Neet Model Examination - I

ONLINE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - I
23- 06 -2020
22KS/NEET/MOD/[N1] BATCHES
Physics + Chemistry + Biology LT22 All AIIMS BATCH
Mark : 720 TIME : 3Hr.
PHYSICS
1. If a body starts from a point and returns back to the same point, then its
1) Average velocity is zero, but not average speed
2) Average speed and velocity are zero
3) Both average speed and velocity are zero
4) Average speed and velocity depend upon the path
2. The numerical ratio of velocity and speed of a particle is always
1) Equal to or less than one 2) Equal to one
3) Less than one 4) Zero
3. If the position - time graph is parallel to time axis
1) Body is in uniform motion 2) Velocity is non uniform
3) Acceleration is constant 4) Body is at rest
4. The displacement - time graphs of two moving particles make an angles of 300 and 450 with the X - axis.
the ratio of their velocity is
1) 1: 3 2) 1 :2 3) 1 : 1 4) 3:2
5. A body is moving with a uniform velocity of 10ms-1. The velocity of the body after 10s is :
1) 100ms-1 2) 50 ms-1 3) 20ms-1 4) 10 ms-1
6. Rate of change of velocity with respect to time is is called
1) Displacement 2) Velocity 3) Acceleration 4) Distance
7. The speed of a body moving along a straight line changes from 25 m/s to 10 m/s in 3 seconds at a constant
rate. During this time its acceleration a is
2 2
1) a = 5 m/s 2) a = - 5 m/s
2 2
3) a = 45 m/s 4) Decreases from 0 to 5 m/s
8. Which of the following equation is correct in uniformly accelerated motion (symbols have usual meanings)
1) V = u + at 2) S = ut2 +at 3) V2 =u2+2a2s2 4) V2 = u2 + a2t2
9. Slope of the velocity - time graph gives
1) acceleration 2) speed 3) displacement 4) distance
FT22/TP/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
10. Speed is a:
1) vector quantity 2) scalar quantity
3) neither vector nor scalar 4) sometimes vector sometimes scalar
11. A car travels first half distance between two places with a speed of 30km/h and remaining half with a speed
50km/h. The average speed of the car is
1) 37.5 km/h 2) 10 km/h 3) 42 km/h 4) 40 km/h
12. If a stone is thrown up with a velocity of 9.8 m/s, then how much time will it take to come back :
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 3s 4) 4s
13. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v  20  0.1t 2 . The body is undergoing
1) Uniform acceleration 2) Uniform retardation
3) Non-uniform acceleration 4) Zero acceleration
14. With doubling the speed of a vehicle the distance required to stop it becomes
1) Doubled 2) Halved
3) Trippled 4) Four times
15. If a man goes 10 m toward north and 20 m toward east, then his displacement is :
1) 22.5 m 2) 25 m 3) 25.5 m 4) 30 m
16. The area under velocity-time graph for a particle in a given interval of time represents :
1) Velocity 2) Acceleration
3) Work done 4) Displacement
17. Figure shows the displacement (x)-time (t) graph of the particle moving on the x-axis.
1) The particle is at rest

2) The particle is continuously going along x-direction
3) The velocity of the particle increases upto time t0 and then becomes constant
4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops
18. A runner completes one round of a circular path of radius R in 40 seconds with uniform speed. His
displacement and distance travelled after 2 minutes 20 seconds will be :
7
1) R, R 2) 2R,7 R 3) zero, 2 R 4) R, R
2
19. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 30 second. The distance travelled in the first 10
second is x1, next 10 second is x2 and the last 10 second is x3. Then x1:x2:x3 is the same as
1) 1 : 2 : 4 2) 1 : 2 : 5 3) 1 : 3 : 5 4) 1 : 3 : 9
20. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its
ascent is
1) ut 2) 1 2 gt 2 3) ut  1 2 gt 2 4)  ut  gt  t
21. The position - time graph given below shows that body can be
1) Uniform motion 2) Uniform acceleration

3) Uniform retardation 4) Uniform velocity
22. Which of the following is not an example of one dimensional motion
1) A fish moving in water 2) A bus running on a straight road
3) The movement of the tip of a pen while writing 4) Both 1 & 3
23. If a body travels for two equal displacements with different velocities v1 and v2. The average velocity of the
body is :
v1  v 2 2v1v 2
1) 2) v  v 3) v1v 2 4) v12  v22
2 1 2
24. SI unit of velocity is

1) m/s 2) ms–2 3) ms 4) kgs–1
25. Which of the following relation is wrong [symbols have usual meanings]
1 2 at 2
1) V  u  at 2) S  ut  at 3) V  u  2as
2 2 4) V  u 
2 2
26. Acceleration is equal to
distance change in velocity velocity

1) 2) Time taken 3) 4) displacement/time
time time
27. The speed of a body cannot be
1) Zero 2) Positive 3) Negative 4) Above 100
28. The rea under acceleration - time graph gives :
1) Displacement 2) Velocity 3) Change in velocity 4) Speed
29. A freely falling body takes 10 seconds to reach the ground. The height of fall is : (g = 10ms–2)
1) 10 m 2) 50 m 3) 100 m 4) 500 m
30. A body is thrown down with a velocity 10 m/s. Its velocity after 10 second is :
1) 90 m/s 2) 100 m/s 3) 110 m/s 4) 200 m/s
31. A balls thrown vertically upward returns to its starting point in 4 sec. Its initial velocity is (g = 9.8 ms–2)
1) 23.6 m/s 2) 6 m/s 3) Zero 4) 19.6 m/s
32. The rate of change of velocity is called
1) displacement 2) speed 3) distance 4) acceleration
33. A particle discribes a circular path of radius 1m in 10 seconds. The average velocity of the particle is:

1) 0 2)   0.2 m / s 3) m / s 4) 2 m / s
10
34. Velocity of a moving object changes from 10m/s to 20m/s in 10 seconds. Find its acceleration
1) 1m/s2 2) 2m/s2 3) 3m/s2 4) 8m/s2
35. In the above question find the total distance travelled by the body
r
1) 2r 2) r 3) 2r 4)
2
1km
36.  .......m / sec
hr
5 2 3 12
1) 2) 3) 4)
18 18 18 7
37. Acceleration is equal to
distance change in velocity velocity
1) 2) Time taken 3) 4) displacement/time
time time
taken
38. Which of the following is not a example of one dimensional motion
1) A fish moving in water 2) A bus running on straight roads
3) The movement of the tip of a pen while writting 4)Both 1 & 3
39. V2 = U2 +2as is known as
1) Velocity - displacement relation 2) Position - time relation
3) Time - Velocity relation 4) Time - displacement relation
40. A women starts from her home at 9.00 am walks along a straight road up to her office 2.5 km away and
returns to home by an auto. It she takes 1hr for the entire journey. Find average velocity.
1) 5km/hr 2) 2.5km/hr 3) 10 km/hr 4) zero
41. An object is moving along a straight road in the same direction then which of the following statement is true.
1) magnitude of displacement is equal to the distance covered
2) displacement is greater than distance covered
3) distance is greater than displacement
4) both of than are zero
42. The distance travelled by a freely falling body in one second is:
1) 19.6 m 2) 9.8 m 3) 1m 4) 4.9 m
43. The numerical ratio between displacement and distance travelled is:
1) =1 2)  1 3)  1 4) < 1
44. An example for two dimensional motion is:
1) motion of train 2) motion of bird in the sky
3) motion of a worm in an apple 4) motion of an ant on a paper
45. Which of the following is an example for point object:
1) Ball on a table
2) Ant on a paper
3) Bus in a shed
4) Train running between Kanyakumari and Kashmir
CHEMISTRY
46. Law of conservation of mass was given by
1) Proust 2) Lavoisier 3) John Dalton 4) Richter
47. Which of the following have definite Volume and shape
1) Solids 2) Liquids 3) Gases 4) Milk
48. “In all physical and chemical changes, the total mass of the reactants is equal to that of the products”. The
law is known as
1) Law of multiple proportion 2) Law of conservation of mass
3) Law of reciprocal proportions 4) Law of definite proportions
49. Equal volume all gases under the similiar conditions of temperature and pressure contains equal number of
1) Atoms 2) Ions 3) Molecules 4) Compounds
50. Which of the following is the standard for atomic mass
1) 1 H1 2) 6 C12 3) 6 C14 4) 8 O16
51. 1 amu has the mass equal to
1) 1.66  1022 g 2) 1.66  1024 g 3) 1 g 4) 112 g

52. Avogardo number represents the number of atoms in
1) 320 g of S 2) 12 g of C-12 3) 32 g of O2 4) 6 g of C-12
53. Carbon forms two oxides CO & CO2. This illustrates the law of:
1) definite proportions 2) Multiple proportions
3) Reciprocal proportions 4) Combining volumes
54. An element has two isotopes 10X20 & 10X22 present in the ratio 1:3. The relative atomic mass of the
element is:
1) 20.5 2) 21.0 3) 21.5 4) 21.8
55. Which has maximum number of atom :
1) 24 g of C (12) 2) 56 g of Fe (56) 3) 27 g of Al(27) 4) 108 g of Ag(108)
56. Nitrogen forms five stable oxides with N2O, NO, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5. The formation of these oxides
explains fully
1) Law of definite proportion 2) Law of gaseous volumes
3) Law of reciprocal proportion 4) Law of multiple proportion
57. If V.D. of a gas is 30, then the molecular mass would be
1) 15 2) 30 3) 13 4) 60
58. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X(atomic mass = 10), 50% of element Y
(atomic mass = 20) is
1) XY 2) XY2 3) X3Y2 4) X2Y
59. Which of the following contains maximum no. of molecules?
1) 100 cc of CO2 at STP 2) 150 cc of N2 at STP
3) 50 cc of SO2 at STP 4) 200 cc of NH3 at STP
No.of atoms
60. 
No. of moles of atoms
1) Avogadro number 2) Mass 3) Atomic mass 4) Equivalent mass
61. Father of modern chemistry is
1) Lavoisier 2) Dalton 3) Bohr 4) Chadwick
62. The percentage composition of C in CaCO3
1) 6% 2) 12% 3) 24% 4) 48%
63. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver chloride
and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is true ?
1) 10.7 g 2) 17.0 g 3) 23.0 g 4) 45 g
64. The mass of one atom of silver atom (atomic mass of Ag = 108) in g is ?
1) 1.8 × 10-22 g 2) 1.8 × 10-23 g
3) 108 g 4) 6.023 × 1023 g
65. Number of Nitrogen atoms present in 1.4 g of N2 is ?
1) 3.012 × 1022 2) 3.012 × 1023 3) 6.023 × 1022 4) 6.023 × 1023
66. The maximum number of molecules is present in
1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP 2) 5L of N2 gas at STP
3) 0.5 g of H2 gas 4) 10g of O2 gas
67. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases
in the mixture?
1) 16 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
68. How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
1) 0.02 2) 3.125 102 3) 1.25  102 4) 2.5 102
69. Caffein has molecular weight of 194. It contain 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms of nitrogen in
one molecule of it is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
70. Avogadro introduced the term atomicity. What is the atomicity of oxygen ?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
71. If 0.50 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
formed is
1) 0.25 2) 0.1 3) 0.40 4) 0.50
th
1 12
72. An atom is 10 times greater than mass of 1 atom of C isotope, the atomic mass is
12
1) 20 2) 5 3) 10 4) 40
73. Who proposed the law of constant proportion or definite proportion ?
1) John Dalton 2) Joseph Proust 3) Lavoisier 4) Avogadro
74. How many times the molecular mass of glucose multiple of empirical formula mass
1) 2 2) 3 3) 6 4) 5
75. A and B combined to form C and D only. If 17gA combined with 12 gB, 21 gC is produced. Mass of D
produced is
1) 18g 2) 8g 3) 12g 4) 11g
76. A chemical equation is balanced based on
1) Law of constant proportion 2) Law of multiple proportion
3) Law of conservation of mass 4) Law of reciprocal proportion
77. Set of compounds that can illustrate law of multiple proportion is
1) H2O, H2S 2) CO2, H2O 3) CO, CO2 4) CH4, H2O, CO2
78. Volume occupied by 3.01  10 23 H2 molecules at 0oC and 1 atm pressure is
1) 22.4L 2) 5.6L 3) 11.2L 4) 224 mL

79. Mass of 2240 cm3 O2 at 0oC and 1 atm pressure is
1) 0.32 g 2) 3.2 g 3) 32 g 4) 320 g
80. Mass percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
1) 20% 2) 40% 3) 56% 4) 32%
81. Molecular formula of the glucose is C6H12O6 it’s empirical formula is
1) CH2O 2) C2H2O 3) CH2O2 4) C3H3O
82. If the average atomic mass of an element having two isotopes is 71. Find the ratio of the natural abundance
of the two isotopes of mass 70 and 74
1) 1 : 3 2) 3 : 1 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
83. Number of water molecules in 180g water is
1) 6.022  1024 2) 10 3) 6.022x1020 4) 6.022  1023
84. Number of ‘P’ atoms in 0.1mol P4 molecules

1) 0.2mol 2) 0.3mol 3) 0.4mol 4) 6.2 x1023mole
85. Mass of 2mole CO2 is
1) 22g 2) 44g 3)88g 4) 4.4g
86. Law of gascous volume (combining volume) stated by
1) Gay Lussac 2) Dalton 3) Lavoisier 4) Ritcher
87. In binary solution (solute & solvent) 30g solute mixed with 70g solvent, mass percentage of solute is
1) 30% 2) 70% 3) 20% 4) 50%
88. Which of the following is a chemical property ?
1) Aluminium has a low density
2) Gold does not rust
3) Carbondioxide freezes at -780 C
4) Tin is a shiny grey metal
89. The formation of PbO, PbO2 and Pb3O4, reveals that the masses of oxygen combined with 1 g of Pb is a
simple whole number ratio. This illustrates
1) Law of conservation of mass
2) Law of definite proportions
3) Law of constant proportions
4) Law of multiple proportions
90. Vapour density of gas is 22. Its molecular mass will be
1) 11 g 2) 22 g 3) 33 g 4) 44 g
BIOLOGY
91. Platyhelminthes are
1) Diploblastic, Radially symmetrical and acoelomate
2) Triploblastic , Bilaterally symmetrical and pseudocoelomate
3) Triploblastic, Bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate
4) Triploblastic, Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
92. Choose the correct character applicable to ctenophora?
1) Organ system level of organisation 2) Choanocytes are present
3) Triploblastic and bilateral symmetry 4) Bioluminescence is well marked
93. An animal that absorbs nutrients from the host body directly through their body surface.
1) Hirudinaria 2) Taenia 3) Ascaris 4) Neries
94. A triploblastic animals have :
1) An undifferentiated mesoglea in between the ectoderm and endoderm
2) a third germinal layer mesenchyme is present
3) mesoderm in between the ectoderm and endoderm
4) All of these
95. In which of the following groups all animals are triploblastic :
1) Annelida, Mollusca, Porifera 2) Arthropoda, Cnidaria, Annelida
3) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Annelida 4) Mollusca, Ctenophora, Arthropoda
96. The phylum including triploblastic and coelomate animals are :
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Aschelminthes 3) Annelida 4) Porifera
97. Match the following
P. Loligo 1. Sea hare
Q. Dentalium 2. Squid
R. Octopus 3. Pearl oyster
S. Aplysia 4. Devil fish
T. Pinctada 5. Tusk shell
PQRST PQRST PQRST PQRST

1) 2) 3) 4)
24513 25341 34512 25413
98. Find out the mismatch
1) Sponges - Asymmetry
2) Comb jellies - Bioluminescence
3) Aurelia - Diploblastic
4) Cockroach - Radial symmetry
99. Which of the following is the correct course of water circulation through the canal system of a simple
sponge.
1) Ostia  Spongocoel  Osculum 2) Oscula  Spongocoel  Ostium
3) Ostia  Osculum  Spongocoel 4) Spongocoel  Osculum  Ostia
100. Organ level of organisation starts with :
1) Sponges 2) Coelenterata
3) Flat worms 4) Round worms
101. The body of arthropods is covered by
1) Calcareous shell 2) Chitinous exoskeleton
3) Calcium carbonate 4) Calcium phosphate
102. Which is the second largest phylum:
1) Mollusca 2) Platyhelminthes
3) Nemathelminthes 4) Echinodermata
103. Organ system level of organisation found in
1) Sponges 2) Ctenophores 3) Cnidarians 4) Annelids
104. The basic types of individuals seen in coelenterates are polyps and medusa. Polyps produce medusae by
1) Sexually 2) Asexually
3) Sometimes asexual and sometimes sexual 4) Metagenesis
105. Flame cells are the excretory organs in
1) Protozoans 2) Cnidarians 3) Flat worms 4) Amphibians
106. Which organism is called Jelly fish
1) Obelia 2) Aurelia 3) Octopus 4) Shail
107. Which is the incorrect pair;
1) Nereis – Aquatic form
2) Limulus – King crab
3) Schistosoma – blood fluke
4) Taenia – seat worm
108. Refer the given flow chart and answer the following questions.Mention the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3
1) 2)
3) 4)
109. In phylum Arthropoda the members are usually dioecious, which means
1) Both sexes are seen in the same organism 2) Sexes are separate
3) There is no cross fertilization 4) Only one sex is seen in a population
110. Honey bee is also known as
1) Bombyx 2) Apis
3) Pila 4) Anopheles
111. Select the odd one from the list, which is not a member of phylum Aschelminthes
1) Round worm 2) hook worm
3) filarial worm 4) Earthworm
112. The stinging cells of cnidarians called
1) Trichocyte 2) Statocyst 3) Nematocyst 4) Tentacle
113. An animal in which cells are arranged into two fundamental layers, an ectoderm and endoderm is called:
1) Triploblastic 2) Monoblastic 3) Diploblastic 4) Coelomate
114. Which is not true about mollusca
1) Second largest phylum 2) Muscular foot present
3) Radula is a rasping organ 4) Comb plates for locomotion
115. The mouth of molluscs contains a file like rasping organ for feeding, called
1) Torsion 2) Spiracle 3) Radula 4) Morula
116. Notochord is derived from
1) endoderm 2) ectoderm 3) mesoderm 4) both 1 & 3
117. The radial symmetry is observed in
1) platyhelminthes 2) coelenterates 3) ctenophores
4)annelids 5) echinoderms
1) 1,2 and 3 only 2) 2,3 and 4 only 3) 2,3 and 5 only 4) 2,3 and 1 only
118. ‘Portugese man of war’ is
1) adamsia 2) gorgonia 3) meandrina 4) physalia
119. Choanocyte is characteristic of
1) Porifera 2) Coelenterata 3) Arthropoda 4) Annelida
120. Which of the following is a cnidarian?
1) Starfish 2) Prawn 3) Sea anemone 4) Spongilla
121. Find the wrongly matched pair
1) Flat worms - Triploblastic
2) Cnidaria - Tissue level of organisation
3) Aschelminthes - Pseudocoelom
4) Ctenophora - Bilateral symmetry
122. The diagrammatic representation of three types of coelom are given below. Identify a,b,c respectively as:
1) Coelomate, psuedocoelomate, Acoelomate

2) Eucoelomate, Haemocoelomate, pseudocoelomate
3) Acoelomate, psuedocoelomate, coelomate
4) Schizocoelomate, enterocoelomate, Acoelomate
123. Which of the following phylum includes triploblastic organisms
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Aschelminthes 3) Annelida 4) All
1) Pila - Apple snail 2) Loligo - Squid
3) Sepia - Cuttle fish 4) Octopus - Tusk shell
125. Select a hemichordate from the following.
1) Balaenoptera 2) Hydra 3) Balanoglossus 4) Tapeworm
126. In hemichordata excretion takesplace through
1) Flame cells 2) Green gland
3) Proboscis gland 4) Tube feet
127. Which phylum is commonly known as sea walnut
1) Arthropoda 2) Porifera 3) Mollusca 4) Ctenophora
128. Sea anemone is also known as
1) Pila 2) Devil fish 3) Obelia 4) Adamsia
1) Ascaris a) Hook worm
2) Pheretima b) Round worm
3) Ancylostoma c) Filarial worm
4) Wuchereria d) Earth worm
1) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b 2) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c
3) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c 4) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
130. The supporting frame work in echinoderms is composed of:
1) Feathers 2) Hooves
3) Calcareous ossicles 4) Cuticle
131. Body has distinct head, muscular foot and Visceral hump in phylum
1) Echinodermata 2) Mollusca
3) Cnidaria 4) Annelida
132. Spiny bodied organisms belong to phylum
1) Mollusca 2) Echinodermata
3) Arthopoda 4) Amelida
133. Star fish belong to phylum
1) Mollusca
2) Arthropoda
3) Echinodermata
4) Annelida
134. Cell aggregate body plan and cellular level of organisation is found in
1) Ctenophora 2) Protozoa
3) Porifera 4) Cnidaria
135. A perforated plate permits the entry of water into the ambulacral systen ub echinoderms
1) Tube feet 2) Pedicellariae 3) Madreporite 4) Dermal branchiae
136. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?
1) Name cnidaria is derived from their cnidocytes
2) Cnidoblasts for anchorage, locomotion, respiration etc
3) Some cnidarians have skeleton formed of calcium carbonate
4) Coelenteron opens out through a region called Hypostome
137. How many of the following are true regarding cnidaria
i) Two basic body forms – Polyp and Medusa
ii) Hydra and Adamsia are polyps
iii) Aurelia is umbrella shaped medusa
iv) Obelia exhibits metagenesis
v) Physalia is a polymorphic colony
vi) Corals secrete skeleton formed of calcium carbonate
1) One 2) two
3) Six 4) None of these
138. Which of the following is a matching pair of an animal and its special feature
1) Taenia - Metamerism
2) Fasciola - Regeneration
3) Planaria - Hooks and Suckers
4) Liver fluke - Many larval stages
139. Molluscans show all the following characteristics except
1) Triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical 2) Segmentation
3) Calcareous exoskeleton 4) Head possess sensory tentacles
140. Stomochord is a hollow outgrowth which arises from the roof of the buccal cavity present in
1) Urochordata 2) Cephalochordata
3) Vertebrata 4) Hemichordata
141. An animal whose anus appear first and mouth appear later during their embryonic stage is known as;
1) Deuterostome 2) Protostomes
3) Schizocoelomate 4) Enterocoelomate
142. Tissue grade of organization, and radial symmetey are seen in
1) Porifera 2) Annelida 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Cnidaria
143. Metagenesis refers to;
1) Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
2) Presence of different morphic forms
3) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phase of an organism
4) Polyp produce medusa sexually while medusa forms polyp asexually
144. Chemoreceptor / Olfactory receptor for testing chemical nature of water in molluscs are;
1) Keber’s organ 2) Osphradium
3) Glochidium 4) Statocyst
145. Find the features not applicable to flatworms
1) First triploblastic, Acoelomate invertebrate with organ level of organisation
2) Mostly endoparasites with Hooks and Suckers
3) Reproduced both sexually and asexually
4) Blind sac body plan with deuterostomous condition
146. Select the correctly matched organism with their Excretory and Respiratory structures respectively;
1) Limulus  Coxal glands and Trachea
2) Periplaneta  Trachea and Malpighian tubules
3) Pila  Keber’s organ and Book gills
4) Balanoglossus  Proboscis gland and pharyngeal gills
147. Fresh water sponge is
1) Pila 2) Spongilla
3) Physalia 4) Obelia
148. The largest phylum with over two- thirds of species on earth is
1) Porifera 2) Hemichordata
3) Arthropoda 4) Cnidaria
149. Nephridia in Annelids help in
1) Digestion 2) Excretion and Osmoregulation
3) Circulation 4) Respiration
150. In which of these following phyla, while the adult shows radial symmetry, the larva shows bilateral symmetry
1) annelids 2) arthropods 3) molluscs 4) echinoderms
151. The body movements in Annelids are helped by:
1) Longitudinal and circular muscles 2) Water currents
3) Gills 4) Flagellar movement
152. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of sponges?
1) Cellular level of organization 2) Presence of ostia
3) Intracellular digestion 4) Body supported by chitin
153. The name of external embryonic layer is ............
1) Ectoderm 2) Endoderm 3) Coelom 4) Both 1 and 3
154. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves
is called
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry 4) Asymmetry
155. The level of organization seen in Hirudinaria [Leech]
1) Organ level 2) Tissue level 3) Protoplasmic level 4) Organ system level
156. Malpighian tubules are

1) Excretory organs of insects 2) Respiratory organs of insects
3) Excretory organs of frog 4) Endocrine gland
157. Which is devil fish ?
1) Pinworm 2) Hookworm 3) Octopus 4) Pheretima
158. Hydra is :
1) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical 2) Diploblastic and bilateral
3) Triploblastic and radial 4) Triploblastic and bilateral
159. The pseudo coelomate among these is :
1) Porifera 2) Annelida 3) Aschelminthes 4) Mollusca
160. Which of the following is asymmetrical animals:
1) Annelids 2) Arthropods 3) Sponges 4) Aschelminthes
161. Complete digestive system present in
1) A schelminthes to chordates 2) Platyhelminthes to chordates
3) Arthropoda to chordates 4) porifera to ctenophora
162. Correct the order of germinal layers from outer side to inner side
1) Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm 2) Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm,
3) Endoderm, Mesoderm, Ectoderm 4) Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm
163. Presence of true body cavity seen in
1) Coelomates 2) Pseudo coelomates 3) Acoelomates 4) Both 1 and 2
164. Which of the following animal with open circulation
1) Annelids 2) Cephalopods 3) Vertebrates 4) Arthropodes
165. Incomplete digestive system present in
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Aschelminthes 3) Arthropoda 4) Annelida
166. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
1) Sycon – Scypha, Marine colonial sponge
2) Spongilla – Freshwater sponge
3) Euspongia –Bath sponge, Marine form
4) Euplectella – Venus flower basket, fresh water sponge
167. Match the following and choose the right option
a) Gregarious pest p) Bombyx
b) Living fossil q) Locust
c) Silk worm r) king crab
d) Vector s) Apis
e) wax t) Aedes
abcde abcde abcde abcde

1) qrpts 2) qrspt 3) trspt 4) tpsrq
168. Blind sac body plan is found in

1.Annelids 2. Nematodes 3. Cnidaria 4. Arthropods
169. Match the COLUMN-I and COLUMN-II
170. Observe the following diagrams and identify the organisms marked as a, b and c.
1.Euspongia, Sycon and Spongilla 2. Sycon, Euspongia and Spongilla

3. Spongilla, Sycon and Euspongia 4. Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia
171. The given organism is
1.Obelia 2. Aurelia 3.Hydra 4.Adamsia

172. Exclusively marine phylum among the following is
1. Echinodermata and Cnidaria
2. Echinodermata and Porifera
3. Echinodermata and Ctenophora
4. Arthropoda and Hemichordata
173. Which of the following is not an insect?
1. Ant 2. Mosquito 3. Spider 4. Locust.
174. The presence of the tube feet is a characteristic feature of the phylum
1. Arthropoda 2. Annelida
3. Cnidaria 4. Echinodermata
175. Coelom is the body cavity lined by
1. Ectoderm 2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm 4. All of these
176. Cnidarians with the skeleton composed of calcium carbonate is / are
1. Hydra 2. Obelia 3. Aurelia 4. Corals
177. Closed circulatory system with hemoglobin dissolved in plasma is the feature of
1. Arthropoda 2. Mollusca 3. Cnidaria 4. Annelida
178. Feather like gills e.g., ctenidia present in phylum mollusca help in
1. Respiration and locomotion
2. Respiration and circulation
3. Respiration and excretion
4. Excretion and locomotion
179. Phylum with incomplete alimentary canal and acoelomate condition is
1) Aschelminthes
2) Platyhelminthes
3) Annelida
4) Arthropoda
180. All the following statements are correct for poriferans, except
1) They are mostly marine and few freshwater forms
2) Sexes are united and perform sexual and asexual reproduction
3) External fertilization and direct development
4) Water canal system helps for Reproduction56. Match the following genera with their respective phylum
A) Ophiura i) Mollusca
B) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes
C) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata
D) Planaria iv) Coelenterata
1) A  iv,B  i,C  iii,D  ii 2) A  iii,B  iv,C  i,D  ii
3) A  i,B  iii,C  iv,D  ii 4) A  iii,B  iv,C  ii,D  i

ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION - I
23- 06 -2020
22KS/NEET/MOD/[N1] BATCHES
Mark : 720
PHYSICS
1. 1  when a body returns to the starting point the displacement and hence the average velocity is
zero but both distance and average speed are not zero.
2. 1
3. 4
4. 1
5. 4
6. 3
v  u 10  25
7. 2 a   5m / s 2
t 3
8. 1
9. 1
10. 2
2V1V2 2  30  50
11. 1 Vav    37.5kmh 1
V1  V2 30  50
2u
12. 2 t
g
dv
13. 3 Acceleration, a =  0  0.1 2  t  0.2 t ; Which is time dependent. Hence non-uniform
dt
acceleration.
14. 4 S  V2
15. 1
Displacement = AC = (AB) 2  (BC) 2  (10m) 2  (20m) 2  100  400  22.5m

16. 4 The area under the velocity-time graph represents the displacement over a given time interval
17. 4 The displacement-time graph is a straight line inclined to time axis upto time t0 indicates a uniform
velocity. After time t0, the displacement-time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis indicates
particle at rest.
18. 2
19. 3
20. 2
21. 3
22. 4
2x x x 2v1v 2
23. 2 Average velocity = but t  and t 2  ; v 
t1  t 2 1
v1 v2 v1  v 2
24. 1
25. 4
26. 2
27. 3
28. 3
gt 2 10
29. 4 h   100  500m
2 2
30. 3 v  u  gt  10  10  10  110m / s
2u 2 4
31. 4 T ,4  , u  19.6m / s
g 9.8
32. 4
33. 1
34. 1
35. 2
36. 1
37. 2
38. 4
39. 1
40. 4
41. 1
42. 4
43. 2
44. 4
45. 4
CHEMISTRY
46. 2
47. 1
48. 2
49. 3 Avogadro’s Law
50. 2
51. 2 1 amu = 1.66  1024 g
52. 2
53. 2
20  1  22  3
54. 3
1 3
55. 1 24 g of C - 12 contain = 2 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms
56 g of Fe - 56 contain = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
27 g of Al - 27 contain = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
108 g of Ag - 108 contain = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
Thus 24 g of C - 12 contains the maximum number of atoms
56. 4
57. 4
50 50
58. 4 Relative no. of atoms of X =  5 and Y =  2.5
10 20
 Least ratio of no. of atoms = 2 : 1; i.e, formula of the compound = X2Y
59. 4
No. of atom
60. 1 No. of moles = Avogadro 's number
61. 1
12
62. 2  100  12%
100
63. 2
64. 1
65. 3
66. 1
67. 4
68. 2 8 mol O make 1 mol compound
0.25 mol O make 0.03125 mol compound
194  28.9
69. 3
100  14
70. 3 Oxygen O2 - 2
71. 2 Na 3 PO 4 is LR
72. 3 10 times greater than 1 amu, atomic mass = 10
73. 2
74. 3 CH 2O  C6 H12 O 6
30  6  80
75. 2
76. 3
77. 3
1 1
78. 3 mol H 2 ;  22.4  11.2L
2 2
79. 2 0.1 mole O2 ie 3.2g
16
80. 2  100
40
81. 1
74  71
82. 2
71  70
180
83. 1  10 mole x 6.02x1023
18
84. 3
85. 3 2 mole CO2 = 2  44= 88g
86. 1
30
87. 1  100  30%
30  70
88. 2
89. 4
90. 4
ONLINE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION
09- 07 -2020
22KS/NEET/MOD/[N] BATCHES
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
LT22 All AIIMS BATCH
MARK : 720 TIME : 3Hr.
PHYSICS
1. A runner completes one round of a circular path of radius R in 40 seconds with uniform speed. His
displacement and distance travelled after 2 minutes 20 seconds will be :
7
1) R, R 2) 2R,7 R 3) zero, 2 R 4) R, R
2
2. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 30 second. The distance travelled in the first
10 second is x1, next 10 second is x2 and the last 10 second is x3. Then x1:x2:x3 is the same as
1) 1 : 2 : 4 2) 1 : 2 : 5 3) 1 : 3 : 5 4) 1 : 3 : 9
3. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by the car in nth
second to that covered in n second is
2n  1 n2 2n  1
1) 2) 3) 4) 1:n
2n 2 2n  1 n2
4. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its
ascent is
1) ut 2) 1 2 gt 2 3) ut  1 2 gt 2 4)  ut  gt  t
5. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in fig. The displacement of the
body in 5 second is
1) 0.5 2) 1 m 3) 2 m 4) 3 m
6. The position - time graph given below shows that body can be
1) Uniform motion 2) Uniform acceleration

