ESTestMaker Questions

1. The so called delta technique derives its name from

A) its origins in the Mississippi delta
B) measurements of changes in velocity (delta "V")
C) the triangular juxtaposition of transmitter, receiver and flaw
D) none of the above

2. Mechanical wave motion requires

A) high pressure
B) low pressure
C) particle motion
D) ionic bonding and disbonding

3. In an homogenous and isotropic elastic medium such as low carbon steel, sound velocity
A) decreases with distance from source
B) varies with direction
C) is constant in all directions
D) depends on frequency

4. The amount of time between two compressions, or two rarefactions of an elastic wave is called
A) wavelength
B) period
C) frequency
D) velocity

5. The velocity of sound is

A) constant for all materials
B) varies with frequency
C) varies inversely with wavelength
D) is characteristic of a material

6. Compared to the atomic or molecular spacing of a material, ultrasonic wavelengths are

A) much greater
B) smaller
C) about the same distance
D) are multiples of the atomic spacing

7. The elastic wave that has particle motion parallel to the direction of wave propagation is called
A) longitudinal wave
B) compression wave
C) density wave
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

8. In Rayleigh waves, particle motion is

A) parallel to the direction of wave propagation
B) right angles to the direction of wave propagation
C) retrograde
D) in counter clockwise ellipses

9. Rayleigh waves can be used in steel to penetrate up to

A) 10mm
B) 10cm
C) 1m
D) 1 wavelength

10. In bending waves (plate wave mode) particles in the middle zone of the plate vibrate
A) in longitudinal mode
B) in shear mode
C) in Rayeigh mode
D) not at all

11. In the Lamb wave called a dilational wave, particles in the middle zone of the plate vibrate
A) in longitudinal mode
B) in shear mode
C) in Rayleigh mode
D) not at all

12. If one sound beam passes through another with the same wavelength but moving in the opposite
direction, the result on the local particle displacement will be,
A) a change in amplitude
B) a change in mode
C) a change in frequency
D) no change

13. In a standing wave, nodes and antinodes are separated by

A) 1/4 wavelength
B) 1/2 wavelength
C) 1 wavelength
D) 2 wavelengths

14. Standing waves are generated in ultrasonic testing for

A) through testing (pitch-catch)
B) resonance thickness testing
C) flaw detection
D) B-scans

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ESTestMaker Questions

15. Specific acoustic impedance is the product of

A) density and permittivity
B) hardness and velocity
C) velocity and density
D) specific activity and amplitude

16. Poisson's ratio is expressed in units of

A) m/s
B) Pa
C) N/m2
D) no units, it is dimensionless

17. Frequency can be expressed in terms of

A) 1/s (s=seconds)
B) cps
C) MHz
D) all of the above

18. The ratio of sound velocity in water to the longitudinal velocity of sound in steel is very nearly
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:4
D) 1:5

19. Rayleigh wave velocities for a given material are always

A) greater than longitudinal wave velocities
B) greater than transverse wave velocities
C) less than transverse wave velocities
D) about the same as shear wave velocities

20. The ratio of the incident sound pressure to the reflected sound pressure is called the
A) acoustic impedance
B) acoustic intensity
C) coefficient of reflection
D) coefficient of transmission

21. The ratio of the incident sound pressure to the transmitted sound pressure is called the
A) acoustic impedance
B) acoustic intensity
C) coefficient of reflection
D) coefficient of transmission

22. When is the coefficient of transmission a negative value?

A) if Z incident is less than Z transmitted
B) If Z incident is greater than Z transmitted
C) if Z incident equals Z transmitted
D) never

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ESTestMaker Questions

23. Incident sound pressure plus reflected sound pressure equals

A) 0
B) 1
C) transmitted sound pressure
D) none of the above

24. Total incident sound intensity can be calculated from

A) the sum of the reflected and transmitted intensities
B) the difference between reflected and transmitted intensities
C) R plus D (reflection and transmission coefficients)
D) R plus D (reflection and transmission coefficients)

25. (Sin a1) (C2) = (Sin a2) C1) is a form of

A) Krautkramer's law
B) Snell's law
C) Boyle's law
D) Hooke's law

26. If the Sine of a refracted angle is calculated to be 0.707, the refracted angle will be
A) 36 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) undetermined from the given information

27. A shear wave travelling from steel to water incident on the boundary at 10 degrees will give a refracted
shear wave in water with an angle of
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees
C) 20 degrees
D) none of the above

28. The critical angle refers to the

A) longitudinal waves' angle
B) incident angle
C) refracted angle
D) reflected shear wave

29. The critical angle occurs when the sine of the refracted angle equals
A) 0.707
B) 0.846
C) 1.000
D) 1.414

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ESTestMaker Questions

30. At a solid to free boundary, an obliquely incident longitudinal wave from the solid can result in, at most,
A) a reflected longitudinal wave only
B) a reflected longitudinal and reflected shear wave
C) a refracted longitudinal long wave
D) a reflected longitudinal and reflected shear and refracted longitudinal wave

31. At a liquid/solid boundary with an obliquely incident longitudinal wave from the liquid the result could at
most be
A) a reflected longitudinal wave only
B) a refracted longitudinal wave only
C) a reflected longitudinal, and a refracted long wave
D) a reflected long and refracted long and shear wave

32. Given V (water) = 1.5 mm/us and V (steel) longitudinal velocity = 5.0 mm/us and shear velocity
3.2mm/us, what is the second critical angle of an incident longitudinal wave from steel.
A) 19 degrees
B) 27 degrees
C) 36 degrees
D) none of the above

33. A shear wave polarized in the plane of incidence impinging on a free boundary at right angles to the
boundary will result in
A) a reflected shear wave only
B) a reflected shear wave and reflected longitudinal wave
C) reflected longitudinal wave only
D) a surface wave

34. Maximum surface wave energy is obtained when the angle of incidence is
A) 0 degrees
B) 60 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) just over the critical angle

35. Geometric-optic treatment of ultrasonic waves fails to account for

A) reflection
B) refraction
C) diffraction
D) normal incidence

36. The relationship for acoustic pressure of spherical waves P=P1/d (where P1 is the pressure at a known
distance and d is distance), implies
A) an inverse proportionality to distance
B) infinite sound pressure at the source
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

37. Spherical and cylindrical waves reflecting off a plane surface preserve shape but not
A) velocity
B) wavelength
C) frequency
D) acoustic pressure distribution

38. The advantage of inspecting a thick solid cylinder with a waterpath two times the cylinder radius instead
of just the cylinder radius is
A) increased sensitivity
B) reduced entry noise
C) smaller near zone
D) more uniform pressure through the cylinder

39. The ratio of the diameter of an oscillator to the wavelength it generates gives the
A) acoustic velocity
B) near zone length
C) acoustic impedance of the oscillator
D) number of interference maxima and minima

40. For practical purposes, the equation for the near zone distance can be approximated by (where λ =
wavelength and D = probe diameter)
A) D /λ
B) D squared / 4λ
C) D squared minus l squared/4λ
D) (D-4l)/λ^2)

41. Given an "X-cut" normal beam contact probe on steel, the probe is 12 mm diameter and has a
frequency of 2 MHz. The approximate near zone length is (V steel = 6.0mm/us)
A) 4mm
B) 12mm
C) 24mm
D) 48mm

42. A transducer has a near field in water of 35 mm. When used in contact on steel the near zone will be
about
A) 47 mm
B) 35 mm
C) 18 mm
D) 9 mm

43. The so called angle of divergence applies to the

A) dead zone
B) near field
C) Fresnel zone
D) far field

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ESTestMaker Questions

44. Sin(gamma) = 1.2 lambda / D (where lambda is wavelength and D is the crystal diameter) is the
equation for
A) the first critical angle
B) interference minima in the near zone
C) half angle of divergence in the Fraunhoffer zone
D) optimum energy angle for shear waves

45. The angle of divergence is a function of

A) crystal thickness of the probe
B) crystal dimension eg. diameter
C) crystal shape
D) all of the above

46. A rectangular probe, 4mm X 8mm, will have its maximum half angle of divergence
A) in the 4mm direction
B) in the 8mm direction
C) in no particular orientation
D) constant in all directions

