Funda 1 30 1

Session #01
1. What can a clean patient environment contribute?

A. Reduction in environmental contamination including removal of pathogens.
B. Prevention of healthcare-associated infection.
C. A & B
D. None of the above
Rationale: A clean patient environment contributes to prevention of healthcare-associated infection. Cleaning in
healthcare facilities aims to remove visible dirt and dust, reducing levels of harmful micro-organisms in the patients’
surroundings.
2. A nurse is knowledgeable that a patient under her care in the isolation room will be discharged during her
shift. What type of cleaning will be performed?
A. Regular cleaning
B. Intensive cleaning
C. Routine cleaning
D. Terminal cleaning
Rationale: Terminal cleaning is performed when a patient with a transmissible illness is discharged (usually for isolation
rooms).
3. This type of cleaning includes mopping of floors and damp dusting of surfaces with detergent.
A. Regular cleaning
B. Intensive cleaning
C. Routine cleaning
D. Terminal cleaning
Rationale: Routine cleaning is the standard, everyday procedure for cleaning of clinical areas, including mopping of
floors, damp dusting of surfaces with detergent, etc.
4. This is a method of dusting is employed in the care of hospital furnishings which are not upholstered, and for
the removal of dust from all surfaces above the floor.
A. Dump dusting
B. Damp dusting
C. Low dusting
D. High dusting
Rationale: Damp dusting is a method of dusting is employed in the care of hospital furnishings which are not upholstered,
and for the removal of dust from all surfaces above the floor.
5. This refers to dusting those areas over windows, pipes, wall and ceiling.
A. Dump dusting
B. Damp dusting
C. Low dusting
D. High dusting
Rationale: High Dusting is refers to those areas over windows, pipes, wall and ceiling.
6. This type of dusting is done to all places easily reached by standing on the floor; done daily
A. Dump dusting
B. Damp dusting
C. Low dusting
D. High dusting
Rationale: Low Dusting is done to all places easily reached by standing on the floor; done daily.
7. Why is it necessary for someone to wear appropriate PPEs even when cleaning?
A. PPEs are not necessary for cleaning as long as you are healthy.
B. To protect if there are any spills of blood/body fluids.
C. To prevent from being infected if the patient is on transmission-based precautions
D. B & C
Rationale: Additional PPE or supplies to protect if there are any spills of blood/body fluids or if the patient is on
transmission-based precautions.
8. As you clean a patient’s bed side table, what rationale would you keep in mind as you perform the cleaner-to
dirtier method?
A. Minimize spread of microorganisms.
B. To save time
C. To save cleaning cloth
D. B & C
Rationale: Within a specified patient room, terminal cleaning should start with shared equipment and common surfaces,
then proceed to surfaces and items touched during patient care that are outside of the patient zone, and finally to surfaces
and items directly touched by the patient inside the patient zone.
9. To prevent microorganisms from dripping and contaminating clean areas, what strategy should you observe?
A. Dirtier to cleaner strategy
B. High to low strategy
C. Bottom to top strategy
D. Methodical strategy
Rationale: Always clean the bed rails before bed legs then clean the environmental surfaces before cleaning floors and
cleaning the floors last to allow collection of dirt and microorganisms that may have fallen.
10. You observe a colleague cleaning a patient’s room where she jumps from one area to another. What errors
could unfortunately happen?
A. None, since she is still cleaning the room.
B. She will easily get tired.
C. She is spreading the pathogens
D. She may miss some areas of the room.
Rationale: In a systematic manner to avoid missing areas from left to right or clockwise. In a multi-bed area, clean each
patient zone in the same manner.
Session #02
1. It is described as the coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems.

A. Body balance
B. Body alignment
C. Body posture
D. Body mechanics
Rationale: Body mechanics is the application of mechanical laws to the human body, specifically in regard to structure,
function, and position of the body. Body mechanics is a term that describes the coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal
and nervous systems.
2. This refers to the positioning of the joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while standing, sitting, and lying.
A. Body alignment
B. Posture
C. A & B
Rationale: Good posture, or good body alignment, is the alignment of body parts that permits optimal musculoskeletal
balance and operation and promotes healthy physiologic functioning. The terms body alignment and posture is similar and
refer to the positioning of the joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while standing, sitting, and lying.
3. These are white, shiny, flexible bands of fibrous tissue that bind joints together, connect bones and cartilages,
and aid joint flexibility and support.
A. Joints
B. Ligaments
C. Tendons
D. Cartilage
Rationale: Ligaments are tough fibrous bands of connective tissue that bind joints together and connect bones and
cartilage. Ligaments are white, shiny, flexible bands of fibrous tissue that bind joints together, connect bones
and cartilages, and aid joint flexibility and support.
4. These are nonvascular (without blood vessels) supporting connective tissue located chiefly in the joints and
thorax, trachea, larynx, nose, and ear.
A. Joints
B. Ligaments
C. Tendons
D. Cartilage
Rationale: Cartilage is hard nonvascular connective tissue found in the joints as well as in the nose, ear, thorax, trachea,
and larynx. Cartilage in joints functions as a shock absorber and as a bearing surface that reduces friction between the
moving parts of the joint.
5. What postural abnormality is described as the lateral S- or C-shaped spinal column with vertebral rotation,
unequal heights of hips and shoulders
A. Toticollis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Scoliosis
Rationale: Scoliosis is known for Lateral S- or C-shaped spinal column with vertebral rotation, unequal heights of hips
and shoulders. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine with increased convexity on the side that is curved.
6. How does the principle of enlarging the base of support increases the stability of the body work?
A. In assisting the patient to move, your feet should be close together to be more stable.
B. In assisting the patient to move, your feet should be apart to be more stable.
C. In assisting the patient to move, your feet should be widely apart to be more stable.
Rationale: Stand with feet apart to create a wide base of support and rock the pelvis out on the side facing the patient.
7. This principle is applied when picking an object up from the floor by bending at the knees and keeping your
back straight rather than by bending forward at the waist.
A. Enlarging the base of support increases the stability of the body.
B. Weight is balanced best when the center of gravity is directly above the base of support.
C. A person or an object is more stable if the center of gravity is close to the base of support.
Rationale: The nurse’s center of gravity is placed near the patient’s greatest weight to safely assist the patient to a sitting
position.
8. If a nurse is to push a patient’s bed forward, where should he place his foot to observe proper body
mechanics?
A. Forward
B. Spread sideways
C. Maintain feet close together
D. Opposite the direction of the bed
Rationale: Standing opposite the patient’s center with feet spread about shoulder width and with one foot ahead of the
other.
9. Which of the following describes a nurse who does not observe proper body mechanics?
A. Picking up an object by bending at the knees and keeping your back straight.
B. Keeping feet apart when assisting a patient.
C. Twisting your body from the waist.
D. Working on a smooth surface to reduce friction.
Rationale: Facing in the direction of the task to be performed and turning the entire body in one place (rather than
twisting) lessens the susceptibility of the back to injury.
10. By adjusting the level of the bed of a patient as the nurse is at the bedside, what is the rationale?
A. Adjust the height of the client’s bed to avoid back strain.
B. Adjust the height of the client’s bed to avoid patient fall.
C. Adjust the height of the client’s bed to promote patient comfort.
D. Adjust the height of the client’s bed to provide privacy.
Rationale: Closing the door or curtain provides for privacy. Proper bed height helps reduce back strain while you are
performing the procedure. Flat positioning helps to decrease the gravitational pull of the upper body.
Session #03
1. It is the maximum amount of movement available at a joint in one of the three planes of the body.
A. Mobility
B. Range of motion
C. Gait
D. Exercise and activity
Rationale: Range of motion (ROM) is the maximum amount of movement available at a joint in one of the three planes of
the body: sagittal, transverse, or frontal.
2. What type of joint is fits this description oval head of one bone fits into a shallow cavity of another bone;
flexion–extension and abduction–adduction can occur?
A. Ball-and-socket
B. Condyloid
C. Gliding
D. Hinge
Rationale: Condyloid joint is refers to the oval head of one bone fits into a shallow cavity of another bone; flexion–
extension and abduction–adduction can occur (e.g., wrist joint).
3. Which of the following does NOT describe adduction?

A. Move leg laterally away from body.
B. Lower arm sideways and across body as far as possible.
C. Place hand with palm down and extend wrist medially toward thumb.
D. Move leg back toward medial position and beyond if possible.
Rationale: Option A describes adduction Abduction while options B/C/D describe adduction.
4. What should be assessed when planning patient activities such as walking, ROM exercises or ADLs?
A. Exercise
B. Activity tolerance
C. Activity intolerance
D. Disability
Rationale: Assessment of activity tolerance is necessary when planning activity such as walking, ROM exercises, or
ADLs.
5. If a patient is observed laterally while standing, how should the spinal curves be aligned?
A. Aligned straight
B. Aligned in an S pattern
C. Aligned in a reversed S pattern
D. None of the above.
Rationale: The correct alignment for the standing is when observed laterally, the head is erect, and the spinal curves are
aligned in a reversed S pattern.
6. A characteristic of correct alignment when one sits is observed when

A. The body weight is distributed evenly on the buttocks and thighs.
B. The body weight is distributed the buttocks only.
C. The body weight is distributed on the thighs only.
Rationale: The correct alignment of the sitting is when body weight is distributed evenly on the buttocks and thighs.
7. How should you assess a bedridden patient’s body alignment?

A. Prone position
B. Lateral position
C. Supine position
D. Assist the patient standing to measure accurately
Rationale: Assess body alignment for a patient who is immobilized or bedridden with the patient in the lateral position.
8. Which of the following abnormal findings would be the result if inspection is utilized during assessment?
A. Generalized edema
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Joint contracture
D. Distended bladder or abdomen
Rationale: The result if inspection is utilized during assessment is by an asymmetrical chest wall movement, dyspnea,
increased respiratory rate.
9. Which of the following abnormal findings is NOT a part of the musculoskeletal system?
A. Decreased range of motion
B. Joint contracture
C. Activity intolerance
D. Asymmetrical chest wall movement
Rationale: Option D is part of Respiratory System while Option A/B/C is part of the musculoskeletal system.
10. Which abnormal finding is NOT found under the cardiovascular system?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Generalized edema
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Weak peripheral pulses
Rationale: Generalized edema is found on Respiratory System while option A/C/D is found under the cardiovascular
system.
Session #04
1. This aids in the prevention of external rotation of the hips when a patient is in a supine position.
A. Trochanter roll
B. Trapeze bar
C. Sandbags
D. A & C
Rationale: Using the trochanter rolls or sandbags parallel to lateral surface of patient's thighs if patient is immobile which
prevents external rotation of the hips in a supine position.
2. A patient is to be placed on a Fowler’s position, as his nurse how will you properly position the patient?
A. Position the head of the bed nearly vertical, and the patient's knees are slightly elevated without pressure to restrict
circulation in the lower legs.
B. Position the head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees, and the patient's knees are slightly elevated without
pressure to restrict circulation in the lower legs.
C. Position the head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees, and the patient's knees are slightly elevated without
pressure to restrict circulation in the lower legs.
D. Position the head of the bed is flat, and the patient's knees are slightly elevated without pressure to restrict circulation
in the lower legs.
Rationale: In the supported Fowler's position the head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees, and the patient's knees
are slightly elevated without pressure to restrict circulation in the lower legs.
3. Supporting the hand so that it’s slightly elevated in relation to the elbow when in a Fowler’s position, prevents
which complication?
A. Numbness of the hand
B. Flexion contractures of the fingers and abduction of the thumbs
C. Edema to the hand
D. Flexion contracture of the wrist
Rationale: Edema of the hand supports the hand so that it is slightly elevated in relation to the elbow.
4. In this position, the relationship of body parts is essentially the same as in good standing alignment, except
that the body is in the horizontal plane.
A. Fowler’s position
B. Semi-Fowler’s position
C. High- Fowler’s position
D. Supine position
Rationale: In the supine position the relationship of body parts is essentially the same as in good standing alignment,
except that the body is in the horizontal plane.
5. To prevent footdrop, what position should the patient’s feet maintain?

A. Straight position
B. Extended position
C. Dorsal flexion
D. Carpal flexion
Rationale: The use of footboard is to make an improvised firm foot support to hold the feet in dorsal flexion; high-top
sneakers may also be recommended.
6. Assisting a patient to move up using a drawsheet, your colleague placed the patient in a supine position. You
know that this is correct for which reason?
A. The body weight is distributed evenly on the buttocks and thighs.
B. Even distribution of patient’s weight makes lifting and positioning easier.
C. Because the patient cannot move.
Rationale: In a supine position this will able to assist; patient patient’s weight makes lifting and positioning easier.
7. Positioning the patient in a Fowler’s position, you placed a small pillow at the patient lower back, for what
main reason?
A. It’s the patient’s request.
B. To provide support to the lumbar vertebrae.
C. To decreases flexion of vertebrae.
D. B & C
Rationale: Supports need to permit flexion of the hips and knees and proper alignment of the normal curves in the
cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae.
8. You have noticed that a hemiplegic patient is placed in a sitting position but is already slumping towards the
affected side. Which of the following will the patient be NOT be at risk for?
A. Generalized edema
B. Aspiration of food, liquids & gastric secretion
C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Impaired ventilation & cardiac output
Rationale: Generalized edema refers to fluid accumulation that affects the whole body rather than particular organs or
body areas.
9. Placing trochanter rolls & sandbags help prevent which complication?