3) Uniform retardation 4) Uniform velocity
7. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m and at the same time another is projected
vertically upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms–1. Then the distance from the top of the tower, at
which the two balls meet is
1) 68.4 m 2) 48.4 m 3) 18.4 m 4) 78.4 m
8. A bus start from rest with an acceleration of 1m/s2. A man who is 48m behind the bus start with a uniform
velocity of 10ms–1. Then the minimum time after which the man will catch the bus is
1) 4s 2) 10s 3) 12s 4) 8s
9. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity ‘u’ and uniform acceleration ‘a’. If the sum of the
distance travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100cm, then its velocity after ‘t’ second is
1) 2 cm/s 2) 50 cm/s 3) 10 cm/s 4) 40 cm/s
10. A stone falls freely from rest and the total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion equals the
distance covered by it in the first three seconds of its motion. The stone remains in the air for
1) 6s 2) 5s 3) 7s 4) 4s
11. The adjoining curve represents the velocity-time graph of a particle. Its acceleration values along OA, AB
and BC in m/s2 respectively
1) 1, 0, –0.5 2) 1, 0, 0.5
3) 1, 1, 0.5 4) 1, 0.5, 0
12. A ball is dropped from the top of a building. The ball takes 0.5s to fall past the 3m height of a window
some distance from the top of the building. If the speed of the ball at the top and at the bottom of the
window are VT and VB respectively then (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
1) VT + VB = 12 ms–1 2) VT – VB = 9.8 ms–1
V 1
4) V  1m / s
B
3) VBVT = 1 ms–1
T
13. A student is standing at a distance 50m from the bus. As soon as bus begin its motion with an acceleration
of 1ms–2 the student starts running towards the bus with uniform velocity u. Assuming the motion to be
along a straight road, the minimum value of u, So that the student is able to catch the bus is
1) 8ms–1 2) 5ms–1
3) 12ms–1 4) 10ms–1
14. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown
downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two ball meet at t = 8s. What is the value of v?
[take g = 10ms–1]
1) 75ms–1 2) 55ms–1 3) 40ms–1 4) 150ms–1
15. A particle is initially at rest, it is subjected to a linear acceleration a, as shown in the figure. The maximum
speed attained by the particle is
1) 605 m/s 2) 110 m/s

3) 55 m/s 4) 550m/s
16. If a body starts from a point and returns back to the same point, then its
1) Average velocity is zero, but not average speed
2) Average speed and velocity are non zero
3) Both average speed and velocity are zero
4) Average speed and velocity depend upon the path
17. If the position - time graph is parallel to time axis
1) Body is in uniform motion 2) Velocity is non uniform
3) Acceleration is constant 4) Body is at rest
18. The displacement - time graphs of two moving particles make an angles of 300 and 450 with the X - axis.
the ratio of their velocity is
1) 1: 3 2) 1 :2 3) 1 : 1 4) 3:2
19. With doubling the speed of a vehicle the distance required to stop it becomes
1) Doubled 2) Halved
3) Trippled 4) Four times
20. If a man goes 10 m toward north and 20 m toward east, then his displacement is :
1) 22.5 m 2) 25 m 3) 25.5 m 4) 30 m
21. A freely falling body takes 10 seconds to reach the gound. The height of fall is:
1) 10 m 2) 50 m 3) 100 m 4) 500 m
22. Speed is a:
1) vector quantity 2) scalar quantity
3) neither vector nor scalar 4) sometimes vector sometimes scalar
FT22/TP/PCM 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
23. Velocity of a moving object changes from 10m/s to 20m/s in 10 seconds. Find its acceleration
1) 1m/s2 2) 2m/s2 3) 3m/s2 4) 8m/s2
24. A body covered a distance of 5m along a semicircular path. The ratio of distance to displacement is
1) 11 : 7 2) 12 : 5 3) 8 : 3 4) 7 : 5
25. A car covers first half of the distance with a velocity V1 and second half with velocity V2 the average
velocity of the car is
2V1V2 V1  V2 V1V2
1) V  V 2) V1V2 3) 4) V  V
1 2 2 1 2
26. A particle moving on a straight line ultimately comes to rest. What is the angle between its initial velocity
and acceleration?
 
1) Zero 2) 3) 4) 
4 2
27. A car travels a distance S on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point in the next
three hours. Its average velocity is :
S 2S S S
1) 2) 3)  4) Zero
2 5 2 3
28. A student cycles from his house to the school situated at a distance of 1.2 km. He covers first 700m at a
speed of 7 ms–1 and the next 500m at a speed of 5ms–1. What is his average speed?
1) 12 ms–1 2) 7 ms–1 3) 6ms–1 4) 5 ms–1
29. A car runs between two stations A and B. From A to B it goes with a speed of 30 km/h and from B to A
it returns to 40 km/h. The average speed of the car between A and B is :
1) 45 km/h 2) 38 km/h 3) 34.3 km/h 4) 10 km/h
30. Two boys start running towards each other from two points, they are 120 m apart. One runs with a speed
of 5m/s and other with a speed of 7m/s. When do they meet each other.
1) 10 s 2) 24 s 3) 17 s 4) 12 s
 
31. When two vectors A and B act right angle to each other, then their resultant becomes
1) R  A 2  B2  2AB 2) A 2  B2 3) A +B 4) A – B
32. Two forces 10N and 14N are acting upon a body. What can be the maximum resultant force on the body
1) 20N 2) 24N 3) 10N 4) 4N
33. The process of splitting a single vector into two or more vectors in different directions is known as
1) Addition of vectors 2) Subtraction of vectors
3) Multiplication of vectors 4) Resolution of vectors
 
34. A.A  ––––––
1) A 2) 1 3) A2 4) 0
35. Right handed screw rule is used to determine the direction of
1) Cross product of two vectors 2) Dot product of two vectors
3) Resultant of two vectors 4) None of the above
36. Which of the following is a vector
1) Current 2) Pressure 3) Time 4) Force
37. Which of the following is a scalar
1) Force 2) Velocity 3) Temperature 4) Momentum
38. The resultant of a two vector is a
1) Vector 2) Scalar 3) Number 4) None of the above

39. A  î  ˆj , its magnitude is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 4) 3
   
40. A  2iˆ  3jˆ and B  4iˆ  2ˆj then A  B is
1) 2iˆ  ˆj 2) 2iˆ  ˆj 3) 2iˆ  ˆj 4) 4iˆ  2ˆj

41. An example of vector quantity
1) Time 2) Speed 3) Force 4) Mass
42. What happens when we multiply a vector by –2?
1) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled
2) Direction reverses and unit change
3) Direction remains unchanged but unit changes
4) Neither direction reverses nor unit changes. Only the magnitude is doubled
43. How many minimum number of vectors in different planes can added to give zero resultant?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
       
44. Two vectors A and B are such that A  B  A  B . Then the angle between two vectors A and B will be:
1) 0 2) 600 3) 900 4) 1800
45. In each of the following, a pair of physical quantities are listed. Which of the pairs has one member a scalar
and other a vector?
1) potential energy, work 2) kinetic energy, force
3) speed, power 4) displacement, velocity
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is an element ?
1) Ozone 2) Silica
3) German silver 4)Methane
47. Which of the following is a chemical property ?
1) Aluminium has a low density 2) Gold does not rust
3) Carbondioxide freezes at -780 C 4) Tin is a shiny grey metal
48. “If a chemical reaction takes place in a sealed vessel, that permits no matter to enter or escape the mass of
the vessel and its contents after the reaction will be identical to its earlier mass”. This statement is related to
1) Law of conservation of mass 2) Law of definite proportions
3) Law of multiple proportions 4) Avogadros law
49. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver chloride
and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is true ?
1) 10.7 g 2) 17.0 g 3) 23.0 g 4) 45 g
50. Law of definite proportion was proposed by
1) Lavoisier 2) Dalton 3) Proust 4) Avogadro
51. Mass of 6.022 × 1022 molecules of CO2 is about ?
1) 1.4 g 2) 2.2 g 3) 4.4 g 4) 12 g
52. Vapour density of gas is 22. Its molecular mass will be
1) 11 g 2) 22 g 3) 33 g 4) 44 g
53. Which of the following contain maximum number of atoms?
1) 1g H2 2) 1 gram atom hydrogen
3) 1 gram molecule hydrogen 4) one gram Cl2
54. The maximum number of molecules is present in
1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP 2) 5L of N2 gas at STP
3) 0.5 g of H2 gas 4) 10g of O2 gas
55. In which case the number of molecules of water maximum?
1) 18 ml water 2) 0.18 g of water
3) 0.0024 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K 4) 10–3 mole of water
56. Find out the nucleus which are isoneutronic
14
1) 6 C, 15 17
7 N, 9 F 2) 12
6 C, 14 19
7 N, 9 F 3) 14
6 C, 14 17
7 N, 9 F 4) 14
6 C, 14 19
7 N, 9 F
57. Rutherford’s  -particle scattering experiment proved that atom has

1) electrons 2) neutrons 3) nucleus 4) orbitals
o
58. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 A . The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be
o o o o
1) 7.79 A 2) 1.59 A 3) 3.18 A 4) 4.77 A
59. The first three radius ratio of Bohr orbitals
1) 1 : 0.5 : 0.5 2) 1 : 2 : 3 3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 1 : 8 : 27
60. The ratio betweenkinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according to
Bohr’s model is
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : –1 4) 1 : 2
61. Which of the following represent Heisenberg’s uncertainity principle
h h h h
1) x  v  2) x  P  3) x  v  4) x  P 
4m 4m 4m 4m
62. For Na(Z = 11) set of quantum numbers for last electron is
1 1
1) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s =  2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
2 2
1 1
3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 1, s =  4) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = 
2 2
63. Which set of quantum numbers is not permissible?
n  m ms
1) 2 0 0  12
2) 2 1 +1  12
3) 2 0 +1  12
4) 2 1 –1  12
64. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle, Paul’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are violated is
1) 2)
3) 4)
65. De broglie wavelength of particle B is double of particle A and mass of particle A is thrice of mass of
particle B. The ratio of velocity of particle A to B is
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) 4 : 3 4) 3 : 4
66. The total number of spectral lines formed in the hydrogen spectrum, when the electron in the hydrogen
atom de excite from the 6th energy level is
1) 10 2) 12 3) 15 4) 18
67. Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus are collectively known as .................
1) Positrons 2) Nucleons 3) Atomic number 4) Isobars
68. In which of the following, the number of protons is greater than the number of neutrons, but the number of
protons is less than the number of electrons
1) D3O+ 2) SO2 3) H2O 4) OH–
69. From the following pair, select isobars :
1) 126 C, 146 C 2) 40
18 Ar, 40
19 K 3) 14
7 N, 15
8 O 4) all of these
70. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared
radiation will be obtained in the transition from
1) 2  1 2) 3  2 3) 4  2 4) 4  3
71. Law of conservation of mass was given by
1) Proust 2) Lavoisier 3) John Dalton 4) Richter
72. 1 amu has the mass equal to
1) 1.66  1022 g 2) 1.66  1024 g 3) 1 g 4) 112 g
73. 52 amu He is
1) 4 mole He atom 2) 13 mole He atom
3) 13 He atom 4) 8 mole He atom
74. Carbon forms two oxides CO & CO2. This illustrates the law of:
1) definite proportions 2) Multiple proportions
3) Reciprocal proportions 4) Combining volumes
75. Nitrogen forms five stable oxides with N2O, NO, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5. The formation of these oxides
explains fully
1) Law of definite proportion 2) Law of gaseous volumes
3) Law of reciprocal proportion 4) Law of multiple proportion
 
76. Two different photons of wavelengths 2000 A and 6000 A have their energy in the ratio
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 3: 1
77. Which is not true with respect to cathode rays?
1) A stream of electrons 2) Charged particles
3) Move with speed same as that of light 4) Can be deflected by magnetic fields
78. The nuclides X and Y are isotonic to each other with mass number 70 and 72 respectively. If the atomic
number of X is 34, that of Y is
1) 32 2) 36 3) 34 4) 38
79. Calculate the number of protons and neutrons in 35 Br 80 .
1) 40, 35 2) 20, 30 3) 40, 50 4) 35, 45
80. Number of wavelength made by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in the third excited state of
hydrogen atom
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
81. According to Bohr theory, which of the following transitions gives the least energetic photon
1) n = 6 to n = 1 2) n = 5 to n = 4 3) n = 6 to n = 5 4) n = 4 to n = 3
82. Equal volume all gases under the similiar conditions of temperature and pressure contains equal number of
1) Atoms 2) Ions 3) Molecules 4) Compounds
1
83. An atom is 10 times heavier than th of mass of the carbon atom. The atomic wt. in amu is :
12
1) 10 2) 120 3) 1.2 4) 12
84. How many atoms are present in a mole of H2SO4
1) 3 x 6.02 x 1023 2) 5 x 6.02 x 1023 3) 6 x 6.02 x 1023 4) 7 x 6.02 x 1023
85. Which of the following represents the formula of a substance which contains 50% oxygen?
1) N2O 2) NO2 3) CO2 4) CH3OH
86. The compounds having same empirical formula have always same
1) molecular formula 2) molecular mass
3) percentage composition by mass 4) number of atoms
87. The spectral region of Brackett series is :
1) UV 2) Visible 3) Near infrared 4) Infrared
88. Cathode rays have :
1) mass only 2) charge only
3) no mass and no charge 4) both charge and mass
89. When azimuthal quantum number l = 1, the shape of the orbital will be:
1) Spherical 2) Dumb bell
3) Double dumbbell 4) Doughnut
90. Which of the following atom does not have neutron in its nucleus
1) carbon - 12 2) hydrogen 3) oxygen 4) helium
BIOLOGY
91. Match the following and choose the correct recombination from the options given
Column -I Column -II

(Common Name) (Family)
a) Man 1 Poaceae
b) Datura 2 Anacardiaceae
c) Mango 3 Solanaceae
d) Wheat 4 Hominidae
1) a  4; b  3;c  2;d  1 2) a  4; b  3;c  1;d  2

3) a  1;b  2;c  3;d  4 4) a  1;b  3;c  2;d  4
92. The evolutionary history of a particular group of organism is called
1) Taxonomy 2) Genetics 3) Phylogeny 4) Phenetics
93. National Botanical Research institute is situated at:
1) Lucknow 2) Delhi 3) Trivandrum 4) Goa
94. The book containing instructions as to occurrence, collection and identification of species found in a particular
area:
1) Manuals 2) Flora 3) Monograph 4) Catalogue
95. Which of the taxonomic aids can give comprehensive account of complete compiled information of any
one genus or family at a particular time?
1) Taxonomic key 2) Flora 3) Herbarium 4) Monograph
96. ‘Systema’ means
1) Systematic arrangement of plants
2) System of identification
3) System of arrangement in animals
4) Systematic arrangement of organisms
97. The number of species that are known and described in a range between
1) 2.3 - 2.4 million 2) 1.2 - 1.4 million 3) 1.0 - 1.5 million 4) 1.7 - 1.8 million
98. Triticum is the genus name of
1) Wheat 2) Rice 3) Rose 4) Mango
99. A group of related genera
1) Class 2) Species 3) Family 4) Phylum
100. Which taxonomical aid contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area?
1) Flora 2) Manuals 3) Key 4) Monographs
101. Herbarium sheet carries information of
1) Place and locality 2) Name of collector 3) Date and time 4) All
102. Identify an Ex-situ conservation method
1) Wild life sanctuaries 2) Botanical gardens 3) Zoological parks 4) Both 2 & 3
103. Hominidae and Sapindales are ______ and _____ respectively
1) Order and Class 2) Family and Order 3) Class and Family 4) Order and Family
1) Cat- Felidae 2) Dog - Diptera 3) Solanum - Brinjal 4) Panthera - Lion
105. Collection, killing and pinning are the techniques used for the preservation of:
1) Plants 2) Birds 3) Insects 4) Microbes
106. The correct statements are :
A) Taxon is the taxonomic group in which an organism can be grouped into
B) Taxon is the basic unit of Taxonomy
C) Linnaeus is the founder of Biology
D) Ernst Mayr is the father of Taxonomy
1) A, B, D 2) A and D 3) A and B 4) A, B and C
107. Herbarium means
1) Collection of living plants
2) Store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets
3) Collection of preserved plants and animals
4) Storehouse of herbaceous plants
108. Aggregation of closely related species is known as :
1) Family 2) Genus 3) Order 4) Class
109. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body is called
1) Growth 2) Cellular organisation 3) Metabolism 4) Reproduction
Common name Order
1) House fly a) Carnivora
2) Man b) Sapindales
3) Wheat c) Poales
4) Mango tree d) Primata
5) Dog e) Diptera
12345 12345 12345 12345

1) e d b c a 2) e a c b d 3) c d e b a 4) e d c b a
111. Polymonials is
1) an order, in which many families are arranged
2) an order, in which only one family is arranged
3) a class, in which many genus are arranged
4) a class, in which only genus are arranged
112. Choose the correct statement
1) Growth is considered as a defining property of living organisms
2) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in cell free systems
3) Reproduction is an inclusive defining feature of all living organisms
4) Metabolism is exhibited by non living objects also
113. Which of the following is the defining characteristic of life ?
1) Growth 2) Reproduction
3) Response to external stimuli 4) All of the above
114. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in
1) Amoeba 2) Bacteria 3) Unicellular algae 4) All of the above
115. A group of individuals, which are able to breed among themselves and produce their own kind is
1) Genus 2) Species 3) Order 4) Family
116. Which of the following is not a result of cell division?
1) Reproduction 2) Repair 3) Metabolism 4) Growth
117. Scientific name of plants are standardised by
1) ICZN 2) ICBN 3) ICVN 4) IBCN
118. Taxonomical process involves
1) Identification 2) Classification and nomenclature
3) Characterisation 4) All the above
119. In the system of Binomial nomenclatutre , each living organism has
1) One name with three components 2) Two names, one Latin and other common
3) One scientific name with two components 4) Two scientific name with single component
120. The basic unit of classification is
1) Species· 2) Genus 3) Population 4) Organism
121. Which of the following include minimum number of organisms
1) Phylum 2) Family 3) Genus 4) Order
122. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched about taxonomic arrangement of Humans
1) Scientific name- Homo sapiens 2) Family- Hominidae
3) Order- Diptera 4) Class- Mammalia
123. An aid which have collections of plants and animals in preserved, stuffed or skeletal form
1) Herbarium 2) Museum 3) Botanical garden 4) Zoo
124. Each statement in the taxonomic key is called as
1) Taxon 2) Couplet 3) Lead 4) Category
125. Who is considered to be “Darwin of 20 century”
th
1) de Condole 2) John Ray 3) Ernst Mayer 4) Linnaeus

126. Which among the following are characteristic features of living organisms
1) Reproduction 2) Metabolism
3) Cellular organization and Consciouness 4) All the above
127. Binomial nomenclature is given by
1) Theophrastus 2) Carolus Linnaeus
3) Jullian Huxelly 4) Bentham and Hooker
128. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
1) Kingdom 2) Order 3) Phylum 4) Division
129. Botanical garden provide
1) beautiful area for recreation 2) Reservoir of tropical plants
3) Ex-Situ conservation of germplasm 4) All the above
130. Which of the following statement is wrong
1) Lion, Tiger and Leopard are belonging to same genus Panthera
2) Triticum aestivum come under the order Poales
3) An order include related Classes
4) Convolvulaceae , Solanaceae like families are belonging to the order Polymoniales based on floral
characters
131. Select true statement from the following
1) All metabolic reactions are taking place only in living system
2) Isolated metabolic reaction can be conducted in outside living system
3) All metabolic reactions utilises energy
4) All the above
132. The largest Botanical garden in the world is
1) Indian Botanical Garden
2) Royal Botanical Garden
3) National Botanical Garden
4) Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute
133. Place of protected area for wild animals outside their natural habitat is
1) herbarium 2) Museum
3) Zoological park 4) Wild life sanctuaries
134. Local names of various plants and animals
1) Help in recognising organisms world wide
2) Are used universally
3) Are specific and distinct names
4) Vary from place to place
135. Live specimens are used for reference in taxonomic studies in
1) Botanical garden 2) Museum 3) Zoological park 4) Both 1 and 3
136. Platyhelminthes are
1) Diploblastic, Radially symmetrical and acoelomate
2) Triploblastic , Bilaterally symmetrical and pseudocoelomate
3) Triploblastic, Bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate
4) Triploblastic, Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
137. A triploblastic animals have :
1) An undifferentiated mesoglea in between the ectoderm and endoderm
2) a third germinal layer mesenchyme is present
3) mesoderm in between the ectoderm and endoderm
4) All of these

1) 2) 3) 4)
24513 25341 34512 25413
139. Which of the following is the correct course of water circulation through the canal system of a simple
sponge.
1) Ostia  Spongocoel  Osculum 2) Oscula  Spongocoel  Ostium
3) Ostia  Osculum  Spongocoel 4) Spongocoel  Osculum  Ostia
140. Flame cells are the excretory organs in
1) Protozoans 2) Cnidarians 3) Flat worms 4) Amphibians
141. Select the correct pair, regarding the phylum Arthropoda
i) Economically important insects – Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer ii) Vector insects – Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
iii) Gregarious pest – Locusta iv) Living fossil – Prawn
1) i & ii only 2) ii & iii only 3) iii & iv only 4) i, ii & iii only
142. Refer the given flow chart and answer the following questions.Mention the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3
1) 2)
3) 4)
143. Select the odd one from the list, which is not a member of phylum Aschelminthes
1) Round worm 2) hook worm 3) filarial worm 4) Earthworm
Column - I Column - II
1) Sea lily a) Adamsia
2) Sea hare b) Aplysia
3) Sea anemone c) Gorgonia
4) Sea fan d) Pennatula
5) Sea pen e) Antedon
12345 12345 12345 12345
1) 2) 3) 4)
ebcad deacb cdabc ebacd
145. Choanocyte is characteristic of
1) Porifera 2) Coelenterata 3) Arthropoda 4) Annelida
146. The diagrammatic representation of three types of coelom are given below. Identify a,b,c respectively as:
1) Coelomate, psuedocoelomate, Acoelomate

2) Eucoelomate, Haemocoelomate, pseudocoelomate
3) Acoelomate, psuedocoelomate, coelomate
4) Schizocoelomate, enterocoelomate, Acoelomate
147. Select a hemichordate from the following.
1) Balaenoptera 2) Hydra 3) Balanoglossus 4) Tapeworm
1) Ascaris a) Hook worm
2) Pheretima b) Round worm
3) Ancylostoma c) Filarial worm
4) Wuchereria d) Earth worm
1) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b 2) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c
3) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c 4) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
1) Blood sucking leech a) Limulus
2) King Crab b) Pila
3) Squid c) Hirudinaria
4) Apple snail d) Loligo
1) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b 2) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3- d, 4 - c
3) 1 - c, 2 -d, 3 - a, 4 - b 4) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4- b
150. Star fish belong to phylum
1) Mollusca 2) Arthropoda 3) Echinodermata 4) Annelida
151. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
1) Flat worms are coelomates 2) Round worms are pseudocoelomates
3) Molluscs are acoelomates 4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
152. Identify the animals shown in the given figures A, B and C
A) B) C)
1) A - Devil fish ; B - Brittle star ; C - Star fish

2) A - Brittle star ; B - Star fish ; C - Devil fish
3) A - Star fish ; B - Brittle star ; C - Devil fish
4) A - Devil fish ; B - Star fish ; C - Brittle star
153. The diagrams below represents the outline of body forms and a defensive weapon found in Cnidarians.
Identify them correctly :
1) a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Cnidocysts 2) a) Medusa b) polyp c) statocysts

3) a) Medusa b) polyp c) cnidoblast 4) a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Cnidocyte
154. Match the following :
Column I Column II
1) Aplysia A) Devil fish
2) Dentalium B) Apple snail
3) Octopus C) Sea hare
4) Pila D) Tusk shell
1234 1234 1234 1234

1) 2) 3) 4)
CADB CDAB CDBA BDAC
155. Radula is the part of ----------- of Mollusca.
1) Digestive system 2) Excretory system 3) Respiratory system 4) Circulatory system
156. Which is not true about round worms :
1) They have organ system level of organisation
2) Bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
3) Complete alimentary canal with a well developed muscular pharynx
4) Sexual dimorphism, often males longer than females
157. Find out the incorrect match :
1) Ascaris - Round worm 2) Wuchereria - Filarial worm
3) Ancylostoma - Pin worm 4) Taenia - Tape worm
158. The name Porifera refers to minute pores present in the body wall known as :
1) Spongocoel 2) Ostia 3) Oscula 4) Dorsal pores
159. When any plane that passes through the centre does not divide an organism into equal halves then the
symetry is called :
1) Radial symmetry 2) Asymmetry
3) Bilateral symmetry 4) Biradial symmetry
160. An animal in which the cells are arranged into two fundamental layers, an external ectoderm and an internal
endoderm with an intervening mesogloea is called:
1) Triploblastic 2) Monoblastic 3) Diploblastic 4) Coelomate
161. Sea anemone is generally called as
1) Gorgonia 2) Meandrina 3) Adamsia 4) sycon
162. Ctenophores are commonly known as
1) sea walnuts 2) Tapeworms 3) comb jellies 4) both 1 and 3
163. Locomotory organs of ctenophores are
1) Tentacles 2) Comb plates 3) Siphons 4) Floats
164. Incomplete digestive system with single opening that serves as both mouth and anus found among
1) Roundworms 2) Flatworms 3) Segmented worms 4) Echinoderms
165. Name the structure which is present in cnideria and used for anchorage and defense purpose
1) osculum 2) ostia 3) Comb plate 4) cnidoblast
166. Most appropriate term describe the life cycle of obelia is
1) Metastasis 2) Neoteny 3) Metagenesis 4) Metamorphosis
167. Which one is called portuguese man of war?
1) Physalia 2) Adamsia 3) pennatula 4) meandrina
168. Which of the following is a matching pair of an animal and its special feature
1) Taenia - Metamerism
2) Fasciola - Regeneration
3) Planaria - Hooks and Suckers
4) Liver fluke - Many larval stages
169. Molluscans show all the following characteristics except
1) Triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical 2) Segmentation
3) Calcareous exoskeleton 4) Head possess sensory tentacles
170. Stomochord is a hollow outgrowth which arises from the roof of the buccal cavity present in
1) Urochordata 2) Cephalochordata 3) Vertebrata 4) Hemichordata
171. An animal whose anus appear first and mouth appear later during their embryonic stage is known as;
1) Deuterostome 2) Protostomes 3) Schizocoelomate 4) Enterocoelomate
172. Tissue grade of organisation, radial symmetry and external fertilisation are related with;
1) Porifera 2) Annelida 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Ctenophora
173. Metagenesis refers to;
1) Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
2) Presence of different morphic forms
3) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phase of an organism
4) Polyp produce medusa sexually while medusa forms polyp asexually
174. Presence of colloblasts, Extra and intracellular digestion, sexual reproduction only and bioluminiscence are
the characteristics of;
1) Cnidaria 2) Ctenophora 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Sponges
1) Keber’s organ 2) Osphradium 3) Glochidium 4) Statocyst
176. A perforated plate permits the entry of water into the ambulacral system in Echinoderm is ;
1) Tube feet 2) Pedicellariae 3) Madreporite 4) Dermal branchiae
177. Select the correctly matched organism with their Excretory and Respiratory structures respectively;
1) Limulus  Coxal glands and Trachea
2) Periplaneta  Trachea and Malpighian tubules
3) Pila  Keber’s organ and Book gills
4) Balanoglossus  Proboscis gland and pharyngeal gills
178. Identify the mismatched cnidarian with their characteristic and common name respectively:
1) Obelia  Exhibit metagenesis and sea fur
2) Adamsia  Exhibit mutualism and Sea anemone
3) Physalia  Exhibit polymorphism and venus flower basket
4) Meandrina  Calcareous exoskeleton and brain coral
179. Which of the following does not match
1) Annulus - Little ring
2) Neries - Monoecious
3) Sandworm - Parapodia
4) Hirudinaria - Sanguivore
180. Match the following genera with their respective phylum
A) Ophiura i) Mollusca
B) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes
C) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata
D) Planaria iv) Coelenterata
1) A  iv,B  i,C  iii,D  ii 2) A  iii,B  iv,C  i,D  ii

3) A  i,B  iii,C  iv,D  ii 4) A  iii,B  iv,C  ii,D  i
ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION - II
09- 07 -2020
P + C + B - Key with Hints LT22 All AIIMS BATCH
PHYSICS
1. 2
2. 3
3. 3
4. 2
5. 4
6. 3
7. 4
8. 4
9. 2
10. 2
11. 1
12. 1
13. 4
14. 4
15. 3
16. 1  when a body returns to the starting point the displacement and hence the average velocity is zero
but both distance and average speed are not zero.
17. 4
18. 1
19. 4 S  V2
20. 1
Displacement = AC = (AB) 2  (BC) 2  (10m) 2  (20m) 2  100  400  22.5m
gt 2 10
21. 4 h   102  500 m
2 2
22. 2
v  u 20  10
23. 1 a   1m / s 2
t 10
distance R  1 22 11
24. 1     
displacement 2R 2 2 7 7
25. 1
26. 4
27. 4
total distance 1.2  1000 12

28. 3 Vav     6 ms 1
total time 700 500 2

7 5
29. 3 Equal distances with different speeds
2V1V2 2  30  40
 Vav  
V1  V2 70
relative displacement 120