47. Given a 10 X 10mm square probe of 5 MHz fundamental frequency, compared to a 10mm diameter 5
MHz probe, the near zone of the square probe would be
A) longer
B) shorter
C) the same
D) independent of wavelength

48. In ultrasonic testing, actual point focusing of sound is not possible due to
A) damping effects
B) divergence in the far zone
C) assymetric vibrations
D) diffraction effects

49. Huygen's wavelet theory and Fresnel zones can be used to predict
A) focal length
B) maxima and minima points in a sound beam
C) radius of curvature in a focused probe
D) fundamental frequency

50. AVG (or DGS in English) diagrams compare flaw signal amplitudes to
A) side drilled holes
B) flat bottomed holes
C) a theoretical maximum
D) DAC's

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ESTestMaker Questions

51. Flaws oriented obliquely to the incident sound beam may be better detected using
A) high gain
B) higher frequency
C) focused probes
D) separate transmit and receive probes

52. Echo amplitudes of reference reflectors are dependant on

A) size
B) shape
C) wave mode
D) all of the above

53. A surface can be considered smooth if its irregularities are not more than ________ wavelength.
A) 1
B) 1/3
C) 1/10
D) 1/100

54. The problem of scatter of a rough surface can be reduced by

A) immersion testing
B) a smaller diameter probe
C) a lower frequency probe
D) longer pulse length

55. The effect of oxides or other non metallic inclusions within a defect is to
A) amplify the signal
B) split the signal by mode conversion
C) reduce the signal amplitude
D) none of the above

56. As the pulse length of the excitation voltage is shortened the transmitted pulse
A) frequency spectrum broadens
B) frequency spectrum shortens
C) increases energy output
D) increases penetration ability

57. In general, the frequency content of an ultrasound beam has a larger proportion of high frequencies in
its spectrum
A) on axis
B) off axis
C) in the far zone
D) in the free zone

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ESTestMaker Questions

58. The most significant result of scatter and absorption is

A) frequency content changes
B) directivity
C) attenuation
D) beam spreading

59. The effect of attenuation by absorption is most pronounced

A) in steel
B) on the beam axis
C) on higher frequencies
D) on lower frequencies

60. A neper (Np) is a unit of

A) attenuation
B) acoustic impedance
C) pulse rate
D) wavelength

61. If 3 dB gain was removed from a 100% FSH signal the resulting signal would be __________ FSH.
A) 97
B) 94
C) 85
D) 71

62. If a signal is dropped from 100% FSH to 32% FSH, the number of dB gain removed from the receiver is
A) 14
B) 10
C) 6
D) 4

63. Attenuation in plastics and rubber is predominantly attributable to

A) absorption
B) scatter
C) beam spread
D) none of the above

64. The attenuation coefficient has the units

A) dB/m
B) Np/cm
C) Np/mm
D) all of the above

65. Non-crystallized materials such as glass are most likely to be

A) isotropic
B) anisotropic
C) piezoelectric
D) not inspectable

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66. Attenuation in cast metals is usually reduced by

A) forging
B) rolling
C) extruding
D) all of the above

67. For a given metal of a given grain size, attenuation in the cast form of the metal relative to the worked
form is usually
A) greater
B) less
C) identical
D) unpredictable

68. The effect utilized by ultrasonic transducer crystals is the _________ effect.
A) piezoelectric
B) pyroelectric
C) ferroelectric
D) hall

69. Piezoelectric crystals' structure will always contain

A) face-centered cubic form
B) hexagonal form
C) symmetry about polar axes
D) asymmetry about polar axes

70. An X-cut quartz crystal is primarily used to generate the ________ wave mode.
A) longitudinal
B) transverse
C) Rayleigh
D) Lamb

71. A typical voltage range for driving (exciting) piezoelectric crystals would be
A) 50 to 100 mV
B) 50 to 100 V
C) 50 to 100 kV
D) 100 to 1000 V

72. Y-cut crystals generate shear waves into a solid material by

A) refraction
B) direct coupling
C) reflection
D) no means known

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ESTestMaker Questions

73. The efficiency of the piezoelectric effect is rated by K33 which is the
A) piezoelectric modulus
B) electromechanical coupling factor
C) deformation constant
D) Young's modulus

74. After a voltage excitation of the piezoelectric crystal, the amplitude of its oscillations decrease by the
quantity determined by the
A) Q factor
B) damping coefficient
C) characteristic frequency
D) resonance frequency

75. The characteristic or fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric material is not dependant on

A) damping material on either face
B) thickness of crystal
C) velocity of sound in the crystal
D) any of the above

76. To determine the damping coefficient you must know

A) the acoustic impedance of the backing material
B) the acoustic impedance of the loading (front) material
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

77. Harmonic resonances of piezoelectrically excited crystals occur at

A) twice the characteristic frequency
B) all even multiples of the first resonant frequency
C) all odd multiples of the first resonant frequency
D) none of the above

78. Although rarely used in modern day NDT transducers, quartz has the advantage of
A) chemical inertness
B) high coupling coefficient
C) high dielectric constant
D) all of the above

79. For high temperature measurements the preferred piezoelectric material is

A) lithium niobate
B) lithium sulphate hydrate
C) quartz
D) PZT

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ESTestMaker Questions

80. Polarization of PZT crystals is accomplished using

A) strong permanent magnets
B) strong alternating voltage
C) strong direct voltage
D) none of the above

81. A significant disadvantage of PZT as a transducer material is its

A) low density
B) high curie point
C) high acoustic impedance preventing good matching
D) exceptionally high electromechanical coupling coefficient

82. Electrodynamic methods of generating and receiving ultrasound rely on

A) magnetrostriction
B) eddy currents
C) laser heating
D) none of the above

83. Magnetostricitive probes consist of

A) copper windings through thin laminated plates
B) copper windings around a ceramic core
C) solid steel wrapped with copper wire
D) none of the above

84. Optical methods used in ultrasonic testing such as Schlieren diffraction and interferometer methods are
used in
A) transmission techniques only
B) reception techniques only
C) both transmission and reception
D) optical methods are not used in ultrasonics

85. To make useful ultrasonic holograms requires

A) penetrating acoustic waves
B) a source of reference waves
C) conversion means to optical holograms
D) all of the above

86. Pulse-echo ultrasonic testing

A) uses a single probe
B) uses separate transmitter and receiver probes
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

87. Using the pulse echo method with a 0 degree probe having separate transmit and receive crystals, the
pattern on a CRT of a flat steel plate would appear as
A) evenly spaced multiples
B) randomly spaced multiples
C) a single spike from the opposite wall
D) an uninterrupted base line

88. Phantom echoes of multiples when testing thick specimens are a result of
A) insufficient suppression
B) modulation from the power supply
C) PRF set too high
D) too much gain

89. The main bang signal is formed as a result of the

A) dead zone
B) couplant/specimen interface
C) transmitter pulse
D) all of the above

90. When an ultrasonic machine is equipped with this option, the pulse energy and pulse length can be
adjusted
A) receiver fine grain control
B) swept gain
C) time corrected gain
D) damping

91. The voltage of a received ultrasonic signal at the machine's receiver is typically
A) 1/1000 to 1 volt
B) 10 to 100 volts
C) 100 to 1000 volts
D) not measurable

92. In order to adequately amplify received signals an ultrasonic machine's receiver amplifier must have a
gain of about
A) 6 to 12 dB
B) 20 to 40 dB
C) 80 to 100 dB
D) 100 to 200 dB

93. The main disadvantage of a broadband receiver in a ultrasonic machine is

A) non-linear response to amplification
B) amplifier noise limits possible amplification
C) RF display cannot be used
D) rectified display cannot be used

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ESTestMaker Questions

94. The zero time indicating zero depth in the tested sample when using a contact normal beam probe
A) corresponds to the rising edge of the main bang
B) corresponds to the falling edge of the main bang
C) is determined indirectly by calibration blocks
D) none of the above

95. The acoustic impedance of backing material is often increased by

A) adding a tuning transformer to the probe
B) increasing test pressures
C) adding metal powder to the material
D) increasing suppression

96. A great disadvantage of the old quartz crystal transducers that used the work piece as one of the
electrodes was
A) a fluctuating dead zone
B) insufficient damping
C) decreasing sensitivity with use
D) an increase in frequency with use