A. Internal rotation of leg
B. Internal rotation of hip
C. External rotation of leg
D. External rotation of hip
Rationale: A trochanter roll prevents external rotation of the hips when a patient is in a supine position while Sandbags
are sand-filled plastic tubes or bags that are shaped to body contours.
10. Your senior nurse instructed you to place a folded towel under a hemiplegic patient’s affected hip, for what
reason will you follow your senior nurse’s instruction?
A. Extensor spasticity is most severe when patient is supine.
B. Slight flexion breaks up abnormal extension pattern of leg.
C. Diminishes effect of spasticity in entire leg by controlling hip position.
D. Because she knows better.
Rationale: The term of Spasticity is to increase the tone that interferes with movement, is also caused by neurologic
impairments.
Session #05
1. In this position the patient rests on the side with the major portion of bodyweight on the dependent hip and
shoulder.
B. Prone position
C. Side-Lying position
D. Sims’ position
Rationale: In the side-lying (or lateral) position the patient rests on the side with the major portion of bodyweight on the
dependent hip and shoulder.
2. In this position the patient lies face or chest down.

B. Prone position
C. Side-Lying position
D. Sims’ position
Rationale: In prone position the patient in the prone position lies face or chest down.
3. How does Sims’ position differentiate from lateral position?

A. The patient places the weight on the anterior ileum, humerus, and clavicle.
B. The face is turned to the side with a pillow under the head.
C. The face is not turned to the patient’ side.
D. Sims’ position is also the same with side-lying position.
Rationale: Sims' position differs from the side-lying position in the distribution of the patient's weight. In Sims' position the
patient places the weight on the anterior ileum, humerus, and clavicle.
4. What is the goal for logrolling a patient?

A. To keep the body in straight alignment when turning the patient.
B. Not to twist the patient’s head, spine, shoulders, knees, or hips
C. Repositioning 2 hours to avoid pressure ulcers.
D. All of the above
Rationale: When a patient has a spinal injury or is recovering from neck, back, or spinal surgery, it is often necessary to
keep the body in straight alignment when turning the patient. for logrolling. Do not twist the patient’s head, spine,
shoulders, knees, or hips while logrolling. Refer to the accompanying Guidelines for Nursing.
5. How will you prevent footdrop for a patient in a prone position?

A. Move the patient down in bed so that the feet are over the mattress
B. Support the feet with a pillow just high enough to keep the toes from touching the bed
C. A & B
Rationale: To move the patient down in bed so that the feet are over the mattress, or support the lower legs on a pillow
just high enough to keep the toes from touching the bed.
6. For what reason should you place a patient’s arms flexed at shoulder level when in prone position?
A. Maintains proper body alignment.
B. Support reduces risk of joint dislocation.
C. Because the patient cannot move.
D. A & B
Rationale: The body is straight in the prone position because the shoulders, head, and neck are in an erect position, the
arms are easily placed in correct alignment with the shoulder girdle, the hips are extended, and the knees can be
prevented from flexing or hyperextending.
7. Ensuring that both shoulders are aligned with the hips when assuming a lateral position prevents which
complication?
A. Twisting of the spine
B. Lateral flexion of the neck
C. Internal shoulder rotation and adduction
D. Internal rotation and adduction of the hip; lumbar lordosis
Rationale: In a ateral position the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip
and shoulder.
8. A colleague of yours placed a pillow under semiflexed upper leg level at hip from groin to foot of the patient.
Based on your colleague’s action, what is his rationale?
A. Flexion prevents hyperextension of leg.
B. Maintains leg in correct alignment.
C. Prevents pressure on bony prominences.
D. All of the above
Rationale: All the following options are under semiflexed upper leg level at hip from groin to foot of the patient.
9. A colleague has placed a patient on a Sims’ position, she has not placed a small pillow under her head. What
will you do?
A. Ignore her as it is not your patient.
B. Place a small pillow secretly.
C. Inform the nurse supervisor at once.
D. Check for oral drainage orders as this position is optimal for draining oral secretions.
Rationale: In the Lateral flexion of the neck on a Sims’ position gently Place a small pillow under the head unless
the drainage of oral secretions is desired.
10. As a patient is rolled as one unit, the nurse on opposite side of bed places pillows along length of patient.
What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
A. Pillows keep patient safe.
B. Pillows keep patient aligned.
C. Pillows keep patient comfortable.
D. Pillows keep patient company.
Rationale: Make the patient comfortable and position in proper alignment, using pillows or other supports under the leg
and arm as needed. Readjust the pillow under the patient’s head. Elevate the head of the bed as needed for comfort. Use
pillows to support the patient’s back, buttocks, and legs in straight alignment in a side-lying position. Positioning in proper
alignment with supports ensures that the patient will be able to maintain the desired position and will be comfortable.
Session #06
1. This position facilitates respiration by allowing maximum chest expansion.

A. Orthopneic position
B. Jack knife position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Genupectural position
Rationale: This position facilitates respiration by allowing maximum chest expansion. It is particularly helpful to clients
who have problems exhaling because they can press the lower part of the chest against the over bed table.
2. This position obtains better exposure of the vagina, cervix and rectum.
A. Genupectoral position
B. Lithotomy position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Jack knife position
Rationale: Knee chest is known as genupectoral position refers to the client kneels on the bed or tables, then leans
forward with the hips in the air and the chest and arms resting on the knees. A pillow can be placed under the client’s
head.
3. Which position is indicated for operations on the rectum and coccyx?

A. Trendelenburg position
B. Knee chest position
C. Bozeman position
D. Genupectoral position
Rationale: Jack knife or bozeman position is refers to the face client in a prone position with the hip directly over the
break in the table. Tip the table with the lower than the head. Place pillow under the pelvis and abdomen to relieve strain.
Indicated for operations on the rectum and coccyx.
4. Which position is used for postural drainage of the lungs?

B. Bozeman position
C. Orthopneic position
D. Trendelenburg position
Rationale: This position is best for draining the bottom front parts of your lungs.
5. Assisting a patient to sit in his bed, what should you do to assess his body alignment continually?
A. Raise bed to waist level. Place patient in prone position.
B. Raise bed to lowest level possible. Place patient in supine position.
C. Raise bed to waist level. Place patient in supine position.
D. Let the patient stand erect for accurate assessment.
Rationale: By raising bed to waist level and placing patient in supine position it will enable you to assess patient’s body
alignment continually.
6. You are to assist a patient in positioning in bed. Which action will improve your balance?
A. Place feet in wide base of support, with foot away from the bed.
B. Place feet in wide base of support, with foot farther to bed.
C. Place feet in wide base of support, with foot closer to bed in front of other foot.
D. Place feet in narrow base of support, with foot closer to bed in front of other foot.
Rationale: Place your feet apart (about 18 inches) with one foot slightly ahead of the other. Feet should be shoulder-width
apart to give you a broad base of support.
7. A patient who can partially bear weight should have the head of his bed raised at 30 degrees, for which
rationale?
A. Facilitates raising patient to sitting position.
B. Because the patient cannot move.
C. Protects him or her from falling.
D. A & C
Rationale: The head of the patient’s bed raised at 30 degrees facilitates raising patient to sitting position and protects
him or her from falling.
8. To maintain the alignment of the patient’s head and cervical vertebrae, where should a nurse place her arm
that’s nearer to the head of the bed?
A. Under the patient’s chest.
B. At the patient’s nape.
C. Under the patient’s shoulder.
D. Under the patient’s head.
Rationale: Place hand nearer head of bed under patient's shoulders, supporting patient's head and cervical vertebrae.
9. A nurse rocks a patient up to standing position on count of 3 while straightening hips and legs and keeping
knees slightly flexed. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
A. For the patient to feel at ease.
B. To get the rhythm of the patient.
C. Rocking motion gives patient’s less body momentum and requires more muscular effort to lift him or her.
D. Rocking motion gives patient’s body momentum and requires less muscular effort to lift him or her.
Rationale: Patients should never be lifted by or under their arms. Rocking motion gives patient's body momentum and
requires less muscular effort to lift him or her.
10. As a nurse lowers the patient down into the chair, what should he demonstrate to observe proper body
mechanics?
A. Flex arms and show his biceps while lowering patient into chair.
B. Flex hips and knees while lowering patient into chair.
C. Flex fingers and wrist while lowering patient into chair.
D. Flex neck and legs while lowering patient into chair.
Rationale: Stand toward the bed, facing the patient. Brace your feet and knees against the patient's legs. Pay particular
attention to any known weakness. Bend your hips and knees, and, keeping your back straight, hold onto the transfer belt
on both sides. If two nurses are available to assist with the transfer, one nurse should be on
Session #07
1. It is the invasion of a susceptible host by microorganisms which results in disease.

A. Pathogens
B. Infection
C. Colonization
D. Communicable disease
Rationale: An infection is the invasion of a susceptible host (e.g., human being) by pathogens or microorganisms,
resulting in disease.
2. This is where microorganisms survive and multiply.

A. Infectious agent
B. Portal of Exit
C. Reservoir
D. Portal of entry
Rationale: A reservoir is a place where microorganisms survive, multiply, and await transfer to a susceptible host.
3. It is a mode of transmission where evaporated droplets suspend in air during coughing or sneezing.
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Droplet
D. Airborne
Rationale: Airborne is refers to droplet nuclei or residue or evaporated droplets suspended in air during coughing or
sneezing or carried on dust particles.
4. To cut the link between Mode of Transmission and Portal of Entry, which of the following should be observed?
A. Hand hygiene
B. Immunization
C. Screening health care staff
D. A & B
Rationale: Many times you are able to do little about the infectious agent or the susceptible host; but, by practicing
infection prevention and control techniques such as hand hygiene, you interrupt the mode of transmission. Factors such
as a depressed immune system that reduce body defenses enhance the chances of pathogens entering the body.
5. It is the interval from onset of nonspecific signs and symptoms to more specific symptoms and the patient
may be capable of spreading the disease to others.
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal stage
C. Illness stage
D. Convalescence
Rationale: Interval from onset of nonspecific signs and symptoms (malaise, low-grade fever, fatigue) to more specific
symptoms. During this time microorganisms grow and multiply, and patient may be capable of spreading disease to
others.
6. It is the interval when acute symptoms of infection disappear.

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal stage
C. Illness stage
D. Convalescence
Rationale: Interval when acute symptoms of infection disappear. Length of recovery depends on severity of infection and
patient's host resistance; recovery may take several days to months.
7. Which among the following statements regarding inflammation is true?

A. Acute inflammation is an immediate response to cellular injury.
B. The decrease in local blood flow causes the redness and localized warmth at the site of inflammation.
C. Damaged cells are permanent.
Rationale: Acute inflammation is an immediate response to cellular injury. Rapid vasodilation occurs, allowing more blood
near the location of the injury. The increase in local blood flow causes the redness and localized warmth at the site of
inflammation.
8. This type of infection is a result from the rendered health services in a health care institution.
A. Health care-associated infection
B. Exogenous infection
C. Endogenous infection
D. Diseases
Rationale: Health care is associated infections (HAIs) result from the delivery of health services in a health care facility.
9. Which of the following HAIs is not associated with the urinary tract?
A. Unsterile insertion of urinary catheter
B. Improper positioning of the drainage tubing
C. Improper disposal of secretions
D. Obstructing or interfering with urinary drainage
Rationale: Option A,B,D is associated with the urinary tract while Option C associated with the Respiratory Tract.
10. Which among the following statements is true?
A. Defenses against infection change with aging.
B. A patient's nutritional health indirectly influences susceptibility to infection.
C. The body responds to emotional or physical stress by the general adaptation syndrome.
D. Patients with diseases of the immune system are at particular risk for infection.
Rationale: In nutritional health directly influences susceptibility to infection. A reduction in the intake of protein and other
nutrients such as carbohydrates and fats reduces body defenses against infection and impairs wound healing .
Session #08
1. It is refers to the practices or procedures that help reduce the risk for infection.
A. Aseptic technique
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Hand hygiene
Rationale: Aseptic technique means using practices and procedures to prevent contamination from pathogens. It involves
applying the strictest rules to minimize the risk of infection. Healthcare workers use aseptic technique in surgery rooms,
clinics, outpatient care centers, and other health care settings.
2. You are informed by your senior nurse that you’ll scrub-in an operation later today. What technique should
you observe during the operation?
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Hand hygiene
Rationale: Surgical asepsis or sterile technique prevents contamination of an open wound, serves to isolate an operative
area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for surgery.
3. What technique should you observe in caring for a patient who is admitted due to asthma exacerbation?
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Hand hygiene
Rationale: A patient with severe, persistent asthma is admitted to the medical unit for observation.
4. In controlling and eliminating of infectious agents in reusable supplies,w hat process should be done first?
A. Hand hygiene
B. Rinsing
C. Cleaning
D. Sterilization
Rationale: In health care facilities a sterile processing department is responsible for the disinfection and sterilization of
reusable supplies and equipment.
5. Ensuring efficacy whenever disinfecting and sterilizing all of the following are observed :
A. Concentration of solution and duration of contact
B. Type and number of pathogens
C. Temperature of the environment
D. All of the above
Rationale: All the following option should be should be observed in disinfecting and sterilizing.
6. You have noticed a colleague soaking a not fully rinsed instrument in an sterilizing agent. What will you do?
A. None as soap helps disinfect the instrument.
B. Let your colleague proceed with her work.
C. Inform your colleague that instruments should be properly rinsed next time.
D. Inform your colleague that instruments should be properly rinsed and let her repeat the process.
Rationale: The detergent or disinfectant agent used to clean surgical instruments is a key factor in instrument
reprocessing, as well as safe patient care.
7. In protecting the susceptible host, all of the following should be observed except:
A. Lubrication helps keep the skin hydrated and intact.
B. Flossing adds tartar and plaque which causes germ infection.
C. Maintenance of adequate fluid intake promotes normal urine formation
Rationale: Perform regular oral hygiene. Saliva contains enzymes that promote digestion and has a bactericidal action to
maintain control of bacteria. Flossing removes tartar and plaque that cause germ infection.
8. To reduce reservoirs of infection, which of the following one must observe:

A. Place tissues, soiled dressings, or soiled linen in fluid absorbent bags for proper disposal.
B. Date bottles when opened and discard in 48 hours.
C. Wearing of gloves and protective eyewear should be avoided if the incident has not yet happened.
D. Never raise a drainage system (e.g., urinary drainage bag) above the level of the site being drained unless it is
clamped off.
Rationale: Avoid raising drainage bag above bladder level to prevent reflux of urine. Tubing of drainage bag should be
maintained in a straight line without kinks or loops. Remember that tubing should not have loops of tubing that fall below
the drainage bag.
9. To reduce reservoirs of infection, which of the following one must NOT observe:
A. Place tissues, soiled dressings, or soiled linen in fluid resistant bags for proper disposal.
B. Date bottles when opened and discard in 24 hours.
C. Wearing of gloves and protective eyewear should be avoided if the incident has not yet happened.
D. Never raise a drainage system (e.g., urinary drainage bag) above the level of the site being drained unless it is
clamped off.
Rationale: The correct way is to wear gloves and protective eyewear if splashing or spraying with contaminated blood or
body fluids is anticipated.
10. Which among the following statements is true.

A. Sharing bedpans, urinals, bath basins, and eating utensils among patients is allowed if they have the same disease.
B. When using a stethoscope, always wipe off the bell, diaphragm, and ear tips with water before proceeding to the
next patient.
C. When diarrhea occurs, electronic thermometers are recommended for rectal temperatures.
D. Do not use electronic thermometers for patients on contact isolation.
Rationale: No-touch or non-contact infrared thermometers measure temperature through the forehead from a close
distance in seconds. They may be used on newborns and older people.
Session #09
1. These category of precaution is designed to be used for the care of all patients, in all settings, regardless of
risk or presumed infection status.
A. Isolation precaution
B. Regular precaution
C. Standard precaution
D. Transmission-based precaution
Rationale: The first and most important tier is called Standard Precautions, which are designed to be used for the care of
all patients, in all settings, regardless of risk or presumed infection status.
2. Theis set of precaution is designed for the care of patients who are known or suspected to be infected or
colonized with microorganisms transmitted by droplet, airborne, or contact routes.
A. Regular precaution
B. Standard precaution
C. Transmission-based precaution
D. Specified-type precaution
Rationale: Transmission-Based Precautions are the second tier of basic infection control and are to be used in addition to
Standard Precautions for patients who may be infected or colonized with certain infectious agents for which additional
precautions are needed to prevent infection transmission.
3. You are taking care of a patient who is diagnosed to have chickenpox. Which type of precaution should you
observe?
A. Direct contact
B. Contact precaution
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Rationale: Restrict susceptible healthcare personnel from entering the room of patients known or suspected to have
measles, chickenpox, disseminated zoster, or smallpox if other immune healthcare personnel are available.
4. When a patient is diagnosed to have influenza, which practice, when observed, will protect the nurse from
being infected?
A. Cloth mask, proper hand hygiene and dedicated-care equipment.
B. Surgical mask, proper hand hygiene and dedicated-care equipment.
C. N95 mask, proper hand hygiene and dedicated-care equipment.
D. None since influenza is not serious and is caused by a virus
Rationale: Droplet precautions require the wearing of a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the patient, proper hand
hygiene, and some dedicated-care equipment such as patient with influenza.
5. For a patient who has been diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis, which room should he occupy?
A. Negative-air flow room
B. Positive-air flow room
C. Respiratory ward
D. Infectious diseases ward
Rationale: Negative pressure rooms, also called isolation rooms, are a type of hospital room that keeps patients with
infectious illnesses, or patients who are susceptible to infections from others, away from other patients, visitors, and
healthcare staff.
6. You are aware that standard precautions apply to the following except:
A. Blood and blood products
B. Bodily fluids, secretions, excretions including sweat
C. Bodily fluids, secretions, excretions excluding sweat
D. Non-intact skin, and mucous membranes
Rationale: Standard precautions apply to blood, blood products, all body fluids, secretions, excretions (except sweat),
nonintact skin, and mucous membranes.
7. When wearing a disposable mask, one must know to follow the following except:
A. Keep talking to a minimum while wearing a mask to reduce respiratory airflow.
B. A mask that has become moist does not provide a barrier to microorganisms and is ineffective and is discarded.
C. A mask that has become moist does not provide a barrier to microorganisms and should be air dried to reuse.
D. A properly applied mask fits snugly over the mouth and nose so pathogens and body fluids cannot enter or escape
through the sides.
Rationale: A properly applied mask fits snugly over the mouth and nose so pathogens and body fluids cannot enter or
escape through the sides. If a person wears glasses, the top edge of the mask fits below the glasses so they do not cloud
over as the person exhales. Keep talking to a minimum while wearing a mask to reduce respiratory airflow. A mask that
has become moist does not provide a barrier to microorganisms and is ineffective. You need to discard it. Never reuse a
disposable mask.
8. When should masks (surgical/respirator) be worn?

A. In caring for a PTB patient.
B. When transporting patient on droplet precautions.
C. At time needed by immunocompromised patients.
D. All of the above.
Rationale: When caring for patients on droplet or airborne precautions, apply a mask (surgical or respirator) when
entering the isolation room.
9. When taking care of a patient who is suspected to have PTB, you should wear which PPE?
A. Surgical masks
B. Respirator masks
C. Gloves
D. Gown
Rationale: This includes barrier precautions and the appropriate use of PPE such as gowns, gloves, masks, eyewear,
and other protective devices or clothing. The PPE, specialized clothing or equipment (e.g., gowns, masks or respirators,
protective eyewear and gloves) that you wear for protection against exposure to infectious materials, should be readily
available in a patient care area.
10. Which of the following is observed when using gloves as PPE?

A. Change gloves and perform hand hygiene between tasks on the same patient after contact with material that
contains a high concentration of microorganisms.
B. Change gloves and perform hand hygiene after all tasks are done on the same patient after contact with material that
contains a high concentration of microorganisms.
C. Opt to wear clean gloves when touching blood, body fluid, secretions.
D. B & C
Rationale: Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for injury or exposure to skin contact from chemicals,
infectious agents, heat, cold, abrasive, and cutting objects.
Session #10
1. How is inherent hygiene defined as per the World Health Organization?

A. Hand cleansing practices are likely established in the first 10 years of a person's life.
B. This imprinting affects an individual's attitudes about hand cleansing throughout life.
C. Hand cleansing practices are likely established in the first 10 years of a person's life; this imprinting affects an
individual's attitudes about hand cleansing throughout life.
D. Hand cleansing practices are likely established in the first 10 years of a person's life; this imprinting cannot affect an
individual's attitudes about hand cleansing throughout life.
Rationale: The WHO Guidelines on Hand Hygiene in Health Care provide a comprehensive review of scientific data on
hand hygiene rationale and practices in health care. This extensive review includes in one document sufficient technical
information to support training materials and help plan implementation strategies. The present Guidelines are intended to
be implemented in any situation in which health care is delivered either to a patient or to a specific group in a population.
2. It is the most effective basic technique in preventing and controlling the transmission of infection.
A. Hand washing
B. Hand rub
C. Hand hygiene
D. Hand shake
Rationale: Practicing hand hygiene is a simple yet effective way to prevent infections. Cleaning your hands can prevent
the spread of germs, including those that are resistant to antibiotics and are becoming difficult, if not impossible, to treat.
3. Which of the following is true about hand hygiene:

A. Hand washing kills microorganisms.
B. Hand washing does not kill microorganisms.
C. Hand washing and hand rub are the same.
Rationale: The fundamental principle behind handwashing is removing microorganisms mechanically from the hands and
rinsing with water. Hand washing does not kill microorganisms.
4. When should you NOT perform handhygiene?

A. After giving an intravenous medication.
B. Before draining a urine bag.
C. After measuring the blood pressure.
D. Before inserting an NGT.
Rationale: After washing hands, prepare a trolley including gloves, local anaesthetic jelly or spray, a 60ml syringe, pH
strip, kidney tray, sticky tape and a bag to collect secretions. Placing a glass of drinking water nearby is useful
5. When should you observe handhygiene?

A. After talking to a patient.
B. During an aseptic procedure.
C. Before taking the vital signs.
Rationale: Clean hands and clean equipment are essential to infection prevention and control when measuring vital
signs.
6. After assisting a physician in wound suturing, you have noticed a speck of blood on your right arm. Which
handhygiene practice should you observe?
A. Hand rub
B. Hand washing
C. Hand washing then hand rub
D. Hand rub then hand washing
Rationale: Perform hand hygiene before starting wound care for each resident (including before retrieving wound care
supplies and before donning gloves), and after doffing gloves.
7. A colleague asks you to wash your uniform’s sleeve as there are speck of blood, which among the responses
is appropriate?
A. I’ll just iron them for the microorganisms to die.
B. I’ll splash my sleeve with later during my break.
C. Splashing water against my uniform will allow microorganisms to spread.
Rationale: Microorganisms travel and grow in moisture. This allows for suspension and washing away of the loosened
microorganisms.
8. What is the rationale for interlacing one’s hand during handwashing?

A. Interlacing fingers and thumbs ensures that all surfaces are cleansed.
B. Interlacing fingers and thumbs creates more lather.
C. Friction and rubbing mechanically loosen and remove dirt and transient bacteria.
D. A & C
Rationale: Soap cleans by emulsifying fat and oil and lowering surface tension. Friction and rubbing mechanically loosen
and remove dirt and transient bacteria. Interlacing fingers and thumbs ensures that all surfaces are cleansed. Adequate
time is needed to expose skin surfaces to antimicrobial agent.
9. After hand washing, in what motion will you dry your hands?
A. Drying from least clean (forearms) to cleanest (fingertips).
B. Drying from least clean (fingertips) to cleanest (forearms).
C. Drying from cleanest (fingertips) to least clean (forearms).
D. Drying from cleanest (forearms) to least clean (fingertips).
Rationale: Drying from cleanest (fingertips) to least clean (forearms) area avoids contamination. Drying hands prevents
chapping and roughened skin.
10. Keeping hands and forearms lower than elbows during washing prevents:
A. Joint pain
B. Cramps
C. Venous blood flow
D. Contamination
Rationale: Keep your hands and forearms lower than your elbows to prevent water from flowing from the most to the
least contaminated area.
Session #11
1. A patient’s room should be maintained at which temperature range?