30. 1 t   10m / s
relative velocity 75
31. 2
32. 2
33. 4
34. 3
35. 1
36. 4
37. 3
38. 1
39. 3
40. 1
41. 3
42. 1
43. 3
44. 3
45. 2
CHEMISTRY
46. 1
47. 2
48. 1
49. 2 AgNO 3  NaCl  AgCl  NaNO3
x + 5.85 = 14.35 + 8.5 g

x = 17 g
50. 3
51. 3
52. 4 2 × V.D = moles per mass
2 × 22 = 44
53. 3
54. 1
55. 1
56. 1
57. 3
58. 4 r1H = 0.53 A0
n 2 32
r3H = r1H × 
Z 1
= 0.53 × 9
= 4.77 A0
59. 3
60. 3
61. 1
62. 2
63. 3
64. 4
h
A m A vA
65. 1 
h
B
m BvB
n  n  1 6  6  1
66. 3  = 15
2 2
67. 2
68. 4
69. 2
70. 4
71. 2
72. 2 1 amu = 1.66  1024 g
53 amu
73. 3 4 amu = 13 He atom
74. 2
75. 4
E1  hc / 1
76. 4 E 2  hc /  2
77. 3
78. 2
79. 4
80. 3
81. 3
82. 3
83. 1
84. 4 1 mole H2SO4
total no . atom = 1 mole × 7 × 6.02 × 1023
16
85. 4 % of O in CH3OH =  100  50%
32
86. 3
87. 4
88. 4
89. 2
90. 2
BIOLOGY
91. 1 106. 3 121. 3 136. 4 151. 2 166. 3
92. 3 107. 2 122. 3 137. 3 152. 4 167. 1
93. 1 108. 2 123. 2 138. 4 153. 3 168. 4
94. 1 109. 3 124. 3 139. 1 154. 2 169. 2
95. 4 110. 4 125. 3 140. 3 155. 1 170. 4
96. 4 111. 1 126. 4 141. 4 156. 4 171. 1
97. 4 112. 2 127. 2 142. 1 157. 3 172. 4
98. 1 113. 3 128. 4 143. 4 158. 2 173. 3
99. 3 114. 4 129. 3 144. 4 159. 2 174. 2
100. 1 115. 2 130. 3 145. 1 160. 3 175. 2
101. 4 116. 3 131. 4 146. 1 161. 3 176. 3
102. 4 117. 2 132. 2 147. 3 162. 4 177. 4
103. 2 118. 4 133. 3 148. 2 163. 2 178. 3
104. 2 119. 3 134. 4 149. 4 164. 2 179. 2
105. 3 120. 1 135. 4 150. 3 165. 4 180. 2
ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION - NEET
30- 07 -2020
22K/NEET/MOD BATCHES
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
LT22 All AIIMS BATCH
PHYSICS
1. A body is projected horizontally with speed 20 m/s from top of a tower. What will be its speed nearly after
5 sec ? Take g = 10 m/s2
1) 54 m/s 2) 20 m/s 3) 80 m/s 4) 70 m/s
2. An aeroplane in a level flight at 144 km/h is at an altitude of 1000 m. How far from a given target should a
body be released to hit the target ? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
1) 571.43 m 2) 671.43 m 3) 371.43 m 4) 471.43 m
3. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2 seconds. The maximum height attained by the ball above
the point of projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 10 m 2) 7.5 m 3) 5 m 4) 2.5 m
      
4. If A  B  C and the magnitude of A, B and C are 5,4 and 3 units respectively, then angle between A

and C is
1) cos–1 (4/5) 2) cos–1 (3/5) 3) tan–1 (3/4) 4) sin–1 (3/5)
5. A fielder in a cricket match throws a ball from the boundary line to the wicket keeper. The ball describes
a parabolic path. Which of the following quantities remains constant during the ball’s motion in air ? (neglect
air resistance)
1) its kinetic energy 2) its speed
3) the horizontal component of its velocity 4) the vertical component of its velocity
6. A point P moves in counterclockwise direction on a circular path as shown in the figure. The movement of
P is such that it sweeps out a length s  t 3  5 , where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The radius of the
path of 20m. The accelaration of P when t =2s nearly
1) 14 ms-2 2) 13 ms-2 3) 12 ms-2 4) 7.2 ms-2

7. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of 50 m/s. The maximum horizontal distance which this projectile
can travel is
1) 64 m 2) 128 m 3) 5 m 4) 255 m
8. A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 ms-1 making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. It will hit the ground
after a time
1) 3.0 s 2) 2.0 s 3) 1.5 s 4) 1 s
9. The horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by a projectile. The angle of projection is
1) 900 2) 600 3) 450 4) 300
10. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length  and rotated in a circle with a constant speed  . If the string
is released, the stone flies :
1) radially outwards 2) radially inwards
3) tangentially outwards 4) with an acceleration m2 / 
11. A particle covers equal distance around a circular path, in equal intervals of time. Which of the following
quantity connected with the motion of the particle remains constant with time ?
1) velocity 2) acceleration 3) speed 4) displacement
12. A particle is describing the circular path of radius 20 m in every 2s. The average angular speed of the
particle during 4s is
1) 20  rad s 1 2) 4  rad s 1 3)  rad s 1 4) 2 rad s 1
13. A particle is moving along a circular path with a uniform speed. How does its angular velocity change when
it completes half of the circular path ?
1) No change 2) Increases 3) Decreases 4) Cannot say
14. A particle performing uniform circular motion has
1) a radial velocity and radial acceleration
2) a radial velocity and tangential acceleration
3) tangential velocity and radial acceleration
4) tangential velocity and tangential acceleration
15. A body is revolving with a uniform speed  in a circle of radius r. The tangential acceleration is
4)  / r
2
1)  / r 2) 2 / r 3) zero
16. A motor cyclist going round the circular path at constant speed has :
1) constant linear velocity
2) constant acceleration
3) acceleration of constant magnitude and changing direction
4) constant centripetal force
   
17. If A  î  2kˆ and B  ˆj  kˆ , then A  B is equal to
1) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 2) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 3) î  ˆj  kˆ 4) 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
18. If the scalar and vector product of two vectors A & B are equal in magnitude, then the angle between the
two vectors is
1) 450 2) 900 3) 1800 4) 3600
19. In case of a projectile fired at an angle equally inclined to the horizontal and vertical with velocity (u). The
horizontal range is
u2 u2 2u2 u2
1) g 2) 2g 3) g 4) g2
20. A projectile is projected with kinetic energy of 800J. If it has the maximum possible horizontal range, then
its kinetic energy at the highest point will be
1) 800J 2) 400J 3) 200J 4) 100J
21. A man travelling at 3 m/s in a topless car. He holds his umbrella at 37o with the vertical to protect from the
vertical rain. What is the velocity of raindrop (cos 37o = 4/5)
1) 3 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 4 m/s 4) 5 m/s
22. A particle is moving along a circular path with a uniform speed. Through what angle does its linear velocity
change when it completes half of circular path.
1) 0o 2) 45o 3) 180o 4) 360o
23. Two stones are projected with the same speed but making different angles with the horizontal. Their
horizontal ranges are equal. The angle of projection of one is  / 3 and the maximum height reached by it
is 102 metres. Then the maximum height reached by the other in metres is
1) 336 2) 224 3) 56 4) 34
24. If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled, what happens to the maximum height attained
1) Halved 2) Remains unchanged 3) Doubled 4) Become four times
25. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 2 m with uniform speed of 5 m/s. What will be change
in velocity when the particle completes half of the revolution?
10
1) Zero 2) 10 m/s 3) 10 2m / s 4) m/s
2
26. The radius of the circular path of a particle is doubled but its frequency of rotation remainds constant. If the
initial centripetal force be F, then the final value of centripetal force will be
F
1) F 2) 3) 4F 4) 2F
2
27. During projectile motion, the quantities that remain unchanged are
1) force and velocity 2) acceleration and velocity
3) K.E and acceleration 4) acceleration and horizontal velocity
28. Resultant of two forces which have equal magnitudes and which act as right angles to each other 1414
dyne. What is the magnitude of each force
1) 1000 dyne 2) 500 dyne 3) 700 dyne 4) 10 dyne
     
29. If A  B  0 and A.B  AB , then angle between A and B is
 
1) Zero 2) 3) 4) 
4 2
   
30. What is angle between P  Q and P  Q
 3
1) 0 2) 3)  4)
2 2
31. A particle is projected with a certain velocity at two different angles of projection with respect to the
horizontal plane so as to have the same range R on the horizontal plane. If t1 and t2 are the times taken for
the two paths, then which one of the following relations is correct
2R R R 4R
1) t1t 2  g 2) t1t 2  g 3) t1t 2  2g 4) t1t 2  g
32. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and acceleration are
1) Perpendicular to each other
2) Parallel to each other
3) Inclined to each other at an angle of 45o
4) Antiparallel to each other
33. When a particle is thrown horizontally, the resultant velocity of the projectile at any time t is given by:
1 2
1) gt 2) gt 3) u2  g2t2 4) u2  g2t2
2
34. 0.4iˆ  0.8jˆ  ckˆ represents a unit vector when c is
1) -0.2 2) 0.2 3) 0 4) 0.8
2
35. The vector sum of N coplanar form each other of magnitude F, when each force is making an angle
N
with the preceding one is
NF F
1) 0 2) 3) 4) (n - 1)F
2 2
36. A stone is just released from the window of a train moving along at horizontal straight track. The stone will
hit the ground following
1) Straight path 2) Circular path
3) Parabolic path 4) Hyperbolic path
37. Following sets of three forces act on a body. Whose resultant can not be zero?
1) 10,10,20 2) 10,10,10 3) 10,20,23 4) 10,20,40
38. A particle moves in the x – y plane with velocity v x  8t  2 and v y  2. If it passes through the point x =
14 and y = 4 at t = 2s, then the equation of the path is
1) x  y3  y2  2 2) x  y2  y  2 3) x  y 2  3y  2 4) x  y3  2y2  2
39. A stone tied to the end of a string 1m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone
makes 22 revolution in 44 seconds, what is magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone
1)  2 ms–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle
2)  2 ms–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
2
3) ms 2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
4
4)  2 ms–2 and direction along the radius away from the centre
40. A man swims from point A on one bank of a river of width 100 m. When he swims perpendicular to the
river current, he reaches the other bank 50 m downstream. The angle to the bank at which he should swim,
to reach directly opposite point B on the other bank is:
1) 10o upstream 2) 20o upstream 3) 30o upstream 4) 60o upstream
41. A coin is tossed into a dish at a distance 2.1 m away, falls in the dish which is at a height h from the hand
with a velocity 6.4 ms–1 and an angle of 60o. Then the value of h is : (g = 9.8 m/s2)
1) 1.2 m 2) 1.35 m 3) 1.53 m 4) 1.46 m
42. Two tall buildings are 30 m apart. The speed with which a ball must be thrown horizontally from a
window 150 m above the ground in one building 50 that it enters a window 27.5 m from the ground in
the other building is
1) 2 ms-1 2) 6 ms-1 3) 4 ms-1 4) 8 ms-1
43. Four bodies are projected with same speed at angles 300, 450, 550 and 650 with the horizontal. The
horizontal range will be largest for the one projected at an angle of:
1) 300 2) 450 3) 550 4) 650

44. The vertical range of an oblique projectile is 8 m. The horizontal range is 24 m. The vertical component of
the velocity of projection is:
1) g 2) 2 g 3) 3 g 4) 4 g
    
45. ˆ ˆ and  = -i+j+4k
If A = 4iˆ -3j+k ˆ ˆ ˆ and A  B  C = 0, then C equals
B
ˆ ˆ ˆ
1) -5i+4j+3k 2) 4iˆ - ˆj- kˆ 3) -3iˆ + 2j+5k
ˆ ˆ 4) 3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ
CHEMISTRY
46. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species.
1) K +, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+ 2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
3) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl– 4) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
47. An element with one of the following electronic configurations is expected to have a maximum difference
between iH 2 and iH3 it is:
1) 1s2 2s2 2p1 2) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s1
3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4) 1s2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6
48. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
1) CaO 2) CO2 3) SiO2 4) SnO2
49. Which of the following element is expected to have highest negative electron gain enthalpy
1) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P5 2) 1S2 2S2 2P3
3) 1S2 2S2 2P2 4) 1S2 2S2 2P4
2
50. The formation of the oxide ion O g  requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown
below
O g   e  Og  ; H 0  142 kJ mol1
Og   e   O2  g  ; H 0  844 kJ mol1

This is because
1) Oxygen is more electronegative
2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
3) O  ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
4) O  ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
List I List II
1) Most electronegative element a) Bromine
2) Element with highest electron affinity b) Lithium
3) Metal with lowest density c) Promethium
4) Liquid non-metal d) Chlorine
5) First synthetic element e) Fluorine
f) Technetium
1) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – f 2) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – f, 5 – a
3) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – f 4) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c
52. Which of the following led to the modern periodic law?
1) Discovery of Nucleus by Rutherford
2) Moseley’s work on X-ray spectra
3) Bohr - Bury scheme of electronic configuration
4) Discovery of Noble gases by Rayleigh, Ramsay and Travers
53. Which of the following families of elements have greater than expected “atomic radius”
1) Noble gases 2) Halogens 3) Transition elements 4) Chalocogens
54. The correct decreasing order of atomic size among the following species is: Ar, K+, Cl–, S2–, Ca2+
1) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > Ar > S2– 2) S2– > Ar > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+
3) Ca2+ > k+ > Ar > Cl– > S2– 4) S2– > Cl– > Ar > K+ > Ca2+
55. On going from right to left in a period in the periodic table the electronegativity of the elements
1) Increases 2) Remains unchanged
3) Decreases first and increases 4) Decreases
56. The elements with atomic numbers 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all
1) Light metals 2) Inert gases 3) Halogens 4) Rare earth
57. Eka - aluminium and Eka - Silicon are known as:
1) Gallium and Germanium 2) Aluminium and silicon
3) Iron and sulphur 4) Lithium and silicon
58. In a given shell, the order of screening effect is:
1) s > p > d > f 2) f > d > p > s 3) p < d < s < f 4) d > f < s > p
59. Certain regular intervals after which the outer electronic configuration of the elements recure called:
1) Magic numbers 2) Atomic numbers 3) Gold number 4) Avogadro number
60. The lightest metal in the periodic table is:
1) H 2) Mg 3) Ca 4) Li
61. Which one of the following has largest size?
1) Na 2) Na+ 3) Na– 4) None of these
62. Which of the following is/are considered metalloid?
1) As, Sb 2) Po, Pb 3) Te, Ge 4) All of these
63. First man made element
1) Tc 2) Al 3) Ag 4) U
64. A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an element would be
associated with the electronic configuration
1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2) 1s2 2s2 2p6, 3s1 3) 1s2 2s2 2p6, 3s23p1 4) 1s22s22p63s23p2
65. Which of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius?.
1) O 2  2) B3 3) Li  4) F
66. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 . The atomic no. and the group no. of the
element ‘X’ which is just below the above element in the periodic table are respectively
1) 23 and 5 2) 23 and 15 3) 33 and 15 4) 15 and 15
67. List I List II
A) s-block P) Sulphur
B) p-block Q) radium
C) d-block R) Neptunium
D) f-block S) iron
1) A  Q, B  S, C  R, D  P
2) A  R, B  Q, C  P,, D  Q
3) A  Q, B  P, C  S, D  R
4) A  S, B  P, C  Q, D  R
68. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases causes a decrease in their
1) Ionization eneregy 2) Atomic radius 3) Boiling point 4) Density
69. The first ionization energy is smallest for the atom with electronic configuration
1) ns2np3 2) ns2np4 3) ns2np5 4) ns2np6
70. Ionic radii are
1) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
2) Inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
3) Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
4) Directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
71. Consider the following changes
M S  M  g  ..................... 1
M S  M 2  g   2e.....................  2 
M  g   M   g   e.....................  3
M   g   M 2   g   e.....................  4 
M  g   M 2   g   2e.....................  5 
The second ionization energy of M could be calculated from the energy values associated with
1) 1+3+4 2) 2-1+3 3) 1+5 4) 5-3
72. Which of the following sets of atomic number belongs to that of alkali metals
1) 1, 12, 30, 4, 62 2) 37, 19, 3, 55 3) 9, 17, 35, 53 4) 12, 20, 56, 88
73. Which of the following ion has the highest value of ionic radius?
1) Li+ 2) B3+ 3) F– 4) O2–
74. The law of triads is applicable to a group of
1) Li, Na, K 2) F, Cl, I 3) C, N, O 4) Na, K, Rb
75. Which block of the periodic table contains maximum number of metals
1) s-block 2) p-block 3) d-block 4) f-block
76. One mole of magnesium in the vapour state absorbed 1200kjmol–1 of energy. If the first and second
ionisation energies of Mg are 750 and 1450KJmol–1 respectively, the find composition of the mixture is
A) 69%Mg2++31%Mg+1 B) 69%Mg+1 +31%Mg2+
C) 86% Mg+1+14%Mg+2 D) 14%Mg+1+86%Mg2+
77. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity
1) F 2) Cl 3)Br 4) I
78. Five successive ionisation enthalpies of an element are 805, 2425, 3658, 25024 and
32818 kJmol-1 respectively. The number of valence electron in an atom of this element is:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
79. The least metallic alkali metal and the most metallic halogen are respectively
1) Lithium and fluorine 2) Caesium and Fluorine
3) Lithium and Astatine 4) Caesium and Astatine
80. The first ionisaiton potential of Na is 5.1eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
1) –2.55eV 2) -5.1eV 3) -10.2eV 4) +2.55eV
NA  NA 
81. atoms of X(g) are converted into X g  by energy E1. atoms of X(g) are converted into X g  by
2 2
energy E2. Hence, ionisation potential and electron affinity of X(g) are respectively
2E1 2  E1  E 2  2E1 2E 2  E1  E 2  , 2E 2
1) , 2) N , N 3) 4) None of these
NA NA A A NA NA
82. A maximum difference between first ionisation enthalpy is observed for the pair:
1) Li & Na 2) Na & K 3) K & Rb 4) Rb & Cs
83. If  is the resonance enthalpy of the bond A - B, the difference in electronegativities of A and B according
to Pauling is given by
1) 2   2) 2 3) 0.208   4) 0.014 
84. Diagonal relationship is due to
i) Similar atomic radius ii) Similar ionic radius
iii) Similar charge per unit area of ions iv) Similar electronegativity
1) i and ii 2) i and iv 3) i, iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii and iv
85. Which among the following is incorrect?
1) 57 La is a d-block element 2) 92 U is an f-block element
3) 80 Hg (Mercury) is an actinide 4) 88 Ra is an s-block element
86. In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it?
1) Al3  Mg 2  Na   F - increasing ionic size

2) B<C<N<O-increasing first ionization energy
3) I<Br<F<Cl-increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
4) Li<Na<K<Rb - increasing metallic radius
87. Which among the following is correct regarding the ionic radii of the given pair of species?
1) Ti 4  Mn 7  2) 35 C l   37 C l  3) K+ > Cl– 4) P3+ > P5+
88. B has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements
i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than 2s-electron of Be
iii) 2s-electrons has more penetrating power than 2p-electron
iv) Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
The correct statements are
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii and iv 3) i, iii and iv 4) i, ii and iv
89. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following elements is
i) C ii) O iii) F iv) Cl v) Br
1) ii < iii < iv < i < v 2) i < ii < iii < iv < v 3) iv < iii < ii < i < v 4) iii < ii < i < iv < v
90. The correct ascending order of atomic radius in the following atoms is
1) B < Be < Li < Al 2) B < Li < Be < Al
3) B < Be < Al < Li 4) Be < B < Al < Li
BIOLOGY
91. Which of these is not a member of kingdom protista?
1) Chrysophytes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Slime moulds 4) Dinoflagellates
92. Choose the correct combination for the matching sets.
Column I Column II
a) Phycomycetes i) Sac-fungi
b) Ascomycetes ii) Fungi imperfecti
c) Basidiomycete iii)Algal fungi
d) Deuteromycetes iv) Club fungi / bracket fungi
1) a - i ; b - iii ; c - iv ; d - ii 2) a - iii ; b - i ; c - iv ; d - ii
3) a - iii ; b - i ; c - ii ; d - iv 4) a - i ; b - iii ; c - ii ; d - iv
93. Select the wrong statement.
1) The term ‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ was coined by M. W. Beijerinck
2) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by virus
3) The viroids were discovered by D. J. Ivanowsky
4) W.M. Stanley showed that virus can be crystallized
1) Some fungi can be edible
2) Fungi have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
3) Cell wall is unique in fungi made of chitin
4) Nuclear membrane is present in fungi
95. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
1) Cyanobacteria are also called BGA
2) Diatoms are also called jewels of the sea
3) Dinoflagellates are prokaryotes
4) Ascomycetes are also called sac fungi
96. The prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals are :
1) Halophiles 2) Thermoacidiophiles 3) Methanogens 4) Eubacteria
97. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of mustard are respectively caused by :
1) Albugo condida and Cerospora 2) Colletotrichum and Albugo candida
3) Pythium and Phytophthora 4) Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis
98. It is known that viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate themselves once they infect the host cell. To
which of the following kingdom do viruses belong to :
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) None above
99. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which substance?
1) Phosphorus 2) Calcium 3) Silica 4) Copper
100. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Mycoplasma has no cell wall
II. Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
III. Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2
IV. Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants
V. True sexuality is not found in bacteria
VI. A kind of sexual reproduction occurs by adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium to the
other
1) All of these 2) Only III 3) I, II, IV, V and VI 4) I, III and VI
101. Which of the following is not a photosynthetic organism?
1) Diatom 2) Gonyaulax 3) Euglena 4) Slime mould
102. Which of the following pairs belong to same kingdom?
1) Mycoplasma and Euglena 2) Golden algae and blue green algae
3) Toadstool and Albugo 4) Lichens and Alternaria
103. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with multinucleated cytoplasm, it is known as :
1) septate hyphae 2) coenocytic hyphae 3) mycelium 4) none of these
104. The following features belong to which of the respective class?
a) Asexual reproduction by zoospores or aplanospores.
b) Fusion of gametes may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous
c) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
d) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
1) Ascomycetes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Phycomycetes 4) Basidiomycetes
105. How many of the following fungi belong to class ascomycetes?
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus, Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora, Phytophthora,
Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago, Morels, Truffles, Puff ball, Toadstool.
1) Five 2) Seven 3) Nine 4) Ten
106. Deuteromycetes are also known as imperfect fungi because :
1) Only sexual phase is found 2) Only asexual or vegetative phase are known
3) Both asexual and sexual phase are known 4) Reproduction in these fungi is absent
107. Red tide in Gulf of Mexico sea appear red, because of rapid multiplication of :
1) Gonyaulax 2) Slime mould 3) Euglena 4) Golden algae
108. The thalloid body of slime mould (myxomycetes) is known as :
1) Plasmodium 2) Fruiting body 3) Mycelium 4) Prothallus
109. In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses.
I. It causes potato spindle tuber disease
II. It is free RNA
III. Molecular weight of RNA is low
The above statements are assigned to :
1) Viruses 2) Viroids 3) Virulent 4) Mycoplasma
110. Which of the following statements is true about cyanobacteria?
1) It is found in fresh water only
2) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous
3) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water bodies
4) Colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous sheath
111. Count the total number of disease from the following that are caused by bacteria :
Mumps, Small pox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria
1) Two 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six
112. Trichodesmium erythreum which gives colour to red sea is :
1) green alga 2) blue-green alga 3) red alga 4) brown alga
113. Cell membrane contains branched chain lipids in
1) Actinomycetes 2) Archaebacteria 3) Mycoplasma 4) Cyanobacteria
114. Bacterial photosynthesis does not utilize the hydrogen source that is used by cyanobacteria :
1) CO2 2) H2S 3) Thiosulphate 4) H2O
115. Which one is not a Domain according to Carl woese
1) Archaea 2) Bacteria 3) Eukarya 4) Protomonera
116. In bacteria respiratory enzymes are located in
1) Mitochondria 2) Mesosome 3) Plasmid 4) Cell wall
117. Citrus canker is caused by
1) Xanthomonas citri 2) Xanthomonas oryze
3) Xanthomonas malvacearum 4) Xanthomonas compestris
118. A wall less moneran is
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Archaebacteria 3) Mycoplasma 4) Methanogen
119. Cyanobacteria cultivated as a source of protein
1) Nostoc 2) Anabaena 3) Aulosira 4) Spirulina
120. According to Thimann classification bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one end is called
1) Amphitrichus 2) Atrichous 3) Monotrichous 4) Cephalotrichous
121. Column-I Column-II
1) Conjugation in bacteria 1) Griffith
2) Transduction in bacteria 2) Lederberg and Tatum
3) Transformation in bacteria 3) Zinder and Lederberg
The correct matching in the above case is
1) A  2; B  3; C  1 2) A  1; B  3; C  2
3) A  3; B  2; C  1 4) A  2; B  1; C  3
122. Comparatively large cells, flagella are completely abscent, photosynthetic pigments are located in thylakoids,
oxygenic photosynthesis and typical moneran character. These are characteristic feature of
1) Mycoplasma 2) Archaebacteria
3) All moneran except cyanobacteria 4) Only for cyanobacteria
123. Select an asexual spore in fungi :
1) oospore 2) Basidiospore 3) Ascospore 4) Conidia
124. The parasitic fungi on mustard is :
1) Mucor 2) Puccinia 3) Ustilago 4) Albugo
125. Match the column - I with column - II and choose the correct option :
Colum n I Colum n II
1. Dikaryon phase a) Mycorrhiza
2. Plasmodium b) Sporozoans
3. Amoeb a c) Basidiomycetes
4. Aplanospores d) non - motile spores
5. Symbionts e) Pseudopodia
1) 1 - c ; 2 - b ; 3 - e ; 4 - a ; 5 - d 2) 1 - c ; 2 - b ; 3 - e ; 4 - d ; 5 - a
3) 1 - c ; 2 - b ; 3 - a ; 4 - d ; 5 - e 4) 1 - a ; 2 - b ; 3 - c ; 4 - d ; 5 - e
126. Name the protists which have a cell wall with stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface :
1) Desmids 2) Sporozoans
3) Slime moulds 4) Dinoflagellates
127. Select the fresh water organisms found in stagnant water :
1) Slime moulds 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Euglenoids 4) Chrysophytes
128. The fungus “Trichoderma” coming under the class :
1) Ascomycetes 2) Deuteromycetes
3) Slime mould 4) Green mould
129. Select the false statement.
1) Potato spindle tuber disease caused by viroids
2) Plant viruses are usually single stranded RNA viruses
3) The RNA of viroid was of high molecular weight
4) In a virus, the protein coat called capsid made of small subunits called capsomeres, which protect the
nucleic acid
130. Lichens are symbiotic association ie, mutually useful associations between algae and fungi. The algal component
is known as :
1) Phycobiont 2) Mycobiont 3) Zygomycetes 4) Aplanospores
131. Causative organisms of sleeping sickness and kala azar belong to which of the following groups of protozoan
protists?
1) Amoeboid protozoans 2) Sporozoans
3) Flagellated protozoans 4) ciliated protozoans
132. Reindeer moss is :
1) Lichen 2) Fungus 3) Bryophyte 4) Algae
133. Which of the following is not a part of three-domains of life?
1) Archaea 2) Bacteria 3) Anaimae 4) Eukarya
134. Which of the followings are the demerits of two kingdom classification?
1) Did not distinguish Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms put together
3) Single kingdom includes autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms
4) All the above
135. Cell wall of bacteria is made up of :
1) Non-cellulosic polysaccharide and aminoacids
2) Polymer of glucose
3) Pseudopeptidoglycan and cellulose
4) Pellicle
136. Organism which show most extensive metabolic diversity is :
1) Animals 2) Plants 3) Bacteria 4) Fungus
137. Match the following correctly :
Column I Column II
A) Photosynthetic 1) Nitrococcus
B) Symbiotic 2) Cyanobacteria
C) Parasitic 3) Xanthomonas
D) Chemosynthetic 4) Rhizobium
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD
1) 2) 3) 4)
1234 2431 3241 4132
138. Which of the following is not related to Archaebacteria?
1) Cell membrane contains branched chain lipid
2) Cell wall made of Peptidoglycan or murein
3) Live in harsh and extreme conditions
4) Obligate or Facultative anaerobes
139. Which is incorrectly matched pair?
1) Photosynthetic - Euglena
2) Holozoic - Paramoecium
3) Saprotrophic - Diatoms
4) Parasitic - Plasmodium
140. Which statement is correct about Mycoplasma?
1) They are the smallest eukaryotes
2) Possess thick and rigid cell wall
3) They are facultative anaerobes
4) Causes disease like Tobacco Mosaic disease
141. Which statement is wrong about Euglena.
1) Show myxotrophic nutrition 2) Pellicle is the outer covering around cell
3) Mostly fresh water organisms 4) They lack flagella
142. Which is not a method of reproduction in fungi?
1) Fragmentation 2) Budding 3) Spore formation 4) Heterocyst formation
143. Identify the correctly matched pair?
A) Phycomycetes 1) Agaricus
B) Ascomycetes 2) Albugo
C) Basidiomycetes 3) Aspergillus
D) Deuteromycetes 4) Alternaria
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD
1) 2) 3) 4)
1234 2314 2143 3142
144. Scientifically, unicellular fungus is :
1) Saccharomyces 2) Penicillium 3) Rhizopus 4) Colletotrichum
145. Common edible mushroom is :
1) Amanita 2) Agaricus 3) Saccharomyces 4) Actinomycetes
146. Central, injective part of virus is :
1) Capsid 2) Capsomere 3) Nucleic acid 4) Collar
147. Which one cause CJD in humans?
1) Virus 2) Viroid 3) Prions 4) Bacteriophage
148. Algal component of Lichen is :
1) Mycobiont 2) Heterotrophic 3) Autotrophic 4) Belongs to Ascomycetes
149. Mycorrhiza is an association between :
1) Algae and Fungi 2) Fungi with root of higher plants
3) Cyanobacteria and Pteridophytes 4) Bacteria and root of legumes
150. The five kingdom classification was proposed by :
1) Linnaeus - 1969 2) R. H. Whittaker 1969
3) Copeland - 1960 4) Haeckal - 1900
151. The biogas (methane) is produced by the activity of :
1) Eubacteria 2) Archaebacteria
3) Cyanobacteria 4) Chemosynthetic bacteria
152. The chief producers in the ocean are :
1) Slime moulds 2) Diatoms 3) Euglenoids 4) Blue green algae
153. The body of fungi made up of long slender, filament like structure are called :
1) Foot 2) Hold fast 3) Hyphae 4) Frond
154. Intracellular obligative parasite are :
1) Fungi 2) Bacteria 3) Virus 4) Lichen
155. Viroids, subviral particles smaller than virus, discovered in 1971 by :
1) Stanly Prussiner 2) T. O. Diener 3) Beijerinck 4) Ivanovsky
156. Best indicators of pollution, especially SO2 pollution are :
1) Fungi 2) Algae 3) Lichen 4) Mosses
157. Bacteriophages (virus infects on bacteria) have :
1) ssRNA 2) dsRNA 3) ssDNA 4) dsDNA
158. Name the fungal class having coenocytic mycelium :
1) Phycomycetes 2) Ascomycetes
3) Basidiomycetes 4) Deutereomycetes
159. The common Black bread mould is :
1) Mucor 2) Penicillium 3) Aspergillus 4) Rhizopus
160. The fruiting body of sac fungi are :
1) Basidiocarp 2) Ascocarp 3) Pericarp 4) Pseudocarp
161. The unicellular prokaryotic organisms are coming under the kingdom :
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Plantae
162. A protozoan Protista without locomotive organ are :
1) Amoeboid protists 2) Trypanosoma 3) Sporozoans 4) Paramecium
163. Find the odd one from the followings :
1) Flagellated Protozoan 2) Amoeboid protozoan
3) Slime moulds 4) Sporozoans
164. A free living nitrogen fixing bacteria also found in the thallus of Azolla fern is :
1) Chlorella 2) Nostoc 3) Spirulina 4) Anabaena
165. Protistan Algae having cell wall composed of two valves upper epithecca and lower hypothecca are :
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Diatoms 3) Euglenoids 4) All
166. Plasmids are extra chromosomal genetic materials found in :
1) Virus 2) Bacteria 3) Fungi 4) Amoeba
167. Marine protozoans having silica shells on their body surface are :
1) Flagellated protozoan 2) Diatoms
3) Amoeboid protozoans 4) Ciliated protozoans
168. Find the mismatch from the followings :
1) Sleeping sickness - Trypanosoma
2) Amoebiasis - Entamoeba
3) Malaria - Anopheles mosquito
4) Common fever - Virus
169. Dikaryotisation (n + n) occur in :
1) Phycomycetes 2) Ascomycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Both 2 and 3
170. Fungi extensively used in biochemical and genetic work is :
1) Claviceps 2) Aspergillus 3) Chlorella 4) Neurospora
171. Find the mismatch :
A) White spot on Mustard - Albugo B) Rust on Wheat - Ustilago
C) Smut on Barley - Puccinia D) Largest edible mushroom - Agaricus
1) A only 2) B & C 3) C only 4) C & D
172. Viruses causes several diseases on plants and animals. In plants symptoms are :
1) Stunted growth, dwarfing and mossaic 2) Leaf rolling and curling
3) Yellowing and vein clearing 4) All
173. Smallest disease causing agent having only RNA, smaller than viruses, with low molecular weight are:
1) Prions 2) Viroids 3) Virions 4) All
174. Find the correct match :
Name Features Class

1) Aspergillus Aseptate mycellium Ascomycetes
2) Trichoderma Imperfect fungi Phycomycetes
3) Rhizopus Coenocytic mycellium Deutereomycetes
4) Puccinia Septate mycellium Basidiomycetes
175. In Whittaker’s, five kingdoms, chlorella and Chlamydomonas have been included in :
1) Animalia 2) Protista 3) Plantae 4) Monera
176. Symbiotic association of fungi with the roots of higher plants form mycorhizae, here duty of fungi is:
1) Assimilation 2) Supplies water and minerals
3) Shelter 4) Provides protection
177. Fungi reproduces asexually by spores like Zoospores, Aplanospores, Sporangiospores and Conidiospores.
Conidia are produced by :
1) Ascomycetes 2) Deutereomycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Both 1 and 2
1) Morels and Truffles are edible and delicious
2) Puccinia and Ustilago are pathogenic on Wheat and Barley
3) Red rot on Sugar cane by colletotrichum
4) Claviceps belongs to imperfect fungi
179. Which among the following is a ‘Lichen’ but not a Moss
1) Cord moss 2) Peat moss 3) Reindeer moss 4) Hair cap moss
180. Find the odd one :
1) Mumps 2) Small pox 3) Pneumonia 4) Influenza
ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION
30- 07 -2020
22K/NEET/MOD/[N] BATCHES
PHYSICS
1. 1
2. 1
3. 3
   
4. 2 As, 52 = 42 + 32, so angle between A and C is 900. If  is the angle between A and C ,
then cos  = 3/5   = cos–1 (3/5)
5. 3
ds dv v2
6. 1 v  3t 2 a t   6t  12m / s 2 ; a c   7.2; a net  122  (7.2) 2
dt dt R
7. 4
8. 4
9. 3
10. 3 When a stone tied at the end of string is rotated in a circle, the velocity of the stone at an instant acts
tangentially outwards the circle. When the string is released the stone flies off tangentially outwards
i.e. in the direction of velocity.
11. 3
12. 3
13. 1 There is no change in the angular velocity, when speed is constant.