97. A contact angle beam probe used in fixed housings occasionally requires
A) transformer tuning
B) machining or replacing of the wear face
C) new couplant between crystal and plastic wedge
D) all of the above

98. Wedges used to introduce refracted waves into a test specimen are made of
A) copper
B) brass
C) plastics
D) all of the above can be used

99. In order that one can operate above the critical angle of reflection of longitudinal waves, wedge material
for angle beams are
A) grooved on the front face
B) always made of polystyrene
C) chosen with a longitudinal velocity greater than the shear velocity of the test piece
D) chosen with a longitudinal velocity less than the shear velocity of the test piece

100. The layer of highly absorbing material sometimes bonded to the top and front of an angle probe's
wedge is called a (an)
A) cap
B) backing
C) anechoic trap
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

101. A calibration for horizontal linearity would check properties of the

A) receiver amplifier
B) image unit (oscilloscope)
C) calibration block
D) probe

102. The purpose of the 50mm diameter perspex insert in the IIW block is to
A) check constancy of probe sensitivity
B) establish probe exit point
C) calibrate for range
D) both a and b

103. An echo pulse-width in steel determines

A) a system's resolving power
B) time of flight
C) the far zone length
D) the frequency of the probe

104. Pulse echo instruments without an image tube or A-scan display are
A) not useful in NDT
B) not yet available
C) used for wall thickness measurements
D) not portable

105. Electronic gates on the trace of a UT machine can be used to

A) determine the presence of flaws
B) determine the amplitude of flaws
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

106. When flaw echo signals are recorded so as to display a plan view of the test piece the presentation is
called
A) A-scan
B) B-scan
C) C-scan
D) D-scan

107. Resonance testing techniques used for thickness determination use

A) continuous sound waves
B) pulsed sound waves
C) Y-cut quartz crystal transducers
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

108. The purpose of a reference delay-line in an ultrasonic interferometer is for

A) determining amplitude from a known reflector
B) accurate time measurements
C) eliminating near zone effects
D) eliminating dead zone effects

109. Uniform and strongly adhering films of paint or oxides are not removed for ultrasonic testing if
A) sand blasting cannot remove them
B) formed on curves surfaces
C) their presence does not interfere with the test
D) sufficiently smooth

110. Due to its cost and toxicity _________ is not used as a couplant in contact testing,
A) SAE oil
B) heavy diesel oil
C) mercury
D) methyl-cellulose solution

111. Water jet techniques with water paths of 100mm are restricted to the through transmission methods
because
A) sound cannot travel upstream for pulse-echo testing
B) too much water is required
C) of disturbing echoes behind the surface echo
D) none of the above

112. A narrow high intensity ultrasound beam capable of finding very small flaws has its disadvantage in
A) sizing the flaw
B) characterizing the flaw
C) requiring a small scanning grid
D) none of the above

113. An effective maximum range for a 5MHz 10mm diameter probe is around ________ in steel.
A) 50mm
B) 100mm
C) 200mm
D) 300mm

114. A minimum distance of a probe from an edge of the test piece is maintained to eliminate side wall
interference. This distance is inversely proportional to the
A) soundpath
B) wavelength
C) frequency
D) beam spread

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ESTestMaker Questions

115. When testing a 30mm diameter, 500 mm long shaft from the flat end of the shaft using longitudinal
waves from a 20 mm diameter 2 MHz probe, numerous signals are seen on the screen after 500mm.
These are
A) ghost images
B) secondary echoes
C) internal thread indications
D) none of the above

116. Touching the reflection point of a normally incident transverse wave with an oily finger will
A) reduce the signal by about 2 dB
B) reduce the signal by about 6 dB
C) increase the signal by about 2 dB
D) have no effect on signal amplitude

117. When using a refracted angle of 60° on a 20 mm thick plate the soundpath at the half skip distance is
A) 28mm
B) 34mm
C) 40mm
D) 58mm

118. To calculate skip distance in a flat plate of thickness 'd' for a refracted angle 'X' we use the formula
A) (cos X)/d
B) (sin 2X)/d
C) 2d/cos X
D) 2d (tan x)

119. To inspect cylindrical pieces with transverse waves in the circumferential direction, maximum depth is
obtained using
A) 35° refracted angle
B) 45° refracted angle
C) 70° refracted angle
D) any of the above is adequate if the diameter ratio is sufficient

120. The delta technique is used to determine

A) flaw size
B) wall thickness
C) flaw orientation
D) all of the above

121. Surface waves used for ultrasonic testing are generated by

A) conversion of longitudinal waves via plastic wedges
B) Y-cut quartz crystals
C) both a and b
D) surface waves are not used in ultrasonic testing

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122. Frequency analysis of the reflected pulse is occasionally used to determine

A) flaw size
B) flaw depth
C) coupling efficiency
D) wave velocity

123. Changes in flaw echo shape on the video display are used to determine
A) flaw depth
B) flaw type
C) stand-off
D) all of the above

124. A defect that is not likely to be located by ultrasonic testing of a forging blank is
A) segregation
B) flake cracks
C) non-metallic inclusions
D) cold cracks

125. In order to introduce a shear mode into cylindrical shaped specimens when immersion scanning in the
circumferential direction you need only
A) use Y-cut crystals in the transducer
B) switch from pulse-echo to through transmission
C) off-set the probe from normal incidence
D) none of the above

126. When immersion inspecting small diameter tubing (<15mm diameter) from the inside of the tube with a
normal beam probe radiating axially towards a mirror mounted ahead of it, the wave mode used for
inspection in the tube is
A) longitudinal
B) transverse
C) either a or b depending on mirror orientation
D) none of the above, mirrors are not used

127. Below 20 kHz, sound waves are considered to be

A) ultrasonic
B) sonic
C) subsonic
D) infra-sonic

128. Relatively low ultrasonic frequencies are used in long range sonar units because
A) whales and submarines are big targets
B) higher frequencies cause whales to attack
C) sea water attenuates sound at 60 dB/km
D) all of the above

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129. Lamb waves are used in testing

A) thin bar or plate
B) composite materials
C) liquids
D) bolts

130. The time required for a wave packet of ultrasound to go from 10% to 90% of its maximum amplitude is
called
A) pulse length
B) PRF
C) rise time
D) fall time

131. The time duration for an ultrasonic wave packet to have its trailing edge drop from 90% to 10% of its
maximum amplitude is called
A) pulse length
B) PRF
C) rise time
D) fall time

132. Ferroelectric materials are electrostrictive substances that exhibit

A) low acoustic impedance
B) high coupling coefficients
C) large deformations with applied voltage
D) natural acoustic damping properties

133. In ferroelectric materials, the units which contain a net electric polarization are called
A) cells
B) bi-poles
C) mono-poles
D) domains

134. A voltage applied across a slice of piezoelectric material will cause it to

A) twist
B) expand
C) contract
D) either b or c depending on polarity

135. Ferroelectric materials are made to respond in a piezoelectric fashion by

A) using bi-metal electrodes
B) using only D.C. voltage
C) sintering the material
D) poling the material

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136. A net dipole moment is found in ferroelectric ceramics such as PZT when
A) heated above the curie temperature
B) the domains are frozen and aligned
C) used under water
D) use on highly retentive steel

137. In contact testing methods, the purpose of the layer of couplant is to

A) reduce attenuation
B) stop back-scatter
C) allow only compressional wave to enter the piece
D) all of the above

138. In which of the following properties, considered when dealing with transducer materials, does quartz
excel in?
A) receiving constant
B) transmitting constant
C) dielectric constant
D) coupling coefficient

139. Curie temperature of a transducer material will indicate

A) toxicity of vapour
B) coupling constant
C) acoustic impedance variations with temperature
D) maximum work surface temperature

140. Di-lithium crystals are noted mostly for their

A) high coupling coefficient
B) low dissipation factor
C) low curie temperature
D) warp drive operation on starships

141. Internally reflected waves within a lightly loaded resonant transducer (i.e. acoustic impedance on either
side is lower than the transducer's)
A) nullify resonance
B) change the resonant frequency
C) increase the maximum oscillation amplitude
D) are totally internally refracted