A. 20° and 24° C (68° and 73.8° F)
B. 20° and 23° C (68° and 73.4° F)
C. 19° and 22° C (66° and 73.4° F)
D. 20° and 23° C (68° and 73.4° F)
Rationale: Depending on age and physical condition, maintain the room temperature between 20° and 23° C (68° and
73.4° F).
2. After making the bed of a patient, which of the following should you do? Select all that apply.
A. Return it to the lowest horizontal position
B. Return it to the lowest vertical position
C. Verify that the wheels are not unlocked
D. Verify that the wheels are unlocked
Rationale: Lowering the bed helps promote patient safety and prevent falls. A falls risk assessment requires using a
validated tool that has been examined by researchers to be useful in naming the causes of falls in an individual.
3. To avoid bending and stretching over the mattress, what should a nurse do?
A. Perform stretching exercises
B. Raise the bed to the appropriate height
C. Ask the patient to get out of the bed
D. Assist the patient out of bed
Rationale: Always raise the bed to the appropriate height before changing linen so you do not have to bend or stretch
over the mattress.
4. A nursing attendant is removing the used linens from a room that has just been vacated, all of the following
are correct should be done except:
A. Shake the linen.
B. Do not place the soiled linen on the floor
C. Place the soiled linen on linen bags
Rationale: Place soiled linen in special linen bags before placing in a hamper. Soiled linens should be placed directly into
a portable linen hamper or tucked into a pillowcase and the end of the bed before it is gathered up for disposal in the linen
hamper or linen chute.
5. You are removing the soiled linens of a patient which principle should be observed:
A. Sterile technique
B. Medical asepsis
C. Surgical asepsis
D. Concept of asepsis
Rationale: When changing bed linen, follow principles of medical asepsis by keeping soiled linen away from the uniform.
6. As you went to check on your patient, you saw her significant other remove the used bedpan from the
overbed table to facilitate serving meals. What should you do? Select all that apply.
A. Let the significant other do her own thing
B. Ask if the bedpan has been used, if not it causes no problem
C. Instruct the significant other not to place the bedpan or urinal in the overbed table
D. Clean the over-bed table with antiseptic cleaner
Rationale: In addition, bed patients are usually offered one before meals and before visiting hours. After each use, the
patient and medical personnel must wash their hands.
7. How can a ventilation system be classified as effective?

A. Effective ventilation systems are mostly costly.
B. All effective ventilation systems work in the same manner and are all effective.
C. Stale air and foul odors are not lingering in a room.
D. All of the above
Rationale: An effective ventilation system keeps stale air and odors from lingering in a room. Increasing a room's
ventilation and decreasing the room's humidity, you should be able to get rid of any stale air problems you may
experience.
8. After a patient uses a urinal, the nurse-in-charge discards the urine and places it inside the toilet. What would
you perform differently that is in accordance with the protocols? Select all that apply.
A. Measure the urine output even if in not strict I&O monitoring.
B. Place the urinal at the bedside table to offer accessibility and convenience.
C. Rinse the urinal after each use.
D. All the actions done by the nurse is in accordance with the guidelines.
Rationale: Medical personnel should reduce the unpleasant aspects as much as possible and assist the patient to
maintain proper elimination with the least exertion.
9. Which of the following is incorrect about bed making?

A. Changing linens are done only in the morning.
B. Changing lines is usually done in the morning after the patient’s bath.
C. Changing linens are done as needed (e.g soiled, wet)
D. B & C
Rationale: In nursing centers, linens are not changed every day. A complete linen change is usually done on the person’s
bath or shower day. This may be 1 or 2 times a week. Pillowcases, top and bottom sheets, and drawsheets (if used) are
changed twice a week. Linens are always changed if wet, damp, soiled, or very wrinkled.
10. A patient has an ongoing Nicardipine drip who is placed on an IV infusion pump. The device used emits a
beeping sound as there is no mute function. What should you do as a nurse?
A. Stop the device as it causes anxiety to the patient.
B. Stop the device and and document the the incident.
C. Inform the patient that the sound emitted by the device is normal.
Rationale: Nicardipine should only be administered by specialists in well controlled environments, such as hospitals and
intensive care units, with continuous monitoring of blood pressure. The speed of administration must be accurately
controlled by the use of an electronic syringe driver or a volumetric pump
Session #12
WORD DESCRIPTION/FUNCTION
DRAWSHEET A drawsheet is a small sheet placed over the middle of the bottom sheet andmay
have tuck tails for tucking the sheet under the mattress.It helps keep the mattress
and bottom linens clean. Also, reduces heat retention and absorbs moisture and
are often used as assist devices to move and transfer persons in bed.
FLOOR The floor is heavily contaminated; soiled linen will further contaminate furniture.
Hence, when using soiled linen do not place on floor or furniture. Do not hold
soiled linens against your uniform.
GLOVES Medical gloves are disposable gloves used during medical examinations and
procedures to help prevent cross-contamination between caregivers and patients.
Gloves prevent the spread of microorganisms.
HAMPER Medical hampers offer great utility in hospitals and healthcare facilities. They are
designed to carry soiled linens and other medical related products.Hampers offer
great maneuverability with smooth rolling casters that are durable and made of
high quality materials. Also, helps prevent the spread of microorganisms.
LOOSEING It is to make something tied, fastened, or fixed in place less tight or firm. In hospital
setting, loosening the linen helps prevent tugging and tearing on linen.
Loosening the linen and moving around the bedsystematically reduce strain
caused by reaching across the bed.
MITER A means of anchoring sheet on mattresses. Method of folding the bed clothes at
corners to secure them in place while the bed is occupied.
PILLOWCASE A pillowcase is a removable cover for a pillow that is generally made out of cloth.
A decorative cover for your bed pillow is an example of a pillowcase.
SHAKING To tremble or vibrate move an object up and down or from side to side with rapid.
This is use to open linens by shaking them causes organisms to be carry on air
currents.
WRINKLES Wrinkles are creases in the skin. The medical term for wrinkles is rhytids. On the
other hand, wrinkles from the bottom linens, which can cause patient discomfort
and promote skin breakdown.
1.
Session #13
1. These are quick and efficient way of monitoring a patient's condition or identifying problems and evaluating
his or her response to intervention.
A. Vital signs
B. Body temperature
C. Respiratory rate
D. All of the above
Rationale: These measures, which indicate the effectiveness of circulatory, respiratory, and neural body functions, offer a
quick and efficient way to monitor a child's condition, identify problems, and evaluate the response to interventions.
2. This occurs because heat-loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with excessive heat production.
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Hyperthermia
D. Fever or pyrexia
Rationale: Pyrexia, or feveraxi occurs because heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with excess heat
production, resulting in an abnormal rise in body temperature.
3. A patient complains in the ER that her axillary temperature rises and falls for the last two days but has never
returned within the normal range. What is this pattern called?
A. Sustained
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Relapsing
Rationale: Remittent fever spikes and falls without a return to normal temperature levels
4. As it was endorsed, the newly admitted patient has lesions on her left axilla. How will you measure her
temperature?
A. Do not measure her temperature, document the reason, inform the health care provider
B. Measure her temperature, inform her that it will be quick
C. Assess the right axillar for lesions, if none, use that site to measure the temperature.
D. Proceed with measuring the temperature orally.
Rationale: Do not use axilla if skin lesions are present because local temperature may be altered or area may be painful
to touch.
5. The thermometer measured a patient’s axillary temperature at 38.9oC. What will you do?
A. Document at the appropriate log
B. Document, inform patient & give paracetamol
C. Document, inform patient & cover the patient with thick blankets
D. Document, inform patient & offer tepid sponge bath
Rationale: Paracetamol used to treat mild to moderate pain (from headaches, menstrual periods, toothaches, backaches,
osteoarthritis, or cold/flu aches and pains) and to reduce fever.
6. Using this site for measuring the temperature is prescribed as it is reliable for stable term and preterm infants,
however, not recommended for detecting fever:
A. Oral
B. Axillary
C. Temporal artery
D. Skin
Rationale: In clinically stable term and preterm infants, axillary thermometry is as reliable as rectal measurement.
Predictors of agreement between the two methods include gestational age, chronological age and mode of delivery
7. This site for measuring temperature is sensitive to core temperature changes but inaccuracies are reported
due to incorrect positioning of the device:
A. Temporal Artery
B. Skin
C. Rectal
D. Tympanic membrane
Rationale: The tympanic membrane is an attractive measurement site for CBT due to its unobtrusive nature and ease of
measurement facilitated, especially when continuous CBT measurements are needed for monitoring such as during
military, occupational and sporting settings.
8. Refers to a temperature alteration where an elevated body temperature is related to the inability of the body to
promote heat loss or reduce heat production:
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Hyperthermia
D. Fever or pyrexia
Rationale: Hyperthermia, also known simply as overheating, is a condition where an individual's body temperature is
elevated beyond normal due to failed thermoregulation. The person's body produces or absorbs more heat than it
dissipates.
9. This is described as the involuntary body response to temperature differences in the body:
A. Basal metabolic regulation
B. Radiation
C. Shivering
D. Diaphoresis
Rationale: Shivering (also called shuddering) is a bodily function in response to cold in warm-blooded animals. When the
core body temperature drops, the shivering reflex is triggered to maintain homeostasis
10. It is a fever pattern that is regarded for fever spikes interspersed with usual temperature levels; returns to
acceptable value at least once in 24 hours.
A. Sustained
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Relapsing
Rationale: An intermittent fever has fever spikes interspersed with usual temperature levels. Temperature returns to
acceptable levels at least once in 24 hours.
Session #14
1. It is described as the movement of gases in and out of the lungs:

A. Respiration
B. Ventilation
C. Diffusion
D. Perfusion
Rationale: Ventilation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, and perfusion is the flow of blood in the pulmonary
capillaries.
2. A nurse knows not to let the patient know that her respirations are being assessed for what rationale?
A. Patients should be informed of all procedures done
B. Provide inaccurate results
C. Alter rate and depth of breathing
D. A and B
Rationale: Prevents the patient from altering rate & depth of breathing.
3. Which of the following factors result to increased respiratory rate and depth? Select all that apply.
A. Exercise
B. Acute pain
C. Anxiety
D. Smoking
E. Opioid analgesics
F. Increased altitude
Rationale: The objective measurements of respiratory status include the rate and depth of breathing and the rhythm of
ventilatory movements.
4. The process of diffusion and perfusion by measuring which among the choices:
A. Respiratory rate
B. Respiratory depth
C. Oxygen saturation
D. A and B
Rationale: Evaluate the respiratory processes of diffusion and perfusion by measuring the oxygen saturation of the blood.
Blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries delivers red blood cells for oxygen attachment.
5. Which among the following statement is regarded as incorrect:

A. Diaphragmatic breathing results from the contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm
B. Observed it best by watching abdominal movements
C. Healthy men and children usually demonstrate diaphragmatic breathing
D. Women tend to use thoracic muscles to breathe, assessed by observing movements in the upper chest.
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Rationale: Determine breathing pattern by observing the chest or the abdomen. Diaphragmatic breathing results from the
contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm, and you observe it best by watching abdominal movements. Healthy men
and children usually demonstrate diaphragmatic breathing. Women tend to use thoracic muscles to breathe, assessed by
observing movements in the upper chest.
6. By observing the degree of excursion or movement in the chest wall, which of the following are you
assessing?
A. Respiratory Rate
B. Ventilatory Depth
C. Ventilatory Rhythm
Rationale: Ventilatory Depth, Assess the depth of respirations by observing the degree of excursion or movement in the
chest wall.
7. Which breathing pattern is characterized by increase in rate & depth of respirations, where hypocarbia
sometime occur?
A. Tachypnea
B. Hyperpnea
C. Hyperventilation
Rationale: Hyperventilation is a rate and depth of respirations increase, where hypocarbia sometimes occurs.
8. What is the expected breathing pattern for Cheyne-Stokes respiration?

A. Respiratory cycle begins with slow, shallow breaths that gradually increase to abnormal rate and depth. The
pattern reverses; breathing slows and becomes shallow, concluding as apnea before respiration resumes.
B. Respiratory cycle begins with slow, shallow breaths that gradually increase to abnormal rate and depth. The pattern
reverses; breathing catches pace and becomes deep, concluding as apnea before respiration resumes.
C. Respirations are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate.
D. Respirations are abnormally shallow for two to three breaths, followed by irregular period of apnea.
Rationale: Respiratory rate and depth are irregular, characterized by alternating periods of apnea and hyperventilation.
9. A nurse notices irregularities as he measured the patient’s respiratory rate. For how long should he measure?
A. 15 seconds the multiply by 4
B. 30 seconds then multiply by 2
C. Full one minute
D. 2 minutes to be sure
Rationale: Respiratory rate is equivalent to the number of respirations per minute. Suspected irregularities require 1
minute.
10. You are caring for a patient who is 3 months old, you have measured his RR at 48 bpm, at rest. What should
you do?
A. Document the measured RR at the appropriate log
B. Document the measured RR & inform the guardian
C. Document the measured RR & inform the guardian & the nurse-in-charge
D. Document the measured RR; inform the guardian & the health care provider
Rationale: Documentation and reporting in nursing are needed for continuity of care it is also a legal requirement showing
the nursing care performed or not performed by a nurse.
Session #15
1. Typically used in assessing pulse is the radial artery, for what reason?
A. It’s the proper site.
B. It’s convenient
C. It’s the most accurate.
D. All of the above
Rationale: The pulse can be assessed using any major artery, but the radial artery is the most commonly used. During
cardiovascular collapse, the radial pulse may not be palpable because of decreased blood pressure and decreased
perfusion to the distal arteries.
2. You are to measure the pulse of patient with casts over her upper extremities. What should you do?
A. Do not take the pulse since she has casts over her arms.
B. Do not take the pulse since she has casts over her arms & document the reason.
C. Use the apical pulse in measuring her pulse rate.
D. Base the pulse rate from the previous shifts since it’s the same.
Rationale: The radial pulse is abnormal or intermittent resulting from dysrhythmias or if it is inaccessible of a dressing or
cast, assess the apical pulse.
3. In auscultating for bowel, lung & heart sounds, which particular of the stethoscope should be used?
A. Stethoscope
B. Chest piece
C. Bell
D. Diaphragm
Rationale: Auscultate bowel, lung, and heart sounds with the diaphragm.
4. In assessing the patient’s pulse, you noticed that it is irregular. For long should you assess his pulse?
A. 15 seconds the multiply by 4
B. 30 seconds then multiply by 2
C. Full one minute
D. 2 minutes to be sure
Rationale: Inefficient contraction of heart fails to transmit pulse wave, interfering with cardiac output, resulting in irregular
pulse. Longer time ensures accurate count.
5. Which among the following data would you refer to a physician?