14. 3 A particle performing a uniform circular motion has a transverse velocity and radial acceleration
15. 3 A body revolving in a circle with a uniform speed has radial acceleration only and no tangential
acceleration.
16. 3
i j k
17. 2    
A  B  î  2kˆ  ˆj  kˆ = 1 0 2 = i  0  2   j  0  1  k 1  0  = 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
0 1 1
tan   1
18. 1 A  B  A.B ;
  450
19. 1
20. 2 For max. hor. range  = 45o
1 1 11 2 1
K.E.  m  v cos   = mv 2 cos 2 45 =  mv    800  400J
2
2 2 2 2  2
Vm 3
21. 3 tan     Vr  4
Vr 4
22. 1
23. 4
24. 4
25. 2
26. 4
27. 4
28. 1
29. 4
30. 2
31. 1 R is same for angles of projection
2v0 sin  2v cos 
 and (900  ) ie : R  v 02 sin 2 / g; As t1  and t 2  0
g g
4v 02 sin  cos  2  v02 sin 2  2R

t1 t 2    
g2 g g  g
32. 1
33. 3
34. 2
35. 1
36. 3
37. 4
38. 2
2
22 1 1
39. 2 r = 1m,    ; a  42  2 r  42    1  2 ms 2
44 2 2
40. 4
gx 2 9.8(2.1) 2
41. 3 y  x tan    2.1tan 60   1.53
2u 2 cos 2  2  6.42 cos 2 60
2  122.5 R
42. 2 t  5 sec ; u 
9.8 t
43. 2
44. 4
     
45. 1 A  B  C  0 C  B  A
CHEMISTRY
46. 3
47. 3 Mg has two electrons in its valence shell
12
48. 4
49. 1 The elements are Cl, N, O and F respectively. Among these Cl has higher electron gain enthalpy.
50. 3 The addition of negativily charged electron to the negativily charged species O  requires an input of
energy.
51. 3
52. 2
53. 1 Noble gases have Vander Waal forces
54. 4
55. 4
56. 2 10 + 8  18, 18 + 18  36, 36 + 18  54, 54 + 32  86
57. 1
58. 1
59. 1
60. 4 Lightest metal  Li
61. 3
62. 1,3
63. 1
64. 1 In IIIrd transition e is to be removed from stable configuration
65. 1 Decreasing order of radii is O 2   F  Li   B3
66. 3
67. 3
68. 1
69. 2
70. 1 As the effective nuclear charge increases, ionic radii decrease
71. 4
72. 2
73. 4 Anions have high size than Cation
 O–2 > F–
74. 1
75. 3
76. 2 Mg  Mg 1 , E  750KJ
Remaing energy = 1200–750=450KJ
energy needed to convert 1 mole of Mg 1 to Mg 2 =1450
Number of moles of Mg2+ produced
1
 450 =0.31=31%
1450
No moles of Mg2+ produced = 1–0.31=0.69=69%
77. 1 Electronegativity values of F Cl Br I

4 3 2.8 2.5
78. 2 IE3 and IE4 are widely separated
79. 3 Lithium is the most electronegative alkali metal and astatine the least electronegative halogen

80. 2 IE of Na(g) =  eg of Na  g 
NA NA
81. 2 X  g   X g   e ; E1 for atoms, atoms of X(g) have been ionised, by energy E1. Thus
2 2
2E1
ionisation energy X)g) is N per atom
A
NA
X g   e  X g  ; E2 for atoms
2
2E 2
Thus, electron affinity of x(g) is N per atom
A
82. 2 IE1 in kJ mol–1 for Li = 520; Na = 490; K = 419; Rb = 402; Cs = 376; Fr = 393
83. 3 Electronegativity difference   A   B   0.208 
Where  = E AB  E AA  E AB
The energies are taken in K cal mol–1

84. 4 Diagonal relationship is due one or more of these factors
85. 3 80
Hg is a d-block element
86. 2 First ionisation enthalpy values follow the order N > O > C > B
87. 4 Radius of P3+ is more than that of P5+
88. 1 Atomic radius of Boron is less than that of Be. All other statements are correct
89. 4 The increasing order of atomic radii is F < O < C < Cl < Br
90. 3 The atomic radii are Be = 111 pm; B = 88 pm; Li = 152 pm; Al = 143 pm
BIOLOGY
91. 2 106. 2 121. 1 136. 3 151. 2 166. 2

92. 2 107. 1 122. 4 137. 2 152. 2 167. 3
93. 3 108. 1 123. 4 138. 2 153. 3 168. 3
94. 2 109. 2 124. 4 139. 3 154. 3 169. 4
95. 3 110. 2 125. 2 140. 3 155. 2 170. 4
96. 3 111. 2 126. 4 141. 4 156. 3 171. 2
97. 2 112. 2 127. 3 142. 4 157. 4 172. 4
98. 4 113. 2 128. 2 143. 2 158. 1 173. 2
99. 3 114. 4 129. 3 144. 1 159. 4 174. 4
100. 3 115. 4 130. 1 145. 2 160. 2 175. 4
101. 4 116. 2 131. 3 146. 3 161. 1 176. 3
102. 3 117. 1 132. 1 147. 3 162. 3 177. 3
103. 2 118. 3 133. 3 148. 3 163. 3 178. 2
104. 3 119. 4 134. 4 149. 2 164. 4 179. 2
105. 2 120. 4 135. 1 150. 2 165. 2 180. 4
16- 08 -2020
22KS/NEET/MOD BATCHES
PHYSICS
1. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%,, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows:
a3 b 2
P % error in P is:
cd
1) 10% 2) 7% 3) 4% 4) 14%
2. If the speed of light C, Universal Gravitational Constant G and Plank’s constant h are taken as the
fundamental units in a new system. Then the dimensions of time in the new system would be
5 3
1) G 12 h 12 C 2 2) G 12 h 12 C 12 3) G 12 h 12 C 2 4) G 12 h 12 C 12
 
3. The number of particles crossing unit area perpendicular to x - axis in unit time is given by n  D  n2  n1 
 x 2  x1 
where n1 and n2 are the number of particles per unit volume for the value of x meant to x2 and x1 which are
distances. Then the dimensions of D
1) M0L–4T0 2) M0L–4T–1 3) M0L2T0 4) M0L2T–1
4. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to measure
it
1) A meter scale
2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 division in main scale and main
scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm
3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
5. A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by
S = t3-6t2 + 3t + 4 metre. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is
1) 3m/s 2) -12m/s 3) 42m/s 4) -9m/s
6. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t(in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle
from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?
1) 24m 2) 40 3) 56m 4) 16m
7. A stone falls freely from rest and the total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion equals the
distance covered by it in the first three seconds of its motion. The stone remains in the air for
1) 6s 2) 5s 3) 7s 4) 4s
8. A point moves in a straight line so that its displacement x metre at time t second is given by x2 = 1 + t2. Its
acceleration in ms–2 at time t second is
1 t 1 t2 1 1
1) 2) 3)  4) 
x3 x3 x x3 x x2
2
9. The vector sum of N coplanar form each other of magnitude F, when each force is making an angle
N
with the preceding one is
NF F
1) 0 2) 3) 4) (n - 1)F
2 2
10. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure, then the distance from the foot of the tower where
it will strike the ground will be:
4000 5000
1) m 2) m 3) 2000 m 4) 3000 m
3 3
11. A particle moves along an arc of a circle or radius R. Its velocity depends on the distance covered s as v
= a s , where a is a constant then the angle  between the vector of the total acceleration and the vector
of velocity as a function of s will be
R 2R s
1) tan   2) tan   2s / R 3) tan   4) tan  
2s s 2R
12. A small ball is thrown from foot of wall with the minimum possible velocity to hit a bulb ‘B’ on the ground
a distance ‘L’ away from the wall. Find expression for height ‘h’ of shadow of the ball on the wall as a
function of time ‘t’. Acceleration due to gravity is g.
gL gL
1) t 2) 2t 3gL 3) t 2 4) t gL
2 5
13. The force F is given in terms of time and displacement x by the equation F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt. Then the
dimension of D/B are:
1) M0L0T0 2) M0L0T-1 3) M0L0T1 4) M0L1T-1
 a 
14. In the equation  p  2  (v – b) = RT, P is the pressure and V is the volume. The dimensional formula of
 v 
a is
1) M1 L–5 T–2 2) M0 L3 T–2 3) M1 L5 T–2 4) M1 L3 T–2 2
15. The distance travelled by a body in one dimension in the tth second is given by
1
St  u  a  2t  1 , where u is initial velocity and a is uniform acceleration. The equation is
2
1) dimensionally correct and numerically wrong
2) dimensionally wrong and numerically correct
3) both dimensionally and numerically correct
4) both dimensionally and numerically wrong
16. In the dimensionally correct equation
Y
Force = X  Density , the dimensional formula for X and Y are:
1) MLT–2, MLT–2 2) MLT–2, ML–3 3) ML–3 ML–2T–2 4) MLT–2, M2L–2T–2

17. The largest practical unit of distance is
1) metre 2) kilo metre 3) light year 4) parsec
18. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 + 0.2) m in a time (4.0 + 0.3) s. The velocity of the body
within error limit is:
1) (3.45 + 0.2) m/s 2) (3.45 + 0.3) m/s 3) (3.45 + 0.4) m/s 4) (3.45 + 0.5) m/s
19. What is the number of significant figures in (3.20 + 4.80) x 105 ?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
20. If f = x2 then the relative error in f is:
1) 2
x
2)
bxg 2
3)
x
b g
4) x 2
x x x
21. A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 40 km/h. Total distance covered is
60 km. What is the average speed of the car?
1) 60 km/h 2) 80 km/h 3) 120 km/h 4) 180 km/h
22. Which of the following curve does not represent motion in one dimension?
1) 2)
3) 4)
23. The area under acceleration - time graph gives

1) Distance travelled 2) Change in acceleration
3) Force acting 4) Change in velocity
24. A particle starts from the origin, goes along x-axis to the point (20 m, 0) and then returns along the same line
to the point (–20m, 0). The distance and displacement of the particle during the trip are
1) 40m, 0 2) 40m, 20 m 3) 40 m, –20 4) 60m, –20m
25. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100m, taking 62.8 s on each lap. What is
average velocity and average speed on each lap :
1) 10 m/s, 10 m/s 2) 0, 0 3) 0, 10 m/s 4) 10 m/s, 0
26. A person moves towards east for 3m, then towards north for 4 m and then moves vertically up by 5m. What
is his distance now from the starting point :
1) 5 2 m 2) 5 m 3) 10 m 4) 20 m
27. A body falls from a height h and takes t seconds to reach the ground. The time taken by it to reach the height
h/2 is
t 5v
1) 2 2) t 2 3) t 3 4) 2 0
28. A river is flowing due east with a speed 3 ms–1. A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of 4ms–1. If
swimmer starts swimming due north, then the resultant velocity of the swimmer is
1) 3 ms–1 2) 5 ms–1 3) 7 ms–1 4) 2 ms–1
29. A projectile is projected with kinetic energy of 800J. If it has the maximum possible horizontal range, then its
kinetic energy at the highest point will be
1) 800J 2) 400J 3) 200J 4) 100J
30. Two particles separated at a horizontal distance x as shown in fig. they projected at the same line as shown
in fig. with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between them become zero
x u 2u
1) 2) 3) 4) none of these
u 2x x
31. A piece of stone is thrown from the top of a tower with a horizontal speed of 10 3 m/s. It is found that at
a point P along the path, the velocity vector of the stone makes an angle at 300 with the horizontal. The point
P is reached in time t which is given by ( g = 10m/s2)
1) 1 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 3 sec 4) 2 sec
     
32. If A = 4i – 3j + k and B = -i + j + 4k and A  B  C = 0, then C equals
1) –5i + 4j + 3k 2) 4i – j – k 3) –3i + 2j + 5k 4) 3i + 4j + 5k
33. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection .If t1 and t2 are the time of flights in the
two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is proportional to
1) R 2) 1/R 3) 1/R2 4) R2
34. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 km/hr drops a food packet while flyihng at a height
of 490 m. The horizontal range is
1) 180 m 2) 980 m 3) 500 m 4) 670 m
35. A body is moving in a circular path with acceleration n. If its velocity gets doubled, find the ratio of acceleration
after and before the change
1) 1 : 4 2) 1/4 : 1 3) 2 : 1 4) 4 : 1
36. A circular wire frame is fixed in a vertical plane. A smooth wire is tightly stretched between points A and B.
A bead slides from the point A the highest point of the circle. Find the velocity of the bead when it reaches
the point B.
1) 2 Rg Cos 2) 3 Rg Cos 3) 5 Rg Cos 4) 6 Rg Cos

37. In an announcement in a railway station, a passenger hears that the last train had passed the station 30minutes
earlier than his train. In the next station another announcement reveals to him that the first train arrived 20
minutes earlier than his train. The distance between the two station is 20 km. Reading time from his watch
the passenger calculates the average speed of his train to be 60km/h. Relying on the announcements and
the passengers calculation, what will be the average speed of the first train
1) 30 km/h 2) 40km/h 3) 50km/h 4) 70km/h
38. A small ball A suspended from a string OA is set in oscillations. When the ball passes its lowest portion with
velocity 0.8 m/s at a height of 4.9 m. from the ground, the string is cut. Find the velocity of ball just before
it lands the ground, neglect air friction. g = 9.8 m/s2.
1) 10 m/s 2) 5 m/s 3) 15 m/s 4) 20 m/s
39. What is the maximum angle to the horizontal at which a stone can be thrown and always be moving away
from the thrower
1) 20.5o 2) 40.5o 3) 70.5o 4) 90o
40. A particle is projected with a speed u at an angle  with horizontal. The radius of curvature of the parabola
traced out by the projectile at a point, where the particle velocity makes an angle  2 with the horizontal.
u2 cos2  u2 cos   2
u2 cos3  u2 cos3 
1) gcos3  
2  
2) gsin2 
2
3)
gcos   
4) gcos2 
2
41. A ball is falling down from an initial height of h = 20m with a gun held horizontally d = 50m from the
trajectory of falling ball, at the height h  10m we are going to shoot at the falling ball. The bullet leaves the
gun at a speed of   100m / s . At what time after the start of the fall should the gun be fired in order to hit
the falling ball with the bullet? (The air resistance is negligible)
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 3s 4) 4s
42. Consider a collection of large number of particles each with speed V. The direction of velocity is randomly
distributed in the collection. The magnitude of relative velocity averaged over al the pairs is
2V 3V 4V 4V
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 2 
43. Two particles P and Q are separated by a distance d apart. P and Q move with velocities v and u, making angle
60o and Q with the line PQ. The graph between their relative separation (s) and time (t) is shown in the figure.
The value of v interms of u is
u u
1) u 3 2) 3) u 4)
3 2
44. A screw gauge has 200 equal divisions marked along the circumference of the head scale and one full
rotation of the scale advances the pitch scale by 0.05 cm. Then the least count of the screw gauge is
1) 2.5 × 10–4 cm 2) 2.5 × 10–3 cm 3) 2.5 × 10–2 cm 4) 2.5 × 10–1 cm
45. There are two vernier calipers both of which have 1cm divided into 10 equal divisions on the main scale.
The vernier scale of one of the calipers(C1) has 10 equal divisions that correspond to 9 main scale divisions.
The vernier scale of the other caliper(C2) has 10 equal divisions that correspond to 11 main scale divisions.
The readings of the two calipers are shown in the figure. The measured value (in cm) by calipers C1 and C2
respectively are:
1) 2.87 and 2.86 2) 2.85 and 2.82 3) 2.87 and 2.87 4) 2.87 and 2.83
CHEMISTRY
46. 6.022 × 1024 atoms of He (atomic mass = 4) weighs
1) 40 u 2) 40 g 3) 80 g 4) 120 g
47. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. If vapour density of the compound is 60, its molecular formula is
1) C4H8O4 2) C5H10O5 3) C6H12O6 4) C7H14O7
48. 200 mL, 0.2 M HCl is diluted to get 0.05 M HCl solution. Final volume of the solution is :
1) 400 mL 2) 500 mL 3) 600 mL 4) 800 mL
49. A metal oxide contain 60% metal. Equivalent weight of metal is :
1) 20 g 2) 8 g 3) 12 g 4) 16 g
50. Number of significant figure in 6.022 × 1023 is :
1) 3 2) 4 3) 25 4) 6
1
51. Mass of an atom is 5 times heavier than of C12 atom. Atomic mass is :
2
1) 30 u 2) 5 u 3) 15 u 4) 20 u
52. 60 g N2 and 12 g H2 are taken to produce NH3. Maximum mass of NH3 expected to produce is :
1) 72 g 2) 68 g 3) 56 g 4) 62 g
53. Which of the following has maximum number of molecules
1) 44 g CO2 2) 48 g O3 3) 8 g H2 4) 64 g SO2
54. 100 g mixture of NO2 and N2O4 has the vapour density 38.3. What is the number of moles of NO2 in the
mixture
1) 0.57 2) 0.63 3) 0.81 4) 0.43
55. What is the mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl
1) 18 g 2) 4 g 3) 0.32 g 4) 0.94 g
56. Caffine has a molecular mass of 194. It contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms of nitrogen
in one molecule of it is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
57. A compound contain equal mass of X and Y. Atomic weights of X and Y are respectively are 30 and 20.
Empirical formula of the compound is :
1) XY 2) XY2 3) X2Y3 4) X3Y2
58. Based on quantum theory structure of atom first explained by :
1) Rutherford 2) Neils Bohr 3) Schrondinger 4) Heisenberg
59. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron in the third orbit of Hydrogen atom is :
1) 9.96 × 10–10 cm 2) 9.96 × 10–8 cm 3) 9.96 × 104 cm 4) 9.96 × 108 cm
60. If the average life time of an excited state of H atom is 2 × 10–8 sec. How many orbits an electron makes
when it is in the state n = 2 and before it suffers a transition to n = 1 state is :
1) 2.66 × 106 2) 1.66 × 107 3) 5.66 × 107 4) 3.66 × 105
61. What is the maximum possible number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum number n = 4 and
m   1
1) 4 2) 16 3) 6 4) 8
62. The nucleus of an atom is located at (0, 0, 0). If the probability of finding an electron in an s orbital around
a point (a, 0, 0) is ‘p’. What is the probability of finding the electron in the same sized volume around
(0, 0, a) is :
1) p2 2) 2 p 3) p 4) 2p
63. A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength , and re-emits the same energy into two photons of wavelengths
1 and  2 respectively. Then
1  2 1   2 1   2
1)   1   2 2)      3)      4)    . 
1 2 1 2 1 2
64. Maximum number of electrons in an atom having n   value equal to 6 is :

1) 8 2) 12 3) 18 4) 32
65. The wave number of the first line in the Balmer series of H atom is 15200 cm–1. The wave number of the
corresponding line of Li2+ ion is
1) 60800 cm–1 2) 45600 cm–1 3) 136800 cm–1 4) 15200 cm–1
x
66. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The change in
16
potential energy will be
15 x 3 3 3
1) 2) x 3) x 4) x
8 2 4 8
67. Credit for the discovery of neutrons goes to :
1) J.J. Thomson 2) Goldstein 3) Rutherford 4) Chadwick
68. Scientist who pointed out that, the square of the wave function ( 2 ) at a point gives the probability
density of the electron at that point is :
1) Werner Heisenberg 2) Erwin Schrodinger 3) Max Born 4) Louis de Broglie
69. The difference in size of F–, Ne and Na+ explained by
(i) nuclear charge (z)
(ii) valence principal quantum number (n)
(iii) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
1) Both (i) and (iii) 2) Both (i) & (ii) 3) All the three 4) (i) only
70. IUPAC symbol of an element is Uuh. Its chemical property resemble with that of
1) Ba 2) Pb 3) Bi 4) Po
71. If, hypothetically 3 spin quantum numbers are permitted, how many elements are expected in the 5th
period
1) 12 2) 18 3) 27 4) 32
72. Oxidising power of the elements F, Cl, O and N varies in the order
1) F > Cl > O > N 2) F > O > Cl > N 3) Cl > F > O > N 4) O > F > N > Cl
73. Among the process energy released during
(i) O(g)  e 
 O(g)
 O 2 (g)
(ii) O(g)  e 
 O 2 (g)
(iii) O(g)  2e 
1) i only 2) i and iii 3) i and ii 4) i, ii and iii
74. The effective nuclear charge of an outer electron is 2.4. Atomic number of the element is
1) 4 2) 9 3) 12 4) 5
75. One mole of N2O4 gas at 270C and 1 atm is heated to 3270C, so that 20% by mass of N2O4 decomposes
to NO2 gas. The resultant pressure is
1) 1.2 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 2 atm 4) 1.0 atm
76. He gas is taken in a container having a tiny hole, at 400 K and 5 bar pressure. Rate of effusion of He gas
through the hole is found to be x mol/min. If O2 gas taken in an identical container at 800 K and 5 bar
pressure, rate of effusion of O2 is :
x x
1) mol / min 2) mol / min 3) x mol / min 4) 2x mol/min
4 2
77. An open container of volume V contains air at 300 K. The container is heated to such a temperature so
2
that amount of gas coming out is of amount of gas finally remaining in the container. The temperature to
3
which the container should be heated is :
1) 900 K 2) 500 K 3) 600 K 4) 400 K
78. A gas column is trapped between closed end of a tube and a mercury column of length (h). When this tube
is placed with its open and upwards the length of gas is x, and length of the gas column becomes y when
open end of tube is held downwards. Atmospheric pressure in terms of height of Hg column is :
h(x  y) h(y  x) h xy
1) 2) 3) x2  y2 4)
yx xy (x  y)
79. At what temperature will the total kinetic energy of 0.3 mol of He be the same as the total kinetic energy of
0.4 mol of Ar at 400 K
1) 400 K 2) 300 K 3) 346 K 4) 533 K
80. A vessel has N2 gas, water vapour and small amount of liquid water at a total pressure of 1 atm. The partial
pressure of water vapours is 0.3 atm. the contents of this vessel are transferred to another vessel having
one third of the capacity of original volume at the same temperature. The total pressure in the new
vessel is :
1) 3 atm 2) 3.33 atm 3) 2.4 atm 4) 1.82 atm
81. The ratio of most probable velocity    , average velocity  v  and root mean square velocity (u) is
8 8
1) 2: : 3 2) 1: 2 : 3 3) 2: 3: 8 4) 2: : 3
 