142. For continuous wave testing, rise time of the transducer oscillation relative to the applied driving voltage
is
A) longer than fall time
B) shorter
C) about the same
D) not important

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ESTestMaker Questions

143. The first oscillation of a piezoelectric element hit by an alternating voltage pulse is
A) higher than all other oscillations in that pulse
B) lower than all other oscillations in that pulse
C) never higher than the second oscillation in that pulse
D) higher or lower than the second oscillation depending on the front loading

144. Acoustic transformers are constructed of

A) araldite
B) cork
C) tungsten loaded epoxies
D) any transitional layer designed to achieve maximum power transfer

145. The purpose of tungsten powder incorporated in transducer backings is to

A) increase acoustic impedance
B) increase absorption of backward moving ultrasound
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

146. Nickel and its compounds as well as cobalt and ferrites differ from other magnetostrictive materials in
that they
A) expand in applied magnetic fields
B) shrink in applied magnetic fields
C) are anti-magnetostrictive
D) are also piezoelectric

147. Magnetostrictive transducers have application in

A) drilling
B) welding
C) ultrasonic cleaning
D) all of the above

148. In a standing wave, the points of zero pressure change are called
A) null points
B) nodes
C) anti-nodes
D) the still zone

149. A lens shape that would result in a divergent beam in optics gives a convergent beam in ultrasonics
because
A) electromagnetic wavelengths are shorter
B) electromagnetic waves are faster in solids than liquids
C) mechanical waves are usually faster in solids than liquids
D) none of the above

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150. Ultrasonic transducers used in ultrasonic cleaning apparatus are operating at a frequency of
approximately
A) 25 kHz
B) 200 kHz
C) 0.5 MHz
D) 50 MHz

151. The purpose of ultrasonic vibrations added to the tip of a soldering gun when soldering aluminum or
magnesium is to
A) eliminate the need for penetrant inspection
B) make a fine grain structure with high shear strength
C) break through the oxide coating
D) all of the above

152. Which of the following is not a therapeutic application of medical ultrasound

A) ultrasonic treatment of arthritis, bursitis, sciatica
B) destruction of brain tissue in neuro-sonic surgery
C) establishing health, sex and age of a fetus
D) destruction of gall stones

153. In the old traditional oscilloscope the timebase or baseline is displayed as a horizontal line by means of
A) line focus electronics
B) line focus optical lenses
C) a light spot moving across phosphor
D) none of the above

154. In the old traditional oscilloscope increasing the pulse repetition frequency will result in
A) decreasing sensitivity
B) increased resolution
C) altering the probes' frequency output
D) brightening the baseline

155. If it is difficult to resolve two defects separated by 0.5 cm, resolution may be improved by
A) increasing gain
B) increasing soundpath
C) decreasing pulse length
D) decreasing probe frequency

156. Damping is achieved in an ultrasonic transducer by

A) electrical adjustment of the pulse
B) using high loss backing
C) using matching layers between crystal and workpiece
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

157. Elastic constants such as Young's modulus and the bulk modulus can be calculated from ultrasonic
measurement of
A) attenuation
B) reflection coefficients
C) acoustic velocities
D) frequency domains

158. In order to accurately determine acoustic velocities you must know

A) your instruments PRF
B) Snell's law
C) Young's modulus or the bulk modulus
D) the thickness of the test piece

159. Measurement of changes in sound velocity are used for determining

A) density
B) flow rates of fluids
C) thickness
D) all of the above

160. Linearity of an ultrasonic machine's timebase should be within _____ of the total screen range.
A) 1mm
B) 2mm
C) 1%
D) 10%

161. Which item is not always marked on all standard transducers sold for NDT purposes
A) frequency
B) exit point
C) crystal dimensions
D) serial number

162. For the purposes of ultrasonic testing, signal-to-noise ratio is a function of

A) the probe
B) the oscilloscope
C) a combination of probe and scope
D) none of the above

163. When evaluating the performance of a probe-instrument combination, far field resolution is limited by
A) the probes' functional frequency
B) instrument gain
C) available suppression
D) the test surface of the calibration block

23
ESTestMaker Questions

164. The arbitrary amplitude response from flat bottomed or side drilled holes is used to establish sensitivity
level because
A) sensitivity is optimised
B) resolution is optimised
C) results can be reproducible
D) both a and b

165. Viscosity of couplant chosen for a contact ultrasonic inspection will usually depend on
A) probe size
B) nominal frequency
C) surface condition
D) sensitivity required

166. In longitudinal wave inspection of the parent metal adjacent to a weld, minimum sensitivity is usually set
such that
A) it is 6 dB over the 80% FSH level for the appropriate side drilled hole
B) it is 20 dB over the 80% FSH level for the appropriate side drilled hole
C) backwall echo is 100% FSH in the absence of defects
D) none of the above

167. When doing an ultrasonic weld inspection, the material thickness, weld preparation configuration, defect
type and orientation are the main considerations for
A) probe dimensions
B) frequency
C) probe angle
D) all of the above

168. Gain corrections to compensate for attenuation are dependant on

A) frequency used
B) grain structure of test material
C) pulse energy
D) a and b

169. The IIW Block #1 is used to calibrate

A) range
B) exit point
C) refracted angle
D) all of the above

170. When calibrating an ultrasonic instrument for range, the maximum distance of interest should not be
less than
A) 100 mm
B) 200 mm
C) one half the horizontal scale
D) two thirds the horizontal scale

24
ESTestMaker Questions

171. DGS diagrams are used to establish

A) defect depth
B) defect size
C) correct probe dimensions
D) beam divergence

172. In the DGS (AVG German) system of defect sizing, the diagram relates to soundpath distance to the
_________ to obtain the relative distance.
A) probe size
B) near-field length
C) stand-off distance
D) depth of defect

173. Where geometry permits in weld inspection, the distance you need to move the probe back from the
weld to ensure 100% volume inspection is
A) 1/2 skip from the weld centre-line
B) 1 full skip from the weld centre-line
C) 1/2 skip from the edge of the heat affected zone
D) 1 full skip from the HAZ edge

174. During manual scanning, detection of obliquely oriented defects may be improved by
A) using a lower frequency
B) longitudinal wave inspections
C) adding swivel motion to the angle beam probe
D) all of the above

175. Shear-wave probe angle for contact testing of plate between 10mm and 100 mm thick is
A) 45 and 60 degrees
B) determined by probe frequency chosen
C) dependant on plate thickness, position and nature of defect
D) none of the above

176. Given a flat plate 25mm thick, the full skip range distance with a 60 degree probe is
A) 35mm
B) 50mm
C) 100mm
D) not possible to determine

177. The half skip range on a 16mm thick plate with a 70% probe is
A) 24mm
B) 33mm
C) 47mm
D) 64mm

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ESTestMaker Questions

178. When using the 6dB or 20 dB drop technique, a defects' vertical extent is deduced by __________
motion of the probe
A) lateral
B) traversing
C) rotational
D) orbital

179. A sharp signal with large amplitude response seen from one side of a weld but not the other, having a
sharp drop off with both rotational and orbital motion would indicate the presence of
A) porosity
B) lack of fusion
C) slag
D) cracking

180. The use of ultrasonic methods to check fillet welds is usually restricted to determining the extent of
penetration. This is best facilitated by
A) a guidance system to hold the probe at a fixed distance
B) c-scan presentations
C) 45 and 60 degree probes in tandem
D) holographic techniques

181. Size estimations of defects based on amplitude response are

A) the best option available
B) never reliable
C) used by all codes
D) always referenced to side drilled holes or notches

182. The amplitude reference line used to compare flaw response to reference hole response at varying
depths is abbreviated
A) ARL
B) AVG
C) DAC
D) DGS

183. If you are drawing a DAC for an inspection range of 200mm and your response from the 3/8 node
reference hole at 125mm has already dropped to 10% FSH you will have to use
A) a new calibration block
B) larger reference holes
C) the DGS (AVG) system
D) a split DAC

184. A transfer valve is established using

A) published attenuation valves for the alloy tested
B) two shear wave probes in a through transmission technique
C) DGS (AVG) curves
D) multiple back-echoes from a normal beam probe

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ESTestMaker Questions

185. If coupling conditions on a test piece are better than on a calibration block the transfer value will be
A) greater than zero
B) less than zero
C) not used
D) 1 (one)

186. Vertical extent of a defect is determined using

A) a 6 dB drop method
B) a 10 dB drop method
C) a 20 dB drop method
D) any of the above is acceptable if the appropriate beam spread plot is made for comparison

187. Acceptability of a defect is determined by

A) code or customer requirements
B) amplitude relative to reference
C) length
D) type of flaw

188. The most pronounced effects of beam deviation by surface roughness are had when using
A) immersion testing
B) low frequency transducers
C) 70 degree contact probes
D) normal beam probes

189. The result of increasing the temperature of a test piece from 10°C to 30°C is
A) increase sensitivity
B) decrease the refracted angle
C) decrease the acoustic velocity
D) all of the above

190. The ability to discern individual defects separate from the initial interface signal is called
A) dead zone limit
B) near surface resolution
C) surface acuity
D) damping

191. The IIW Block #1 cannot be used to calibrate

A) angle beam resolution
B) range for time-base
C) time-base linearity
D) sensitivity

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ESTestMaker Questions

192. The maximum amplitude response from the 1.5mm diameter hole in the IIW Block #1 is used to
determine
A) longitudinal wave sensitivity
B) shear wave sensitivity
C) dead zone distance
D) both a and b

193. IIW blocks are constructed of

A) ASTM-A36 steel
B) stainless steel
C) aluminum
D) any metal or alloy

194. The 91mm step in the IIW Block #1 is used for

A) setting shear wave range with longitudinal waves
B) establishing non-standard ranges
C) shear wave resolution determinations
D) none of the above

195. The purpose of the small V2 or DIN block (IIW Block #2) is
A) range calibration
B) determining exit point of probe
C) determining actual refracted angle
D) all of the above

196. The 5mm diameter through hole in the small DIN or V2 block is used for checking
A) shear wave sensitivity
B) longitudinal wave sensitivity
C) beam angle
D) all of the above

197. When setting sensitivity of a longitudinal probe using the IIW blocks
A) total number and size of last echo are used
B) response from the side drilled hole is used
C) both a and b can be used
D) IIW blocks are never used to set sensitivity

198. The dB difference between a signal 25% FSH and 100% FSH is
A) 6 dB
B) 8 dB
C) 10 dB
D) 12 dB

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ESTestMaker Questions

199. To reduce the influence of incident angle when evaluating beam characteristics the preferred target is
A) a cylindrical target at right angles to beam axis
B) a spherical target of tungsten
C) a flat bottom hole
D) vee notches

200. Given that maximum acoustic intensity occurs at the focal point, the focal point for a flat 100mm
diameter 4 MHz probe in water is
A) 10mm inside the probe damping
B) the probe face
C) the end of the near zone
D) none of the above

201. In the AVG (DGS) diagrams originated by Krautkramer in 1959, the reduced range is given
A) as a fraction of the near zone
B) in millimeters only
C) as a ratio of the probe diameter
D) where the amplitude equals the ideal backwall echo

202. In immersion testing, defect sizing is improved in the flaw traverse technique measuring probe
movement to 6 or 20 dB drop levels by use of
A) lower frequency probes
B) focused probes
C) Y-cut transducer elements
D) oil coupling instead of water

203. To determine the functional, or operating frequency of a probe you need

A) a UT machine capable of R.F. display
B) a frequency analyser
C) to know probe diameter and its near zone as measured in water
D) any of the above can be used

204. The resolving power of an ultrasonic system depends primarily on

A) the loop gain of the transducer
B) operating frequency
C) amount of gain used in the receiver amplifier
D) the pulse energy

205. When a flaw has a size that is less than the wavelength of ultrasound impinging on it,
A) the AVG (DGS) system must be used for sizing
B) dimensions are determined using the 20 dB drop method
C) it is not possible to determine the flaws' shape
D) it cannot be detected

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ESTestMaker Questions

206. Signal averaging, correlation, and filtering are techniques used in ultrasonic systems to
A) extract weak signals from incoherent noise
B) improve resolution
C) characterize defects for type
D) none of these techniques are used in ultrasonic testing

207. The process where by a recurrent signal is extracted from incoherent noise is called
A) amplitude modulation
B) frequency modulation
C) signal averaging
D) filtering

208. Receiver noise must often be filtered out of a test system. Receiver amplifier noise increases
proportionally to
A) the square root of the bandwidth
B) the inverse square of the bandwidth
C) attenuation
D) temperature

209. A group of ultrasonic transducers arranged in some form of geometrical pattern with individual
transducers use sequentially as transmitters, receivers or both is called a
A) sequenced array
B) switched pulser
C) C-scan array
D) multi-element probe

210. Which is not used as an acoustic imaging method?

A) deconvolution
B) sequenced array
C) liquid-surface levitation
D) holography

211. In order to determine a particular material parameter by ultrasonics you would need to find its
A) critical angle
B) acoustic velocity and acoustic impedance
C) attenuation
D) any or all of the above depending on the parameter sought

212. Increasing a focused probe's focal length can have the advantage of increasing focal depth, but this is
achieved at the expense of
A) increasing attenuation
B) increasing focal spot size
C) reducing resolution
D) both b and c

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ESTestMaker Questions

213. Which is not an advantage of electromagnetic acoustic transducers (EMAT)?

A) high electric to acoustic power conversion
B) can inspect rough or coated surfaces
C) non-contacting
D) inspection of high temperature surfaces

214. In highly automated inspection apparatus, ultrasonic phased arrays permit

A) elimination of mechanical scanning apparatus
B) increased resolution over a greater depth range
C) control of beam shape
D) all of the above

215. Rayleigh waves have

A) distinctly different velocities from longitudinal and shear waves in the same medium
B) ellipsoidal particle displacement
C) a velocity slightly less than shear waves in the same medium
D) all of the above

216. For crystalline material to have piezoelectric properties it must have

A) asymmetry of crystal axes
B) silicon as one of its component elements
C) nuclear spin parity
D) no unstable isotopes

217. For unpoled poly-crystalline piezoelectric materials, an applied pressure results in

A) polar alignment of crystal
B) radial mode vibration
C) maximum voltage
D) zero net voltage

218. Even under ideal conditions, the electro mechanical coupling coefficient (k) will not exceed
A) 0.1
B) 1.0
C) 10
D) 100

219. If the product of the relative transmitter and receiver efficiencies of quartz is 1, which of the following
piezomaterials would have a product less than 1?
A) PZT
B) ZnO
C) PVDF
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

220. A dual crystal probe using PZT as a transmitter and PVDF as a receiver, as compared to just PZT used
in the send-receive mode would be
A) about 7 times more efficient
B) half as efficient
C) hampered by low signal to noise ratio
D) useless

221. The purpose of using metal powder in epoxies as probe backing material is to
A) increase acoustic impedance of the backing to match the ceramic piezoelements' acoustic impedance
B) provide an electric conductor to the back electrode
C) decrease bandwidth
D) none of the above

222. In ultrasonic testing, beam focusing is accomplished by

A) placing lenses in front of the planar transmitter
B) suitably curved piezo material
C) specimen geometry
D) all of the above

223. The result of a cylindrical shaped lens on the front of an ultrasonic probe is a(n)
A) point focused beam
B) line focused beam
C) asymptotic beam
D) negatively focused beam

224. Which is not an advantage of electromagnetic acoustic transducers (EMATs)?

A) no couplant needed
B) hot surfaces are more easily inspected
C) easily shaped beams
D) increased sensitivity over ferro electric probes

225. Electromagnetic acoustic transducers (EMATs) generate ultrasound by means of

A) cosmic awareness
B) eddy currents
C) mechanical contact
D) magnetic deformations

226. EMATs cannot be used to generate ultrasound in

A) non-conductive material
B) magnetic metals
C) non-magnetic metals
D) both a and b

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ESTestMaker Questions

227. The most common method used to determine the nature of a probes' sound field is by
A) Fast Fourier transforms
B) impedance curves
C) side drilled holes
D) using two transducers, one transmitting and the other receiving

228. An angle beam probe is checked for refracted angle on an IIW and found to be 44 degrees. The IIW
block temperature is 10°C Moving to the 40° C test piece the refracted angle will be
A) more
B) less
C) the same
D) not possible to know

229. To determine the dominant frequency of a probe you would require

A) an unrectified signal on a baseline calibrated in time
B) a rectified signal on a baseline calibrated in distance
C) a reference probe
D) an impedance matching circuit

230. The time interval in microseconds between the first and last instant at which the value of the pulse
reaches 10% of its peak amplitude is considered the
A) pulse length
B) 20 dB drop length
C) dead zone
D) rise time

231. When determining signal-to-noise ratio the suppression control is set at

A) maximum
B) minimum
C) 50%
D) suppression setting is not important

232. When determining signal-to-noise ratio, the noise is attributable to

A) electrical noise from machine, cable and probe
B) metal grain structure
C) both a and b
D) inability for focus the baseline

233. Probe index refers to

A) nominal frequency of the probe
B) beam exit point
C) the refracted angle in the test piece
D) the incident angle from perspex

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ESTestMaker Questions

234. For a given range, deviations of + or - 2° in refracted angle will result in greatest depth error for
A) 70° probes
B) 60° probes
C) 45° probes
D) error will be constant at all angles

235. Depth of the dead zone is determined by

A) probe design
B) pulse energy setting
C) gain setting
D) all of the above

236. A discontinuity whose shape, size location or properties make it detrimental to the useful service of the
product in which it occurs or which exceeds the accept/reject criteria is a(n)
A) defect
B) slag inclusion
C) crack
D) anomaly

237. A response or evidence of a response in non-destructive testing that requires interpretation is called
A) an indication
B) a defect
C) a flaw
D) signal-to-noise ratio

238. The component of ultrasonic wave attenuation resulting from conversion of mechanical energy to heat is
called
A) acoustic absorption
B) coupling
C) divergence
D) acoustic impedance

239. The property which determines acoustic transmission across a boundary between two media is termed
A) acoustic impedance
B) electric impedance
C) conductivity
D) transmissivity

240. Coupling two media to provide optimum transfer of ultrasonic energy between them is
A) a code requirement
B) acoustic impedance matching
C) best accomplished by dry coupling
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

241. For a given ultrasonic beam impinging on a surface, the angle of incidence, the angle of reflection and
the normal to that surface are
A) always equal
B) never equal
C) found by the inverse squared law
D) in the same plane

242. Loss of acoustic energy in a material due to scatter, absorption and dispersion is called
A) suppression
B) attenuation
C) damping
D) all of the above

243. A curve showing the relationship of amplitude to distance actually travelled to reflectors of the same
area is usually referred to as a(n)
A) AVG curve
B) DAC curve
C) DGS curve
D) NDT curve

244. The ultrasonic pulse received from the geometric boundary of a body normal to the beam axis is termed
A) backwall echo
B) a multiple reflection
C) the normal echo
D) a defect

245. An ultrasonic display in rectangular coordinates where distance or time of flight is represented in one
direction and probe displacement represented on the other and reflected pulses as bright marks on a
dark background (or vise versa) is called a(n)
A) A-scan
B) B-scan
C) C-scan
D) tomograph

246. Noise generated by the transmitting transducer which is produced in the receiving transducer of a dual
crystal probe is called
A) signal from noise effect
B) cross-talk
C) acoustic pick-up
D) FM cross-over

247. An assembly of ultrasonic crystals mounted so as to behave as though it were a single crystal is called
a(n)
A) acoustic mat
B) crystal mosaic
C) phased array
D) linear array

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ESTestMaker Questions

248. The time interval between the initial pulse and the initiation of the time base sweep is termed
A) range
B) time of flight
C) programmed off-set
D) delay

249. The frequency at which the overall response of an ultrasonic pulse-echo flaw detection system is
maximum is the
A) dominant frequency
B) resonance frequency
C) nominal frequency
D) anti-resonance frequency

250. The lowest acoustic frequency which will cause a condition of resonance to be established in a given
material of given thickness is the _________ frequency.
A) fundamental
B) parallel
C) series
D) anti-resonance

251. A probe which incorporates separate transmit and receive crystals in the same housing is called a
A) dual crystal probe
B) phased-array probe
C) delta probe
D) normal probe

252. The unit of sound (or electrical) gain or attenuation, dB is

A) one tenth of a bell
B) a ratio of voltages or intensities
C) derived from naval protocol
D) both a and b

253. The display of remnant reflections originating from previously transmitted pulses due to too high a PRF
are called
A) transients
B) trip signals
C) ghost echoes
D) none of the above

254. Harmonic frequencies occur at

A) 2 times the fundamental frequency
B) 3 times the fundamental frequency
C) 4 times the fundamental frequency
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

255. The boundary between any two media of different acoustic impedances is termed a(n)
A) interface
B) divide
C) interlude
D) front

256. A wave that is propagated in thin material, & whose velocity is dependant on frequency and material
thickness.
A) Lamb wave
B) Rayleigh wave
C) shear wave
D) new wave

257. The repeated reflections of ultrasonic pulses from between surfaces or discontinuities within a body are
A) ghost echoes
B) sing-around
C) multiple echoes
D) wrap-around

258. A 'normal beam' probe is one which

A) operates at half wave resonance
B) operates at quarter wave resonance
C) has tungsten powder imbedded in its backing epoxy
D) introduces sound into a test piece at right angles to the surface

259. The method whereby a discontinuity is detected and evaluated using reflected pulses.
A) pulse-echo method
B) through transmission
C) bulk wave testing
D) crack tip diffraction

260. The number of times per second that an ultrasonic transducer is excited to produce a pulse is
A) determined by the crystal thickness
B) a function of the cable capacitance
C) the pulse repetition frequency
D) all of the above

261. The gain or attenuation setting at which indications are assessed is the ________ level.
A) reference
B) scan
C) threshold
D) bell

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ESTestMaker Questions

262. Instrument settings which relate a reference echo of reproducible amplitude with which other instrument
settings relating to a discontinuity echo are compared is the
A) scanning level
B) threshold level
C) reference sensitivity
D) overall system gain

263. Addition of suppression or reject to a display effectively

A) filters out unwanted noise
B) reduces dynamic range
C) increases sensitivity
D) none of the above

264. The relationship between amplitudes of an indication in A-scan presentation and the magnitude of the
corresponding received signals is used to determine
A) vertical linearity
B) manual scanning speed
C) longitudinal/shear mode energy ratios
D) none of the above

265. The device which incorporates one or more ultrasonic crystals mounted inside a liquid filled flexible tire
is commonly called a
A) rubber tester
B) rotating head probe
C) wheel probe
D) plate probe

266. Which pulse method of ultrasonic testing uses only a single crystal?
A) pulse-echo
B) pitch-catch
C) through-transmission
D) all of the above

267. The source of ultrasound in acoustic emission techniques is

A) sudden relaxation of stresses within the material
B) a transmitter crystal
C) rotary wire brushes
D) static discharge

268. Resolving power of broadband transducers

A) increases with soundpath distance
B) decreases with soundpath distance
C) is independant of soundpath distance
D) depends solely on near field length

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ESTestMaker Questions

269. Examination of a metal's elastic properties by increasing the angle of incidence until either the
longitudinal or shear mode disappears is called
A) wave mode analysis
B) spectral analysis
C) specular analysis
D) critical-angle analysis

270. When doing immersion critical-angle analyses the pitch-catch technique is used. The receiver probe is
used to study the
A) reflected longitudinal wave
B) reflected transverse wave
C) transmitted longitudinal wave
D) Rayleigh waves

271. Non-contacting ultrasonic coupling, i.e. coupling across an air gap has its advantage in
A) avoiding fluid contamination of test piece
B) testing at elevated temperatures is possible
C) avoiding transducer wear on rough surfaces
D) all of the above

272. When performing a "normal beam" inspection of 60mm thick plate by immersion technique, the
minimum waterpath to avoid waterpath multiples in the first metal wall thickness display is
A) 15mm
B) 30mm
C) 60mm
D) 240mm

273. If the longitudinal waves are required at an angle other than zero degrees from the normal in the test
piece
A) the incident angle must be less than the first critical angle
B) the incident angle must be less than the second critical angle
C) the incident angle must be between the first and second critical angles
D) you are out of luck-it can't be done

274. Although no longer commonly used for thickness testing of steel plate, resonance testing still finds
application in
A) flaw detection in integrated circuits
B) locating nonbond areas in rubber to metal
C) shadow technique ultrasonic testing
D) all of the above

275. Ultrasonic systems similar to those used in nondestructive testing are used in
A) ultrasonic welding
B) diagnostic medicine
C) de-watering units
D) ultrasonic machining

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ESTestMaker Questions

276. Transducers used for resonance measurements would more likely be

A) broadband-type pulse
B) high-Q factor
C) low-Q factor
D) none of the above

277. When information is presented as a B-scan on an oscilloscope, intensity (or amplitude) of a signal is
indicated by
A) strobe effects for signals over a threshold amplitude
B) digital readout on the corner of the screen
C) brightness of the spot on the scope
D) none of the above

278. When measuring crack depth using shear-wave soundpaths, amplitude drop and probe travel, you need
in addition to various distances and the refracted angles
A) a transmitting and a receiving transducer
B) the beamwidth in the vertical plane
C) maximum amplitude with respect to a side drilled hole
D) maximum amplitude with respect to a flat bottom hole

279. For a given flaw, with a physical vertical extent of 11mm, the probe requiring the maximum forward
travel to locate the flaw ends would be the
A) 0°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 70°

280. An increase in attenuation or a decrease in velocity in a material is generally indicative of

A) degradation or loss of strength
B) an increase in compressive loading
C) an increase in tensile strength
D) decreasing pulse frequency

281. Attenuation studies in ultrasound could be used to determine

A) average gain size of metals
B) yield point of materials during elastic-plastic deformation
C) fracture toughness of stainless steel
D) all of the above

282. Ultrasonic methods used to monitor or detect fatigue cracks are based on
A) attenuation effects
B) amplitude of reflection energy
C) both a and b are used
D) none of the above

40
ESTestMaker Questions

283. An advantage of using ultrasonic surface waves over other wave modes is
A) good sensitivity to subsurface defects
B) the ease of focusing the beam
C) test piece contours are followed without loss due to direction changes
D) none of the above

284. The weld defect that results when a weld puddle solidifies from the outer edges and causes stresses
sufficient to produce cracking is
A) crater cracking
B) underbead cracking
C) transverse cracking
D) puddle jumping

285. The purpose of removing a weld cap by grinding it flush with the base metal in preparation for ultrasonic
testing is to
A) reduce scatter from redirection of beam
B) improve volumetric coverage
C) increase sensitivity to near surface defects
D) all of the above

286. When testing tubular products with ultrasonics it is essential to ensure a fixed alignment between the
probe and workpiece since a slight shift of tube axis could result in
A) a large change in incidence angle
B) damaging the probe
C) differential losses in frequency content
D) none of the above

287. In immersion ultrasonic testing of tubular products, line focused probes have an advantage over point
focused probes in that
A) higher frequencies are available
B) higher inspection rates are possible
C) higher resolution is achieved
D) higher sensitivity is achieved

288. When inspecting tubing using ultrasonic immersion methods in the tube mill
A) the tube is rotated under the ultrasonic probes
B) the probes are rotated around the tube
C) both a or b can be arranged
D) none of the above

289. Lamb waves are used to inspect

A) threaded bar stock
B) for inclusions in TIG welded root passes
C) thin plate
D) all of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

290. In general, ultrasonic testing of cast iron is

A) done at frequencies from 1-2 MHz
B) by immersion methods only
C) both a and b
D) avoided

291. Which of the following non-metals would more commonly be tested by ultrasonics in the kiloherz range
of frequencies?
A) wood
B) concrete
C) rubber
D) all of the above

292. Ultrasonics when used on timber (i.e. logs) can determine

A) age by counting rings
B) diameter
C) presence or absence of decay
D) none of the above, ultrasound is not used to test timber

293. Ultrasonic velocities of glasses such as quartz, fused silica and pyrex are
A) not possible to determine
B) available for only the longitudinal mode
C) about the same as steel
D) about the same as water

294. Ultrasonics has been successfully used in testing rubber tires for determining
A) porosity location
B) de-lamination location
C) the state of cure
D) all of the above

295. Ultrasonic holography has an advantage over other imaging techniques in that it provides
A) total information from a single pulse
B) a 3-dimensional display of defects
C) maximum inspection speed
D) the best sensitivity of all imaging systems

296. Non-destructive testing is one of many applications of low-intensity ultrasound. Which of the following is
not an example of low-intensity ultrasound application.
A) acoustic holography
B) ultrasonic fish-finders
C) ultrasonic cleaning
D) ultrasonic flowmeters

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ESTestMaker Questions

297. The weak emission of light that sometimes accompanies cavitation in high intensity ultrasonic fields is
called
A) sonoluminescence
B) fluorescence
C) bioluminescence
D) ultraluminescence

298. Diagnostic medical application of low intensity ultrasound has its advantage in
A) its ability to detect phenomena X-rays cannot
B) destroying gall stones
C) generating therapeutic heat
D) all of the above

299. The Doppler effect is utilized in ultrasonic

A) flaw detection
B) flowmeters
C) B-scanners
D) cleaners

300. Ultrasound intensity used in low intensity diagnostic testing (such as nondestructive testing) is on the
order of
A) 100µW/cm²
B) 100mW/cm²
C) 100kW/cm²
D) 100MW/cm²

301. Steel ball bearings would probably be tested nondestructively using

A) ultrasonics
B) liquid penetrant
C) magnetic particles
D) radiography

302. The term defect or flaw indicates

A) a minimum or maximum size
B) suitability of a part for a given purpose
C) nature of the fault
D) none of the above

303. Ultimately the cause of any crack is

A) corrosion
B) re-crystallization
C) stress
D) strain

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ESTestMaker Questions

304. Localized heating of metal objects can result in

A) "crazy" cracks
B) grinding cracks
C) are strike cracks
D) all of the above

305. In a valve casting, sponginess

A) could result in a leak
B) could be found using liquid penetrant
C) is easiest found using ultrasonics
D) both a and b

306. The term pipe refers to

A) a forging defect
B) a weld defect
C) central shrinkage in an ingot
D) a central blowhole in a casting

307. A surface breaking crack located by ultrasonics

A) will be easily located using eddy currents
B) may not by located by another NDT method
C) will be shorter if located with LPI
D) will be longer if located with LPI

308. If a procedure fails to take into consideration a significant variable, such as temperature, the result will
be
A) unreliable inspection results
B) missed defects
C) lack of repeatability
D) over sensitivity

309. If it is possible to automate a previously manually performed scan, you can always expect
A) faster inspections
B) more accurate results
C) improved flaw detection reliability
D) all of the above

310. When dealing with ultrasonic nondestructive testing the letters PZT stand for
A) Paul Zamphir Tait, the discoverer of the piezo-ceramics
B) lead zirconate titanate
C) phosphoric zirconate tungstenate
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

311. The most commonly used backing used in ultrasonic transducers used in NDT is
A) air
B) spur's epoxy
C) epoxy resin filled with tungsten powder
D) brass

312. The material added to epoxy resin to increase acoustic impedance of the probe backing is usually
A) Rochelle salt
B) iron filings
C) tungsten powder
D) PbO (lead oxide)

313. The backward moving energy in an ultrasonic probe is damped by

A) natural attenuation of air
B) defocusing lenses
C) scattering by tungsten particles
D) none of the above

314. The least difficult aspect of a defect to determine using ultrasonics is

A) length
B) height
C) elastic constants
D) yield stress reduction on the component

315. In time of flight diffraction techniques, the first wave to arrive at the receiving probe is the _________
wave.
A) Rayleigh
B) diffracted
C) lateral
D) reflected

316. The longitudinal blurring of ultrasonic B-scan images that results due to ultrasonic beam width can be
reduced by
A) using a lower frequency probe
B) synthetic aperture focusing technique (saft)
C) increasing the soundpath
D) using immersion methods.

317. Using a contact probe with lucite wedge designed to produce a 70° shear wave in steel, which material
could you not inspect using shear waves generated from this probe ( V lucite = 2.68mm/µsec V steel
(transverse) = 3.2 mm/µsec)?
A) Aluminum (Vl = 6.32mm/µsec Vt = 2.49 mm/µsec)
B) Brass (Vl = 4.28mm/µsec Vt = 2.03 mm/µsec)
C) nickel (Vl = 5.63 mm/µsec Vt = 2.96 mm/µsec)
D) titanium carbide (Vl = 5.63 mm/µsec Vt = 5.16 mm/µsec)

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ESTestMaker Questions

318. Given a wedge meant to produce a 60° refracted shear wave in steel (Vl = 5.66 Vt = 3.12 mm/µsec),
which material would you be able to also use this wedge for a 60° refracted shear wave?
A) aluminium 2117T4 (Vl=6.50 Vt=3.12mm/µsec)
B) beryllium (Vl=12.9 Vt=8.88mm/µsec)
C) iron (Vl=5.9 Vt=2.32 mm/µsec)
D) nickel (Vl=5.66 Vt=2.96mm/µsec)

319. The angle of incidence from lucite Vl=2.76mm/µsec to produce a 60° refracted shear wave in steel
(Vl=5.9 Vt=3.2mm/µsec) is
A) 23.1°
B) 34.6°
C) 48.3°
D) 58.1°

320. In Snell's Law, there will be no first critical angle if the

A) incident angle does not exceed 89°
B) acoustic velocity in the refracting medium is less than in the incident medium
C) acoustic impedance of the refracting medium is greater than 1
D) none of the above, there will always be a first critical angle

321. The inverse sine of the ratio of the acoustic velocity in the incident medium to refracting medium's
acoustic velocity gives
A) the first critical angle
B) the second critical angle
C) the third critical angle
D) the critical angle, which critical angle depends on the mode velocity used

322. The inverse sine of the ratio of the _____ velocities gives the first critical angle.
A) refracted long. and incident shear
B) incident long. and refracted long.
C) incident long. and refracted shear
D) incident long. and reflected long.

323. Given water, density=1g/cc Vl=1.5mm/µsec and lead, density=11.4g/cc Vl=2.16mm/µsec. The second
critical angle of sound moving from water to lead is
A) 7.8°
B) 14.4°
C) 28°
D) not possible to determine from this information

324. Given the acoustic velocities Vl=1.5mm/µsec for water and Vl=2.16 Vt=0.70 mm/µsec for lead. What is
the second critical angle for a longitudinal wave from water to lead.
A) 43.9°
B) 33.9°
C) 27.5°
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

325. In the welding process, removal of weld metal and base metal from the opposite side of a welded joint
to ensure complete penetration upon welding from that side is called
A) de-welding
B) beveling
C) back gouging
D) joint preparation

326. The preferred welding term for a blowhole is

A) tunneling
B) gusher
C) porosity
D) gas pocket

327. The purpose of backing material at the root of a weld is

A) to support molten weld metal
B) a heat sink
C) to prevent lack of fusion
D) all of the above

328. In welding processes, a preplaced filler metal which is fused into the root of a joint and thereby becomes
part of the weld is a
A) chill
B) chaplet
C) consumable insert
D) covered electrode

329. A crack occurring in the depression at the termination of a weld bead is called a
A) hot tear
B) termination crack
C) heat check crack
D) crater crack

330. In a welded joint, the minimum distance from the root to the weld face is the
A) hypotenuse
B) leg
C) effective throat
D) length of weld

331. The purpose of flux material in welding is

A) to stabilize the welding arc
B) to protect the molten weld from atmosphere
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

332. In welding, the area of base metal melted as determined on a cross-section of the weld is the
A) heat affected zone
B) fusion zone
C) dead zone
D) twilight zone

333. The portion of base metal that has not been melted but whose mechanical properties or microstructure
have been altered by heat of welding or cutting is called the
A) fusion zone
B) heat affected zone
C) dead zone
D) twilight zone

334. In a welding process using inert gas as a part of the operation, the purpose of the inert gas is to
A) react with the filler metal
B) provide a protective atmosphere over the weld puddle
C) increase the heat at the arc
D) harden the weld metal deposited

335. The protrusion of weld metal beyond the toe, face or root of a weld is called
A) overlap
B) undercut
C) pass
D) bead

336. Another term for the welding phenomenon called "suck-back" is

A) undercut
B) blow-through
C) concave root
D) overlap

337. Cracking occuring in the heat affected zone that does not usually extend to the surface of the metal is
A) transverse cracking
B) underbead cracking
C) laminal cracking
D) post weld heat treatment cracking

338. In tig welding the electrode manipulated by the welder is

A) made of tungsten
B) not consumed
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

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ESTestMaker Questions

339. When inspecting a curved surface with a contact probe it is advised to use
A) circular probes
B) rectangular probes
C) large probes
D) small probes

340. When inspecting rough surfaces, such as castings, coupling efficiency can be improved by
A) using larger dimensioned probes
B) increasing receiver gain
C) using lower frequency probes
D) increasing damping

341. For contact testing of thin steel plate (5mm) it is recommended to use shear waves at 80°. A significant
problem to contend with however is
A) a large fraction of energy is converted to surface waves
B) interference from side lobes
C) identifying defects
D) locating the position of defects

342. You are required to scan the full volume of an unground tee joint weld on 100mm thick plate. Scanning
is to be done from one side of the weld prep plate using a 45° probe. What is the scan distance you
must move from the tee plate surface to ensure 100% coverage of the weld having a leg of 30mm?
A) 142mm
B) 230mm
C) 283mm
D) 300mm

343. You are to scan an unground 50mm thick butt weld from one side of the weld only. The plate is 20mm
thick and full volumetric coverage of the weld plus 20mm heat affected zone is needed. Weld face is
20mm wide. What is the maximum scan distance from the weld centre-line for this coverage with a 60°
probe?
A) 40mm
B) 68mm
C) 98mm
D) 120mm

344. A sharp narrow signal whose amplitude remains constant when orbited and drops off quickly with probe
rotation is probably
A) lack of fusion
B) an isolated pore
C) slag
D) a transverse crack

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ESTestMaker Questions

345. A ragged, cluster of individual spikes is located and determined to be a defect. Sound path varies,
amplitudes vary with rotation and orbiting with the probe. But the defect does not drop off completely
when orbited. It is most likely a
A) crack
B) slag inclusion
C) porosity cluster
D) lack of fusion

346. A sharp narrow defect signal is located during a standard A-scan of a weld. Rotation and orbit of the
defect cause it to drop off quickly with lateral probe motion the signal remains constant in both
amplitude and sound path. It is most likely a
A) slag inclusion
B) crack
C) lack of fusion
D) pore

347. Given a butt weld in a 55mm thick plate, ground flush, you locate a large sharp narrow reflector with a
soundpath of 154mm and exit point 128mm from the weld centreline using a 45° probe. If it has length
of 20mm the flaw is likely
A) lack of penetration
B) mis-match
C) lack of fusion
D) suck back

348. The purpose of a straight-edge probe guide to limit traversing motion is to

A) facilitate defect evaluation as to type
B) limit scanning to a specific depth
C) determine vertical extent
D) none of the above

349. When performing a manual pulse-echo contact scan to evaluate the root area of a weld, a helpful aid is
a(n)
A) level 1 technician
B) straight edged probe guide
C) electronic gate
D) threshold alarm

350. Given an immersion probe with a focal length of 50mm in water, about what depth in steel would this
probe focus if positioned with normal incidence 40mm over a steel plate (using water couplant)?
A) 2.5 mm
B) 5.0 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 40 mm

351. The probe used in the 30-70-70 mode converted method uses
A) 3 separate elements mounted at different angles
B) 2 separate elements mounted at different angles
C) a single element mounted to induce a 70° refracted Longitudinal wave
D) a single element mounted to induce a 70° refracted Shear wave

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ESTestMaker Questions

352. The indirect shear wave in the 30-70-70 mode conversion method is formed off the
A) 70° Long. wave
B) creeping wave
C) direct shear wave
D) damping material on the front of the probe shoe

353. Which is a limitation of the 30-70-70 mode conversion method?

A) It cannot be performed with conventional probes
B) It requires special calibration blocks
C) Parallel surfaces are needed for mode conversion
D) All of the above

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