A. Infant, HR 155bpm
B. Toddler, 140bpm
C. Preschooler, 130bpm
D. Adult, 100bpm
Rationale: The hear rate of a preschooler is 80-110 bmp.
6. Among the given pulse sites, which is used during cardiac arrest?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Carotid
D. Apical
Rationale: Easily accessible site used during physiological shock or cardiac arrest when other sites are not palpable.
7. Which of the following pulse sites is best used in assessing the status of blood circulation to the foot? Select
all that apply.
A. Femoral
B. Popliteal
C. Posterior tibial
D. Dorsalis pedis
Rationale: Posterior tibial refers to inner side of ankle, below medial malleolus. While Dorsalis pedis as along top of foot,
between extension tendons of great and first toe. Which characterized as the site used to assess status of circulation to
foot.
8. In auscultating the apical pulse, which of the following should be assessed? Select all that apply.
A. Rate
B. Rhythm
C. Strength
D. Equality
Rationale: When auscultating an apical pulse, assess rate and rhythm only
9. When the regular interval is interrupted by an early or late beat or a missed beat this indicates an alteration or
abnormality in which of the following parameters:
A. Rate
B. Rhythm
C. Strength
D. Equality
Rationale: Normally a regular interval occurs between each pulse or heartbeat. An interval interrupted by an early or late
beat or a missed beat indicates an abnormal rhythm or dysrhythmia.
10. You are documenting the pulse strength of a patient who is having a panic attack. You have given a score of
4, how is this score described?
A. Absent
B. Barely palpable
C. Normal
D. Strong
E. Bounding
Rationale: Document the pulse strength as bounding indicates full or strong.
Session #16
1. It is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure:

A. Blood pressure
B. Systolic pressure
C. Diastolic pressure
D. Pulse pressure
Rationale: The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.
2. Which among the following statements is not true about Cardiac Output:
A. The BP depends on the cardiac output.
B. Cardiac output increases as a result of an increase in HR, greater heart muscle contractility, or an increase in blood
volume.
C. When volume decreases in an enclosed space such as a blood vessel, the pressure in that space rises.
D. As cardiac output increases, more blood is pumped against arterial walls, causing the BP to rise.
Rationale: Blood pressure reflects the interrelationships of cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance, blood volume,
blood viscosity, and artery elasticity. The correct word is increases instead of decreases.
3. According to James et al. (2014), which of the following is defined as hypertension

A. 120/80 mmHg
B. 135/85 mmHg
C. 145/95 mmHg
D. 130/75 mmHg
Rationale: Diastolic readings greater than 90 mm Hg and systolic readings greater than 140 mm Hg define
Hypertension.
4. It occurs when a normotensive person develops symptoms and a drop in systolic pressure by at least 20
mmHg:
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Postural hypotension
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension, also referred to as postural hypotension, occurs when a normotensive person
develops symptoms and a drop in systolic pressure by at least 20 mm Hg or a drop in diastolic pressure by at least 20 mm
Hg within 3 minutes of rising to an upright position.
5. When can a patient be diagnosed as hypertensive?

A. A first time reading of 130/80 mmHg
B. A patient who has familial history of hypertension
C. A mother who is angry and shouts
D. A client with 3 or more consecutive readings of 140/90 mmHg
Rationale: It is usually diagnosed when a patient’s blood pressure is repeatedly found to be 140/90 mmHg or higher in a
clinical setting and average readings taken using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or monitoring at home are higher
than 135/85 mmHg.
6. It is the minimal pressure exerted against the arterial walls at all times.
A. Blood pressure
B. Systolic pressure
C. Diastolic pressure
D. Pulse pressure
Rationale: Diastolic pressure is the minimal pressure exerted against the arterial walls at all times.
7. A patient suddenly claimed to experience dizziness as he immediately got up from the bed. What could be a
reason?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Anemia
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension also called postural hypotension is a form of low blood pressure that happens when
you stand up from sitting or lying down. Orthostatic hypotension can make you feel dizzy or lightheaded, and maybe even
cause you to faint.
8. You have noticed a student nurse is to measure a patient’s BP with loose-fitting cuff. What will you do?
A. Check if the student documented the reading.
B. Let the student check his blood pressure.
C. Call the attention of the student and instruct to tighten the cuff on the patient’s arm.
D. Call the attention of the student and instruct to place the cuff snugly on the patient’s arm.
Rationale: Depending on the thickness of the sleeve, clothing can add up to 50 mmHg to a reading. The blood pressure
cuff needs to be placed on a bare arm – so roll up your sleeve or come wearing short sleeves.
9. A client claims to have hypertension as he had his BP taken once at 150/100. How will you deal with the
patient?
A. Confirm that the patient is hypertensive.
B. Instruct the patient to observe natural ways such as taking in garlic.
C. Instruct the patient to have his BP checked regularly & return within 2 months.
D. Instruct the patient to come back tomorrow to have his BP checked.
Rationale: High reading during the first BP measurement is obtained, the patient is encouraged to return for another
check-up within 2 months.
10. You are instructed to measure the BP of a 6 y/o patient and you only have an adult cuff. What will you do?
A. Use the adult cuff as it is needed in patient care.
B. Inform the physician & document the reason
C. Let the patient’s guardian buy a pediatric cuff as it is for their patient.
Rationale: The main difference one should consider when taking a pediatric patient's blood pressure is that body size and
age are needed to determine normal values for each child. Reference tables using a child's sex, age, and height provide
more exact information.
Session #17
1. Measuring the oxygen saturation of the blood evaluates which respiratory processes? Select all that apply.
A. Respiratory rate
B. Respiratory depth
C. Respiratory diffusion
D. Respiratory perfusion
Rationale: Evaluate the respiratory processes of diffusion and perfusion by measuring the oxygen saturation of the blood.
2. After oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the pulmonary blood, where do most oxygen attach?
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Hemoglobin
D. Hematocrit
Rationale: After oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the pulmonary blood, most of the oxygen attaches to hemoglobin
molecules in red blood cells.
3. What carries the oxygenated hemoglobin molecules to the left side of the heart and out to the peripheral
capillaries?
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Hemoglobin
D. Hematocrit
Rationale: Red blood cells carry the oxygenated hemoglobin molecules through the left side of the heart and out to the
peripheral capillaries, where the oxygen detaches, depending on the needs of the tissues.
4. All, but one, affect the percent of saturation of oxygen (SaO2):

A. Respiration
B. Ventilation
C. Perfusion
D. Diffusion
Rationale: It is affected by factors that interfere with ventilation, perfusion, or diffusion. The saturation of venous blood
(SvO2) is lower because the tissues have removed some of the oxygen from the hemoglobin molecules.
5. Which of the following devices permit the indirect measuremen of oxygen saturation:
A. Arterial blood gas analysis
B. Complete blood count
C. Oxygen rebreather face mask
D. Pulse oximeter
Rationale: A pulse oximeter permits the indirect measurement of oxygen saturation.
6. All, but one, of the following statements about arterial oxygen saturation measurement is correct:
A. A saturation of less than 90% is a clinical emergency (WHO, 2011).
B. SpO2 is a reliable estimate of SaO2 when the SaO2 is over 80%.
C. Values obtained with pulse oximetry are less accurate at saturations less than 70%.
D. All are correct.
Rationale: A Photodetector in the probe detects the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin molecules, and the oximeter
calculates the pulse saturation (SpO2). SpO2 is a reliable estimate of SaO2 when the SaO2 is over 70%. A saturation of
less than 90% is a clinical emergency (WHO, 2011). Values obtained with pulse oximetry are less accurate at saturations
less than 70%.
7. All, but one, of the following statements about pulse oximeter t is correct:
A. Digit probes are spring loaded and conform to various sizes.
B. Earlobe probes have greater accuracy at lower saturations and are least affected by peripheral vasoconstriction.
C. Oxygen saturation measurement using a forehead probe is quicker than finger probes (Yont et al., 2011) and more
accurate in conditions that decrease blood flow (Nesseler et al., 2012).
D. All are correct.
Rationale: Factors that affect light transmission or peripheral arterial pulsations affect the ability of the photodetector to
measure SpO2 correctly. An awareness of these factors allows accurate interpretation of abnormal SpO2 measurements.
8. All, but one, of the following statements about interference with arterial pulsations is correct:
A. Peripheral vascular disease (atherosclerosis) reduces pulse volume.
B. Hyperthermia at assessment site decreases peripheral blood flow.
C. Pharmacological vasoconstrictors (e.g., epinephrine) decrease peripheral pulse volume.
D. All are correct.
Rationale: The correct answer is hypothermia at assessment site decreases peripheral blood flow
9. All, but one, of the following statements about interference with light transmission is correct:
A. Outside light sources interfere with ability of oximeter to process reflected light.
B. Patient motion does not interferes with ability of oximeter to process reflected light.
C. Jaundice interferes with ability of oximeter to process reflected light.
D. All are incorrect.
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient motion interferes with ability of oximeter to process reflected light.
10. A patient comes in with a dark blue nail polish on her nails. Prior assessing the patient’s oxygen saturation,
what should a nurse perform first?
A. Monitor vital signs
B. Ask permission to connect finger probe
C. Remove nail polish
D. Do not assess the oxygen saturation
Rationale: Ensures accurate readings. Nail polish may falsely alter saturation.
Session #18
1. This layer of the skin is regarded as a relatively impermeable membrane that prevents entrance of
microorganism:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hyperdermis
D. Hypodermis
Rationale: Epidermis is a relatively impermeable layer that prevents entrance of microorganisms.
2. All of the following skin protection implications are true except for one:
A. Weakening of the epidermis occurs by scraping or stripping its surface.
B. Excessive dryness causes cracks and breaks in skin and mucosa that allow bacteria to enter.
C. Constant exposure of skin to moisture prevents maceration or softening and interrupting dermal integrity.
D. Misuse of soap, detergents, cosmetics, deodorant, and depilatories cause chemical irritation.
Rationale: Constant exposure of skin to moisture causes maceration or softening, interrupting dermal integrity and
promoting ulcer formation and bacterial growth.
3. Among the following interventions which should be observed:

A. Minimize friction to avoid loss of stratum corneum, which results in development of pressure ulcers.
B. Smooth linen out to remove sources of mechanical irritation.
C. Remove rings from fingers to prevent accidentally injuring patient's skin.
D. Make sure that bath water is excessively hot or cold.
Rationale: Function of the Skin and Implications for Care of Skin sensation contains sensory organs for touch, pain, heat,
cold, and pressure.
4. One among the following statements is true regarding temperature regulation:

A. Excess blankets or bed coverings interfere with heat loss through radiation and conduction.
B. Wet bed linen or gowns promote with convection and conduction.
C. Coverings interfere with heat conservation.
D. All of the above
Rationale: Factors that interfere with heat loss alter temperature control. Wet bed linen or gowns interfere with convection
and conduction. Excess blankets or bed coverings interfere with heat loss through radiation and conduction. Coverings
promote heat conservation.
5. Which among the following is true about sebum: Select all that apply.
A. Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily, odorous fluid, into the hair follicles.
B. Sebum softens and lubricates the skin and slows water loss from the skin when the humidity is low.
C. Sebum has bactericidal action.
Rationale: Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily, odorous fluid, into the hair follicles. Sebum softens and lubricates
the skin and slows water loss from the skin when the humidity is low. More important, sebum has bactericidal action.
6. Which among the following is true about subcutaneous tissue: Select all that apply.
A. The fatty tissue functions as a heat insulator for the body.
B. Subcutaneous tissue also supports upper skin layers to withstand stresses and pressure.
C. Very little subcutaneous tissue underlies the oral mucosa.
Rationale: The subcutaneous tissue layer contains blood vessels, nerves, lymph, and loose connective tissue filled with
fat cells. The fatty tissue functions as a heat insulator for the body. Subcutaneous tissue also supports upper skin layers
to withstand stresses and pressure without injury and anchors the skin loosely to underlying structures such as muscle.
Very little subcutaneous tissue underlies the oral mucosa.
7. The following statements are considered as correct regarding the skin: Select all that apply.
A. The neonate's skin is relatively immature at birth.
B. A toddler's skin layers become more tightly bound together.
C. During adolescence the growth and maturation of the integument deceases.
D. The condition of the adult's skin depends on bathing practices and exposure to environmental irritants.
Rationale: Letter A, B, D statements provided are correct.
8. All but one of the following statements are considered as correct regarding the skin:
A. When an adult bathes frequently or is exposed to an environment with low humidity, it becomes dry and flaky.
B. With aging the rate of epidermal cell replacement slows, and the skin thins and loses resiliency.
C. Moisture leaves the skin, increasing the risk for bruising and other types of injury.
D. As the production of lubricating substances from skin glands increase, the skin becomes dry and itchy.
Rationale: The condition of the adult's skin depends on bathing practices and exposure to environmental irritants.
Normally the skin is elastic, well hydrated, firm, and smooth.
9. Which of the following is NOT observed in integumentary maturation during the adolescent stage:
A. In girls estrogen secretion causes the skin to become soft, smooth, and thicker with increased vascularity.
B. In boys male hormones produce an decreased thickness of the skin with some darkening in color.
C. Sebaceous glands become more active, predisposing adolescents to acne (i.e., active inflammation of the
sebaceous glands accompanied by pimples).
D. Sweat glands become fully functional during puberty.
Rationale: In boys male hormones produce an increased thickness of the skin with some darkening in color. Sebaceous
glands become more active, predisposing adolescents to acne.
10. Among the statements regarding Hair which is NOT true:

A. Males reach adolescence; shaving becomes a part of routine grooming.
B. Young girls who reach puberty often begin to shave their legs and axillae.
C. With aging, as scalp hair becomes thinner and drier, shampooing is usually performed less frequently.
Rationale: As males reach adolescence, shaving becomes a part of routine grooming. Young girls who reach puberty
often begin to shave their legs and axillae. With aging, as scalp hair becomes thinner and drier, shampooing is usually
performed less frequently.
Session #19
1. Which among the following nursing care does not apply to Early Morning Care: Select all that apply.
A. Change a patient's gown or pajamas.
B. Offering a bedpan or urinal if the patient is not ambulatory.
C. Provide a full or partial bath or a shower.
D. Washing the patient's hands and face.
Rationale: Early Morning Care includes offering a bedpan or urinal if the patient is not ambulatory, washing the patient's
hands and face, and helping with oral care.
2. Among the following nursing care, which will you render before bedtime? Select all that apply.
A. Changing soiled bed linens, gowns, or pajamas;
B. Helping patients wash the face and hands
C. Offering the bedpan or urinal to nonambulatory patients
D. Providing oral hygiene
Rationale: PM care” often includes changing soiled bed linens, gowns, or pajamas; helping patients wash the face and
hands; providing oral hygiene; giving a back massage; and offering the bedpan or urinal to nonambulatory patients.
3. Which of the following statement best defines a partial bed bath:

A. Bath administered to totally dependent patient in bed.
B. Patient sits or stands under a continuous stream of water.
C. Bed bath that consists of bathing only body parts that would cause discomfort if left unbathed
D. Involves bathing from a bath basin or sink with patient sitting in a chair.
Rationale: Partial bed bath: Bed bath that consists of bathing only body parts that would cause discomfort if left unbathed
such as the hands, face, axillae, and perineal area. Partial bath may also include washing back and providing back rub.
Provide a partial bath to dependent patients in need of partial hygiene or self-sufficient bedridden patients who are unable
to reach all body parts.
4. This is a type of bath where an antimicrobial wipe is used to decrease the frequency of hospital-acquired
infections on skin, invasive lines, and catheters:
A. Antimicrobial tub bath
B. Antimicrobial shower
C. Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) bath
D. Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) wipes
Rationale: Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) bath is a antimicrobial bath wipe is used to decrease the frequency of
hospitalacquired infections on skin, invasive lines, and catheters.
5. A complete bed bath, tub bath, or shower often exhausts a patient. What should be assessed to measure her
physical tolerance?
A. Range of motion
B. Blood pressure
C. Heart rate
D. Activity tolerance test
Rationale: Assessing heart rate before, during, and after a bath provides a measure of his her physical tolerance.
6. Who among the following patients are candidates for a partial bed bath? Select all that apply.
A. An 84 year old hypertensive patient.
B. A post-operative patient on her 2nd day.
C. A bedridden patient.
Rationale: Provide a partial bed bath to patients who are aging, dependent, in need of only partial hygiene, or bedridden
and unable to reach all body parts.
7. The question of whether to use bath basins with soap and water is an issue because provide a
reservoir for bacteria and are a possible source of transmission of hospital-acquired infections. To prevent
this from occurring, what actions should be observed? Select all that apply.
A. Do not bathe patients.
B. Use CHG 4% solution and soap together with water.
C. Use CHG 4% solution instead of soap then water.
D. Air-dry bath basins and avoid using as storage for bath supplies.
Rationale: The bacteria can be transferred to and maintained in a patient's bath basin. In contrast, the use of CHG 4%
solution in place of standard soap and water in wash basins has been shown to decrease bacterial growth in basins and
reduce critical care unit–acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). It is important to air-dry bath
basins completely and not to use a basin for storing supplies.
8. In providing bed bath, what should be used if there’s a potential contact with body fluids?
A. Waterproof apron
B. Mask
C. Face shield
D. Gloves
Rationale: Wear gloves when there is a risk of coming in contact with body fluids.
9. In assuring the safety of the client while performing bed bath, what should you do?
A. Ask the significant other to stay at the bedside if something happens.
B. Secure consent to restrain the patient.
C. Raise the side rails.
Rationale: All the following options are the safety procedures while performing bed bath.
10. To promote venous return, what should be observed in providing a bed bath?
A. Use warm water
B. Use cotton bath towels
C. Avoid CHG
D. Use firm stroke from ankle to groin
Rationale: Washing from ankle to groin with firm strokes promotes venous return.
Session #20
1. SHAMPOO The patient confined to bed will require a cleansing shampoo at least every two
weeks. With the approval of the medical officer, plan the shampoo for a time
when the patient feels rested and has no conflicting treatments or appointments.
2. BRUSHING Brushing helps to keep hair clean and distributes oil evenly along hair shafts,
while combing prevents it from becoming tangled.
3. COMBING Combing styles hair and prevents from tangling
4. LICE Lice attach their eggs (nits) to hair shafts. Nits are oval and yellow to white in
color. After hatching, they bite the scalp or skin to feed on blood.
5. TANGLING Long hair easily mats and tangles. Daily brushing and combing prevent the
problem. So does braiding. You need the person’s consent to braid hair. Never
cut the person’s hair.
6. PATCHES Hair loss may be complete or partial. Male pattern baldness occurs with aging. It
results from heredity. Hair also thins in some women with aging. Cancer
treatments (radiation therapy to the head and chemotherapy) often cause
alopecia in persons of all ages.
7. CONSENT Hair should not be removed from Sikh patients without prior informed consent by
the patient, or in case of incapacity, the lawful care giver or power of attorney.
8. BRAIDING Avoid tying or braiding the person's hair too tightly. If necessary, engage a local
hairdresser in the care process.
9. WARMWATER Warm water should be used when cleansing your hair at the beginning of wash
day. This is because warm water allows the cuticles of the hair, and pores on the
scalp to open up to help remove any dirt, residue or buildup from the scalp and
hair.
10. SALINE Sterile saline provides for easier removal of dressing.
Session #21
1. Which of following is not a part of the guidelines for Safe Narcotic Administration and Control:
A. Store all narcotics in a locked, secure cabinet or container (e.g., computerized, locked cabinets are preferred).
B. Maintain a running count of narcotics by counting them whenever dispensing them. If you find a discrepancy correct
and report it immediately.
C. Use the record to document the patient's name, date, time of medication administration, name of medication, and
dosage.
D. A third nurse witnesses disposal of the unused part if a nurse gives only part of a dose of a controlled
substance.
Rationale: The correct is a second nurse witnesses disposal of the unused part if a nurse gives only part of a dose of a
controlled substance.
2. Which among the following names of medications does a nurse rarely use in clinical practice?
A. First name
B. Chemical name
C. Generic name
D. Brand name
Rationale: The chemical name of a medication provides an exact description of its composition and molecular structure.
Nurses rarely use chemical names in clinical practice
3. Among the following what does medication classification usually indicate? Select all that apply.
A. Effect of a medication on a body system.
B. The symptoms a medication relieves.
C. Its desired effect.
Rationale: Medication classification indicates the effect of a medication on a body system, the symptoms a medication
relieves, or its desired effect.
4. It is a tablet or capsule that contains small particles of a medication coated with material that requires a
varying amount of time to dissolve:
A. Caplet
B. Enteric-coated tablet
C. Sustained release
D. Troche
Rationale: Sustained release is a tablet or capsule that contains small particles of a medication coated with material that
requires a varying amount of time to dissolve.
5. Which of the following best describes a liniment:

A. Semisolid, externally applied preparation, usually containing one or more medications.
B. Usually contains alcohol, oil, or soapy emollient applied to skin.
C. Semiliquid suspension that usually protects, cools, or cleanses skin.
D. Thick ointment; absorbed through skin more slowly than ointment; often used for skin protection.
Rationale: Liniment describes as usually contains alcohol, oil, or soapy emollient applied to skin.
6. These are the expected or predicted physiological response caused by a medication:

A. Therapeutic effects
B. Adverse effects
C. Side effects
D. Toxic effects
Rationale: Therapeutic Effects are the expected or predicted physiological response caused by a medication.
7. These are the are the predictable and often unavoidable adverse effect produced at a usual therapeutic dose:
A. Therapeutic effects
B. Adverse effects
C. Side effects
D. Toxic effects
Rationale: Side Effects are the predictable and often unavoidable adverse effect produced at a usual therapeutic dose.
8. It is a known effect when combined medications produce a greater effect than given separately.
A. Medication interaction
B. Synergistic effect
C. Fushiwara effect
Rationale: When two medications have a synergistic effect, their combined effect is greater than the effect of the
medications when given separately.
9. When a medication is administered repeatedly, its serum level fluctuates between doses. What is the highest
level is called?
A. Top concentration
B. Peak concentration
C. Trough concentration
D. High concentration
Rationale: When a medication is administered repeatedly, its serum level fluctuates between doses. The highest level is
called the peak concentration, and the lowest level is called the trough concentration.
10. A patient is to receive medication TID. What does this abbreviation mean?
A. Twice a day
B. Thrice a day
C. Two tabs, once a day
D. Three tabs, once a day
TID stands for 3 times per day. Use knowledge about time intervals and terms used to describe medication actions to
anticipate the effect of a medication and educate the patient about when to expect a response
Session #22
1. It is a route of medication administration where the drug is placed under the patient’s tongue:
A. Oral administration
B. Sublingual administration
C. Buccal administration
D. Mucuos membrane administration
Rationale: Oral administration is contraindicated in patients who are unconscious, confused, or unable or unwilling to
swallow or hold medication under tongue.
2. It is a parenteral administration where medication is injected into tissues just below the dermis of the skin
A. Intradermal
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous
Rationale: Subcutaneous is known as Injection into tissues just below the dermis of the skin
3. Administering medications through a catheter surgically placed in the subarachnoid space or one of the
ventricles of the brain:
A. Epidural
B. Intrathecal
C. Intrapleural
D. Intraperitoneal
Rationale: Physicians and specially educated nurses administer intrathecal medications through a catheter surgically
placed in the subarachnoid space or one of the ventricles of the brain. Intrathecal medication administration often is a
long-term treatment.
4. Administering medications directly into the pleural space.