82. The units of the Vander Waals constant ‘a’ are
1) atm L2 mol-2 2) atm L-2 mol-2 3) atm L mol-1 4) atm mol L-1
83. A volume V of a gas at temperature T1 and a pressure p is enclosed in a sphere. It is connected to another
sphere of volume V/2 by a tube and stopcock. The second sphere is initially evacuated and the stopcock
is closed. If the stopcock is opened the temperature of the gas in the second sphere becomes T2. The first
sphere is maintained at a temperature T1. What is the final pressure p1 with in the apparatus?
2pT2 2pT2 pT2 2pT2
1) 2T  T 2) T  2T 3) 2T  T 4) T  T
2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2
84. One mole magnesium in vapour state absorb 1200 kJ energy. If the first and second ionisation enthalpies
of Mg are 750 and 1450 kJ mol–1 respectively. The final mixture contains
1) 69% Mg+ 2) 69% Mg2+ 3) 31% Mg+ 4) 59% Mg2+
85. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below
(i) 1s22s22p6 (ii) 1s22s22p4 (iii) 1s22s22p63s1 (iv) 1s22s22p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron
1) (i)<(iii)<(ii)<(iv) 2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv) 3) (iv)<(ii)<(iii)<(i) 4) (iv)<(i)<(ii)<(iii)
86. The first ionisaiton potential of Na is 5.1eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
1) –2.55eV 2) -5.1eV 3) -10.2eV 4) +2.55eV
87. The number of electros in sodium with m = 0 orbital is
1) 7 2) 4 3) 6 4) 5
88. How fast an electron is moving, if it has a wavelength equal to the distance it travels in one second?
1) m
h 2) m h 3) h p 4) h 2K.E
89. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass 9.1  10–31 kg) moving with a velocity 600 m/s, accurate
 h 5 
upto 0.005% will be  4m  5.8 10 
 e 
A)19.2  10–3m 2) 5.76  10–3m 3) 3.84  10–3 m 4) 1.92 × 10–3 m
90. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is : (a0 is Bohr radius)
h2 h2 h2 h2
1) 2) 3) 4)
42 ma 20 162 ma 20 32 2 ma 02 64 2 ma 02
BIOLOGY
91. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms?
1) Growth 2) Ability to make sound
3) Reproduction 4) Response to external stimuli
92. Biological key is
1) a form of herbaria
2) a type of educational institute
3) a taxonomical aid used for identifying various organisms
4) a taxonomic category
93. Which of these is not a member of kingdom protista?
1) Chrysophytes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Slime Moulds 4) Dinoflagellates
94. Protista include
1) all single celled prokaryotes 2) all single celled eukaryotes
3) only marine form eukaryotes 4) only marine form prokaryotes
95. Female sex organs of bryophytes are called
1) ascogonia 2) antheridia 3) archegonia 4) oogonia
96. ‘Protonema’ is a characteristic feature of
1) fern 2) Marchantia 3) moss 4) Cycas
97. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
1) Pinus - Coralloid root
2) Sequoia - Tap root
3) Cycas - Unbranched stem
4) Cedrus - Branched stem
98. One of these is not part of in situ conservations?
1) National park 2) Botanical garden 3) sanctuary 4) Biosphere reserve
99. Taxonomical keys are
1) analytical in nature
2) taxonomical aid used for identification of both plants and animals
3) keys are based on the contrasting characters
4) all of the above
100. Which one of them is excluded from whittaker’s five kingdom classification?
1) Algae 2) Fungi 3) Bacteria 4) Viruses
101. Which is correct about viruses?
1) Contains both DNA and RNA 2) Larger than bacteria
3) Whittaker placed them in monera 4) All are obligate intracellular parasites
102. Which of these group is famous as ‘amphibians of plant kingdom”?
1) angiosperms 2) Gymnosperms 3) Bryophytes 4) All above
103. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
1) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
2) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
3) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
4) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.
104. Methanogens belong to
1) dinoflagellates 2) slime moulds 3) archaebacteria 4) both 1 and 3
105. As we move from species to kingdom in taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics.
1) decreases 2) increases 3) remains same 4) increases or decreases
106. The ‘genus’ represents
1) an individual plant or animal
2) a collection of plants or animals
3) group of closely related species of plants or animals
4) none of these
107. The correct matching set is
Column - I Column - II
a) Binomial nomenclature i) Carolus Linnaeus
b) Generic name ii) Muscidac
c) Family iii) Panthera
d) Systema nature
1) a and d - i; b - iii; c - ii 2) a and b - i; d - iii; c - ii
3) b and d - iii; a - iii; c- ii 4) b and c - ii; a - i; d - iii
108. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the
1) location is not polluted 2) trees are very healthy
3) trees are heavily infested 4) location is highly polluted
109. Find out the total number of false statements from the following.
a) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants.
b) Bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrites and ammonia and use the
released energy for ATP production are chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.
c) Heterotrophic bacteria are less in abundance in nature
d) Majority of heterotrophic bacteria are decomposers.
e) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play important role in recycling of nutrients like nitrogen,
phosphorus, iron and sulphur.
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four
110. Which of the groups of organisms have a protein rich layer called pellicle?
1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Slime Moulds
111. In mosses, a gametophyte has two stages, identify them
1) First stage is prorogonium phase and second is protonema
2) First stage is protonema and the second is leafy
3) First stage is gemmae formation and second is meiosis
4) First stage is zygote and second is spore mother cell.
112. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1) Spirogyra - Motile gametes 2) Sargassum - Chlorophyll c
3) Basidiomycetes - Puffballs 4) Nostoc - Water blooms
113. Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class rhodophyceae?
1) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, and Volvox 2) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyoia and Fucus
3) Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, and polysiphonia 4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus and Dictyota
114. A plant shows thallus level of organization and shows rhizoids and is a haploid structure. It needs water
to complete its life cycle because the male gametes motile. Identify the group to which plants belong to
1) Angiosperms 2) Gymnosperms 3) Monocots 4) Bryophytes
115. Among the given taxonomic aids how many are associated with preservation of specimens?
Key, Flora, Museum, Botanical Garden , Catalogue, Herbarium, Zoological Park, Monograph.
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) Four
116. Species X and species Y are in the same phylum. Species X and species Z, but not species Y, are in
the same order.
From this information you can conclude that ________
1) species Z could be in the same class as species X and Y.
2) all three species are members of the same genus.
3) all three species are not members of the same phylum.
4) species X and species Y are in the same family.
117. Ergot known as St. Anthony’s fire is obtained from
1) Rhizopus 2) Claviceps 3) Albugo 4) Phytomonas
118. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
a) Protista include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds.
b) Protista are link between monera and fungi
c) Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up two thin overlapping shells which fit together like a soap box.
d) Diatoms are chief producer in the occean.
e) The pigments of euglenoids are different from those of higher plants.
1) a and d 2) b and c 3) c and e 4) d and e
119. The characters given below are assigned to one of examples given, choose the correct one.
a) Myceli are branched and septate
b) No asexual spores are generally formed
c) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common
d) Sex organs are absent, but sexual reproduction takes place by somatogamy
e) Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium to form haploid exogenous four basidiospores.
f) Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp.
1) Penicillium 2) Agaricus 3) Algal fungi 4) Fungi imperfecti
120. Beggiotoa is a
1) chemoautotroph 2) photoautotroph 3) photoheterotroph 4) chemoheterotroph
121. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements.
a) Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
b) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridiphyte
c) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
d) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
e) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are developed within sporangia located on
sporophyte.
1) a, d and e 2) b, c and e 3) a, c and d 4) b, c and d
122. In september 2001, which of the following was used as a bioweapon agent in America?
1) Botulinum 2) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
3) Poliovirus 4) AIDS virus
123. Early blight and late blight are respectively caused by ______ and _____
1) Alternaria; Phytophthora 2) Ustilago; Puccinia
3) Albugo; Phytophthora 4) Erysiphe; Phytophthora
124. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched about taxonomic arrangement of Humans
1) Scientific name- Homo sapiens 2) Family- Hominidae
3) Order- Diptera 4) Class- Mammalia
125. An aid which have collections of plants and animals in preserved, stuffed or skeletal form
1) Herbarium 2) Museum 3) Botanical garden 4) Zoo
126. Binomial nomenclature is given by
1) Theophrastus 2) Carolus Linnaeus
3) Jullian Huxelly 4) Bentham and Hooker
127. In plant kingdom taxon phylum is replaced by
1) Order 2) Division 3) Class 4) Kingdom
128. The asexual spore of Basidiomycetes (Club fungi) are :
1) Zoospores 2) Aplanospores 3) Condiospores 4) None
129. In Whittaker’s, five kingdoms, chlorella and Chlamydomonas have been included in :
1) Animalia 2) Protista 3) Plantae 4) Monera
130. Which of the following organisms have multicellular / loose tissue, type of body organisation :
1) Bacteria 2) Cyanobacteria 3) Fungi 4) Archaebacteria
131. Marine protozoans having silica shells on their body surface are :
1) Flagellated protozoan 2) Diatoms
3) Amoeboid protozoans 4) Ciliated protozoans
132. Diploid sporophyte is not free living but attached to photosynthetic gametophyte in :
1) Ficus 2) Pinus 3) Funaria 4) Nephrolepis
133. Which of the following are called vascular cryptogams?
1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes 3) Gymnosperms 4) Algae
134. All Gymnosperms and Angiosperms exhibits which pattern of life cycle :
1) Diplontic 2) Haplontic 3) Haplo-diplontic 4) Diplo-haplontic
135. How many of the following statements about Bryophytes are true :
i) Bryophytes are not considered as successful land plants because vascular tissue is absent and they need
water for fertilization (Non-vascular cryptogams).
ii) Haploid gametophyte is the dominant stage in the life cycle and sporophyte is partially or totally depend
on gametophyte.
iii) It do not possess true leaves, stem and roots, and the sporophyte is divided into foot, seta and capsule.
iv) Male sex organs are called antheridium and female sex organs are called archegonium (Ist archegoniate
group)
v) Sexual reproduction is Oogamous type and life - cycle is haplo-diplontic
vi) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed.
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
136. Which of the following animals have different symmetry in comparison to the other three?
1) Pleurobrachia 2) Antedon 3) Aplysia 4) Sycon
137. i) Digenetic endoparasite
ii) Acoelomate, Triploblastic and snail is its intermediate host
iii) Lives in the hepatic portal system and mesenteric blood vessels of humans
iv) Female resides in the Gynaecophoric canal of male
From the above characteristics identify the correct organism from following options
1) Wuchereria 2) Taenia solium 3) Fasciola 4) Schistosoma
138. Glandulosensory organ and gustatory organ seen in round worms are respectively
1) Osphradium and phasmids 2) Amphids and phasmids
3) Papillac and Amphids 4) Phasmids and Amphids
139. How many of the following are true about invertebrate chordates
i) Exclusively marine
ii) They classified as three subphylums under chordata
iii) All of them exhibit retrogressive metamorphosis
iv) Neural glands and protonephridia with flame cells for excretion
v) All of them have many pairs of gonads, indirect development with sedentary larva only
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
140. Following are characteristics of some chordates and non-chordates. Select the correctly matched
characteristics and animals from the options
Characteristics
i) Dry skin and scales on hind limbs
ii) Dermomuscular body wall and paired ganglia
iii) Alternationof generation
iv) Premature birth of baby into marsupium
Animals
A) Hirudinaria and pheretima B) Struthio and columba
C) Macropus and Didelphis D) Doliolum and salpa
1) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D 2) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
3) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C 4) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
141. In a science exhibition the specimen of four different animals are presented. They are placid scales,
Edentulous beak, Dicondylic skull, poison fangs and heterocoelous vertebra. Identify the animals which
correctly matched with these specimen respectively
1) Charcharodon, Maccaca, Equus, Betta, Pavo
2) Trygon, Anthrecoceros, Rana, Naja, Pteropus
3) Pristis, Neophron, Hyla, Crotalus, Pterophyllum
4) Scoliodon, Psittacula, Bufo, Bangarus, Corvus
142. Retention of larval or embryonic trait in adult body is called:
1) Autotomy 2) Metachrosis 3) Neoteny 4) Amplexus
143. An auxillary olfactory sense organ located in the vomer bone between nose and the mouth seen in some
vertebrates are called
1) Organs of Bojanus 2) Ampulla of Lorenzini
3) Osphradium 4) Jacobson’s organ
144. A snake venom which destroys the endothelium of blood capillaries, blood cells and cause internal
haemorrhage. This kind of venom is seen in;
1) Hydrophis 2) Ophiophagus hunnah 3) Bangarus 4) Vipera russeli
145. Study the given diagram of longitudinal section of a sponge and identify the option with the correct description
1) A-Central paragastric cavity called ostium

2) B- Silicious or calcareous spicules forming skeleton
3) C-Wandering amoebocytes for food distribution
4) D-Exhalent pore called osculum
146. Which of the following characteristics show advancement of molluscs over Annelids.
1) Presence of bilateral body symmetry
2) Cutaneous respiration
3) Jointed appendages
4) Better developed sense organs such as Eyes, Osphradia etc
147 Given below five different animals and some characteristics. Selected the correctly matched organisms
with their suitable characteristics
Animals Characters
i) Astropecten A) Moulting
ii) Hirudinaria B) Haemotoxic venom
iii) Petromyzon C) Enterocoelom
iv) Aranaeus D) Deuterostome
v) Bangarus E) Sanguivorous ectoparasite
1) i, ii, iii are related with D and E
2) ii and iii are related with C and E
3) iv and v are showing A and B respectively
4) i, iii and v are exhibit character C and D
148. From the given characteristics identify the correct one related with the organisms included in connecting
link between non chordata and chordata
1) Exclusively marine and laterally opened pharyngeal gills
2) Proboscis gland for excretion and hormone secretion
3) Internal fertilization and indirect development
4) Buccal diverticulum arising from roof of buccal cavity
149. How many of the following statements are correct related with the animals given below
Silver fish, Cuttle fish, Hag fish, Jelly fish
Statements
a) Diploblastic condition, Schizocoelom and Metamerism
b) 4 pairs of gills with operculum
c) Deuterostomous condition and exclusively marine nature
d) Absence of cranium and vertebral column
e) Absence of mesodermally derived notochord except Hag fish
1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 2
150. A segmented/ Ringed worm which showing cutaneous respiration and internal fertilization is;
1) Pheretima 2) Neries 3) Amphioxus 4) Hirudinaria
151. Type of tail fin at which the vertebral column bends upwards and reaches upto the tip of the prominent
dorsal lobes.
1) Homocercal in Teleosts 2) Diphycercal in osteichthyes
3) Heterocercal in chondrichthyes 4) Hypocercal in skates
152. Select the correct statement from the following
1) Poison fangs are the modified parotid glands in Naja
2) Cleidoic eggs and epidermal scales are the characteristics of anamniotes
3) Nine air sacs in birds supplement respiration, so their lungs can receive air twice at each breath
4) Mammals have solid, elastic lungs for respiration
153. Absence of nipples and corpus callosum, Intraabdominal testes, cloaca and cloacalaperture and oviparity
are the characters related with
1) Macropus, Delphinus, Tachyglossus and Opossum
2) Rattus, Cetaceans, Echidna and Platypus
3) Ornythorhyncus and Tachyglossus
4) Ornythorhyncus, Tachyglossus, Pteropus and Elephas
154. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
A) Prehensile tail i) Sense organ
B) Ampulla of Lorenzini ii) Columba
C) Electric organs iii) Mammalia
D) Pneumatic bones iv) Narcine
E) 7-cervical vertebra v) Scoliodon
vi) Chamaleon
vii) Exocoetus
A B C D E A B C D E
1) 2) vi
vi v iv iii ii v iv ii iii
ABCDE A B C D E
3) vi iv v ii iii 4) vi i v iii ii
155. In birds and reptiles their chief nitrogenous waste is uric acid. It helps for;
1)Keep their body dry 2) Conservation of water
3) Laying cleidoic eggs 4) Buoyancy and flying
156. From the following animals which one’s are considered as homoiotherms
i) Pterophyllum ii) Exocoetus iii) Aptenodytes iv) Panthera
v) Vipera vi) Neophron
1) i, ii, iv, vi 2) iii, iv, v, vi 3) iii, ii, iv, v 4) iii, iv, vi
157. From the following statements which one is not related with first land vertebrates
1) Smallest class of tetrapod vertebrates
2) Renal and Hepatic portal circulation present
3) Skin is slimy, vascular, scaleless in most and Glandular
4) Trilocular heart with two additional chambers and incomplete double circulation
158. Organisms belonging to class Gastropoda are unique in
1) Having features of both Annelida and Arthropoda
2) Having a non-ganglionated nerve ring around the mouth
3) Pocess Aristotle’s lantern for biting and chewing
4) Undergoing torsion during development to make body assymetrical
159. Soft unsegmented bodied animals are usually show bilateral symmetry but in some forms due to torsion the
adult becomes asymmetrical. One example for this is;
1) Chiton 2) Tusk shell 3) Octopus 4) Apple snail
160. The most distinctive feature of echinoderm is the presence of Ambulacral system which helps in;
1) Locomotion, capture and transport of food, respiration and Excretion
2) Locomotion, respiration and reproduction
3) Locomotion, circulation, respiration, Bioluminiscence and regeneration
4) Locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration
161. Sponging type, biting and chewing type of mouth parts respectively present in;
1) Housefly and butterfly 2) Mosquito and honeybee
3) Honeybee and periplaneta 4) Housefly and periplaneta
162. Mantle or pallium is;
1) File like rasping organ for feeding
2) Pearl producing layer in visceral hump
3) Soft, spongy glandular layer of skin cover the visceral hump
4) Respiratory and excretory organ in molluscs
163. Internal fertilization, indirect development and sexual reproduction are the characters of;
1) Pleurobrachia, Sycon, Euplectella 2) Dentalium, Chaetopleura, Gorgonia
3) Ctenoplana, Spongilla, Aurelia, Taenia 4) Euspongia, Spongilla, Euplectella like sponges
164. Select the correct statement from the following
1) All triplobastic animals are coelomates
2) Most of the triploblastic animals are schizocoelomates and protostomes
3) All chordates are vertebrates, but all vertebrates are not chordates
4) Cyclostomes complete their life cycle only within the oceans
165. Bilateral symmetry, Acoelom, Triploblastic condition and a ladder like nervous system firstly appeared in
1) Roundworms 2) Flatworms 3) Annelida 4) Ctenophores
166. A digenetic, viviparous endoparasite with indirect development is;
1) Hookworm 2) Pinworm 3) Human roundworm 4) Filarial worm
167. Which of the following is a correct sequence of decreasing the number of species in each classes?
1) Aves  Pisces  Reptilia  Amphibia  Mammalia
2) Pisces  Aves  Reptiles  Amphibia  Mammalia
3) Pisces  Mammals  Reptiles  Amphibia  Aves ves
4) Amphibians  Aves  Pisces  Mammalia  Reptilia
168. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all chordates?

1) Presence of coelom
2) Pharyngeal gill clefts in early embryonic stage
3) Diaphragm separating thorax from abdomen
4) Dorsal, nerve cord in embryonic stage
169. Select the incorrectly matched one from the following about sponges
1) Mesenchyme - Non - cellular gelatinous layer between pinacoderm and choanoderm
2) Archaeocytes - Totipotent cells in sponges
3) Choanocytes - Create water current
4) Dioecious - Eggs and sperms are produced by same individual
170. Presence of colloblasts, Extra and intracellular digestion, sexual reproduction only and bioluminiscence are
the characteristics of;
1) Cnidaria 2) Ctenophora
3) Platyhelminthes 4) Sponges
171. Find the irrelevant feature related to the largest phylum is;
1) Constitute over two - third of all named animal species
2) Body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
3) Nervous system comprises of a nerve ring and double, solid ventral nerve cord
4) Open type of circulation with ventral heart and coloured blood
172. A digenetic intestinal parasite in man which infects its primary and intermediate hosts in the larval forms
respectively as;
1) Cysticercus and Miracidium
2) Miracidium and Metacercaria
3) Cysticercus and Onchosphere
4) Onchosphere and cysticercus
173. Identify the mismatched cnidarian with their characteristic and common name respectively:
1) Obelia  Exhibit metagenesis and sea fur
2) Adamsia  Exhibit mutualism and Sea anemone
3) Physalia  Exhibit polymorphism and venus flower basket
4) Meandrina  Calcareous exoskeleton and brain coral
1) Keber’s organ 2) Osphradium
3) Glochidium 4) Statocyst
175. Which of the following shed their scales as skincast?
1) Turtles and tortoises 2) Snakes and lizards
3) Tortoises and crocodiles 4) Turtles and snakes
176. Which of the following is correct for Angel fish?
1) Possess bony endoskeleton
2) Teeth are present in jaws
3) Possess air bladder
4) More than one option is correct
177. Adult urochordates lacks notochord and nerve cord, but they are included under phylum chordata: because,
1) Their larvae possess notochord from its anterior to posterior end
2) They possess a nervecord and notochord in the larval tail
3) They are coelomates and undergo progressive metamorphosis
4) Their larvae possess notochord, nervecord, paired pharyngeal gill slits and post anal tail
178. Identify the organism in the given figure, the class it belongs together with its character
1) Petromyzon – class : Agnatha– body with scales and paired fins present
2) Lamprey – class : cyclostomata – body without scales and paired fins absent
3) Hagfish – class : cyclostomata – body with scales and paired fins absent
4) Myxine – Class Agnatha –body without scales and paired fins present.
179. Choose the incorrect statement for Chondrichthyes
1) Gill slits are without operculum
2) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales
3) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are forwardly directed
4) Swims constantly to avoid sinking
180. Which of the following organisms comes under the order ‘Anura’?
1) Rana, Ichthyophis, Salamandra
2) Bufo, Hyla, Rana
3) Hyla, Salamandra, Bufo
4) Ichthyophis, Bufo, Salamandra
ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION
16- 08 -2020
PHYSICS
1. 4
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2
5. 4
6. 4
7. 2
8. 3
9. 1
10. 1
11. 2
12. 1
13. 4
14. 3
15. 3
16. 4
17. 4
13.8 V  S t   0.2 0.3 
18. 2 V  3.45m / s; also          0.0895
4.0 V S t  13.8 4.0 
DV = 0.0895 x V = 0.0895 x 3.43 = 0.3087 ~ 0.3
19. 3
20. 1
v1t1  v 2 t 2 80  t / 2  40  t / 2
21. 1 Average speed v  t1  t 2 =
 60 km / h
t /2t /2
22. 2
23. 4
24. 4 Distance = 20 + [20 - (–20)] = 60m; Displacement = –20 – 0 = –20 m
25. 3 Distance travelled in one rotation = 2  r
net displacement 0
Average velocity =  0
time 62.8
2r 2  3.14 100

Average speed =   10 m / s
t 62.8
26. 1 Distane from starting point = (3)2  (4) 2  (5)2  5 2 m
1 h  0  1 gt 2 ................  2 
27. 1  h  0  gt 2 ................. 1 ;
2 2 2
1
t2
1   2  gives 2  ;  t1  t
t12 2
28. 2
Here, Velocity of water flowing in river, Vr = 3ms–1

Velocity of swimmer in still water, Vs = 4 ms–1
 4   3  25  5ms 1
2 2
From figure, The resultant velocity of the swimmer is V = Vs2  Vr2 
1 1
K.E.  m  v cos   = mv 2 cos 2 45
2
29. 2 For max. hor. range  = 45o ;
2 2

1 1 2 1
= 2  2 mv   2  800  400J
 
 u o
 u 3 u x
 cos30  u cos 60  t  x ;  3  2  2  t  x  t  u
o
30. 1 u x1 t  u x 2 t  x ;
 3   
31. 1 Here, u  10 3m / s, t  ?,   300
gt
A= tan   ; gt  u tan   10 3 tan 300  10 ; t  1010  1sec
u
     
32. 1 A  B  C  0 C  B  A
33. 1 The horizontal range is same when angle of projection is  and  90    .
2u sin  2u sin  90   
 t1  ; t2 
g g
2u.sin  2u cos  2u 2 sin 2 2g

t1 .t 2  .  = So t1t2  R
g g g2 R
180  103  10
34. 3 s = ut + ½gt2; t = 10 sec; x =  500 m
60  60
a 2 v 22
35. 4 Centripetal acceleration a = v / r ; 2 ie a  v ; 2  4
a1 v12
36. 1 displacement, AB= 2Rcos 
acceleration a =gcos  ; VB2  VA 2  2a  AB 
= 0+ 2 (gcos VB2  VA 2  2a  AB  ) =2Rcos 
VB  2cos  Rg
S S 20 1
37. 2 For one of the train Vav  t t  V  60  3 hour
av
10
time difference between the trains = 10 minute = h
60
S 20
 
for second train t 1  1 ; V =40km/h
av
3 6
38. 1 V  u 2  2gh ;  0.82  2  9.8  4.9 V = 10m/s
39 3
40. 1  
Horizontal velocity is constant  V cos  2  u cos 
u cos  V2 V 2  u cos  
2
1
V
  a 
cos  ; we have centerpetal acceleration c R
2
R   
a c  cos   / 2   g cos   / 2 
u 2 cos 2 
R
 
g cos3 
2
41. 1
d 50 1
Time taken by the bullet to travel a distance 50m is t  t1    S
v 100 2
2
gt 2 10  1 
downward displacement of bullet y b    
2 2 2
10
yb  m ; displacement of ball to hit ball is
8
10 90 2h 2 90 3
y = 10   m ;  time of motion of ball t    t S
8 8 g 10 8 2
1 3 1
 t1  t     1S
2 2 2
42. 4 Let  be the angle between the velocities, then the relative velocity Vr  2V sin   / 2 
2
 2V sin   / 2  d 4V
average value Vav  0 ; Vav 
2 
2ud 2u 2u u
43. 2 Relative velocity Vrel   ; v2  u 2  V
3d 3 3 3
P 0.05
44. 1 Pith of the screw p = 0.05cm; L.C =   2.5  104 cm
N 200
1
45. 4 MSD  cm  0.1cm
10
For first vernier caliper, 10VSD=9MSD
9
 VSD  MSD  0.9  0.1  0.09cm
10
Reading
= main scale reading upto coinciding main scale division – n VSD
=3.5–7 0.09 =3.5–0.63=2.87cm

For second vernier caliper, 10VSD=11MSD
11
 VSD  MSD  1.1  0.1  0.11cm
10
Reading = 3.6–7  0.11=3.6–0.77=2.83cm

CHEMISTRY
46. 2 40 g
47. 1 (CH 2O) × 4
48. 4 200 × 0.2 = 0.05 × V
49. 3 40 g oxygen requires 60 g metal
50. 2
51. 1 5 × 6 = 30
52. 2 56 g N2 combine with 12 g H2 produce 68 g NH3
53. 3
54. 4 NO2 & N2O4 is almost 1 : 2 ratio
100
Total number of moles =
76.6
100 1
Number of moles of NO2 = 
76.6 3
0.75  25
55. 4  50  0.9375g
1000
194  28.9
56. 4 4
100 14
1 1
57. 3 :  2: 3
30 20
58. 2 Neils Bohr
2 0.529 108  32

59. 2 2r3  3 ;    9.96 108 cm
3
60. 2 Number of revolution = frequency of revolution × time
z2
 6.56 1015  3
 2 108
n
4s 4p 4d 4f
61. 3 No orbital one one one
have m   1 orbital
6 electrons
62. 3 s orbital has no nodal plane spherically symmetrical. All points equidistant from the nucleus
possess same probability
1 1 1
63. 2  
 1  2
64. 3 n    6 stands for 6s, 5p and 4d only

65. 3 15200 × 32
2x 
66. 1 Change in potential energy =   2x
16
67. 4
68. 3
69. 4 Size of isoelectronic species decided by nuclear charge only
70. 4 Group number 116 – 100 = 16
71. 3 Orbitals of 5s, 4d and 5p are available. According to the condition each orbital can accommo-
date 3 electrons
72. 1
73. 1
74. 4 Use Slater’s rule
75. 2 N 2 O 4 
 2NO 2
1 0 
 at 27 0 C
0.8 0.4 
 at 327 0 C
P1V1 P2 V2 1 P2
 ; 
n1T1 n 2 T2 1 300 1.2  600
PA  He 800  32 x
76. 1  ;  ; 4
TM  O2 400  4  O2
 2
77. 2 n1T1 = n2T2 ;  1    300 1 T2
 3
78. 1 P1V1 = P2V2; (P0  b)  x  (P0  h)  y

79. 4 n1T1 = n2T2 ; 0.3 × T1 = 0.4 × 400
1
80. 3 P1V1 = P2V2 ; 0.7 × V = P2  V
3
Total pressure = 2.1 + 0.3 = 2.4 atm
81. 4
82. 1
83. 1
84. 1
85. 1
86. 2
87. 1
h
88. 1 V ;  
mv
h
89. 4 x 
4mV
2
1 1  nh 
90. 3 mv 2  m    ; But r = a0 × n2 put n = 2
2 2  2 mr 
BIOLOGY
91. 4 109. 1 127. 2 145. 2 163. 4
92. 3 110. 2 128. 4 146. 4 164. 2
93. 2 111. 2 129. 2 147. 4 165. 2
94. 2 112. 1 130. 3 148. 4 166. 4
95. 3 113. 3 131. 3 149. 3 167. 2
96. 3 114. 4 132. 3 150. 4 168. 3
97. 1 115. 3 133. 2 151. 3 169. 4
98. 2 116. 1 134. 1 152. 3 170. 2
99. 4 117. 2 135. 4 153. 3 171. 4
100. 4 118. 3 136. 3 154. 2 172. 3
101. 4 119. 2 137. 4 155. 2 173. 3
102. 3 120. 1 138. 4 156. 4 174. 2
103. 4 121. 1 139. 4 157. 1 175. 2
104. 3 122. 2 140. 3 158. 4 176. 4
105. 1 123. 1 141. 4 159. 4 177. 4
106. 3 124. 3 142. 3 160. 4 178. 2
107. 1 125. 2 143. 4 161. 4 179. 3
108. 1 126. 2 144. 4 162. 3 180. 2
03- 10 -2020
22C/NEET/MOD BATCHES
Physics + Chemistry + Biology LT22 RESIDENTIAL & HYBRID
PHYSICS
1. Two blocks are connected by an inextensible string the string is passing over smooth pulley. Then tension
in the string is: ( Assume the blocks are of same mass)
mg 2mg 4mg
1) 2) 3) mg 4)
3 3 3
2. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Find the
acceleration of each block:
F0 F0 F0 F0
1) 2) 3) 4)
3m 2m 4m 5m
3. A body of mass m is on a table. The surface is moving up with acceleration ‘a’. Then the value of normal
reaction is:
1) mg 2) ma 3) m (g + a) 4) m ( g – a)
4.
What should be the value of F to avoid slipping of 2kg
1) 100 3 N 2) 400 3 N 3) 200 3 N 4) 100N
5. A block is released on smooth inclined plane of inclination  . The time at which it will reach bottom is:
1 2h 2 2h 3 2h 4 2h
1) 2) 3) 4)
sin  g sin  g sin  g sin  g
6. A block of mass M attached to a uniform rope of mass m. This arrangement is pulled by a force F at the
rope as shown. Then the tension at the midpoint of the rope is:
Mm 2M  m 2MF 2mF

1) F 2) 2  M  m  F 3) 4)
M Mm Mm
7. In the given system, when F is 30Newton, the block tends to moveup. When F is 10Newton, it tends to
move down. Then the value of  is:
3 1 5 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 2 8 3
8. Consider the situation shown. Initially the spring is unstretched when the block of mass m is released from
rest. Assuming the pulley frictionless and light, the spring and string massless. Then the maximum extension
of the spring is:
mg 2mg 3mg 4mg

1) 2) 3) 4)
k k k k
9. A man of mass ‘m’ stands on a frame of mass M. He pulls on a light rope, which passes over a pulley. The
other end of the rope is attached to the frame. For the system to be in equilibrium, the force exerted by man
on the rope.
M  m g
1) 2) (M + m)g 3) (M – m)g 4) (M + 2m)g
2
10. Force depends on time. Friction only present between the blocks. Which of the following gives the correct
graph of relative acceleration of 4kg withrespect to 2kg as a function of time.
1) 2) 3) 4)
11.
A block of mass m is on table with frictional coefficient. At what angle with horizontal the applied force is
minimum to just move the block.
1 1 1 
1) tan 2) tan 1  3) tan 4) None
1  2
1  2
12. The system shown in figure is in equilibrium. Find the acceleration of blocks A, B and C respectively, when
string between A and B is cut.
1) 2g, 2g, 0 2) g, g, 0 3) 2g, g, 0 4) g, 2g, 0

13. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination  . The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block (g
is acceleration due to gravity) will be
1) mg / cos  2) mg cos  3) mg sin  4) mg
14. A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass
should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’?
2ma 2ma ma ma
1) 2) 3) 4)
ga ga ga ga
15. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F  600  2  105 t , F is in newton and t in
second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse
imparted to the bullet?
1) 1.8N-s 2) Zero 3) 9N-s 4) 0.9N-s
16. A 0.5 kg ball moving with speed of 12m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is reflected
with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 seconds, the
average force acting on the wall is
1) 24N 2) 12N 3) 96N 4) 48N


17. A body under the action of a force F  6iˆ  8jˆ  10kˆ acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of this
body must be
1) 10kg 2) 20 kg 3) 10 2kg 4) 2 10kg
18. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The
impulse experienced by the body is
1) MV 2) 1.5 MV 3) 2 MV 4) zero
19. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal force F = Kt acts on the block.
Here, K is a positive constant. Acceleration-time graph of the block is
1) 2) 3) 4)
20. In the figure, the ball A is released from rest, when the spring is at its natural (unstretched) length. For the
block B of mass M to leave contact with ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be
1) 2M 2) M 3) M/2 4) M/4
21. A block of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Coefficient of friction
between the blockand the surface is  . A force F = mg acting at angle  with the vertical side of the block
pulls it. In which of the following cases can the block be pulled along the surface?
 
1) tan    2) cot    3) tan  4) cot 
2 2
22. An object of mass 5kg is attached to the hook of a spring balance and the balance is suspended vertically
from the roof of a lift. The reading on the spring balance when the lift is going up with an acceleration of
0.25m/s is (g=10m/s2)
1) 51.25N 2) 48.75 N 3) 52.75 N 4) 47.25 N
23. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40g with a velocity 1200 m/s. The man holding it can exert a maximum
force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
1) One 2) Four 3) Two 4) Three
24. A piece of ice slides down a 45° incline in twice the time it takes to slide down a frictionless 45° incline.
What is the coefficient of friction between the ice and incline?
1) 0.25 2) 0.50 3) 0.75 4) 0.40
25. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in figure. Another rope is tied at the
end B and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle  with the vertical, then the
tension in the string AB is
1) F sin  2) F / sin  3) F cos  4) F / cos 

26. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the influence of a force such that its linear momentum is

p  t   A  î cos  kt   ˆjsin  kt   , where A and k are constants. The angle between the force and the
momentum is
1) 0° 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 90°
27. Two masses 40kg and 30kg are connected by a weight-less string passing over a frictionless pulley as
shown in the following figure. The tension in the string wil lbe
1) 188N 2) 368 N 3) 288 N 4) 168 N

28. A lift is going up. The total mass of the lift and the passenger is 1500kg. The variation in the speed of the lift
is as given in the graph. The tension in the rope pulling the lift at t = 11th seconds will be
1) 17400 N 2) 14700 N 3) 12000 N 4) Zero

29. Two weights w 1 and w2 are suspended from the ends of a light string passing over a smooth fixed pulley.
If the pulley is pulled up wtih acceleration g, the tension in the string will be
4w1w 2 2w1w 2 w1  w 2 w1 w 2
1) w  w 2) w  w 3) w  w 4) 2  w  w 
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
30. A 10 kg stone is suspended with a rope of breaking strength 30 kg-wt. The minimum time in which the
stone can be raised through a height 10m starting from rest is (taking g = 10N/kg)
2
1) 0.5 second 2) 1.0 second 3) s 4) 2.0 second
3
31. One end of a string of length  is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a
smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed
towards the centre) is: (T is tension in rope)
mv 2 mv 2
1) T 2) T  3) T  4) zero
 
32. A constant retarding force of 50N is applied to a body of mass 20kg moving initially with a speed of
15ms–1. How long does the body take to stop?
1) 6S 2) 4S 3) 3S 4) 5S
33. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0kg changes its speed from 2.0ms–1 to 3.5m s–1 in 25s. The
direction of the motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude of the force?
1) 0.4N 2) 0.18N 3) 5N 4) 0.68 N
34. A body of mass 5kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6N. Give the magnitude and
direction of the acceleration of the body
1) 1ms–2 2) 1.6ms–2 3) 1.2ms–2 4) 2ms–2
35. The driver of a three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36km/h sees a child standing in the middle of the
road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force
on the vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg
1) 200N 2) 1000N 3) 1162.5N 4) 162.5N
36. A body is allowed to slide down a frictionless track freely under gravity. The track ends in a semicircular
shaped part of diameter D. What should be the height (minimum) from which the body must fall so that it
completes the circle?
4 5
1) D 2) D 3) D 4) 2D
5 4
37. A man of mass 60kg records his weight on a weighing machine placed inside a lift. The ratio of weights of
man recorded when lift is ascending up with a uniform speed of 2m/s to when it is descending down with
a uniform speed of 4m/s will be
1) 0.5 2) 1 3) 2 4) none of these
38. A boy stands on a weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift is going down with acceleration g/4, the
machine shows a reading 30kgf. When the lift goes upwards with accleration g/4, the reading would be
1) 18 kgf 2) 37.5kgf 3) 50 kgf 4) 67.5kgf
39.  
A bomb moving with velocity 40iˆ  50ˆj  25kˆ ms explodes into two pieces of mass ratio 1:4. After
1
 
explosion the smaller piece moves away with velocity 200iˆ  70jˆ  15kˆ ms . The velocity of larger
1
piece after explosion is
1) 45ˆj  35kˆ 2) 45iˆ  35ˆj 3) 45kˆ  35ˆj 4) 35iˆ  45kˆ

40. The radii of circular paths of two particles of same mass are in ratio 6:8, then what will be velocities ratio
if they have same centripetal force?
1) 3:4 2) 4 : 3 3) 1:1 4) 3:2
41. A uniform sphere of weight W and radius 5 cm is being held by a string as shown in the figure. The tension
in the string will be
W W W W
1) 12 2) 5 3) 5 4) 13
5 12 12 12
42. A particle is released on a vertical smooth semicircular track from point X so that OX makes angle  from
the vertical (see figure). The normal reaction of the track on the particle vanishes at point Y where OY
makes angle  with the horizontal. Then
1 2 3
1) sin   cos  2) sin   cos  3) sin   cos  4) sin   cos 
2 3 4
43. A block of weight W rests on a horizontal floor with coefficient of static friction  . It is desired to make the
block move by applying minimum amount of force. The angle  from the horizontal at which the force
should be applied and magnitude of the force F are respectively
1  1  W
1)   tan 1    , F  W 2)   tan    , F 
  1  2
1  2
1    W
3)   0, F  W 4)   tan   ,F 
 1   1 
x3
44. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by y  . If the coefficient
6
of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping
is
1 2 1 1
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
6 3 3 2
45. Identify the reaction force of “weight” of a body placed on a table on the surface of earth
1) normal reaction 2) force applied on earth by the body
3) air resistance 4) both 1 and 3
CHEMISTRY
46. Select correct statements among the following
(i) The lowest energy structure is the one with smallest formal charge
(ii) In formal charge concept electron pair are considered equally shared, by neighbouring atoms
(iii) In Lewis picture formal charge of nitrogen in HNO3 is +1
(iv) Formal charges really indicate charge separation within the molecule
1) i, ii & iv 2) i,ii, and iii 3) i & iv 4) ii & iii
47. Lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 788KJ/mol means that
1) 788 KJ needed to dissolve one mole NaCl in excess water
2) 788 KJ energy is needed to melt 1 mol NaCl(s)
 
3) 788KJ required to separate one mol solid NaCl into one mole Na  g  and one mole Cl  g 
 
4) 788KJ released when Na  aq  and Cl  aq  crystallises into 1 mol solid NaCl
48. Select the correct statements
(i) Covalent bond between two H-atoms has some ionic character
(ii) The bond formed in H2, O2 and N2 are called non polar covalent bond
(iii) HF molecule is polar
(iv) In HF direction of the dipolemoment is from F to H
1) All the statements are correct 2) i, ii, iii are correct
3) ii, iii & iv are correct 4) iii & iv are correct

49. Order of dipole moment among
HF, HCl, HBr & HI follows
1) HCl > HF > HBr > HI 2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
3) HF > HI > HCl > HBr 4) HCl > HBr > HF> HI
50. Based on repulsive interaction of the electron pairs in the valence shell of the atoms shape of covalent
molecules proposed first by
1) Pauling & slater 2) Gillespie & Nyholm 3) Sidgwick & powell 4) Soddy & Fajan
51. For discussing VBT, information not necessary is/are about
(i) atomic orbitals (ii) electronic configuration of element
(iii) energy of inner electrons (iv) Hybridisation of atomic orbitals
(v) Principle of variation and superposition
(1) i & v 2) ii, iii & v 3) iii 4) iii, iv & v
52. Energy needed to increase the distance of two H-atoms from 74 pm to infinity is
1) 290KJ/mol 2) 620 KJ/mol 3) 436 KJ/mol 4) 159 KJ/mol
53. Shape of the molecule of the type AB3E2 is
1) see saw 2) T-shape 3) pyramidal 4) Tetrahedral
54. Two explain the shape of polyatomic molecule concept of hybridisation is introduced by
1) sidgwick 2) peter debye 3) Linus pauling 4) Hund & Mullikan
55. Maximum number of atoms in a plane in CH 2  C  CH 2 is

1) 4 2) 5 3) 7 4) 6

56. Compare the length a, b & c CH 2  CH a H; CH 3 CH 2 b H; CH  C c H
1) a  b  c 2) b  c  a 3) c  a  b 4) b  a  c
3
Hybridisation involved in  PtCl 4  , SF6  ,  Co  NH 3 6 
2
57. and BrF5 respectively are
1) dsp 2 ,sp3d 2 , d 2sp3 ,sp3d 2 2) dsp 2 ,sp3d 2 , d 2sp3 , d 2sp3
3) sp3 ,sp3d 2 , d 2sp 2 ,sp3d 4) sp3 , d 2sp3 , d 2sp3 ,sp3d 2
58. In PCl5
1) Axial bonds are shorter and weaker than equitorial bonds
2) Axial bonds are longer and stronger than equitorial bonds
3) Axial bonds are longer and weaker than equitorial bonds
4) Axial bonds are longer but equally strong as equitorial
59. Number of 90o Cl-P-Cl angles in PCl5 is in
1) 2 2) 3 3) 6 4) 9
60. Total number of electrons in molecular orbitals of O2 molecule is
1) 12 2) 8 3) 10 4) 16
61. Increasing order of bond energy among B2 , C 2 , N 2 , O 2 & F2 is
1) F2  B2  C 2  O 2  N 2 2) B2  F2  O 2  C 2  N 2
3) B2  F2  C 2  O 2  N 2 4) F2  B2  O 2  C 2  N 2
62. Correct order of bond length follows
1) N 2  C 2  O 2  F2  B2 2) N 2  O 2  C2  B2  F2
3) N 2  O 2  C2  F2  B2 4) F2  O 2  N 2  C 2  B2
63. If a student draw MO diagram of B2 ignoring the mixing of 2S and 2P orbitals, the informations he concluded,
that really correct is / are
(i) Bond order is 1 (ii) B2 is paramagnetic (iii) B2 is diamagnetic
(iv) B2 has lower dissociation energy than O2
1) i,ii & iv 2) i, iii & iv 3) i & iv 4) i only
64. H-bonding in HF can be better represented as
F F
H
1) H H H
F F
H
2) F
F H
F
H
3) H F H F H F
H F
4) H F
H F
H F
H F
65. Among O 2 , O 2 , O 2 and O 22  shortest bond length is expected for
1) O2 2) O 2 O 2 4) O 22 
66. During the following conversion central atom suffer change in hybridisation in
(i) BF3  BF4 (ii) NH 3  N  H 4 (iii) PCl5  PCl6  iv) H2O  H3O
1) i & iii 2) i, ii & iii 3) iii only 4) All the above
67. The hybridisations of central iodine atom in IF5, I3 and I 3 are respectively
1) sp3d2, sp3d, sp3 2) sp3d, sp3d, sp3
3) sp3d2, sp3d2, sp2 4) sp3d, sp3d2, sp
68. A molecule has 3 resonating structures with energies E1, E2 and E3 in the order E3 < E2 < E1. The experimental
energy of the molecule is E0. Its resonance energy is
1) (E1 + E2 + E3) - E0 2) E0 – E3
3) E0 – E1 4) E0 – E2
69. Which of the following has minimum bond length?
1) O2 2) O2 3) O2 4) O22
70. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is
1) Trigonal bipyramidal 2) Square planar 3) Tetrahederal 4) See saw
71. The decreasing order of N–O bond length in NO3 , NO2 and NO2 is
1) NO2  NO3  NO2 2) NO3  NO2  NO2 3) NO2  NO3  NO2 4) NO3  NO2  NO2
72. A diatomic molecule has dipole moment 1.2 D and its bond length is 1Å. The percentage of ionic character
in it is
1) 10% 2) 35% 3) 25% 4) 50%
73. Which of the followng has non integral bond order?
1) O2 2) O2 3) NO 4) All of these
74. Which of the following is not true for IO2F2 ?
1) The electron pairs around the central atom are located at the corners of a trigonal bipyramid
2) It has sp3d hybridisation and is T shaped
3) Its structure is analogous to that of SF4
4) It has a p  d bond
75. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) SiH3 NCS molecule is linear
2) GeH3NCS molecule is bent
3) P(SiH3)3 molecule is pyramidal
4) CH3NCS molecule is linear

76. Consider the following canonical forms of HCOOH. Which is the correct order of stability among them?
O O+
C O H C O H
I. H H II.
O O
III. H C O H IV. H C O H
1) I > IV > III > II 2) I > II > III > IV 3) IV > III > II > I 4) III > II > I > IV
77. The average charge on each oxygen atom and the bond order of I – O bond in IO56 are
1) –1 and 1.67 2) –5/6 and 1.67 3) –5/6 and 1.33 4) –5/6 and 1.167
78. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in descending order :
C–Cl, C–Br, C–F, C–I
1) C–I > C–Br > C–Cl > C–F 2) C–Br > C–I > C–Cl > C–F
3) C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I 4) C–Cl > C–Br > C–I > C–F
79. The chloride that cannot be hydrolysed is
1) SiCl4 2) SnCl4 3) PbCl4 4) CCl4
80. Parity lables g or u stands for gerade or ungerade. Then the label g can be given for
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1) All 2) i & ii 3) i,iii, iv 4) i & iii
81. Highest occupied molecular orbitals in F2 is represented as
1) 2g 2) 1*u 3) 1*g 4) 2g
82. Ionisation energy of , N, O and NO follows the order
1) N > O > NO 2) N > NO > O 3) O > NO > N 4) NO > N > O
83. Dipole moment among H2O, F2O, NH3 follows the order
1) H2O > F2O > NH3 2) F2O > H2O > NH3
3) NH3 > H2O > F2O 4) H2O >NH3 > F2O

84. Correct order of the property mentioned is given by
(i) BeCO3  MgCO3  CaCO3  Thermalstability 
(ii) C6 H14  C6 F14 (boiling point)
(iii) CCl4  SiCl4  boiling point 
1) i & ii 2) ii & iii 3) i & iii 4) i,ii & iii
85. Correct order of Cl-O bond lengths in ClO  , ClO 2 , ClO3 and ClO 4 is
1) ClO   ClO 2  ClO3  ClO 4 2) ClO 4  ClO3  ClO 2  ClO 
3) ClO 3  ClO 4  ClO 2  ClO  4) ClO 4  ClO3  ClO 2  ClO 

86. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?
1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 2
87. Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?
1) CO32  2) O3 3) CH 3  NC 4) CO
88. Correct order of bond angles among BF3, BCl3, BBr3 is
1) BF3  BCl3  BBr3 2) BBr3  BCl3  BF3 3) BF3  BCl3  BBr3 4) BCl3  BF3  BBr3
89. Among (i) NO (ii) NO2 (iii) N2O molecules having unpaired electrons are
1) i & ii 2) i & iii 3) ii & iii 4) i, ii & iii
90. Correct order of bond angles in Cl2O, H2O and F2O follows
1) H 2 O  Cl 2O  F2O 2) Cl 2O  H 2O  F2 O 3) F2 O  Cl 2O  H 2O 4) F2 O  H 2 O  Cl 2O
BIOLOGY
91. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in vertical section and choose the correct option.
a) Root hair zone b) Zone of meristems c) Rootcap zone

d) Zone of maturation e) Zone of elongation
1) c, b, e, a, d 2) d, a, e, b, c 3) d, e, a, c, b 4) e, d, c, b, a
92. Venation is a term used to describe the patten of arrangement of
1) Floral organs 2) Flower in infloresence
3) Veins and veinlets in a lamina 4) All of them
93. Pneumatophores are useful in
1) Respiration 2) Transpiration 3) Guttation 4) Osmosis
94. Primary roots and its branches constitute
1) Adventitious root system 2) Tap root system
3) Fibrous roots 4) Seminal roots
95. A modified leaf is a
1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Cladode 4) Corm
96. Stilt roots are reported from
1) Maize 2) Radish 3) Mango ginger 4) Bryophyllum
97. How many following statements are correct?
a) The primary roots and its branches constitute the tap root system
b) In dicotyledenous plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a number of roots
c) Fibrous roots are observed in wheat plant, whereas tap roots are observed in mustard plant
d) The main function of roots is to provide nodes and internodes.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
98. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a) Tap roots i) Maize
b) Adventitious roots ii) Sweet potato
c) Stilt roots iii) Rhizophora
d) Pneumatophores iv) Turnip
1) a  ii; b  i; c  iii; d  iv 2) a  iv; b  iii; c  ii; d  i
3) a  iv; b  ii; c  i; d  iii 4) a  ii; b  iv; c  i; d  iii
99. Perianth is
1) Outer part of flower in which calyx and corolla are not distinguishable
2) When stamens and androecium are not distinguishable
3) When only calyx are present
4) None of the above
100. An example of edible underground stem is that of
1) Potato 2) Carrot 3) Groundnut 4) Sweet potato
101. Cancelled
102. Root is distingushable from stem in
1) having a root cap 2) having root hairs
3) absence of nodes and internodes 4) all of the above
103. Aleurone layer is a
1) Outer layer of scutellum in contact with endosperm
2) Layer of pericarp specialized in absorption of water
3) Layer present in the hypocotyl that guides pollen tube
4) Layer present on the outside of endosperm with protein grains
104. Free-central placentation is found in
1) Brassica 2) Citrus 3) Dianthus 4) Argemone
105. In monocotyledonous plants, the ............... is short lived and is replaced by a large number of roots
1) Fibrous root 2) Primary root 3) Adventitious root 4) Root cap
106. Read the following statements
a) Cells of root meristematic zone have dense cytoplasm
b) Chrysanthemum, pineapple and Jasminum are examples of sucker
c) A fleshy bud is called bulbul
d) Root cap is absent in hydrophytes
Which of the given statements are correct?
1) All of these 2) All except b 3) a and b 4) b and c
107. Pneumatophores occur in
1) Free-floating hydrophytes 2) Carnivorous plants
3) Halophytes 4) Submerged hydrophytes
108. In citrus, thorns are the modifications of
1) Stipules 2) Adventitious root 3) Stem 4) Leaf
109. Bicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of the family .............
1) Liliaceae 2) Solanaceae 3) Fabaceae 4) Poaceae
110. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
1) Aloe 2) Totamo 3) Tulip 4) Sunnhemp
111. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is
1) Perisperm 2) Cotyledon 3) Endosperm 4) Pericarp
112. How many plants among Cicer, Vigna, Soyabean, Gloriosa, Aloe, Groundnut, Sweet pea, Sunnhemp,
Lupin, Trifolium, Belladona, Tamarind, Cassia, Dalbergia, Acacia and Withania belong to the family
fabaceae?
1) Eight 2) Ten 3) Twelve 4) Fourteen
113. Fruit that develops from hypanthodium inflorescence is called
1) Syconus 2) Sorosis 3) Samara 4) Siliqua
114. Muehlenbeckia (Coccoloba) is a good example of
1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Corm 4) Rhizome
115. Photosynthetic function of Opuntia is carried out by
1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Bulb 4) Corm
116. Select the correct set
Plant Organ Function

1) Vanda Tap root Moisture absorption
2) Jamine Offset Photosynthesis
3) Pineapple Sucker Propagation
4) Nepenthes Leaf tip Photosynthesis
117. Given are some differences between an underground stem and a root. Select the option that identifies
the incorrect pair (differences).
Underground stem Root
a) Differentiated into nodes and internodes Not differentiated into nodes and internodes
b) Scale leaves are present at the nodes Scales leaves are absent in roots
c) Axillary buds are present in the axil of scale leaves Axillary buds are present at roots tips
d) Branches arise exogenously Branches arise endogenously
e) Root hair and root caps are absent Root hair and root caps are present
f) Flowers and fruit are usually present Flowers are fruits are absent
g) Usually perform the function of storage Always perform the function of food storage
1) f and g 2) b, c and g 3) c and g 4) b, c, f and g

118. Hypanthodium inflorescence is seen in
1) Ocimum 2) Yucca 3) Ficus 4) Loranthus
119. Rice grain in a fruit which is classified as
1) Caryopsis 2) Achene 3) Cypsela 4) Samara
120. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
1) Potato 2) Apple 3) Mango 4) Tomato
121. Coir of coconut is obtained from
1) Endocarp 2) Mesocarp 3) Pericarp 4) Placenta
122. Tetradynamous condition is exceptional to
1) Helianthus - Asteraceae 2) Ocimum - Lamiaceae
3) Brassica campestris - Brassicaceae 4) Hibiscus rosasinensis - Malvaceae
123. Cancelled
124. In which of the following plants, food materials are stored in the underground stems :
1) Ginger and Turmeric 2) Zaminkand, Colocasia and Potato
3) Sugarcane 4) All except 3
125. The flower is the reproductive unit in the Angiosperms, meant for sexual reproduction. A typical flower has
four different kinds of whorls arranged successively on the swollen end of the pedicel called:
1) Petiole 2) Pulvinus 3) Peduncle 4) Thalamus
126. Observe the diagram and point out the type of aestivation of petals in Fabaceae :
1) 2) 3) 4)
127. The single shield shaped cotyledon of monocot seed is called :

1) Coleoptile 2) Coleorhiza 3) Scutellum 4) Aleurone layer
128. The floral formula is of the family :
1) Solanaceae 2) Fabaceae 3) Papilionaceae 4) Liliaceae

129. Which among the following plant possess sheathing leaf base :
1) China rose 2) Garden pea 3) Crotalaria 4) Grasses
130. Which among the following sentence is wrong about Racemose inflorescence :
1) Peduncle ends in flower
2) Acropetal order of maturation of flowers
3) Oldest flowers are at the base of the elongated peduncle
4) Peduncle is of indefinite growth
131. Select a correct match :
1) Didynamous stamen - Cassia 2) Tetradynamous stamen - Mustard
3) Epiphyllous condition - China rose 4) Syngenesious condition - Cucumber
132. Aleurone layer of maize seed stores -------- and is ------------ in ploidy.
1) Proteins, n 2) Cellulose, 2n 3) Proteins, 3n 4) Fat, 3n
133. Match the morphological specialities of androecium and gynoecium of the families Fabaceae, Solanaceae
and Liliaceae :
Column I Column II Column III
1. Fabaceae A) 6 stamens in two whorls I. Tricarpellary with axile placentation
2. Solanaceae B) Diadelphous androecium II. Monocarpellary with marginal placentation
3. Liliaceae C) Epipetalous stamen III. Bicarpellary with axile placentation
1) 1-A-I ; 2-B-II ; 3-C-III 2) 1-B-II ; 2-C-III ; 3-A-I
3) 1-C-III ; 2-B-II ; 3-A-I 4) 1-B-II ; 2-C-I ; 3-A-III
134. A tendril at the tip of stem, a thorn in the axil of leaf, a cladode in the axil of leaf can have a common feature
in that :
1) All are stem modifications 2) All are leaf modification
3) All can be stem or leaf modification 4) All are aereal root modification
135. Which among the following option describe the characters shared by Fabaceae, Solanaceae and Liliaceae
1) Alternate phyllotaxy, Bisexual and Actinomorphic flower
2) Tap root system, Dichlamydeous flower, Bisexual zygomorphic flower
3) Alternate phyllotaxy, Bisexual flower, more than one stamens in androecium
4) Axile placentation, Bisexual flower, more than one stamens in androecium
136. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
1) Squamous epithelial cells 2) Cuboidal epithelial cells
3) Ciliated columnar cells 4) Columnar epithelial cells
137. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because.
1) The supraoesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
2) Cockroach does not have nervous system
3) The head holds a small portion of the nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part
of its body.
4) Head holds 1 3 rd of the nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of the body..
138. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in Animals.
1) Haemoglobin 2) Fibroblast 3) Collagen 4) Insulin
139. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in;
1) Lining of Intestine 2) Ducts of salivary gland
3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron 4) Eustachian tube
140. Match the terms in column I with those in column II
Column I Column II
a) Compound epithelium i) Phallomere
b) Compound eye ii) Collaterial glands
c) Ootheca iii) Skin
d) Osteocytes iv) Mosaic vision
e) Genitalia v) Bone
a b c d e a b c d e a b c d e a b c d e
1) iii iv ii i v 2) iii iv ii v i 3) iii iv i ii v 4) iii v i ii iv
141. Basal lamina in basement membrane is formed with

1) Collagen fibres 2) Reticular fibres
3) Mucosal polysaacharides and Glycoproteins 4) Stria vascularis
142. Cell junction found in stomach and intestinal lining which prevents the leakage of substances between
the cells are :
1) Zona adherens 2) Zona occludens 3) Communication junction 4) Desmosomes
143. Single layer of tall and slender cells arranged side by side with nuclei are located at the base. This kind
of epithelium is mainly found in
1) Lining of PCT 2) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
3) Inner surface of Eyelids 4) Intestine, stomach, Liver and Bile duct
144. Renal pelvis, Renal calyces, Ureters and urinary bladder are lined with
1) Stratified compound epithelium 2) Myoepithelium
3) Transitional epithelium 4) Neuroepithelium
145. Identify the incorrectly matched glands with their examples.
1) Merocrine glands - Pancreas
2) Holocrine glands - Sebaceous glands
3) Apocrine glands - Goblet cells
4) Heterocrine glands - Pancreas
146. Type of fibres which laid down at the site of injury and helps for wound healing is ?
1) Bundled, Unbranched inelastic fibres. 2) Single, elastic, branched yellow fibres
3) Elastic, unbranched, white collagen fibres 4) Single, elastic, unbranched elastin fibres.
147. How many of the following are True about Adipose connective tissue
i) Located mainly beneath the skin, around kidneys and in Bone marrow.
ii) Acts as a supportive frame work for epithelium
iii) Acts as heat insulating layer
iv) connects integument with muscles
v) Cells are specialised for the storage of Glucose
vi) It is a type of dense connective tissue.
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
148. Type of cartilage which found in pubic symphysis and intervertebral disc is
1) Elastic cartilage 2) Fibro cartilage 3) Calcified cartilage 4) Hyaline cartilage.
149. Longitudinal canals which runs along the entire length of bone matrix that are interconnected by
1) Cannaliculi 2) Haversian canal
3) Volkamann’s canals 4) Haversian system
150. Select the mismatched pair
1) Cyton - perikaryon
2) Neuroplasm - Axolemma
3) Axon - Axis cyllinder
4) Perimycium - Fascicle
151. Which of the following statements about Ependymal cells is incorrect.
1) These cells lines the central canal of spinal cord.
2) Their free surface bears numerous microvilli and cilia
3) These cells contribute to the flow of the cerebrospinal fluid.
4) They are derived from the monocytes that invade the brain during foetal life.
152. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A) Unipolar neurons i) Dorsal root of ganglia
B) Pseudounipolar neurons ii) Vestibular ganglia
C) Bipolar neurons iii) Grey matter of Brain
D) Multipolar neurons iv) Early embryoes
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1) iv i ii iii 2) i ii iii iv 3) ii i iii iv 4) iv ii i iii
153. Type of neuroglial cells provide mechanical support to neurons and play a role in the maintanance of
blood brain barrier is
1) Oligodendnocytes 2) Ependyma cells 3) Astrocytes 4) Microglial cells
154. From the following which one is an example for sesamoid bone.
1) Cranial bones 2) Humerus 3) Patella 4) Mandible
155. Consider the given statements and select the correct option.
1) The non- medullated nerve fibres of brain and spinal cord lack neurilemma.
2) Medullated nerve fibres are found in grey matter of Brain and Spinal cord
3) Intercalated disc are the characteristic of visceral muscles.
4) Each muscle fibre is surrounded by a thin connective tissue sheath called endomysium
156. Stink glands are found in;
1) 4th and 5th Terga of cockroach 2) 5th and 6th terga cockroach
3) 5th and 6th sterna of periplaneta 4) 4th and 5th sterna
157. Identify the correct and incorrect statements regarded with cockroach
i) Hindwings are called as Tegmina or Elytra
ii) In male cockroach genital pounch is dorsally bounded with 9th and 10th sterna but ventrally with 9th
Terga.
iii) In female periplaneta wings extend beyond the tip of abdomen.
iv) Triangular, Hypognathous head is formed with 5 segments.
v) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed fillamentous structures called Anal styles.
1) i, ii, iv, v are correct but iii is wrong. 2) ii, iii, v are correct but i and iv are wrong
3) i, ii, iv are correct iii and v are wrong 4) i, ii, iii, iv and v are wrong
158. Proventriculus in cockroach lies between
1) Oesophagus and stomach 2) Crop and mesenteron
3) Mesenteron and Ileum 4) Foregut and crop.
159. How many of the following statements are true related with periplaneta
i) Nervous system comprises a dorsal nerve cord and 10 pairs of ganglia
ii) Conglobate glands helps for the formation of spermatophores.
iii) Foregut is internally lined with cuticle
iv) Tracheal tubes subdivided into tracheoles carry oxygen from air to all parts.
v) Tegmina are dark opaque, chitinous and covering the second pair of wings.
1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4) 1
160. Juvenile hormone or Neotinin is secreted by
1) Corpora cardiaca 2) Corpora allata
3) Prothoracic glands 4) Corpus spongiosum
161. In periplaneta expiration occurs due to the;
1) Relaxation of tergosternals 2) Contraction of tergosternals
3) Contraction of tergites only 4) Relaxation of sternites only
162. Select the correct statements about cockroach .
a) Next to the last nymphal stage has only wingpads not wings.
b) Each ovary contains 14-16 ovarioles
c) Nymph grows into an adult through hemimetabolous development
d) Ostia guides the flow of blood from heart to haemocoel
e) 2 pairs of spiracles in thorax and 8 pairs in abdomen.
1) a,e 2) a, b, d,e 3) b, d, e 4) a, d, e
163. Which of the following is absent in the walking legs of periplaneta
1) Coxa 2) Femur 3) Fibula 4) Tibia
164. The taste receptors of cockroaches are;
1) Tactile hairs 2) Compound eyes
3) Palps of maxillary and labium 4) Ocelli
165. In male cockroaches sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system.
1) Mushroom glands 2) Testes
3) Vas deferens 4) Seminal vesicles
166. Choose the correctly matched pair
1) Inner lining of salivary ducts - ciliated epithelium
2) Moist surface of buccal cavity - Glandular epithelium
3) Tubular parts of nephron - Cuboidal epithelium
4) Inner surface of bronchioles - Squamous epithelium
167. In periplaneta brain is represented by
1) Suboesophageal ganglion 2) subpharyngeal ganglion
3) Supra oesophageal ganglion 4) supra pharyngeal ganglion
168. Chitinous asymmetrical structures surrounding the male gonopore of cockroach is
1) Vestibulum 2) Pseudopenis 3) Titilator 4) Phallomeres or male

gonapophysis
169. The cuboidal epithelium rich in pigments of melanin present in the lining of retina, choroid of eye, etc is
known as
1) gustatory epithelium 2) statoacoustic epithelium
3) olfactory epithelium 4) pigment epithelium
170. Due to the regular, parallel and longitudinal arrangement of yellow fibres, dense elastic cords or bands
called ligaments may be formed. It is used for connecting
1) organs to body wall 2) bones to bones
3) organs to organs 4) all the above
171. Liver, pancreas, thyroid, thymus, anterior pituitary etc develops from
1) endoderm 2) mesoderm 3) ectoderm 4) endoderm and ectoderm
172. Any injury to cartilage takes more time for healing because
1) cartilage is avascular
2) it has a hard and non pliable ground substance
3) it is a specialised connective tissue
4) it is solid and pliable
173. “These cells are found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption. Their
nuclei are located at the base”. Identify the tissue having this peculiarities from the given diagrams.
174. Glandular epithelium develops from
1) squamous epithelium 2) transitional epithelium
3) pigment epithelium 4) columnar or cuboidal epithelium

175.
Some external features of a cockroach are marked as P, Q, R, S. Identify the function conducted by them
in
a) sound detection
b) flight
c) wing protection
d) monitoring of environment
1) a - S, b - R, c - Q, d - P 2) a - S, b - R, c - P, d - Q
3) a - S, b - Q, c - R, d - P 4) a - S, b - Q, c - P, d - R
176.
Mouth parts of Periplaneta americana are marked as A,B,C,D,E,F & G. Identify correctly the structures
which
a) helps in grinding and incising
b) acts as tongue
c) responds to touch and smell
1) a - B, b - D, c - F 2) a - A, b - C, c - B
3) a - A, b - D, c - B 4) a - B, b - C, c - A
177. Which of the following statements are true or false.
a) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.
b) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only an adult shows wings.
c) On an average a female cockroach produces 9 - 10 oothecae, each containing 14 - 16 eggs.
d) An ovary shows 16 ovarioles
e) The two compound eyes show about 2000 ommatidia.
1) a, b and d are true, c and e are false 2) a, b and c are true, d and e are false
3) a, c and e are true, b and d are false 4) c and e are true, a, b and d are false
178. In a female cokcroach one pair of ovaries are seen located
1) laterally in the 2nd and 6th abdominal segments
2) midventrally in the 2nd and 6th abdominal segments
3) mid dorsally in the 2nd and 6th abdominal segments
4) dorsally in the 2nd and 6th abdominal segments
179. Match the items of column I with that of column II
Column I Column II
i) One pair of spermatheca a) 2nd to 6th segments
ii) One pair of testes b) 6th to 7th segments
iii) Mushroom shaped gland c) 6th segment
iv) One pair of ovaries d) 4th to 6 th segment
1) i- c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a 2) i - c, ii- b, iii - d, iv - a
3) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a 4) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
180. The nymph resembles the adult in many aspects, but at the same time it differs in some aspects. Gradually
the differences will be settled. This type of metamorphosis is called
1) Holometabolus type / complete metamorphosis
2) Paurometabolus type / gradual metamorphosis
3) Hemimetabolus type / Incomplete metamorphosis
4) Hyper metabolous type / Hyper metamorphosis
03- 10 -2020
22C/NEET/MOD/[N] BATCHES
P + C + B - Key with Hints LT22 RESIDENTIAL & HYBRID
PHYSICS
1. 3
2. 1
3. 3
20 200
4. 3   F  20; F   N
3 3
5. 1
6. 2
7. 1
8. 2
9. 1
10. 3
11. 2
12. 1
13. 1
14. 1
15. 4
16. 1
17. 3
18. 3
19. 3
20. 3
21. 4
22. 1
23. 4
24. 3
25. 2
26. 4
27. 4
28. 3
29. 1
30. 2
31. 1
32. 1
33. 2
34. 4
35. 3
36. 2
37. 2
38. 3
39. 1
40. 4
41. 4
PQ  132  52  12cm
w
T cos   w; T 
cos 
w13
T
12
42. 3
43. 1
44. 1
45. 2
CHEMISTRY
46. 2 Refer NCERT
47. 3 Refer NCERT
48. 1 Refer NCERT
49. 2 Refer NCERT
50. 3 Refer NCERT
51. 3 Refer NCERT
52. 3 Bonding energy of H2 is 435.8 kJ/mol
53. 2 b.p = 3, l.p = 2
54. 3 Refer NCERT
55. 2  bond formed if p-orbitals are parallel
56. 4 As the p- character increases bord length increases
57. 1 Refer NCERT box 4.6.3
58. 3 Refer NCERT
59. 3
60. 4 8 + 8 = 16
61. 4 Refer NCERT Fig . 4.21
62. 3 Refer NCERT Fig . 4.21
63. 3 Due to 25 and 2P mixing  2p has higher energy than 2p
64. 1 H- bond formed through lone pair
65. 4 Greater the b.o shorter the length
66. 1 (i) sp 2  sp3  iii  sp3d  sp3d2

67. 1 6,5 and 4 hybrid orbitals formed respectively
68. 2 By definition
1
69. 3 Bond length 
Bondorder
70. 4 sp3d with 4 bps and one lp
71. 2
72. 3
73. 4
74. 2 sp3d hybridisation with 4 bps and one lp see saw shape. I can use only d orbital for  bond
75. 4 For backbond, one of the atom should be from 2nd period and the other atom should be from 2nd
and 3rd period. One atom should have an empty orbital and the other atom should have a lone pair.
In CH3 NCS, nitrogen atom has a lone pair but C atom has no empty orbital. So it is bent.
76. 1 I and IV have 5 bonds each. II and III have only 4 bonds each. III has –ve charge on more
elecronegative oxygen and +ve charge on less electronegative carbon. The charges on II are in the
opposite order
77. 4
1
78. 3 Bond energy  size of the atoms
79. 4 A compound is hydrolysed if the atom with  has empty orbital to accept the lone pair of OH–.
Carbon with  has no empty orbital. So CCl4 is not hydrolysed
80. 4
81. 3
82. 1 Antibonding electron has higher energy
83. 4
84. 4 If attached atoms have higher electronegativity negative charge density increases in molecular
boundary
85. 2
86. 2
87. 1
88. 3 Central atom has no lone pair
89. 1 NO and NO2 are odd electron molecule
90. 2 In Cl2O there p  d bonding.
BIOLOGY
91. 1 109. 2 127. 3 145. 3 163. 3
92. 3 110. 4 128. 1 146. 1 164. 3
93. 1 111. 3 129. 4 147. 4 165. 4
94. 2 112. 3 130. 1 148. 2 166. 3
95. 1 113. 1 131. 2 149. 3 167. 3
96. 1 114. 2 132. 3 150. 2 168. 4
97. 2 115. 2 133. 2 151. 4 169. 4
98. 3 116. 3 134. 1 152. 1 170. 4
99. 1 117. 4 135. 3 153. 3 171. 1
100. 1 118. 3 136. 4 154. 3 172. 1
101. Canc. 119. 1 137. 3 155. 4 173. 3
102. 4 120. 4 138. 3 156. 2 174. 4
103. 4 121. 2 139. 3 157. 4 175. 1
104. 3 122. 3 140. 2 158. 2 176. 2
105. 2 123. Canc. 141. 3 159. 3 177. 2
106. 2 124. 4 142. 2 160. 2 178. 1
107. 3 125. 4 143. 4 161. 2 179. 1
108. 3 126. 4 144. 3 162. 1 180. 2

Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

NEET ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION
08-11-2020
22G/NEET /MOD
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Batch: LT-22 ALL RES. & HYBRID
Time : 3 Hr. Max. Mark : 720
PHYSICS
1. Work done by a force on a moving body to displace it is said to be maximum when
1) When the value of force is maximum
2) When the displacement of body is maximum
3) When the direction of force is same as the direction of displacement
4) All the above
2. Which of the following quantity is independent of the frame from which it is measured?
1) Work done by a force on a moving body in which it acts
2) Kinetic energy of a moving body
3) Power delivered by a force on a moving body in which force acts
4) Relative velocity between two moving bodies
3. If a physical quantity x is related to two measured quantities y and z as x=ynzm. Then the percentage error
in x is given by
x y z
100% = n  100%  m  100% . Using this method, if two physical quantities are defined as
x y z
y3
P and Q  y 2 z . Then
z2
1) Percentage error is maximum for P
2) Percentage error is maximum for Q
3) Percentage error is maximum for both P and Q
4) Nothing can be concluded as the true values of P and Q are unknown
4. The force acting on a body moving along x axis varies with the position of the particle as shown
The body is in neutral equilibrium at

1) x = x1
2) x = x2
3) Both at x = x1 and x=x2
4) Neither at x = x1 and nor at x=x2
5. A particle of mass m is tied to a light string and rotated with a speed v along a circular path of radius r. If T
is the tension in the string and mg is the gravitational force on the particle, then the actual forces acting on
the particles are
1) mg and T only
mv 2
2) mg, T and an additional force directed inward
r
mv 2
3) mg, T and an additional force directed outwards
r
mv 2
4) Only a force directed outwards
r
6. Volume of a cube is measured as 3.21 cm3. Volume of 12 such cubes to correct significant figures will be
1) 38 cm3 2) 38.5 cm3 3) 38.52 cm3 4) 39 cm3
7. A block of mass 1kg slides down a curved track from rest that is one quadrant of a circle of radius 1m. Its
speed at the bottom is 2m/s. The work done by frictional force is (g=10m/s2)
1) –8J 2) –4J 3) –12J 4) –10J

8. A man is walking along a rough horizontal road with uniform speed. Let N is the normal reaction and f is the
friction on him from ground. Then
1) Work done by only N is zero
2) Work done by only f is zero
3) Work done by both N and f is zero
4) Work done by both N and f are non zero
9. A car which has front and rear glass screens almost vertical is moving on a road. When rain drops are
falling vertically downward. The rain will strike
1) The front screen only 2) The rear screen only
3) Both the screens 4) Neither of the screens
10. A particle of mass 2kg starts moving in a straight line with an initial velocity of 2m/s at a constant accelera-
tion of 2m/s2. The rate of change of kinetic energy is
1) Is four times the velocity at any moment
2) Is two times the displacement at any moment
3) Is four times the rate of change of velocity at any moment
4) Is constant throughout
11. Consider the following statements
i) A light body and a heavy body have same linear momentum. Then lighter body has more kinetic energy
ii) A light body and a heavy body have same kinetic energy. Then heavier body has greater linear momen-
tum
1) Only (i) is correct 2) Only (ii) is correct
3) Both (i) and (ii) are correct 4) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
i) A truck and a car moving with the same kinetic energy are stopped by applying same retarding force by
means of breaks. Then truck will stop at a smaller distance
ii) A truck and a car are moving with the same kinetic energy in a straight road. Their engines are simulta-
neously switched off. Then truck will stop at a smaller distance
1) Only (i) is correct 2) Only (ii) is correct 3) Both are correct 4) Both are incorrect
13. A block of mass 2kg is placed on another block of mass 3kg on a horizontal frictionless floor as shown.
Initially both are at rest. A force F is applied on 3kg at an arbitrary angle to pull the system horizontally. The
instant at which both bodies travel through 20m, the speed of both is 10m/s. Work done by the friction on
3kg block is
1) –50J 2) –100J 3) –150J 4) –200J

14. A man is standing inside a bus moving on a straight road with a constant velocity. Suddenly breaks are
applied to stop the bus. Then the man jerks in the forward direction and fall down. Then the reason for the
fall as identified by that man is
1) Inertia of rest 2) Inertia of motion 3) Inertia of direction 4) Unknown
15. A small object is dripped from the top of a building and falls to the ground. As it falls, accelerating due to
gravity, it passes window. It has speed v1 at the top of the window and speed v2, at the bottom is the
v1  v 2
window, at what point does it have a speed (neglect air resistance)
2
1) It depends on the height of the window or its distance from the top of the building
2) At the centre point of the window
3) Below the centre point of the window
4) Above the centre point of the window
16. Consider two observers moving with respect to each other with a constant relative velocity v along a
straight line. They observe a block of mass m moving a distance l on a rough surface. Then which of the
following quantities will be same as observed by the observers
1) Kinetic energy of the block at time t
2) Work done by the friction
3) Total work done on the block
4) Acceleration of the block
17. A block hangs freely form the end of a spring. A boy then slowly pushes the block upwards so that the
spring becomes strain free. The gain in gravitational potential energy of the block during the process is
equal to
1) The work done by the boy against the gravitational force acting on the block
2) The loss of energy stored in the spring plus the work done by the restoring force on the spring
3) The work done on the block by the boy plus the loss of energy stored in the spring
4) The work done on the block by the restoring force on the spring
18. A metal block of mass m is placed on a smooth metallic plane in support with a string as shown in the
diagram. If after long time, due to corrosion, the contact surface becomes rough with coefficient of friction
 . Then the frictional force acting on the block will be
1) mg cos  2) mg sin 
1
3) mg sin  4) None of these
2
19. Work done by a conservative force in moving a body once around a closed loop is zero. This can be
explained as due to
1) Work done by a conservative force is equal to negative of change in potential energy
2) Work done by a conservative force is independent of path through which body is moved
3) Conservative force is equal to negative gradient of potential energy
4) If only conservative forces are doing work on a body, its total mechanical energy will be conserved
20. Work done by spring force, gravitational force, viscous force and external agent in displacing a body are
respectively 30J, –70J, –20J and 50 J. Total change in mechanical energy of the body is
1) –10 J 2) 30 J 3) –40 J 4) 60 J
21. A spring of constant K is divided into four equal parts. The four parts are then connected in parallel. The
effective spring constant of the combination is
1) 4K 2) 16K 3) K 4) 8K
22. Two blocks of mass 3kg and 6kg respectively are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They are con-
nected by a light spring of force constant K=200N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched. The indicated
velocities are imparted to the blocks. The maximum extension of the spring will be
1) 30cm 2) 25cm 3) 20cm 4) 15cm

23. A man is standing on a cart of mass double the mass of man. Initially, cart is at rest. Now, man jumps
horizontally with velocity u relative to cart. Then work done by man during the process of jumping will be
1 3 1 2
1) mu 2 2) mu 2 3) mu2 4) mu
2 4 3
24. A ball of mass m moving with a velocity u collides head on with a second ball of mass m at rest. If the
coefficient of restitution is e, then the ratio of the velocities of the first and the second ball after the collision
is;
1 e 1 e 1 e 1 e
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 e 1 e 2 2
25. A river is flowing with a speed of 1km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point C starting from A. He swims
with a speed of 5km/h, at an angle  with respect to the river. If AB=BC=400m, then value of  is;
1) 37o 2) 53o 3) 30o 4) 45o

26. All the forces involved during a collision process between two bodies are conservative. Then collision is
1) Elastic 2) Inelastic
3) Perfectly inelastic 4) Either inelastic or perfectly inelastic
27. A ball is dropped from a height of 640m above the ground. It undergo continuous rebounds from the
ground. If coefficient of restitution between ball and ground is 0.5, then height reached by the ball after the
third rebound is;
1) 80 m 2) 10m 3) 40 m 4) 20 m
28. Two identical balls marked 2 and 3, in contact with each other and at rest on a horizontal frictionless table,
are hit head on by another identical ball marked 1 moving initially with a speed v as shown what is ob-
served, if collisions are elastic
1 V 2 3
1) Ball 1 comes to rest and balls 2 and 3 roll out with speed v/2 each
2) Balls 1 and 2 comes to rest and ball 3 rolls out with speed v
v
3) Balls 1, 2 and 3 roll out with speed each
3
4) All balls come to rest
29. A particle is projected with a velocity 110m/s at an angle 60o with horizontal. Find the time when the
particle will move perpendicular to its initial direction (g=10m/s2)
22s
1) 10 3s 2) 22s 3) 4) 22 3s
3
30. Two balls marked 1 and 2 of the same mass m and a third ball marked 3 of mass M are arranged over a
smooth horizontal surface as shown. Ball 1 moves with a velocity u towards ball 2 and 3. All collisions are
assumed to be elastic and if M>>m, the final velocity of ball 2 is;
u
1) 2) u 3) 2u 4) Zero
2
31. Three particles each of mass m are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC. They start moving
with equal speeds v each along the medians of the triangle and collide at its centroid G. If after collision, A
comes to rest and B retraces its path along GB, then C
1) Also comes to rest
2) Moves with speed v along CG
3) Moves with speed v along BG
4) Moves with a speed along AG
32. The bob A of a pendulum released from a height h hits head on with another bob B of the same mass of an
identical pendulum initially at rest. If the collision is perfectly elastic, then
1) Bob A comes to rest at the position of B and bob B moves to the left attaining a maximum height h
2) Bobs A and B both moves to the left, each attaining a maximum height h/2
3) Bob B moves to the left and bob A moves to the right, each attaining a maximum height h/2
4) Both A and B comes to rest
1 ˆ
33. â and b̂ are unit vectors and  is the angle between them. Then 2 â  b is equal to
   
1) tan 2) 2cos 3) cos 4) sin
2 2 2 2
34. A ball is projected with a velocity 20m/s at angle to the horizontal. In order to have the maximum range, its
velocity at the highest position must be
20
1) 10m/s 2) 10 3m / s 3) 10 2m / s 4) m/s
3
35. The true value of length of an object in near 3.678 cm. This length is measured using three different
instruments and are respectively given as 3.5 cm, 3.285 cm and 3.58 cm. Then
i) The most accurate measurement is the third one
ii) The least accurate measurement is the second one
iii) The most precise measurement is the second one
iv) The least precise measurement is the first one
1) Only ii, iii and iv are correct 2) Only i, ii and iv are correct
3) Only i, ii and iii are correct 4) All are correct
36. Identify the correct statement
1) In an elastic collision between two bodies, relative velocity of separation and relative velocity of ap-
proach are equal
2) A ball undergo an oblique inelastic rebounding from a floor. Then angle of rebound and angle of
incidence are equal
3) In a perfectly inelastic collision, the bodies may not stick together after collision
4) for a collision to happen, a direct physical contact between the bodies is a must
37. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h. It takes T seconds to reach the ground. The height to
T
the position of the ball at time seconds is
3
8h 7h 2h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 9 9
38. The only force acting on a 8kg body moving along x axis varies as shown. The velocity of body at x=0 is
1m/s. The maximum kinetic energy acquired by the particle is
F(N)
4
1 2 3
x
(m)
-4
1) 8J 2) 12J 3) 6J 4) 16J
39. A block is about to slide down an inclined plane when its inclination to the horizontal is  . If now a 5kg
mass is attached to the block. Then
1) It is still about to slide down the plane
2) It will not slide down the plane unless the inclination is increased
3) It will not slide down the plane unless the inclination is decreased
4) It will never slide down whatever be the inclination
40. A vehicle is moving on a banked curved road of angle of banking 37o and radius of curvature 30m, with a
velocity of 10m/s. Then static friction
1) Does not act on the vehicle 2) Acts down the plane

3) Acts up the plane 4) Cannot be determined
Statement 1: Acceleration of a freely falling body is equal to acceleration due to gravity g
Statement 2: Inertial mass and gravitational mass of a body are numerically equal
1) Both statements are correct and statement 2 can be used to explain statement 1
2) Both statements are correct and statement 2 has no part in explaining statement 1
3) Only statement 1 is correct
4) Only statement 2 is correct
42. A block of mass 25kg is raised by a 50kg man in two different ways as shown (g=10m/s2)
Here man is directly lifting up the block
If the floor yields to a normal force of 200N, then
Here man is pulling up the block using a pulley arrangement
1) Case 1 alone will be safe for the man 2) Case 2 alone will be safe for the man
3) Both cases will be safe for the man 4) Both cases are not safe for the man
43. Figure shows a wooden block on a horizontal plane at rest, being acted upon by three forces. F1=10N,
F2= 2N and friction. If F1 is removed, the resultant force acting on the block will be
F1 F2
1) 2N towards left 2) 2N towards right 3) 6 N towards right 4) Zero

44. Particle A makes a perfectly head on elastic collision with another particle B at rest. They fly apart in
MA
opposite directions with equal speeds. The ratio of their masses M is
B
A B
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 3
45. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

1) Electron volt 2) Calorie
3) Kilowatt hour 4) Kilogram weight
CHEMISTRY
46. How many elements would be in the fourth period of the periodic table. If the spin quantum number m5
could have  1 2 , 0,  1 2 :
1) 18 2) 32 3) 27 4) 8
47. Which of the following statement is/are correct for an electron that has n = 4, m = -2 :
(i) The electron may be in a d - orbital
(ii) The electron is present in fourth principal electronic shell
(iii) The electron may be in a p-orbital
(iv) The electron must have spin quantum number is =1/2
1) i, ii, iv 2) i, ii 3) i, iii 4) all are correct
48. Select the correct statement from the following :
1
1) H 2 O(g)  H (g)  OH (g ) ; H  502 KJmol
OH (g)  H (g)  O(g) ; H  502KJmol1
2) Resonance energy of the molecule increases, their stability decreases
3) N 2 has lower reduction potential than O 2 according to MOT
4) In super oxide, oxide ion magnetic property higher than oxygen molecule
49. From the following select the correct statement / statements :
i) Number of waves or wave length produced by an electron in a H atom in third excited level is equal to 3.
ii) Heisenburg’s uncertainity principle can also state by E.t  h / 4
iii) Energy, velocity and radius of 4th orbital of Be+3 is exactly equal to Ist Bohr orbit of H atom
iv) Angular momentum of electron in 2p and 3p orbitals are same
1) i, ii, iii 2) i, iii 3) ii, iv 4) iv only
50. 40% w/w sucrose solution on heating, it becomes 50% w/w solution. What is the % of water looses from
the initial amount of solution :
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 40% 4) 30%
51. The first ionisation energy of helium atom is equal to 24.6eV. The energy required to remove both the
electrons from the helium atom would be :
1) 50 eV 2) 54.4 eV 3) 79 eV 4) 49.2 eV
52. A compound of Vanadium has magnetic moment () of 2.71 BM. If the Vanadium ion in the compound is
present as Vx+, then the value of x is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
53.
In radial probability function versus radius graph of one of the non-directional orbital of H atom, x, y, z are
the peak of the graph. Find the distance between the y and z :
1) 1.6Ao 2) 2.6Ao 3) 3.6Ao 4) 4.6Ao
54. The ratio of  and  bonds present in 1, 4 dimethyl cyclo buta - 1, 3 diene :
1) 1/6 2) 2/7 3) 1/7 4) 2/11
55. 0.1 mole CxHyOz contain 1g of hydrogen. Its EF is CH2O find molecular formula of the compound is :
1) C5H10O5 2) C4H8O4 3) C3H6O3 4) C2H4O2
56. When 2g of a gas A is introduced in to an evacuated flask kept at 25oC, the pressure is found to be 1atm.
If 3g of another gas B is then added to the same flask, the pressure become 1.5 atm. Assuming ideal gas
behaviour, the ratio of molecular masses of MA and MB respectively are :
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 3
57. H2O2 in aqueous solution decomposes on warming as
2H 2O2( aq )  2H 2O(l )  O 2(g)
If 1 mol of gas occupies a volume of 25L under the conditions of measurement and 200ml of xM solution of
H2O2 produces 5L of O2, the value of x is :
1) 0.2 M 2) 2M 3) 1M 4) 2.5 M
58. A compound molecular formula is MmOn. The metal M present in a compound is added in another compound
M2 SO4. The former metal displaced later one. Weight of former metal M1 = W1 , weight M2 = W2 their
equivalent weights are e1 and e2 respectively. The atomic mass of metal in the above prescribed compound
MmOn is :
w 2 e1m w1e 2 2n
1) w 2n 2) w m
1 2
w1 n w1 n e1
3) w e 4) w2
2 1
Br O
59. H3C C C OEt In this compound, primary functional group from the parent chain changed
NO2
in to carboxylic group. Functional group present in the second position of parent chain is replaced by
chlorine and functional group present in the third position of side chain is replaced by Bromine. What is the
IUPAC name of the modified organic compound :
1) Ethyl - 2bromo - 2 - (3nitrophenyl) propanoate
2) 2-(3 bromophenyl) - 2 - chloro propanoic acid
3) 2 - chloro - 2 - (3 bromophenyl) propanoic acid
4) 1 - 3(bromophenyl) 2 chloro porpanoic acid
60. Negative photographic emission spectra is :
1) Bright line spectra 2) Emission spectra 3) Absorption spectra 4) All of these
N O O
C O
61.
OH
Cl
O
The positions of side chain functional groups like chloro, cyano, oxo are x, y, z respectively, find the value of
x (y + z)
1) 29 2) 190 3) 900 4) 820
62. Consider the reaction 2X  3Y  Z(g) where gases X and Y are insoluble and inert to water and Z forms
(g) (g)
a basic solution. In experiment, 3 mol each of X and Y are allowed to react in 15L flask at 500K. When the
reaction is complete, 5L of water is added to the flask and temperature reduced to 300K. The pressure in
the flask is (neglected aqueous tension)
1) 4.46 atm 2) 3.36 atm 3) 2.46 atm 4) 5.8 atm
63. There are 100 persons sitting at equal distances in a row XY. N2O (laughing gas) is released from the side
X and tear gas (Molecular mass = 176) from side Y at the same moment and at the same temperature. The
person who will have a tendency to laugh and weep simultaneously is :
1) 34th from side X 2) 67th from side X 3) 76th from side X 4) 67th from side Y
64.
On the basis of the given part of the Periodic Table the incorrect statement is
1) A is an alkaline earth metal.
2) The atomic number of B is 72 and belongs to Group 4
3) D from the atomic number of D, 2 proton decreases it become Noble gas
4) E is a transuranic element with symbol Ku
65. Five successive ionisation enthalpies of a metal are 577.6, 1816.7, 2744.8, 11578.0 and 14831.0 KJ
mol–1 respectively. The stable oxidation state of the metal would be
1) +2 2) +4 3) +5 4) +3
66. X, Y and Z are three elements with iH1 , iH 2 and egH1 as
iH1 iH2 egH1

X 1681 3374 -329
Y 1251 2297 -349
Z 1008 1846 -295
Which of the following assumptions about X, Y and Z are true?

i) X, Y and Z are non metals
ii) They are hightly electronegative
iii) Atomic size varies as Z > Y > X
iv) Y may be more reactive than X and Z
v) X may be more reactive than Y and Z
1) all except (v) are true 2) All except (iii) and (iv) are true
3) All except (i), (iii) and (v) are true 4) All except (iv) are true
67. Consider the following conversions
i. O(g)  e  
 Og H1

 F(g)
ii. F( g )  e  H 2
iii. Cl (g )  e   
 Cl  ( g ) H 3
 Na  (g)  e
iv. Na (g)  H 4
The incorrect statement is
1) H1 and H 2 is less –ve than H 3
2) H 2 and H 3 are –ve while H1 is +ve
3) H 2 is more –ve than H1
4) H1 , H 2 and H 3 are –ve while H 4 is +ve

68. The process requiring the absorption of energy is
1) F  F  2) Cl  Cl  3) O  O2 4) H  H
69. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is
1) Al(OH)3, LiOH 2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2
70. Which of the following is not vander waal’s force
1) London force 2) Dipole-Dipole force
3) Dipole-induced dipole force 4) Ion-dipole force
71. A gas cylinder contains cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The pressure gauge of the
cylinder indicates 12 atm at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in the building, the temperature starts rising. At what
temperature the cylinder will explode?
1) Just aove 55.5°C 2) Just above 71.3°C
3) Just above 84.3°C 4) Just above 99.5°C
72. A 2.24 cylinder of oxygen at NTP is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged, the
pressure droped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be
1) 0.025 2) 0.05 3) 0.075 4) 0.09
73. One mole of SO2 gas occupies a volume of 350 ml at 27°C and 50 atm pressure:Then,
1) Z = 1 and SO2 gas is less compressible
2) Z = 1 and SO2 gas is more compressible
3) Z = 1.711 and SO2 gas is more compressible
4) Z = 0.711 and SO2 gas is more compressible
74. Liquifaction of a real gas becomes possible when
1) T = TC and P < PC 2) T < TC and P > PC
3) T > TC and P < PC 4) T > TC and P > PC
75. Which of the following has lowest number of atoms?
1) 52 moles of Ar 2) 52 u of He 3) 52 g He 4) 216 amu Ag
76. Which of the following samples contain the smallest number of atoms?
1) 1g CO2 2) 1g C8H18 3) 1g C2H6 4) 1 g LiF
77. The most abundant elements in the body of a healthy human adult are: Oxygen (61.4%), Carbon (22.9%),
Hydrogen (10%) and nitrogen (2.6%). The weight which a 75 kg person would gain if all 1H atoms are
replaced by 2H atoms is
1) 7.5 kg 2) 10 kg 3) 15 kg 4) 37.5 kg
78. In Haber process, 30 litres of H2 and 30 litres of N2 were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the
expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid condition in
the end
1) 20 L NH3, 20 L N2, 20 L H2 2) 10 L NH3, 25 L N2, 15 L H2
3) 20 L NH3, 10 L N2, 30 L H2 4) 20 L NH3, 25 L N2, 15 L H2
79. 5.85g NaCl is dissolved in 1L water. The number of ions of Na+ and Cl– in 1 mL of this solution will be
1) 6.02 10 20 2) 6.02  1019 3) 6.02 10 23 4) 1.2 10 20
80. Structure of the compounds whose IUPAC name is 3 - ethyl - 2 - hydroxy - 4 methylhex - 3 - en - 5 -
ynoic acid as
OH
OH
COOH COOH
1) 2)
OH
COOH COOH
3) 4)
OH
81. IUPAC name of CH2 CH CH2 Cl is
1) 1,2 - Epoxy – 3 – chloropropane

2) 1– (Chloromethyl) oxirane
3) 2 – (Chloromethyl) oxirane
4) Both 1 and 3
82. Select the structure with correct numbering in the chain:
5 4 3 2 1
1) CH2 = CH CH2 C CH
1 2 3 4 5 6
2) CH3 CH CH CH2 C CH
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
3) CH2 CH CH CH CH2 CH CH2
1 2 4 5 6
3 7
4) CH2 CH CH CH CH2 C CH
O O O
83. According to IUPAC nomenclature H C C C OH can be named as
1) 1,2,3 - Trioxopropanol 2) 2,3- Dioxopropanoic acid

3) 2 - Formyl - 2 - Oxoethanoic acid 4) Both 2 and 3
84. Which of the following is correctly named?
OH
1) phene-1, 2- diol
OH
CN
2) 4-Cyanobenzene carbonyl chloride
COCl
CONH2 Benzenamide
3)
COOH
4) Benzene -1, 4 - dicarboxylic acid
COOH
85. Which of the following is not the correct increasing order of the property indicated?
1) BaO < SrO < CaO < MgO < BeO - Lattice energy
2) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI - melting point
3) AlF3 < AlCl3 < AlBr3 < AlI3 - Covalent character
4) NaF < MgO < AIN < SiC - Lattice energy
86. Assuming bond direction to be the z axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two atoms A and
B will result in bonding?
I) S orbital of A and Px orbital of B
II) S orbital of A and Pz orbital of B
III) Py orbital of A and Pz orbital of B
IV) S orbitals of both A and B
1) I and IV 2) I and II 3) III and IV 4) II and IV
87. Choose the correct code of characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of the same atom
sp < sp2 < sp3
i. Electronegativity ii. Bond angles between same hybrid orbitals
iii. Size iv. Energy level
1) i, iii and iv 2) iii and iv 3) ii and iv 4) i, ii and iii
88. Consider the following table regarding the shapes of molecles
Total number of electron pairs Shape

Total number of lone pairs
(ie. lps + no of  bps)
5 p linear
q 1 see saw
4 r bent shape
s 2 square planar
5 t T shape
Calculate p + q + r – s – t
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 5
89. Stability of the species Li2, Li 2 and Li 2 is in the order
1) Li 2  Li 2  Li 2 2) Li 2  Li 2  Li 2
3) Li 2  Li 2  Li 2 4) Li 2  Li 2  Li 2
90. B2 molecule will be diamagnetic when
1) s-p mixing is not operative
2) s-p mixing is operative but Hund’s rule is violated
3) s-p mixing is operative and Hund’s rule is not violated
4) Both 1 and 2
BIOLOGY
91. Which of the following organisms are photoorganotrophs :
1) Green sulphur bacteria 2) Purple sulphur bacteria
3) Purple non-sulphur bacteria 3) All the above
92. Which of the following is true regarding Actinomycetes :
A) Cell wall made up of peptidoglycan
B) Non-motile
C) Gram +ve type
D) Anaerobes
1) A only 2) All except D 3) All except C 4) A, B, C, D
93. Point out the false statement regarding cyanobacteria :
A) Hormogonia are the vegetative reproductive part
B) Heterocyst are large sized, nitrogen fixing cells found only in filamentous form of cyanobacteria
C) Absence of motile stages in their life cycle
D) Oscillatoria is a symbiotically nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
1) B only 2) A & B only 3) C only 4) D only
94. Diatoms float in water surface with the help of :
1) Starch 2) Fat 3) Protein 4) Glucose
95. Observe the following characters :
A) Body is an aggregate mass of multinucleate protoplasm without cell wall
B) Diploid cells
C) Body is called plasmodium
The above mentioned characters shows which of the following organisms :
1) Cellular slime mould 2) Acellular slime mould 3) Mycoplasma 4) Protozoans
96. Which of the following is a heterecious fungus :
1) Rhizopus 2) Agaricus 3) Colletotrichum 4) Puccinia
97. Which of the following is a single stranded RNA virus :
A) Mumps virus B) Pox virus C) Herpes virus D) Influenza virus
1) B only 2) Both A & D 3) Both B & D 4) C only
98. Which of the following are the phycobiont in lichen :
1) Ascomycetes or blue-green algae
2) Brown algae or Ascomycetes
3) Green algae or Blue-green algae
4) Ascomycetes or green algae
99. Consider the following statements :
A) Gametophyte of all plant groups with in plant kingdom are non-vascular
B) In Gymnosperms and Angiosperms, both male and female gametophytes are highly reduced structures
and all completely dependent on sporophyte.
C) Unitegmic ovules are present in Gymnosperms
D) Antheridiophore is present in pteridophytes
Of the above statements :
1) Only A is false 2) All except B are true 3) Only D is false 4) Only B & C are true
100. Which of the following is a lianas :
1) Cycas 2) Ginkgo 3) Pinus 4) Gnetum
101. Which of the following organism exhibit coenobium
1) 2) 3) 4)
102. Observe the following statements;

A) Both Kelps and Fucus exhibit the life cycle similar to true seed bearing plants
B) In algae, more number of flagella is an advanced character than lesser number of flagella
C) In Lycopsida, all the members are homosporous
D) In Cycas, female cone is larger than male cone
Of the above statements ;
1) Only A is false 2) Only B is true 3) Only D is true 4) A, B, C, D are false
103. Closed fruiting body is present in :
1) Peziza 2) Puffballs 3) Penicillium 4) Mucor
104. Identify the fungi without mycelium :
1) Albugo 2) Colletotrichum 3) Neurospora 4) Yeast
105. How many of the following statements are true :
A) Sporocarp present in pteropsida
B) Reserve food material of Dinoflagellates are starch
C) Most of the gymnosperms are arborescent
D) Zygotic meiosis occur which leads to haplontic life cycle
106. Which of the following are phycocolloid :
A) Algin B) Carrageen C) Agar-agar
1) A only 2) B only 3) C only 4) A, B, C
107. Which of the following is true regarding Bryophytes :
A) Amphibians in the plant kingdom
B) Seiophyte
C) Gregarious in nature
D) Originated from green algae
1) A and D only 2) All except B 3) All except C 4) A, B, C, D
108. How many of the following statements are false :
A) In both liverworts and Mosses sporophyte is partially depended on gametophyte
B) Primary protonema is haploid and are formed directly from haploid spores due to mitosis
C) Antheridial and archegonial cluster is present in mosses
D) In most of the algae, sex organs are unicellular and haploid
109. In pinus sunken stomata and thick cuticle helps to :
1) Increase surface area 2) Decrease surface area
3) Reduce transpiration 4) Increase transpiration
110. Which of the following is false regarding prothallus :
A) Multicellular and thalloid B) Diploid structure
C) Independent and photosynthetic D) Developed from spores due to meiosis
E) Requires cool and shady places to grow
1) A, B, E 2) B, D, E 3) B & D 4) A, B, D
111. Observe the given and identify the organism :
A) Coprophilous fungus B) Septate fungus C) Aerobic fungus

1) A, B, C 2) A & B only 3) B only 4) B & C only
112. Naja naja is the scientific name of Indian cobra is a :
1) Autonym 2) Tautonym 3) Polytypic 4) Synonym
113. Which of the following is false regarding three-domain system :
A) Three domains are Archea, Eukarya, Animalia
B) Three domains are Archea, Bacteria, Eukarya
C) Eukarya includes protista, Mycota, Plantae and Animalia
D) Eukarya includes protista, Plantae and Animalia only
E) Classification mainly based on gene sequence of rRNA
F) Classification mainly based on gene sequence of mRNA
1) A, C, E 2) B, C, E 3) B, D, F 4) A, D, F
114. Which of the following is true regarding Numerical taxonomy :
A) Classification based on all observable characters with the help of a computer
B) Using signs and symbols for classification
C) Provide equal weightage to all characters
D) A statistical method
E) Phenetics
1) All except D 2) A, B, C only 3) A, C, E only 4) A, B, C, D, E
115. Consider the following statements;
A) With regarding to plasmamembrane, glycoprotein act as recognition site and site for attachment and
provide antigen specificity to membrane
B) Lysosomes possess hydrolases and are active at acidic pH
C) Mitochondria replicates by fission method
D) Microtubules are found in spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia of eukaryotes
1) All statements are true 2) All statements are false
3) B is false 4) C is false
116. Tonoplast is :
1) Selectively permeable 2) Semipermeable
3) Impermeable to solvent 4) Impermeable to all solutes
117. Elaioplast contains :
1) Starch 2) Proteins 3) Fat 4) Pigments
118. Identify the percentage of lipids and proteins in the plasmamembrane of human RBC :
1) 40% proteins and 52% lipids 2) 52% proteins and 40% lipids
3) 42% proteins and 50% lipids 4) 50% proteins and 42% lipids
119. Identify the type of ribosomes present on Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum :
1) 50 s type 2) 30 s type 3) 70 s type 4) 80 s type
120. Chromatin contains :
1) DNA and Histones only 2) DNA, Histones, Non-histones only
3) DNA, Histones, Non-histones and RNA 4) DNA and Non-histones only
121. Identify the function of contractile vacuole :
1) Excretion only 2) Osmoregulation only
3) Both excretion and osmoregulation 4) Digestion of food particles
122. Identify the amphipathic molecule in plasmamembrane :
1) Proteins 2) Cholesterol 3) Phospholipids 4) All
123. Nuclear lamina is :
1) Microfilaments 2) Microtubules 3) Intermediate filaments 4) All
124. Chromatophores are developed from :
1) Glycocalyx 2) Cell wall 3) Plasma membrane 4) DNA
125. In a plant cell, both hemicellulose and pectin are synthesized in :
1) Plasma membrane 2) Dictyosomes
3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum 4) Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
126. Identify the arrangement of microtubules in the axoneme region of cilia in eukaryotes :
1) 9 + 2 2) Indefinite arrangement
3) 9 + 0 4) Both 2 & 3
127. Which of the following is true regarding euchromatin :
A) Genetically more active
B) Condensed part of chromatin
C) Lie at central part of nucleus
D) Light stained
1) A only 2) All except C 3) B only 4) All except B
128. Zone of exclusion is related to :
1) Cytoplasm surrounding golgibodies
2) Mitochondria without outer membrane
3) Broken membrane of golgibodies and Endoplasmic reticulum
4) Tertiary Lysosomes
129. How many of the following statements are false :
A) Determinate growth occur in all living organisms
B)   taxonomy is based on morphological characters
C) Biological concept of species is based on reproductive isolation
D) Cryptogams do not reproduce sexually
130. Consider the following statements :
A) In hierarchial system, families are characterised on the basis of only vegetative characters not by
reproductive characters
B) Modern taxonomic studies are based on external and internal structures along with the structure of cell,
development process and ecological information.
C) Same type of key can be used for every taxonomic category such as family, genus and species.
D) In higher category, there are less characteristics that the members within taxa share :
1) Only C is false 2) Both B& D are true 3) All except D are false 4) Only A is false
131. Which of the following statement is true :
A) Both museum and herbarium are ex-situ conservation method
B) Linnaeus system of classification is artificial
C) The demerit of Bentham and Hooker classification is the phylogeny of plants is not considered, because
in it, gymnosperms are placed in between dicots and monocots
D) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera.
1) All except A 2) B only 3) A, B, C 4) A & D
132. Cellular organization is a :
1) Non-defining property 2) Defining character
3) Not present in all organisms 4) Restricted to some organisms
133. Puff balls are :
1) Parasite 2) Saprophyte 3) Coprophilous 4) Symbiotic
134. Observe and identify the given figure :
1) Basidium of Agaricus 2) Basidiospore of Agaricus

3) Basidia of Agaricus 4) Basidiocarp of Agaricus
135. Compartmentiaization present in the cytoplasm of :
1) All living organisms 2) Plant cells only 3) Prokaryotes only 4) Eukaryotes only
136. Match the terms/ features given in column I with their examples given in column II and select the correct
match from the option given below
Column I Column II
(Term/features) (Examples)
A) Gregarious pest a) Hirudinaria
B) Vector b) Planaria
C) Oviparous with indirect development c) Pinctada
D) Metameres d) Aedes
E) High regeneration capacity e) Locust
A B C D E
1) a b c d e
2) e d c a b
3) c a e b d
4) c e b d a
137. Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statement
a) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animals
b) The body consists of head thorax, abdomen and have jointed appendages
c) circulatory system is of open type
d) Excretion takes place through malpighian tubules
1) Annelida 2) Mollusca 3) Arthropoda 4) Cnidaria
138. Match the following and choose the right option
a) Arthropods 1. Bilateral symmetry + Acoelom
b) Annelids 2. Radial symmetry + Enterocoelom
c) Platyhelminthes 3. Bilateral symmetry + Eucoelom
d) Echinoderms 4. Bilateral symmetry + Haemocoel
e) Coelenterates 5. Bilateral symmetry + pseudocoelom
f) Aschelminthes 6. radial symmetry + Acoelom
abcdef abcdef abcdef abcdef
1) 2) 3) 4)
123456 321645 431265 432165
139. Identify the figures P,Q,R,S and select the correct option
P Q R S
1) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia
2) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
3) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia
4) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast
140. Find out the true description regarding ctenophora
1) Bilaterally symmetrical and diploblastic organism
2) Sexes are separate
3) Flame cells help in osmoregulation
4) External fertilization and indirect development
141. Choose the correct character applicable to ctenophora?
1) Organ system level of organisation 2) Choanocytes are present
3) Triploblastic and bilateral symmetry 4) Bioluminescence is well marked
142. The germinal layers of Limulus consists of
1) Ectoderm, Mesoderm and Endoderm 2) Ectoderm & Mesoderm
3) Endoderm & Mesoderm 4) Endoderm & Ectoderm
143. Given below are the diagrammatic sectional view of embryonic germ layers. Identify the animal groups
which belong to a and b respectively
1) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes

2) Arthropoda and porifera
3) Flatworms and Annelids
4) Coelenterates and Molluscs
1) 2) 3) 4)
24513 25341 34512 25413
145. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are correctly matched
1. Colloblast
1) Adamsia Coelenterate
2. Medusa
1. Comb plates
2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophore
2. Bilateral symmetry
1. Closed circulation
3) Locusta Mollusca
2. Radula
1. Pseudocoelomate
4) Hook worm Aschelminthes
2. Dioecious
146. Find out the incorrect statement about the phylum arthopoda
i. They have organ system level of organisation
ii. The exoskeleton is made up of calcium carbonate
iii. Development may be direct or indirect
iv. Fertilization is usually external
v. They are mostly oviparous
1) ii and iii are incorrect 2) v only is incorrect
3) iii and v are incorrect 4) ii and iv are incorrect
147. Identify the given diagram a, b and c respectively as :
1) Spongilla, Euspongia, Sycon 2) Freshwater sponge, Bath sponge, Scypha

3) Euspongia, Spongilla, Sycon 4) Sycon, Bath sponge, Freshwater sponge
148. The given diagram shows various lung volumes and capacities. What is depicted by A, B & C in the
graph
1) A-FRC, B-IC, C-VC 2) A-IRV, B-RV, C-TLC

3) A-EC, B-FRC, C-VC 4) A-IC, B-FRC, C-TLC
149. Which of the following group of animals is used gills for respiration?
1) Fishes, Frog, tadpole larva 2) Fish, Mollusca, aquatic arthropod
3) Reptiles, birds, mammals 4) Insects, earthworm, Mollusca
150. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased
1) Emphysema 2) Asphyxia 3) Dyspnoea 4) Apnoea
151. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given
Column I Column II
(Organisms) (Respiratory Organs)
a. Sponges 1. Gills
b. Rabbit 2. Lungs
c. Earthworms 3. Entire body surface
d. Insects 4. Moist cuticle
e. Aquatic arthropods 5. Tracheal tubes
1) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5, e-2 2) a-1, b-3, c-1, d-4, e-2
3) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-5, e-1 4) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1, e-5
152. Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph?
1) The curve is called oxygen dissociation curve

2) The part ‘A’ represents percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
3) The part ‘B’ represents partial pressure of carbon dioxide
4) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2,H+ concentration, etc.
153. Which is the correct sequence of steps in respiration?
a) Transport of gases by the blood
b) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
c) Cellular respiration
d) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues
e) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane
1) b  c  a  d  c 2) b  a  e  c  d
3) b  d  a  e  c 4) b  e  a  d  c
154. The contraction of ..... muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the
thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
1) External intercostal muscles 2) Internal intercostal muscles
3) Diaphragm 4) Both 1 and 2
155. Enzyme essential for transport of CO2 as bicarbonate in blood is
1) Carboxypeptidase 2) Succinic dehydrogenase
3) Carbonic anhydrase 4) Carbonic acid
156. Mammalian lungs have numerous alveoli for
1) Increasing volume of inspired air
2) Keeping the lungs in proper shape
3) Higher number of muscles to provide greater elasticity
4) Increasing surface area for gaseous diffusion
157. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given
Column I Column I
a. IC 1. EC + IRV
b. EC 2. RV + VC
c. FRC 3. VC – ERV
d. VC 4. ERV + RV
e. TLC 5. TV + ERV
1) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-2 2) a-5, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4
3) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-5, e-2 4) a-3, b-5, c-2, d-4, e-1
158. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by
1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood 2) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood
3) Oxygen content in venous blood 4) Oxygen content in arterial blood
159. A diagrammatic representation showing chordate characteristic is given below. Label the parts p,q,r,s
1) p - Notochord, q- Nerve cord, r- Post anal tail, s- gill slits

2) p - Nerve cord, q - Notochord, r - Post anal tail, s- gill slits
3) p - Gill slits, q- Nerve cord, r- Notochord, s- Heart
4) p - Notochord, q- Nerve cord, r- Post anal tail, s- pharynx
160. In which of the following animal notochord extend from its head to tail?
1) Ascidia 2) Salpa 3) Branchiostoma 4) Doliolum
161. Select the correct characteristic features applicable to chordates.
i) Notochord ii) Ventral nerve cord
iii) Organ level of organisation iv) Dorsal heart
v) Unpaired pharyngeal gill slits vi) Coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical
1) i, ii, iii, iv and vi only 2) i and vi only
3) i, ii, iv, v and vi only 4) i, ii and iii only
162. Following are certain characteristic features regarding cyclostomes. Identify the correct characteristics
i) They have an elongated body having 4 pairs of gill slits
ii) They have a sucking and circular mouth with jaws
iii) Their body is covered by scales and has paired fins
iv) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
v) Circulation is of closed type
1) i, iii and v only 2) iv and v only
3) i, ii and v only 4) ii, iii and iv only
163. Select the correct answer
Cyclostomes live in .........(i)........ but migrate for ..........(ii)..... to .......(.iii)........
1) i - Freshwater ii - Spawning iii - Marine water
2) i - Marine water ii - Nutrition iii - Freshwater
3) i - Marine water ii - Spawning iii - Freshwater
4) i - Freshwater ii - Excretion iii - Marinewater
164. The figures A and B show two animals . Select the correct option with respect to the characteristics of
groups these animals belong
(A) (B)
1) A - Mouth terminal, B - Mouth ventral
2) A - Marine animal with bony endoskeleton, B - Freshwater animal with bony endoskeleton
3) A - Internal fertilization, B - External fertilization
4) A - Presence of operculum, B - Absence of operculum
165. Identify the correct characteristic feature of Osteichthyes.
1) They have four pairs of gills covered by an operculum on one side
2) Air bladder is present which helps in osmoregulation
3) Their body is streamlined
4) Their skin is covered with cycloid and placoid scales
166. Select the characteristic feature not applicable to Amphibians.
a) Heart is three chambered with one auricle and two ventricle.
b) Amphibian skin is moist with scales.
c) Body is divisible into head and trunk with tail seen in some species.
d) Eyes have no eyelids.
1) a and d only 2) b, c and d only
3) a ,b and d only 4) a,b and c only
167. Select the wrong statement about Aves?
i) The digestive tract of birds have crop only as an additional chamber.
ii) Endoskeleton is cartilaginous and long bones are solid.
iii) Hind limbs have no scales and are modified for swimming also.
iv) Fertilization is internal.
1) i and ii only 2) i, ii and iii only
3) i, ii and iv only 4) iii and iv only
168. Reptiles are the first true land vertebrates. Reason behind the adaptation of reptiles on land life are:
1) Their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales or skin
2) Cleidoic egg to check dessication
3) Internal fertilisation
4) All the above
169. Which of the following are correctly paired :
I. Columb a - Pigeon
II. Corvus - Parrot
III. Aptenodytes - Penguin
IV. Neophron - Ostrich
V. Pavo - Peacock
1) I, II and V 2) I, III and IV 3) I, II, III, IV and V 4) I, III and V

170. Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of :
1) air sacs of lungs 2) kidney 3) fallopian tubes 4) salivary glands
171. Identify the cell, that produce and secrete fibres
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
172. Identify the tissue given below.
1) Dense irregular 2) Adipose tissue 3) Areolar tissue 4) dense regular tissue

173. Tendons and ligaments are tissues which comes under the category
1) muscular tissue 2) vascular tissue
3) epithelial tissue 4) connective tissue
174. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A) Areolar tissue 1. Fat cells
B) Adipose tissue 2. Osteocytes
C) Ligament 3. Loose connective tissue
D) Bone 4. Dense regular connective tissue
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

1) 2) 3) 4)
3142 1234 4321 2143
175. Find out the wrong statement

1) Ciliated epithelium move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium
2) The nuclei of columnar epithelium is located at the base
3) Squamous epithelium has a major role in forming a diffusion boundary
4) All the cells in epithelium are held together with a very large intercellular matrix
176. Match the terms listed under column I with the structures in which they occur, given under the column II
choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphebets of the two columns:
Column I Column II
a Harvesian canal p kidney
b Dendrites q cartilage
c Sarcolema r muscles
d Chondrocytes s Nerve cells
t Bone
1) a=p, b=r, c=s, d=t 2) a=q, b=r, c=s, d=t

3) a=s, b=t, c=q, d=t 4) a=t,b=s, c=r,d=q
177. The figure given below, represents a particular tissue, identify the tissue and its location
1) Multilayered compound epithelium - Dry surface of the skin

2) Loose connective tissue - beneath the skin
3) Unicellular glandular epithelium - goblet cells of the alimentary canal
4) Multicellular glandular epithelium - Salivary glands
178. A structure present at the junction of forgut and midgut in cockroach that secretes digestive juice
1) proventriculus 2) malpighian tubules 3) hepatic caeca 4) typhlosole
179. In cockroach ocellus helps in
1) temperature regulation present in mesothorax
2) olfaction and present in elytra
3) the perception of light and present in head
4) excretion and present in genital chamber
180. In Periplanata americana the ostium of heart chamber guides the flow of blood from :
1) heart to haemocoel 2) haemocoel to heart
3) one heart chamber to another 4) from anterior to posterior side
Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

NEET ONLINE MODEL EXAMINATION
08-11-2020
22G/NEET /MOD
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Batch: LT-22 ALL RES. & HYBRID
PHYSICS
1. 3
2. 4
3. 3
4. 4 at x=x1, body is in unstable equilibrium and at x =x2, it is in stable equilibrium
5. 1 T acts as centripetal force
6. 2 3.21×12=38.5212 is not a measured value. So significant figure of 3.21 is taken
7. 1 PE at the top = mgh = 1×10×1=10J
1 1
KE at bottom  mv  1 2  2J
2 2
2 2
Loss in energy = 8J, which is work done by friction
8. 3
9. 1 The relative velocity of rain drips with respect to car will be inclined to the direction opposite to
motion of car so drops will hit the front screen only
d d 1 
10. 1 (KE)   mv 2   mva  4v
dt dt  2 
11. 3
12. 2
13. 2 Let w2 and w3 are the work done by friction on 2kg and 3kg block. Here friction is static as both
moves together
 w2  w3  0
Using work-energy theorem, on 1kg only friction do work
1
w 2  mv 2  0  100J ;  w 3   w 2  100J
2
14. 4
15. 4
16. 4 Since their relative acceleration is zero, both will observe same acceleration of the block
17. 3 Using work-energy theorem
wboy+wgravity+wspring force=0
1 1
w boy  mgh  k(x 2  02 )  0 ; mgh  w boy  kx 2
2 2
18. 4 Since already T  mg sin  , no friction develops as no new external force develops
19. 3
20. 2 Change in ME = work done by forces other than conservative
 20  50  30
21. 2 Each part has spring constant 4K
Keff = 4K+4K+4K+4K=16K
1 1
22. 1 kx max 2  v2rel
2 2
3 6
  2kg
3 6
200x max 2  2  32 v rel  1  2  3m / s

x max  0.3m
23. 4 Work done = KE of man + KE of cart
1 m  dm 2
 v 2rel   m
2 3m 3
1 2
  mu 2 vrel=u
2 3
1
 mu 2
3
24. 1 m1=m2=m, u1=u, u2=0
v1 
 m1  em2  u1   m 2  em2  u 2  1  e  u
m1  m 2 m1  m 2 2
v2 
 m 2  em1  u 2   m1  em1  u1  1  e  u
m1  m 2 m1  m 2 2
25. 2
26. 1
27. 2 hn  e 2n h (n  3)
6
1 640
h     640   10m
2 64
28. 2 When 1 hit 2, 1 come to rest and 2 set v.

Now 2 collide 3 and velocities are interchanged

29. 3 u  u cos î  u sin ˆj

v  u cos î  (u sin   st)ˆj
 
uv0
u 2 cos 2   u 2 sin 2   u sin st  0
u
t
s sin 
30. 4 After collision between 1 and 2, 1 come to rest 2 gets speed u. After collision between 2 and 3, 2
rebounds with speed u. Then 2 again collide with 1 and inter change their velocities
31. 3 Since total momentum has to be conserved, c must move equal and opposite to B
32. 1 Since collision is elastic, B and A interchange their velocities. Since KE is conserved, B goes to same
height h
33. 4 â  bˆ  12  12  2  1  1cos 
sin 
2
2
34. 3 v  u cos   20 cos 45
35. 4
36. 3 Collision to be perfectly inelastic, only relative velocities along line of impact need to be zero only
after collision
2
1 1 T h
37. 1 h  gT 2 h  g   
2 2 3 9
38. 3 KE will be maximum at x = 1m
1
at x=0, initial KE   8 1  4J . Let K2 is KE at x = 1m
2
K 2  K1  w area under graph from x=0 to x=1m
1
K 2  4  1 4  2 K2= 6J
2
39. 1
40. 3 v  rg tan 
41. 1
42. 4
43. 4 In first case friction is fN. In second case friction becomes 2N and to balance F2 only
44. 2 m1  m A , m 2  m B , u1  u, u 2  0
v1 
 m1  m 2  u1  2m 2 u 2
; v2 
 m 2  m1  u 2  2m1u1
m1  m 2 m1  m 2 m1  m 2 m1  m 2
Put v1= –v2

45. 4
CHEMISTRY
46. 3 4th period contains
4s 3d 4p
no. of orbital 1 5 3
no. of electrons 1×3 5×3 3×3 = 27
47. 2 n = 4 m = -2
l = 2 4d m = (-2) - 10 + 1 + 2
l = 3 4f m = -3 (-2) - 10 + 1 + 2 + 3
On electron has m5 = +1/2 or -1/2
48. 1 1) H2O is stable compound than OH
2) Resonance energy increases stability increases
3) Gain of electron takesplace in Bonding Mo’s than antibonding Mo’s
4) KO2, O2–1 number of unpaired electron is 1 but in O2 is 2. Number of unpaired electron
increases magnetic property increases
49. 3 Fact
50. 2 40%w/w sucrose solution contain 40g sucrose in 100g solution.
On heating,
40g sucrose  40g H 2O  80g solution
100  80
% H2O looses =  100  20%
100
+1
51. 3 He He + 1e , , H1 = 24.6 eV
+1 +2 +1
He He + 1e , He act as H like species
He He+2 + 2e z2
 I.E = 13.6
n2
iH1 + IE = Etotal
52. 3 number of unpaired electrons = 2

V = 23 [Ar] 4s(2)3d3  4s0 3d2 + 3e–
53. 2 In peak of graph we can consider the orbit radius. it is 3s orbital graph.
 n2   n2 
 0.529 
  0.529 
 Z  Z
32 22
0.529  0.529
1 1
o
0.529 (9  4)  2.6 A
54. 3
55. 1
56. 4 No. moles of A = 2/MA ; No. of moles of B = 3/MB
2
Pressure due to M  1atm
A
Pressure due to 3/MB = 1.5 - 1 = 0.5 atm
2
MA 1
P  molar concentration 3 
0.5
MB
MA
 1/ 3
MB
200  x
57. 2 No. of mole sof H2O2 =  0.2x
1000
2 mole H2O2  1 mole O2 gas
0.2x mole H2O2  y mole O2 gas
0.2x
y
2
1 mole gas
10
; 0.2x 
0.2x 25
 25  5
2
10
x 2
0.2  25
w1 e1 w1e 2
58. 2 Metal displacement rn ; w  e , e1  w
2 2 2
2n
In MmOn valancy of M =
m
 Atomic wt. of M = Equivalent wt. of M × Valency
2n w1e1
= m w
2
Cl O
59. 2
H3C C C OH
3 2 1
1
2
3
Br
2-(3-bromophenyl)-2-chloro propanoic acid
60. 3
61. 2
62. 3 2X  3Y  Z
2 3 1
3 3
Moles of excess reactant X left = 3 - 2 = 1

Volume of the flask available for the gas X = 15 - 5 = 10L
nRT 1 0.0821 300
p   2.46atm
V 10
63. Amongest 100 persons, number of equidistant spaces = 99
Let nth be the person from side X, then
rNO2 M tear 176
  2
rtear M N 2O 44
n 1 n 1
or   2, n  67
99  (n  1) 100  n
64. 4 fact
65. 4
66. 4 X Y
(F) (Cl) Based on egH
67. 2
68. 3 O  O 2 successive electron gain enthalpy is alway +ve
69. 4
70. 4
71. 4 Constant V
P1 P2 12atm P2  14.9
 
T1 T2 ; 300 T2
T2 = 372.5 - 273 = 99.5o
2.24
72. 1  0.1mole O 2 initially
22.42
P1 P2 760mmHg 570mm
 ; 
n1 n 2 0.1 x
x = 0.075
No. of moles of gas escaped = 0.1 - 0.075 = 0.025
PV 50  0.35
73. 4  Z;  0.711(z)
RT 300  0.0821
Z < 1 more compressible
74. 2 fact
216amu
75. 4 2
108amu
1g
76. 1  3 NA
44
10
77. 1 75   7.5kg  1 H1 
100
Mass double  15kg  1 H 2 
weight gain = 15kg - 7.5kg = 7.5kg

LR
78. 2 N2 + 3H 2 2NH3
1L 3L 2L
30L 30L 20L (100%)
5L consumed 15L consumed 10L 50%

25L remaining 15L remaining
5.85 6 1023  2
79. 4   1.2  1020
58.5 1000
80. 1
81. 3
82. 4
83. 2
84. 4
q1q 2
85. 2 1) L.E 
r
2) Li I has covalent character high.
It is low M.P
3) Fajans rule
q1q 2
4) L.E 
r
86. 4
87. 2
88. 1 p=3 p+q+r-s-t
q=5 3+5+2-6-2
r=2 =2
s=6
t=2
89. 1 B.O = 1/2 (Nb - Na)
*
Li 2  5e  1s 2 1s 2 2s1 B.O  1 / 2(3  2)  1/ 2
Li 2  6e 1s 2 1s 2 2s 2

*
B.O  1/ 2(4  2)  1
* *
Li 2 1  7e 1s 2  1s 2 2s 2  2s1 B.O  1/ 2(4  3)  1/ 2
B.O  stability
If B. O are equal, electron filling in antibonding molecular orbitals, the molecule is less stable.
90. 4
8e- 2px = 2py, 2pz Normal sp mixing operative
Paramagnetic
8e- 2p2z 2px = 2py sp mixing operative

Diamagnetic
2
8e- 2px = 2py, 2pz sp mixing operative but Hunds rule violated
Diamagnetic
BIOLOGY
91. 3 106. 4 121. 3 136. 2 151. 3 166. 3
92. 4 107. 4 122. 3 137. 3 152. 3 167. 2
93. 4 108. 1 123. 3 138. 3 153. 4 168. 4
94. 2 109. 3 124. 3 139. 2 154. 1 169. 4
95. 2 110. 3 125. 2 140. 4 155. 3 170. 1
96. 4 111. 4 126. 1 141. 4 156. 4 171. 2
97. 2 112. 2 127. 4 142. 1 157. 1 172. 4
98. 3 113. 4 128. 1 143. 4 158. 2 173. 4
99. 3 114. 4 129. 2 144. 4 159. 2 174. 1
100. 4 115. 1 130. 2 145. 4 160. 3 175. 4
101. 1 116. 1 131. 1 146. 4 161. 2 176. 4
102. 4 117. 3 132. 2 147. 4 162. 2 177. 4
103. 3 118. 2 133. 2 148. 4 163. 3 178. 3
104. 4 119. 4 134. 4 149. 2 164. 3 179. 3
105. 4 120. 3 135. 4 150. 1 165. 3 180. 2

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ONLINE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - I

1) The particle is at rest

1) Uniform motion 2) Uniform acceleration

24. SI unit of velocity is

distance change in velocity velocity

1) 1.66  1022 g 2) 1.66  1024 g 3) 1 g 4) 112 g

1) 22.4L 2) 5.6L 3) 11.2L 4) 224 mL

1) 6.022  1024 2) 10 3) 6.022x1020 4) 6.022  1023

84. Number of ‘P’ atoms in 0.1mol P4 molecules

PQRST PQRST PQRST PQRST

1) Coelomate, psuedocoelomate, Acoelomate

156. Malpighian tubules are

abcde abcde abcde abcde

168. Blind sac body plan is found in

1.Euspongia, Sycon and Spongilla 2. Sycon, Euspongia and Spongilla

1.Obelia 2. Aurelia 3.Hydra 4.Adamsia

B) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes

C) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata

D) Planaria iv) Coelenterata

1) A  iv,B  i,C  iii,D  ii 2) A  iii,B  iv,C  i,D  ii

3) A  i,B  iii,C  iv,D  ii 4) A  iii,B  iv,C  ii,D  i

Displacement = AC = (AB) 2  (BC) 2  (10m) 2  (20m) 2  100  400  22.5m

1) Uniform motion 2) Uniform acceleration

1) 605 m/s 2) 110 m/s

1) 2iˆ  ˆj 2) 2iˆ  ˆj 3) 2iˆ  ˆj 4) 4iˆ  2ˆj

57. Rutherford’s  -particle scattering experiment proved that atom has

1) 1.66  1022 g 2) 1.66  1024 g 3) 1 g 4) 112 g

Column -I Column -II

1) a  4; b  3;c  2;d  1 2) a  4; b  3;c  1;d  2

12345 12345 12345 12345

1) de Condole 2) John Ray 3) Ernst Mayer 4) Linnaeus

PQRST PQRST PQRST PQRST

1) Coelomate, psuedocoelomate, Acoelomate

1) A - Devil fish ; B - Brittle star ; C - Star fish

1) a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Cnidocysts 2) a) Medusa b) polyp c) statocysts

1234 1234 1234 1234

B) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes

C) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata

D) Planaria iv) Coelenterata

1) A  iv,B  i,C  iii,D  ii 2) A  iii,B  iv,C  i,D  ii

Displacement = AC = (AB) 2  (BC) 2  (10m) 2  (20m) 2  100  400  22.5m

total distance 1.2  1000 12

29. 3 Equal distances with different speeds

relative displacement 120

x + 5.85 = 14.35 + 8.5 g

72. 2 1 amu = 1.66  1024 g

1) 14 ms-2 2) 13 ms-2 3) 12 ms-2 4) 7.2 ms-2

1) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 2) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 3) ˆi  ˆj  kˆ 4) 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ

1) Straight path 2) Circular path

3) Parabolic path 4) Hyperbolic path

1) 10,10,20 2) 10,10,10 3) 10,20,23 4) 10,20,40

1)  2 ms–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle

2)  2 ms–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre

1) 10o upstream 2) 20o upstream 3) 30o upstream 4) 60o upstream

1) 1.2 m 2) 1.35 m 3) 1.53 m 4) 1.46 m

1) 2 ms-1 2) 6 ms-1 3) 4 ms-1 4) 8 ms-1

1) 300 2) 450 3) 550 4) 650

Og   e   O2  g  ; H 0  844 kJ mol1

M S  M  g  ..................... 1