.
D) create a system where crops provide food for livestock and the livestock provide manure for crop fertilization.
E) circumvent market forces that determine the prices of livestock and crops.

9. Which is a characteristic of shifting cultivation?

A) Land is cleared by tractors or large work crews. D) Swiddens not under cultivation are used for mining
B) Debris is mulched to provide the soil with nutrients. operations.
C) A new site is designated every 50 years. E) A new site is designated every few years.

10. The type of agriculture practiced near large cities, which includes producing fruits and vegetables, is called
A) sawah. C) subsistence agriculture. E) truck hybridization.
B) truck agriculture. D) truck farming.

11. In the United States many farms are integrated into a large food production industry. This is known as
A) agribusiness. C) food processing. E) mixed crop and livestock farming.
B) commercial farming. D) mechanized farming.

12. Von Thünen's model can best be used to explain the location of which of the following types of agriculture?
A) dairying in the Northeast United States D) intensive subsistence in South China
B) ranching in the dry lands of North Africa E) mediterranean agriculture in central Chile
C) shifting cultivation in the tropics of South America

13. A principal practice of sustainable agriculture is

A) agribusiness-oriented land management. D) the use of pesticide-resistant seed.
B) a "green revolution" in the use of chemicals. E) careful land management
C) the preference for livestock over crops.

14. Pastoral nomadism is most commonly found in which climate region?

A) humid low-latitude C) warm mid-latitude E) polar
B) dry D) cold mid-latitude

15. The decline in the number of farmers in MDCs can best be described as a consequence of
A) push/pull economic factors, including the lack of opportunity in rural areas and higher-paying jobs in urban areas.
B) urban sprawl, including the development of rings of suburbs and exurbs around major metropolitan areas, which required larger
amounts of farm production.
C) push/pull economic factors, including greater opportunities in rural areas and lower-paying jobs in urban areas.
D) the increase of populations in urban areas and the reduced population in rural areas.
E) the spread of disease and starvation in rural areas, which quickly reduced the populations of farmers.

16. Mixing crops and livestock allows farmers to

A) distribute the workload of the crops and livestock so that farmers hardly need to work during the summer season.
B) generate 90 percent of their income from the sale of livestock.
C) doublecrop.
D) create a system where crops provide food for livestock and the livestock provide manure for crop fertilization.
E) circumvent market forces that determine the prices of livestock and crops.

17. To increase crop yields, farmers in South China commonly practice

A) double cropping. C) threshing. E) shifting cultivation.
B) transhumance. D) pastoral nomadism.

18. A major practice of sustainable agriculture is

A) agribusiness. D) use of pesticide resistant seed.
B) an increased "green revolution" use of chemicals. E) limited use of chemicals
C) the lack of integration of crops and livestock.