A. Epidural
B. Intrathecal
C. Intrapleural
D. Intraperitoneal
Rationale: A syringe and needle or a chest tube is used to administer intrapleural medications directly into the pleural
space.
5-7. A patient under your care is to receive 275mg of paracetamol syrup. The available medication on hand reads
500mg/5ml, what is the amount to be given? Show your solution. (3 points)
A. 2.75 ml
B. 3.00 ml
C. 3.30 ml
D. 5.00 ml
Rationale: Therefore; the amount to be given is 2.75 ml of the available medication.
275
×5=2.75 ml
500
8-10. The doctor orders 320mg/tab of aspirin to be chewed to a patient who suffers from myocardial infarction.
The available aspirin at the pharmacy is at 80mg/tab. How many should you let the patient take? Show your
solution. (3 points)
A. 0.25 tab
B. 4 tabs
C. Refer the unavailability to the physician
Rationale: Therefore; the amount should be taken is 4 tabs.
320
×1=4 tabs
80
Session #23
1. An order is read as Tetracycline 500 mg PO q6h. How is this order classified:

A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Standing orders
D. STAT orders
Rationale: A standing order is carried out until the health care provider cancels it by another order or a prescribed
number of days elapse. Some standing orders indicate a final date or number of treatments or doses
2. An order is read as Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV q2h prn for incisional pain. How is this order classified:
A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Single (One-Time ) Orders
D. Standing orders
Rationale: Sometimes the health care provider orders a medication to be given only when a patient requires it. This is
a prn order. Use objective and subjective assessment (e.g., severity of pain, body temperature) and discretion in
determining whether or not the patient needs the medication.
3. Sometimes a health care provider orders a medication to be given once at a specified time. Which type of
order does this apply to?
A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Single (One-Time) Orders
D. Standing orders
Rationale: Single (One-Time) Orders is sometimes a health care provider orders a medication to be given once at a
specified time.
4. This type of order signifies that a single dose of a medication is to be given immediately and only once.
A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Standing orders
D. STAT orders
Rationale: A STAT order signifies that a single dose of a medication is to be given immediately and only once. STAT
orders are often written for emergencies when a patient's condition changes suddenly.
5. It is a type of order where an order is more specific than a 1-time order and is used when a patient needs a
medication quickly but not right away:
A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Standing orders
D. STAT orders
Rationale: A now order is more specific than a 1-time order and is used when a patient needs a medication quickly
but not right away, as in a STAT order.
6. Among the following instances are considered to be medication errors: Select all that apply.
A. Inaccurate prescribing
B. Administering the wrong medication
C. Giving the medication using the wrong route or time interval
D. Administering extra doses
E. Failing to administer a medication
Rationale: A medication error can cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm. Medication errors
include inaccurate prescribing, administering the wrong medication, giving the medication using the wrong route or
time interval, administering extra doses, and/or failing to administer a medication. Preventing medication errors is
essential
7. In preventing medication errors, which of the following should be done by the nurse? Select all that apply.
A. Interpret illegible handwriting then clarify with health care provider.
B. Prepare medications for only one patient at a time.
C. Document all medications as soon as they are given.
D. When you have made an error, reflect on what went wrong and ask how you could have prevented the
error. Complete an occurrence report per agency policy.
E. Question unusually large or small doses.
Rationale: Preventing medication errors is essential. The process of administering medications has many steps and
involves many members of the health care team.
8. Preparing oral medications in syringes can be fatal when administered in a differently. Which among the 6
rights is concerned in this situation?
A. Right patient
B. Right time
C. Right dose
D. Right route
Rationale: A setting that requires you to prepare oral medications, only use enteral syringes when preparing the
medication. The enteral syringes are often a different color than the parenteral syringes and are clearly labeled for
oral or enteral use.
9. 9. A patient is ordered Ceftriaxone 750mg SIVP q8h. Which among the schedule should the nurse follow?
A. 8AM – 1PM – 6PM
B. 9AM – 2PM – 7PM
C. 7AM – 3PM – 11PM
D. 7AM – 11AM – 3PM
Rationale: Both medications are scheduled for 3 times within a 24-hour period. You need to give the q8h medication
every 8 hours ATC to maintain therapeutic blood levels of the medication. In contrast, you need to give the 3-times-a-
day medication at 3 different times while the patient is awake. Each agency has a recommended time schedule for
medications ordered at frequent intervals.
10. To ensure the right dose, which among the following should be observed? Select all that apply.
A. Have another qualified nurse check the calculated doses when performing medication calculations or
conversions.
B. Prepare medications using standard measurement devices such as graduated cups, syringes, and scaled
droppers to measure medications accurately.
C. Charge nurses split the medications, label and package them, and then send them to the nurse for administration.
D. Completely clean a crushing device before crushing the tablet.
E. Do not use a patient's favorite foods or liquids because medications alter their taste and decrease the
patient's desire for them.
Rationale: The unit-dose system is designed to minimize errors. When preparing a medication from a larger volume
or strength than needed or when the health care provider orders a system of measurement different from that which
the pharmacy supplies, the chance of error increases.
Session #24
1. It is a type of medication route where drugs are given by mouth:

A. Oral route
B. Sublingual route
C. Buccal route
D. All of the above
Rationale: Oral Administration is the easiest and most desirable route for administering medications is by mouth.
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding oral administration:

A. easiest and most desirable route for administering medications
B. Food sometimes affects their absorption
C. Meals enhances medication absorption
D. Many medications do interact with nutritional and herbal supplements.
Rationale: Medication Administration is a sound knowledge base is required for medications to be administered safely.
Nurses need to be prepared to administer medications using a variety of routes.
.
3. This occurs when food, fluid, or medication intended for GI administration inadvertently enters the respiratory
tract.
A. Inspiration
B. Expiration
C. Aspiration
D. Inhibition
Rationale: Aspiration occurs when food, fluid, or medication intended for GI administration inadvertently enters the
respiratory tract.
4. In assessing the patient’s ability to swallow, which should you assess:

A. Dentures
B. Tonsils
C. Gag reflex
D. Respiration
Rationale: This way to protect a patient from aspiration by assessing his or her ability to swallow.
5. Which among the following one should NOT observe in administering oral medications:
A. Administer pills one at a time.
B. Utilize straws because they increase the control patient has over volume intake.
C. Have patient hold and drink from a cup if possible.
D. Time medications to coincide with mealtimes or when patient is well rested and awake if possible.
Rationale: Oral medication administration is contraindicated in some situations. Many medications interact with nutritional
and herbal supplements. You need to be knowledgeable about these interactions to determine the best time to give oral
medications.
6. If a patient has unilateral weakness, where should the medication be placed?

A. Affected or weak side of the mouth
B. Unaffected or strong side of the mouth
C. Request for another route of administration n
D. Let the patient normally drink the medication
Rationale: Place the medication in the stronger side of the mouth. Turning the head toward the weaker side helps the
medication move down the stronger side of the esophagus.
7. A patient is to take a orally disintegrating medication. All of the following staments are correct except:
A. Remove medication from blister packet just before use.
B. Do not push the tablet through the foil.
C. Place medication on top of patient's tongue and caution against chewing the medication.
D. Place medication on top of patient's tongue and instruct to chew and drink water after.
Rationale: For orally disintegrating formulations is to remove medication from blister packet just before use. Do not push
the tablet through the foil. Place medication on top of patient's tongue and caution against chewing the medication.
8. For sublingually administered medications, which of the following are correct: Select all that apply.
A. Medication is absorbed through blood vessels of undersurface of tongue.
B. If swallowed, gastric juices destroy medication, or liver detoxifies it so rapidly that therapeutic blood levels are
not attained.
C. Caution patient against swallowing tablet.
D. Have patient place medication under tongue and allow it to dissolve completely.
Rationale: For sublingual medications is to have patient place medication under tongue and allow it to dissolve
completely. Caution patient against swallowing tablet. Medication is absorbed through blood vessels of undersurface of
tongue. If swallowed, gastric juices destroy medication, or liver detoxifies it so rapidly that therapeutic blood levels are not
attained.
9. Among the following actions, which should NOT be avoided when medications are given per buccal? Select
all that apply:
A. Chewing of the medication.
B. Dissolving against the mucous membranes of the cheek
C. Water until the medication is dissolved
Rationale: For buccal medications is to have patient place medication in mouth against mucous membranes of cheek
until it dissolves. Avoid administering liquids until buccal medication has dissolved.
10. Among the following actions, which should be avoided for effervescent medications? Select all that apply:
A. Add tablet or powder to glass of liquid.
B. Give immediately after dissolving.
C. Let the tablet dissolve on the patient’s tongue
D. Offer water once dissolve on the patient’s tongue
Rationale: For effervescent medication is to add tablet or powder to glass of liquid. Give immediately after dissolving.
Session #25
1. In administering topical medications in open wounds, which of the following should be observed?
A. Medical asepsis
B. Sterile technique
C. Clean technique
D. Hand hygiene
Rationale: Use sterile technique if a patient has an open wound. Skin encrustation and dead tissues harbor
microorganisms and block contact of medications with the tissues to be treated.
2. Prior applying medications, which of the following interventions should one NOT observe? Select all that
apply.
A. Wash the area with soap and water.
B. Soaking the involved site.
C. Locally debriding the tissue.
Rationale: By applying medications, clean the skin thoroughly by washing the area gently with soap and water, soaking
an involved site, or locally debriding tissue.
3. The most commonly administered form of nasal instillation is decongestant spray or drops, used to relieve
symptoms of sinus congestion and colds. Overusing leads to which rebound effect:
A. Increase blood pressure.
B. Nasal irritation.
C. Nasal congestion worsens.
Rationale: To avoid abuse of medications because overuse leads to a rebound effect in which the nasal congestion
worsens.
4. In instilling eye medications, which of the following should be observed: Select all that apply.
A. Avoid instilling any form of eye medications directly onto the cornea.
B. Avoid touching the eyelids or other eye structures with eyedroppers or ointment tubes.
C. Use eye medication for both the patient's affected and unaffected eyes.
D. Never allow a patient to use another patient's eye medications.
Rationale: This each step for instilling eyedrops to help them understand the procedure and the principles when
administering eye medications.
5. Among the following statements, which is true regarding ear instillation:

A. Eardrops should be at room temperature.
B. Non-sterile solutions may be used.
C. Medications should be forced when the ear canal as deemed to be occluded.
Rationale: Internal ear structures are very sensitive to temperature extremes, you need to instill eardrops at room
temperature to prevent vertigo, dizziness, or nausea.
6. Which among the following regarding dry powder inhalers (DPIs) are true: Select all that apply.
A. Some DPIs are unit dosed
B. Other DPIs hold enough medication for 1 month.
C. DPIs require less manual dexterity.
D. The medication inside the DPI can clump if the patient is in a humid climate
Rationale: The dry powder inhalers (DPIs) deliver medications that produce local effects such as bronchodilation.
7. Which among the following illnesses do not receive medications through inhalations:
A. Chronic asthma
B. Hypertension
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchitis
Rationale: Patients who receive medications by inhalation frequently suffer chronic respiratory disease such as chronic
asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis.
8-10. A patient is prescribed Seretide, 2 puffs BID. The inhaler has a total of 200 puffs. How long should the
canister/medication last? Show your solution. (3 points)
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 40 days
D. 50days
Rationale: The Seretide Medication in this example will last 50 days. The inhaler canister has total of 200 puffs it was
prescribes 2 puffs BID which the usual dose is two puffs from your inhaler twice a day..
2 puffs × 2×a d ay =4 puffs per day
200 puffs ÷ 4 puffs per day =50 days

Session #26
1. Which among the following recommendations is NOT followed to prevent needlestick injuries among
nurses:Select all that apply.
A. Do not recap any needle after medication administration.
B. Plan safe handling and disposal of needles before beginning a procedure.
C. Attend education offerings on bloodborne pathogens and follow recommendations for infection prevention, including
receiving the hepatitis B vaccine.
D. Utilize needles even when effective needleless systems or sharps with engineered sharps injury protection
(SESIP) safety devices are available.
Rationale: The correct answer is to Avoid using needles when effective needleless systems or sharps with engineered
sharps injury protection (SESIP) safety devices are available.
2. It is made of glass with a constricted neck that must be snapped off to allow access to the medication:
A. Syringes
B. Vials
C. Needles
D. Ampules
Rationale: An ampule is made of glass with a constricted neck that must be snapped off to allow access to the
medication.
3. In this type of parenteral medication administration, it involves placing medications into the loose connective
tissue under the dermis:
A. Intraveneous injection
B. Intradermal injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
Rationale: Subcutaneous injections involve placing medications into the loose connective tissue under the dermis.
4. This type of parenteral medication administration, the needle passes through subcutaneous tissue and
penetrate deep muscle :
A. Intravenous injection
B. Intradermal injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
Rationale: Intramuscular Injections uses as a longer and heavier-gauge needle to pass through subcutaneous tissue and
penetrate deep muscle tissue
5. This site of IM injection is the preferred and safest site for all adults, children, and infants, especially for
medications that have larger volumes and are more viscous and irritating:
A. Outer posterior aspect of the upper arms
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Deltoid
D. Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The ventrogluteal is a site is the preferred and safest site for all adults, children, and infants, especially for
medications that have larger volumes and are more viscous and irritating.
6. In permforming IM injections, this technique is used to minimize local skin irritation by sealing the medication
in muscle tissue:
A. A-Track Method
B. AZ-Track Method
C. Z-Track Method
the Z-track method be used to minimize local skin irritation by sealing the medication in muscle tissue
7-10. Identify the type of parenteral administration and indicate the angle of needle insertion observed.
7. Intramuscular (90 Degrees)
8. Subcutaneous (45 Degrees)
9. Intravenous (25 Degrees)
10. Intradermal (15 Degrees) Injections.
Session #27
1. This type of order signifies that a single dose of a medication is to be given immediately and only once.
A. Now orders
B. PRN orders
C. Standing orders
D. STAT orders
Rationale: A STAT order signifies that a single dose of a medication is to be given immediately and only once. STAT
orders are often written for emergencies when a patient's condition changes suddenly.
2. A patient is ordered Ceftriaxone 750mg SIVP q8h. Which among the schedule should the nurse follow?
A. 8AM – 1PM – 6PM
B. 9AM – 2PM – 7PM
C. 7AM – 3PM – 11PM
D. 7AM – 11AM – 3PM
Rationale: Both medications are scheduled for 3 times within a 24-hour period. You need to give the q8h medication
every 8 hours ATC to maintain therapeutic blood levels of the medication. In contrast, you need to give the 3-times-a-day
medication at 3 different times while the patient is awake. Each agency has a recommended time schedule for
medications ordered at frequent intervals
3. Many patients, particularly children, fear injections. As a nurse, which of the following should you observe to
minimize discomfort? Select all that apply.
A. Use a sharp-beveled needle in the smallest suitable length and gauge.
B. Hold the syringe steady while the needle remains in tissues.
C. Select the proper injection site, disrgearding anatomical landmarks.
D. Insert the needle quickly and smoothly to minimize tissue pulling.
Rationale: Particularly children, fear injections injections. Patients with serious or chronic illness often
are given several injections daily. Minimize discomfort in the following ways.
4. Subcutaneous tissue is sensitive to irritating solutions and large volumes of medication. What is the range of
acceptable volumes of water-soluble medcations subcutaneously given to adults?
A. 0.3 to 0.5 mL
B. 0.5 to 1 mL
C. 0.5 to 1.5 mL
D. 1.5 to 2.0 mL
Rationale: Subcutaneous tissue is sensitive to irritating solutions and large volumes of medications. Thus
you only administer small volumes (0.5 to 1.5 mL) of water-soluble medications subcutaneously to adults. You give
smaller volumes up to 0.5 mL to children.
5. You are to give a SC injection to a pediatric patient who’s slim and underweight. How should you introduce the
medication to ensure that it reaches the required site?
A. Grasp the skin, 2 inches, 90o, intramuscularly.
B. Grasp the skin, 2 inches, 90o, subcutaneously.
C. Grasp the skin, 1 inch, 45o, intradermally.
D. Grasp the skin, 1 inch, 45o, subcutaneously.
Rationale: Since they do not have sufficient tissue for subcutaneous injections the upper abdomen is usually the best
site. Gently pinch the skin, inject needle at 45 degree angle.
6. In giving intramuscular injections, which among the following should you NOT practice:
A. Giving medications 2-5ml intramuscullarly to well-developed adults.
B. Giving medications 2 intramuscullarly to children, older adults and thin patients.
C. Giving more than 1 mL to small children and older infants.
D. Do not give more than 0.5 mL to smaller infants.
Rationale: The larger volumes of medication (4 to 5 mL) are unlikely to be absorbed properly. Children, older adults, and
thin patients tolerate only 2 mL of an IM injection. Do not give more than 1 mL to small children and older infants, and do
not give more than 0.5 mL to smaller infants.
7-10. Identify the different sites utilized in intramuscular injections.