APHG Unit 6 Review- Industrialization Development

Multiple Choice Practice:
1. Gross domestic product (GDP) is the
A) total value of the outputs minus inputs of goods and services produced in a country during a year.
B) total value of exports of goods and services produced in a country during a year.
C) total value of outputs of goods and services produced in a country during a year.
D) total value of human capital development in a country during a year.
E) total value of investments made in domestic and foreign sources of revenue during a year.
2. An example of a primary sector activity is
A) education. C) banking. E) mining.
B) manufacturing. D) retailing.
3. The Gender Inequality Index (GII)
A) compares the level of development of women in a country to the average development level of women in the world.
B) compares the levels of indicators for females to those of males within a country.
C) is composed of the same measures as the HDI but is applied only to women instead of the entire population.
D) combines economic and political indicators of empowerment.
E) cannot be used as an indicator of development in the United States.
4. Severe gender inequality is a challenge to development because
A) it leads to smaller family sizes, and families with fewer child laborers cannot earn enough money to pay for their rent and utilities.
B) it is associated with higher literacy rates, higher economic vitality, and lower infant mortality rates.
C) it excludes men from the informal economy, wasting a major economic asset.
D) it severely limits the economic and social mobility of women, as well as families that are headed by women.
E) it does not allow men and boys the freedom to attend the schools and seek the jobs that are best suited to them.
5. Which of the following is not an indicator of global gender inequality?
A) Women on average have only two-thirds of the income of men in MDCs.
B) Women have much lower incomes than men in LDCs.
C) Female life expectancy is less than males in every country of the world.
D) Female literacy is much lower than males in Sub-Saharan Africa.
E) Women hold less than one-fourth of managerial jobs in LDCs where data are available.
6. In contrast to the international trade approach, the self-sufficiency approach to development
A) begins when an elite group initiates innovative activities. D) attempts to spread investment through all sectors of the
B) attempts to result in uneven resource development. and economy.
market correction indices. E) attempts to identify appropriate developmental stages.
C) suffers from market stagnation.
7. According to Rostow's development model, the process of development begins when
A) a high percentage of national wealth is allocated to C) take-off industries achieve technical advances.
nonproductive activities. D) workers become more skilled and specialized.
B) an elite group initiates innovative activities. E) banking institutions are sufficiently mature.
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Fair Trade movement?
A) Standards intending to protect workers are instituted in LDCs.
B) Fair Trade coffee has become available in most North American cities.
C) Cooperatives intend to benefit local farmers and artisans, rather than absentee corporate owners.
D) Employers must pay fair wages and comply with environmental and safety standards.
E) Protection of workers' rights is already a high priority for multinational corporations.
9. Traditional barriers to international trade have included
A) low taxes on imports. D) requiring licenses for importers.
B) making domestic goods more expensive. E) strong domestic and international demand
C) eliminating quotas on imports.
10. The cottage industry system involved manufacturing
A) of hand-made luxury goods. D) in small factories.
B) in the home. E) cheeses and pastries.
C) of steam engines and other cottage-sized machines.
11. Western Europe's principal industrial areas include all but which of the following?
A) the United Kingdom C) the Mid-Rhine E) Portugal and western Spain
B) the Rhine-Ruhr valley D) Northern Italy
12. A copper concentration mill tends to locate near a copper mine because it is a
A) bulk-reducing industry. D) specialized manufacturer.
B) perishable industry. E) fabrication concentration point.
C) bulk-gaining industry.
13. Situation costs are critical to a firm that wishes to
A) avoid skilled laborers. D) identify unique characteristics of a particular industry.
B) minimize production costs inside the plant. E) utilize a new technology.
C) minimize transport costs.
14. Producers of automobiles select assembly plant locations primarily for their closer access to
A) government subsidies. D) raw materials.
B) labor markets. E) water transportation.
C) markets for finished automobiles.
15. In addition to integrated mills, about one-fourth of U.S. steel production is now attributed to
A) minimills which utilize scrap metal in many U.S. locations.
B) traditional mills in the South and Southeast.
C) minimills which have revitalized the old steel producing center of Pittsburgh.
D) nuclear-pellet generating plants in the Northeast.
E) scrap metal from materials transported to the United States from China.
16. A company which uses more than one ________ will often locate near break-of-bulk points.
A) mode of transport C) raw material E) energy supply
B) consumer market D) type of labor
17. Twenty-three U.S. states have so-called "right-to-work" laws that
A) are more numerous and anti-union in northern states than in southern states.
B) send a powerful signal to employers that workers have the right to join a labor union, whether or not this unionization might cause
inconveniences for management.
C) make it much more difficult for employers to limit wages, cut health benefits, and stop unions from forming.
D) fight the efforts of factory management to break unions and keep future unions from forming.
E) cause a great deal of trouble for labor unions attempting to organize workers and bargain with employers.
18. Mexico's maquiladora plants
A) must operate far from the U.S.-Mexico border. D) have an advantage of proximity to U.S. markets.
B) employ more than five million laborers. E) have grown in number as factories have been closed in
C) have an advantage of proximity to Latin American markets. China.
19. Maintaining control over all phases of a highly complex production process, as opposed to outsourcing, is known as
A) vertical integration. D) right-to-work.
B) the new international division of labor. E) outsourcing.
C) convergence.
20. In contrast to Fordist production, Post-Fordist production is more likely to
A) introduce more flexible work rules. D) include repetitive tasks.
B) place more importance on site factors. E) require larger inventories of parts and components.
C) assign each worker one task.
21. If a paper company is leaking pollutants into a nearby river this is an example of
A) non-point source pollution D) air pollution
B) point-source pollution E) global warming
C) solid waste pollution
22. Why does it make sense for a CVS to locate near a hospital?
A) the world-systems analysis D) Von Thunen Model
B) Rostow’s modernization model E) zone of profitability model
C) concentric zone model
23. The type of manufacturing which involves the coordinated assembly of products as supplies and parts are received, and thus
reduces production costs and decreases inventory space needed is known as
A) footloose industries D) craft manufacturing
B) tertiary production E) just-in-time production/industry
C) cottage industries
24. Which of the following groups of American cities is part of the Rust Belt?
A) Detroit, Youngstown, and Cleveland D)Atlanta, Augusta and Knoxville
B)San Jose, Palo Alto, and Cupertino E)Albuquerque, Tucson, and Phoenix
C) St. Louis, Little Rock and Oklahoma City
25. Weber’s Least-Cost Theory produces insight into why firms choose the locations they do to sell goods and services. In his theory,
Weber listed numerous assumptions. Which of the following IS NOT an assumption he had?
A) businesses settle for economic purposes only D) there is a single product being sold to a single market
B) all humans and land in a given space remains constant E) natural resources can only be obtained in a specific area
C) labor is not always common in society