7. Ventrogluteal: The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger
toward the anterosuperior iliac spine.
8. Deltoid: The deltoid muscle site is located by palpating the lower edge of the acromion process.
9. Dorsogluteal: The dorsogluteal site has been previously identified as a possible site to be used for intramuscular
medication
10. Vastus Lateralis: The vastus lateralis site is identified by dividing the thigh into thirds, horizontally and vertically.
7.
Session #28
1. These type of catheter are used for intermittent/straight catheterization:

A. Single lumen cathethers
B. Double lumen cathethers
C. Triple lumen cathethers
D. Silicone catheters
Rationale: Single-lumen catheters are used for intermittent/straight catheterization.
2. These type of catheter are used for are used for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) or when it becomes
necessary to instill medications into the bladder:
A. Single lumen catheters
Rationale: Triple-lumen catheters are used for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) or when it becomes necessary to instill
medications into the bladder.
3. These type of catheter are helpful in patients who require frequent catheter changes as a result of
encrustation:
A. Single lumen cathethers
Rationale: All silicone catheters have a larger internal diameter and may be helpful in patients who require frequent
catheter changes as a result of encrustation.
4. Which among the following Frenches is normally used for adult patient s needing indwelling catheters:
A. French 8 – 12
B. French12– 14
C. French 10 – 14
D. French 14 – 16
Rationale: Most adults with an indwelling catheter should use a size 14 to 16 Fr to minimize trauma and risk for infection.
5. Which among the following interventions should be observed to prevent CAUTI: Select all that apply.
A. Patients in acute care hospital should have urinary catheters inserted using clean technique with sterile equipment.
B. Secure indwelling catheters to prevent movement and pulling on the catheter.
C. Maintain a closed urinary drainage system.
D. Maintain an unobstructed flow of urine through the catheter, drainage tubing, and drainage bag.
Rationale: Prevention of CAUTI often requires use of an evidence based “bundle” to perform all elements of care at one
time along with completion of a checklist to ensure that each element is included in that care
6. A patient’s catheter becomes occluded. As his nurse, which of the following should you perform?
A. Irrigate or flush a catheter with sterile solution.
B. Change the catheter
C. Inform the physician
D. None of the above, this is normal.
Rationale: To maintain the patency of indwelling urinary catheters, it is sometimes necessary to irrigate or
flush a catheter with sterile solution.
7. Which among the given conditions should not be considered in placing a suprapubic catheter?
A. Blockage of the urethra
B. Enlarged prostate
C. Urethral stricture
D. Before urological surgery
Rationale: Suprapubic catheters are placed when there is blockage of the urethra (e.g., enlarged prostate, urethral
stricture, after urological surgery) and in situations when a long-term urethral catheter causes irritation or discomfort or
interferes with sexual functioning.
8. Among the following procedures, which is not considered to be invasive?

A. Straight catheter insertion.
B. IFC insertion.
C. Suprapubic catheterization.
D. Use of penile sheath.
Rationale: The external catheter, also called a condom catheter or penile sheath, is a soft, pliable condom-like
sheath that fits over the penis, providing a safe and noninvasive way to contain urine.
9. A patient is ordered for discharge and removal of indwelling catheter. As his nurse, when should you remove
the catheter?
A. Once ordered.
B. As soon as the patient settles his hospital bill.
C. After verifying doctor’s order.
D. When the patient is ready.
Rationale: All patients should have their voiding monitored after catheter removal for at least 24 to 48 hours by using a
voiding record or bladder diary. The bladder diary should record the time and amount of each voiding, including any
incontinence. The use of ultrasound or a bladder scanner can monitor bladder function by measuring PVR.
10. Which among the following interventions should NOT be observed in preventing CAUTI:
A. Keep the urinary drainage bag below the level of the bladder at all times.
B. Avoid dependent loops in urinary drainage tubing.
C. Ensure that the urinary drainage bag is low and touching the ground/floor.
D. Before transfers or activity, drain all urine from the tubing into bag and empty the drainage bag.
Rationale: Know the policies of your institution to determine which components are in a care bundle.
Session #29
1. CATHETERIZATION Introduction of a catheter into a body cavity or organ to inject or remove

fluid.
2. URINARY MEATUS The urethra is the tube that carries urine and sperm through the penis to
the outside. The opening to the outside is called the "meatus."
3. FENESTRATED DRAPE The fenestrated drape is the surgical drape specially used to perform
surgery on specific parts of patients.
4. ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE Aseptic technique is a process or procedure used to achieve asepsis to
prevent the transfer of potentially pathogenic micro-organisms to a
susceptible site that may result in the development of infection.
5. CONSENT Consent is your agreement for a doctor or healthcare professional to
provide you with treatment, including any medical or surgical
management, care, therapy, test or procedure.
6. INVASIVE PROCEDURE In an invasive procedure is to ensure the patient remains safe,
comfortable, and is medically stable.
7. URINEBAG A urinary catheter is a hollow, partially flexible tube that collects urine
from the bladder and leads to a drainage bag.
8. CATHETER A catheter is a soft hollow tube which is passed into the bladder to drain
urine, for people who cannot empty their bladder in the usual way.
9. UPWARD Upward displacement of the appendix with large-bowel obstruction is a
definitive sign of cecal volvulus. Additionally, decompressed transverse
and descending colon are apparent.
10. FRONT TO BACK Different positions (sides, front, and back). The table may be tilted
slightly to help the barium flow through your colon and to take X-rays
from different directions.
11.
Session #30
1. It is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon.
A. Catheterization
B. Digital Rectal Exam
C. Enema
D. Flushing
Rationale: Instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis
2. Which among the following statements is not true about enemas:

A. The primary reason for an enema is to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
B. The volume of fluid instilled breaks up the fecal mass, stretches the rectal wall, and initiates the defecation reflex.
C. Enemas are also a vehicle for medications that exert a local effect on rectal mucosa.
D. They are used most commonly for the immediate relief of diarrhea, emptying the bowel before diagnostic tests
or surgery, and beginning a program of bowel training.
Rationale: The correct is that they are used most commonly for the immediate relief of constipation, emptying the bowel
before diagnostic tests or surgery, and beginning a program of bowel training.
3. Among the following types of enema, which provides relief from gaseous distention?
A. Oil Retention
B. Soapsuds
C. Normal saline
D. Carminative enema
Rationale: Carminative enemas provide relief from gaseous distention.
4. Which among the following statements is true about enemas:

A. Sterile technique is unnecessary because the colon normally contains bacteria.
B. The volume of fluid instilled forms the fecal mass, stretches the rectal wall, and initiates the defecation reflex.
C. Enemas cannot be used as a vehicle for medications that exert a local effect on rectal mucosa.
D. They are used most commonly for the immediate relief of diarrhea, emptying the bowel before diagnostic tests or
surgery, and beginning a program of bowel training.
Rationale: Enemas are available in commercially packaged, disposable units or with reusable equipment prepared before
use. Sterile technique is unnecessary because the colon normally contains bacteria.
5. Asssisting a patient to defecate on a bedpan, on what position will you place the patient?
A. Bed elevated 15 to 30 degrees
B. Bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
C. Bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees
D. Ask the patient to sit directly onto the bedpan.
Rationale: The proper position for the patient on a bedpan is with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
Matching Type: Match the letter of the correct answer to the given statement.
_E_ 1. infused into the bowel exert osmotic pressure that pulls fluids out of interstitial spaces.
_C_ 2. hypotonic and exerts an osmotic pressure lower than fluid in interstitial spaces.
_B_ 3. lubricate the feces in the rectum and colon.
_D_ 4. Added to create the effect of intestinal irritation to stimulate peristalsis.
_A_ 5. The safest solution to use because it exerts the same osmotic pressure as fluids in interstitial spaces surrounding
the bowel.

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Session #01

1. What can a clean patient environment contribute?

1. It is described as the coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems.

3. Which of the following does NOT describe adduction?

6. A characteristic of correct alignment when one sits is observed when

7. How should you assess a bedridden patient’s body alignment?

5. To prevent footdrop, what position should the patient’s feet maintain?

9. Placing trochanter rolls & sandbags help prevent which complication?

2. In this position the patient lies face or chest down.

3. How does Sims’ position differentiate from lateral position?

4. What is the goal for logrolling a patient?

5. How will you prevent footdrop for a patient in a prone position?

1. This position facilitates respiration by allowing maximum chest expansion.

3. Which position is indicated for operations on the rectum and coccyx?

4. Which position is used for postural drainage of the lungs?

1. It is the invasion of a susceptible host by microorganisms which results in disease.

2. This is where microorganisms survive and multiply.

6. It is the interval when acute symptoms of infection disappear.

7. Which among the following statements regarding inflammation is true?

8. To reduce reservoirs of infection, which of the following one must observe:

10. Which among the following statements is true.

8. When should masks (surgical/respirator) be worn?

10. Which of the following is observed when using gloves as PPE?

1. How is inherent hygiene defined as per the World Health Organization?

3. Which of the following is true about hand hygiene:

4. When should you NOT perform handhygiene?

5. When should you observe handhygiene?

8. What is the rationale for interlacing one’s hand during handwashing?

1. A patient’s room should be maintained at which temperature range?

7. How can a ventilation system be classified as effective?

9. Which of the following is incorrect about bed making?

1. It is described as the movement of gases in and out of the lungs:

5. Which among the following statement is regarded as incorrect:

8. What is the expected breathing pattern for Cheyne-Stokes respiration?

5. Which among the following data would you refer to a physician?

1. It is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure:

3. According to James et al. (2014), which of the following is defined as hypertension

5. When can a patient be diagnosed as hypertensive?

4. All, but one, affect the percent of saturation of oxygen (SaO2):

3. Among the following interventions which should be observed:

4. One among the following statements is true regarding temperature regulation:

10. Among the statements regarding Hair which is NOT true:

3. Which of the following statement best defines a partial bed bath:

5. Which of the following best describes a liniment:

6. These are the expected or predicted physiological response caused by a medication:

4. Administering medications directly into the pleural space.

1. An order is read as Tetracycline 500 mg PO q6h. How is this order classified:

1. It is a type of medication route where drugs are given by mouth:

2. Which of the following statements is true regarding oral administration:

4. In assessing the patient’s ability to swallow, which should you assess:

6. If a patient has unilateral weakness, where should the medication be placed?

5. Among the following statements, which is true regarding ear instillation:

2 puffs × 2×a d ay =4 puffs per day

200 puffs ÷ 4 puffs per day =50 days

7-10. Identify the different sites utilized in intramuscular injections.

1. These type of catheter are used for intermittent/straight catheterization:

8. Among the following procedures, which is not considered to be invasive?

1. CATHETERIZATION Introduction of a catheter into a body cavity or organ to inject or remove

2. Which among the following statements is not true about enemas: