Toefl Itp - 2002 - 08

NAME :
CLASS :
TOEFL ITP - 2002 - 08
DATE :
140 Questions
1. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:
A He’ll eat his sandwich after class. B He can only stay a short while.
C He isn’t hungry right now. D He need to shop before eating.
A Leave her garbage cans at his house. B Find out when the truck comes by.
C Prepare for a Tuesday pickup. D Put the garbage out the night before pickup.
She must take one more math class in order to She took a lot of math classes in high school.
A B
graduate.
She didn’t have to take the introductory math class at She did well in the math class because she was
C D
the material. familiar with the material.
A Help him complete a for. B Advise him about his classes.
C Lend him some money. D Visit the man’s apartment.
A The man should hurry to the library before it closes. B The man should use the phone in the student center.
C The student center will close in an hour. D There’s no pay phone in the library.
He isn’t sure how many people will be at the picnic. He’s worried that here won’t be enough food at the
A B
picnic.
C The woman doesn’t need to bring food to the picnic. D The woman should count the guests carefully.
A (A) She agrees with the man’s choice. B (B) She doesn’t recommend the red tie.
C (C) She doesn’t think the man needs to wear a tie D (D) She has no opinion about men’s clothing.
https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

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A (A) He’ll be able to feed the cat next week. B (B) His sister might agree to take care of the cat.
(C) The woman should take the cat out of town with (D) His sister will be out of town next week.
C D
her.
A (A) It has been in the cafeteria for several weeks. B (B) Its colors aren’t very bright.
C (C) Both speakers thing it looks bad in the cafeteria. D (D) The speakers selected it for the cafeteria.
(A) He needs the woman’s help. (B) He’ll complete the report when the computer’s
A B
fixed.
(C) The report was much longer than he thought it (D) The report was finished a couple of day ago.
C D
would be.
A (A) Class has already started. B (B) They should stop the car right now.
C (C) She doesn’t have enough money to buy gas. D (D) This isn’t a good time to go to a gas station.
A (A) Start her papers before she talks to her professors. B (B) Try to finish one of the papers this week
(C) Talk to her professors soon to ask for more time. (D) Ask her professors to help her choose topics for
C D
her papers.
(A) She need to go shopping for a new pair of jeans. (B) She and her sister look different because of their
A B
clothing.
C (C) She and her sister aren’t twins. D (D) She and her sister don’t wear the same size dress.
(A) He expects to sell all of the calculators soon. (B) the woman should look in a different section of the
A B
store.
C (C) The store doesn’t have any calculators to sell now. D (D) Calculators are on sale this week.
(A) The task will take more time than the man thinks. (B) She doesn’t want to talk with the man while he’s
A B
angry.
C (C) She can’t help the man until later. D (D) she want to know why the man didn’t come earlier.

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A (A) He’s teaching a computer class. B (B) He never earned a college degree.
C (C) He has decided to change his field of study. D (D) He’s taking a class to update his skill.
A (A) He has agreed to take care of her plants. B (B) He’s bringing some plants back from his trip
C (C) He’s not very responsible. D (D) He’ll be away for a while.
A (A) She’s sorry she can’t help the man. B (B) She didn’t earn a good grade in the biology course.
(C) The man will begin to appreciate the biology (D) The man should find a tutor.
C D
course
A (A) She needs to improve her study skills. B (B) She’ll feel better if she get some rest.
C (C) She should make a doctor’s appointment. D (D) Her medication isn’t working well.
A (A) She forgot to bring her skates. B (B) She’s staying home from work today.
C (C) She made other plans. D (D) She has to work late tonight.
A (A) Throw the clothes away. B (B) Make a donation of his old clothes.
C (C) Try to sell his old clothes. D (D) Save the clothes to give to his friend.
A (A) He’ll look for the woman’s wallet. B (B) He’ll help the woman with her physics project.
C (C) He doesn’t have much money. D (D) He’d like to pay for the woman’s lunch.
(A) She wants to work at the same laboratory next (B) She’s tired of working as a laboratory assistant.
A B
semester.
(C) She’s tired of working as a laboratory next (D) She needs to find a new job quickly.
C D
semester.

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(A) His father doesn’t have time to listen to a book on (B) His father might find a book on tape convenient.
A B
tape.
(C) Books on tape aren’t as popular as paperback (D) His father likes mysteries better than historical
C D
books. novels.
(A) She is neater than the woman’s previous (B) She doesn’t like the woman’s last roommate.
A B
roommate.
C (C) She doesn’t like to clean. D (D) She’ll probably move soon.
A (A) She’ll accompany the man tomorrow. B (B) She’s going to see the exhibit later.
C (C) She isn’t interested in the exhibit. D (D) Susan’s work will be exhibited tomorrow.
A (A) He remembers seeing the notes. B (B) He needs the notes for his biology class.
C (C) The woman can borrow his notes. D (D) The notes may be in the woman’s bookbag
(A) The woman has never been skiing. (B) The woman hasn’t been able to ski much this
A B
winter
(C) The warm weather will probably not last much (D) The woman doesn’t believe the man.
C D
longer
A (A) She forgot to give the man directions. B (B) She’ll give the man new directions.
C (C) She doesn’t know where the man is. D (D) She’ll repeat what she told the man earlier.
A (A) He hasn’t received the memo. B (B) He doesn’t understand the memo.
C (C) He doesn’t approve of the dean’s plan. D (D) He doesn’t need to read the memo.
31. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:
A (A) Memories of a recent storm. B (B) How strong winds develop into a hurricane.
C (C) Weather patterns that can affect Florida. D (D) Planning a summer vacation.

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A (A) Wind speed. B (B) Rainfall
C (C) Water temperature. D (D) Direction of approach.
A (A) By name. B (B) By number.
C (C) By location. D (D) By month.
A (A) Study a weather map. B (B) Visit a weather station.
C (C) Listen to a weather report. D (D) Go to a storm shelter.
A (A) How hydrothermal vents are formed. B (B) How living things get energy from sunlight
(C) The harmful effects of certain chemicals in the (D) Microorganisms that get energy from chemical
C D
ocean. reactions.
A (A) In caves. B (B) On the ocean floor.
C (C) Far below the Earth’s crust D (D) Inside Achaean.
A (A) They need very little energy. B (B) They’re found at all depths of the ocean.
(C) They live where there is no sunlight. (D) They’re similar to many other kinds of
C D
microorganisms.
A (A) Their genetics. B (B) Their size.
C (C) What they look like. D (D) The amount of energy they need.
39. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer:
A (A) Training given to music therapists. B (B) How music prevents disease.
C (C) Studies on the benefits of music. D (D) How musicians create music.
A (A) In place of physical therapy. B (B) To control brain seizures.
C (C) To prevent heat disease. D (D) To relieve tension.

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(A) They like to have music in the operating room. (B) They solved problems better while listening to
A B
music they liked.
(C) They preferred classical music. (D) They performed better when they used
C D
headphones.
A (A) It increased the students’ while blood cell count. B (B) It increased some students’ energy level.
(C) It improved the students’ ability to play musical (D) It released a natural painkiller in some students’
C D
instruments. bodies.
A (A) How historical events affected an art movement. B (B) How artists can influence economic conditions.
(C) Why a certain art movement failed to become (D) How valuable paintings were lost during wartime.
C D
popular.
A (A) Many artists lost faith in the value of art. B (B) Many artists moved away from large cities.
(C) Many artists were forced to take jobs in other (D) Many artists in the United States moved to other
C D
fields. countries.
A (A) People wording in a large factory. B (B) People walking on crowded city streets.
C (C) An everyday activity in a small town. D (D) A well-known historical event.
(A) The populations of small towns increased rapidly. (B) Art critics in cites began to take notice of
A B
regionalism.
(C) Some regionalist painters began a new art (D) Society became more internationally focused.
C D
movement.
(A) She was asked to lead a group of inexperienced (B) It was the first cave that she had ever visited.
A B
cavers there.
C (C) Clearly marked trails mode it easy to explore. D (D) She hoped to make a discovery.
A (A) It’s easy to locate. B (B) It’s in a very windy area.
C (C) It’s exceptionally beautiful. D (D) It’s partially covered by water.

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A (A) They are more likely to damage the cave. B (B) It’s hard for them to stay awake.
(C) They tend to break their equipment. (D) They may imagine seeing things that aren’t really
C D
there.
A (A) They are newer than the formations in most caves. B (B) They were formed by sulfuric acid.
C (C) They have been artificially preserved. D (D) They are smaller than those in any other cave.
51. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 1: Over the centuries, ____ that try to explain
the origins of the university.
A (A) although many theories B (B) many theories
C (C) have many theories been D (D) there have been many theories
52. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 2: The planet Venus is almost exactly the same
size and mass _____ Earth, with a similar interior, including a nickel-iron core.
A (A) to B (B) as
C (C) is D (D) than
53. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 3: George Washington Carver ____
international fame for revolutionizing agriculture research in the southern United States during the early
twentieth century.
A (A) won B (B) winning
C (C) who has won D (D) the winner of
54. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 4: constituting one of the earliest engineering
techniques, ______ in Paleolithic time was done in order to extend natural caves.
A (A) tunnels were built B (B) which built tunnels
C (C) the building of tunnels D (D) tunnels whose building
55. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 5: the tulip tree is native to the eastern United
States , _____ the tallest and larges broadleaf tree.
A (A) where B (B) where it is
C (C) it is where D (D) is where

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56. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 6: Elementary schools in the United states
provide formal education ______ arithmetic, science, social science, and communication skills that including
reading, writing , spelling, and speaking.
A (A) such subjects as basic in B (B) as basic subjects in such
C (C) in such basic subjects as D (D) as in such basic subjects
57. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 7: ______ land and money enabled construction
of the Union Pacific railroad to begin from Council Bluffs, Iowa , in 1865.
A (A) By the government granting of B (B) Government grants of
C (C) For the government to grant D (D) Government grants so that
58. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 8: Appointments to the United States Supreme
Court and all lower federal courts ____ be the President with the advice and consent of the Senate.
A (A) making B (B) to make
C (C) are made D (D) have made
59. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 9: The name “squirrel” is commonly used for
those forms of the family Sciuridae that live in trees, _____ it is equally accurate for ground dwelling types.
A (A) whether B (B) that
C (C) although D (D) in spite of
60. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 10: Green plants combine _____ with water and
carbon dioxide to make food.
A (A) energy derived from light B (B) energy, derived it from light
C (C) energy is derived from light D (D) from light , and energy derived
61. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 11: From the archeologist’s perspective,
understanding the past is vitally important and requires ______ of earlier cultures.
A (A) the ruins examined B (B) examining the ruins
C (C) of the ruins to be examined D (D) that the examined ruins
62. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 12: The Texas Legislature selected Vassar Miller
_____ in 1982, and again in 1988.
A (A) was the state’s poet laureate B (B) as the state’s poet laureate
C (C) the state’s poet laureate D (D) become the state’s poet laureate

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63. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 13: The distinguishing feature of a fluid, in
contrast to a solid, is the ease _____
A (A) that a deformed fluid B (B) to deform a fluid
C (C) when a fluid that is deformed D (D) with which a fluid may be deformed
64. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 14: Oxygen and nutrients reach the body’s
tissues ____ from the blood through the capillary wall.
A (A) pass B (B) by passing
C (C) to be passing D (D) have passed
65. Section II - Grammar - Part A: Chose the correct answer - Question 15: _____ important development of the
Neolithic age was not in the manufacture of stone tools but in the production of food.
A (A) The most B (B) Most
C (C) Most of D (D) Of the most
66. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 16: By 1899 Ransom olds had establish in
Detroit, Michigan, the first factory in the United States for the manufacture of automobiles.
A By B establish
C first D the
67. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 17: The progressive Movement is an umbrella
tern refer to a number of reform efforts that emerged in the early 1900’s
A refer B a number of
C efforts D emerged
68. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 18: The pelican is a water bird with a large
pouch attached to its bill, which it uses as a scoop for catch small fish.
A large B its
C as D for
69. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 19: The invention of reinforced concrete, plate
glass, and steel in the mid-1800’s was enabled architects to design and build extremely tall constructions, or
“skyscrapers.”
A was enabled B to design
C extremely tall D or

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70. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 20: Acoustics, the study of sounds, is one of the
oldest of the physically sciences.
A the B is
C oldest D physically
71. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 21: Each of functions of the body, even thinking,
requires the expenditure of energy.
A of functions B of the body
C the expenditure D of energy
72. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 22: 22.Gourds were introduced to what is now
the southwestern United States by earliest peoples who migrated north from Mesoamerica about 7000 years ago.
A introduced B earliest
C who D from
73. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 23: The economic heart of Canada, Ontario
accounts for more than 40 percentage of the nation’s productive capacity.
A heart B accounts for
C percentage D capacity.
74. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 24: Virtually all parts moving of an automobile
need to be lubricated because, without lubrication, friction would increase power consumption and damage the
parts.
A parts moving B need to be
C because, D would increase
75. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 25: Rarely has a technological development had
as great an impact on society as the rapid grow of electronics.
A Rarely has B had
C impact on D grow
76. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 26: The North American Review, a magazine
was first published in 1815, was one of the leading literary journals of the past woe centuries.
A magazine was B published
C leading D journals

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77. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 27: Fuel is any substance or material that reacts
chemically with another substance or material to produce hot.
A any B that reacts
C with D hot.
78. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 28: Glint was a favored material of prehistoric
humans, which used it to make tools and weapons, because it would chip into shapes with sharp edges.
A a B which
C to make D into
79. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 29: Mutiny of a ship’s crew against the captain
signifies the breakdown of the obedience and discipline required to deal effectively to perils at eat.
A signifies B obedience
C discipline required D to
80. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 30: Of all the art-related reference and research
library in North America, that of the Metropolitan Museum of a Art in New York City is among the largest and most
complete.
A library B that of
C among D most complete.
81. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 31: Acclimatization is the process by which an
organism adjusts to living in an environment to which it normally unsuited.
A the process B to living
C to D it normally
82. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 32: Glaciers, mass of ice that flow outward from
ice caps, cover about one-tenth of earth’s land area.
A mass B outward
C about D land
83. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 33: Some species of bacteria and fungi thrive on
such simply compounds as alcohol.
A Some B bacteria
C simply D as

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84. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 34: In 1923 Alice Paul began campaign to
promote the adoption of an amendment to the United States Constitution mandating equal rights for women.
A began campaign B the adoption
C an amendment D equal rights
85. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 35: Perhaps more than any other United States
city, San Francisco is a collection of neighborhood.
A Perhaps B any other
C a D neighborhood.
86. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 36: Almost every the hereditary material of an
individual organism resides in the chromosomes.
A every B material
C an individual D in the
87. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 37: Only with early seventeenth-century
observers did the music of the original inhabitants of the United States and Canada entered recorded history.
A early B observers
C original D entered
88. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 38: Perhaps the most distinctive features of
sharks and undoubtedly one of the most important reasons for their success is their well-developed sensory system.
A features B undoubtedly
C reasons D sensory
89. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 39: The major economic activities of Cheyenne,
Wyoming, include transportation, chemicals, tourism, but governmental activities.
A economic B include
C chemicals, D but
90. Section II - Grammar - Part B: Chose the correct answer - Question 40: The fiction writer, poetry, and critic Edgar
Allan Poe is among the most familiar of American writers and one of the most enigmatic.
A poetry, B most familiar
C writers D one of

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91. Section III - Reading - Passage 1:
Often enough the craft worker’s place of employment in ancient Greece was set in rural isolation. Potter, for
instance, found it convenient to locate their workshops near their source of clay, regardless of its relation to the
center of settlement, At Corinth and Athens, however, two of the best-known potters’ quarters were situated on the
cities’ outskirts, and potters and makers of terra-cotta figurines were also established well within the city of Athens
itself. The techniques of pottery manufacture had evolved well before the Greek period, but marked stylistic
developments occurred in shape and in decoration, for example, in the interplay of black and other glazes with the
red surface of the fired pot. Athenian black-figure and red-figure decoration, which emphasized human figures rather
than animal images, was adopted between 630 and 530 B.C.；its distinctive color and luster were the result of the
skillful adjustments of the kiln’s temperature during an extended three-stage period if firing the clayware. Whether it
was the potters or the vase-painters who initiated changes in firing is unclear; the functions of making and
decorating were usually divided between them, but neither group can have been so specialized the they did not
share in the concerns of the other.
The broad utility of terra-cotta was such that workers in clay could generally afford to Confine themselves to either
decorated ware and housewares like cooking pots and storage Jars or building materials like roof tiles and
drainpipes. Some sixth-and fifth-century B.C. Athenian pottery establishments are known to have concentrated on a
limited range of fine ware, but a rural pottery establishment on the island of Thasos produced many types of pottery
and roof tiles too, presumably to meet local demand. Molds were used to create particular effects for some products,
such as relief-decorated vessels and figurines; for other products such as roof tiles, which were needed in some
quantity, they were used to facilitate mass production. There were also a number of poor-quality figurines and
painted pots produced in quantity by easy, inexpensive means- as numerous featureless statuettes and unattractive
cases testify.
Question 1. The passage mainly discusses ancient Greek pottery and its
A (A) production techniques B (B) similarity to other crafts
C (C) unusual materials D (D) resemblance to earlier pottery

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cases testify.
Question 2. The phrase “regardless of” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A (A) as a result of B (B) no matter what
C (C) proud of D (D) according to

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cases testify.
Question 3. It can be inferred from the passage that most pottery establishments in ancient Greece were situated
A (A) in city centers B (B) on the outskirts of cities
C (C) where clay could be found D (D) near other potters’ workshops

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cases testify.
Question 4. The word “marked” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A (A) original B (B) attractive
C (C) noticeable D (D) patterned

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cases testify.
Question 5. The word “confine” in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A (A) adapt B (B) train
C (C) restrict D (D) organize

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cases testify.
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that terra-cotta had which of the following advantages”
(A) It did not break during the firing process. (B) It was less expensive than other available
A B
materials.
C (C) Its surface had a lasting shine. D (D) It could be used for many purposes.

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cases testify.
Question 7. The word “presumably” in line 21 is closest in meaning to
A (A) frequently B (B) practically
C (C) preferably D (D) probably

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cases testify.
Question 8. The word “they” in line 23 refers to
A (A) molds B (B) particular effects
C (C) products D (D) vessels and figurines

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cases testify.
Question 9. According to the passage, all of the following are true of ancient Greek potters and vase painters
EXCEPT:
(A) Their functions were so specialized that they (B) They sometimes produced inferior ware.
A B
lacked common concerns.
(c) They produced pieces that had unusual color and (D) They decorated many of their works with human
C D
shine. images.

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Geographers say that what defines a place are four properties: soil, climate, altitude, and aspect, or attitude to the
Sun. Florida’s ancient scrub demonstrates this principle. Its soil is pure silica, so barren it supports only lichens as
ground cover.( It does, however, sustain a sand-swimming lizard that cannot live where there is moisture or plant
matterthe soil.) Its climate, despite more than 50 inches of annual rainfall, is blistering desert plant life it can sustain
is only the xerophytic, the quintessentially dry. Its altitude is a mere couple of hundred feet, but it is high ground on a
peninsula elsewhere close to sea level, and its drainage is so critical that a difference of inches in elevation can
bring major changes in its plant communities. Its aspect is flat, direct, brutal—and subtropical. Florida’s surrounding
lushness cannot impinge on its desert scrubbiness. This does not sound like an attractive place. It does not look
much like one either; Shrubby little oaks, clumps of scraggly bushes, prickly pear, thorns, and tangles. “It appear
Said one early naturalist,” to desire to display the result of the misery through which it has Passed and is passing.”
By our narrow standards, scrub is not beautiful; neither does it meet our selfish utilitarian needs. Even the name is
an epithet, a synonym for the stunted, the scruffy, the insignificant, what is beautiful about such a place?
The most important remaining patches of scrub lie along the Lake Wales Ridge, a chain of paleoislands running for
a hundred miles down the center of Florida, in most places less than ten miles wide. It is relict seashore, tossed up
millions of years ago when ocean levels were higher and the rest of the peninsula was submerged. That ancient
emergence is precisely what makes Lake Wales Ridge so precious: it has remained unsubmerged, its ecosystems
essentially undisturbed, since the Miocene era. As a result, it has gathered to itself one of the largest collections of
rare organisms in the world. Only about 75 plant species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere
else on Earth.
Question 10. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A (A) How geographers define a place B (B) The characteristics of Florida’s ancient scrub
C (C) An early naturalist’s opinion of Florida D (D)The history of the Lake Wales Ridge

Geographers say that what defines a place are four properties: soil, climate, altitude, and aspect, or attitude to the
Sun. Florida’s ancient scrub demonstrates this principle. Its soil is pure silica, so barren it supports only lichens as
ground cover.( It does, however, sustain a sand-swimming lizard that cannot live where there is moisture or plant
matterthe soil.) Its climate, despite more than 50 inches of annual rainfall, is blistering desert plant life it can sustain
is only the xerophytic, the quintessentially dry. Its altitude is a mere couple of hundred feet, but it is high ground on a
peninsula elsewhere close to sea level, and its drainage is so critical that a difference of inches in elevation can
bring major changes in its plant communities. Its aspect is flat, direct, brutal—and subtropical. Florida’s surrounding
lushness cannot impinge on its desert scrubbiness. This does not sound like an attractive place. It does not look
much like one either; Shrubby little oaks, clumps of scraggly bushes, prickly pear, thorns, and tangles. “It appear
Said one early naturalist,” to desire to display the result of the misery through which it has Passed and is passing.”
By our narrow standards, scrub is not beautiful; neither does it meet our selfish utilitarian needs. Even the name is
an epithet, a synonym for the stunted, the scruffy, the insignificant, what is beautiful about such a place?
The most important remaining patches of scrub lie along the Lake Wales Ridge, a chain of paleoislands running for
a hundred miles down the center of Florida, in most places less than ten miles wide. It is relict seashore, tossed up
millions of years ago when ocean levels were higher and the rest of the peninsula was submerged. That ancient
emergence is precisely what makes Lake Wales Ridge so precious: it has remained unsubmerged, its ecosystems
essentially undisturbed, since the Miocene era. As a result, it has gathered to itself one of the largest collections of
rare organisms in the world. Only about 75 plant species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere
else on Earth.
Question 11. The author mentions all of the following as factors that define a place EXCEPT
A (A) aspect B (B) altitude
C (C) soil D (D) life-forms

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102. Section III - Reading - Passage 2: Geographers say that what defines a place are four properties: soil,
climate, altitude, and aspect, or attitude to the Sun. Florida’s ancient scrub demonstrates this principle. Its soil is
pure silica, so barren it supports only lichens as ground cover.( It does, however, sustain a sand-swimming lizard
that cannot live where there is moisture or plant matterthe soil.) Its climate, despite more than 50 inches of annual
rainfall, is blistering desert plant life it can sustain is only the xerophytic, the quintessentially dry. Its altitude is a
mere couple of hundred feet, but it is high ground on a peninsula elsewhere close to sea level, and its drainage is
so critical that a difference of inches in elevation can bring major changes in its plant communities. Its aspect is flat,
direct, brutal—and subtropical. Florida’s surrounding lushness cannot impinge on its desert scrubbiness. This does
not sound like an attractive place. It does not look much like one either; Shrubby little oaks, clumps of scraggly
bushes, prickly pear, thorns, and tangles. “It appear Said one early naturalist,” to desire to display the result of the
misery through which it has Passed and is passing.” By our narrow standards, scrub is not beautiful; neither does it
meet our selfish utilitarian needs. Even the name is an epithet, a synonym for the stunted, the scruffy, the
insignificant, what is beautiful about such a place? The most important remaining patches of scrub lie along
the Lake Wales Ridge, a chain of paleoislands running for a hundred miles down the center of Florida, in most
places less than ten miles wide. It is relict seashore, tossed up millions of years ago when ocean levels were higher
and the rest of the peninsula was submerged. That ancient emergence is precisely what makes Lake Wales Ridge
so precious: it has remained unsubmerged, its ecosystems essentially undisturbed, since the Miocene era. As a
result, it has gathered to itself one of the largest collections of rare organisms in the world. Only about 75 plant
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 12. It can be inferred
from the passage that soil composed of silica
A (A) does not hold moisture B (B) is found only in Florida
C (C) nourishes many kinds of ground cover D (D) provides food for many kinds of lizards
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 13. The word”
sustain” in line 6 is closets in meaning to
A (A) select B (B) strain
C (C) support D (D) store

Page 23 of 44
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 14. The author
mentions the prickly pear (line 12)
A (A) valuable fruit-bearing plants of the scrub area B (B) unattractive plant life of the scrub area
C (C) a pant discovered by an early naturalist D (D) plant life that is extremely are
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 15. The author
suggests that human standards of beauty are
A (A) tolerant B (B) idealistic
C (C) defensible D (D) limited

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species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 16. The word
“insignificant” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
A (A) unimportant B (B) undisturbed
C (C) immature D (D) inappropriate
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 17. According to the
passage, why is the Lake Wales Ridge valuable?
A (A) It was originally submerged in the ocean. B (B) It is less than ten miles wide.
(C) It is located near the seashore. (D) It has ecosystems that have long remained
C D
unchanged

Page 25 of 44
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 18. The word “it” in
line 22 refer to
A (A) Florida B (B) the peninsula
C (C) the Lake Wales Ridge D (D) the Miocene era
species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth. Question 19. The passage
probably continues with a discussion of
A (A) ancient scrub found in other areas of the country B (B) geographers who study Florida’s scrub
C (C) the climate of the Lake Wales Ridge D (D) the unique plants found on the Lake Wales Ridge

Page 26 of 44
110. Section III - Reading - Passage 3: It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have
become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may
perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render
an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to
adapt. Food Resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species
requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an Environment, resulting in competition
and, ultimately, in the death of a species. The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the
history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the
same time—a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago
with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that
occurred 225 million years ago, When approximately 95 percent of all species died, Mass extinctions can be caused
by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species.
If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content
of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a
mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 Million years
have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the
Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated
tat extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no
particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 20. The word “it” in line 3
refers to
A (A) environment B (B) species
C (C) extinction D (D) 99 percent
Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated tat
extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular
reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary
history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 21. The word “ultimately” in line 8 is
closest in meaning to
A (A) exceptionally B (B) dramatically
C (C) eventually D (D) unfortunately

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evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 22. What does the author
say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history
(A) They have remained basically unchanged from (B) They have been able to adapt to ecological
A B
their original forms. changes.
(C) They have caused rapid change in the (D) They are no longer in existence.
C D
environment.
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 23. Which of the following
is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A (A) Temperature changes B (B) Availability of food resources
C (C) Introduction of new species D (D) Competition among species

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evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 24. The word “demise” in
line 12 is closest in meaning to
A (A) change B (B) recovery
C (C) help D (D) death
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 25. Why is “ plankton”
mentioned in line 17?
(A) To demonstrate the interdependence of different (B) To emphasize the importance of food resources in
A B
species preventing mass extinction.
(C) To illustrate a comparison between organisms that (D) To point out that certain species could never
C D
live on the land and those that live in the ocean become extinct.

Page 29 of 44
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 26. According to
paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
(A) extinction of species has occurred from time to (B) Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
A B
time throughout Earth’s history.
(C) there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s (D) dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than
C D
history. scientists originally believed.
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 27. The word “finding” in
line 20 is closest in meaning to
A (A) published information B (B) research method
C (C) ongoing experiment D (D) scientific discovery

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evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 28. Which of the following
can be in
(A) Many scientists could be expected to disagree with (B) evidence to support the theory has recently been
A B
it found.
C (C) The theory is no longer seriously considered. D (D) Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 29. In paragraph 3, the
author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A (A) It reflects the interrelationship of may species. B (B) It may depend on chance events.
C (C) It does not vary greatly from species to species D (D) It is associated with astronomical conditions.

Page 31 of 44
occurred 225 million years ago, When approximately 95 percent of all species died, Mass extinctions can be
caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many
species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen
content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead
to a mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 Million
years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of
the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also
speculated tat extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive
for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 30. According to the
passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred
A (A) 26 million years ago B (B) 65 million years ago
C (C) 225 million years ago D (D) 250 million years ago
121. Section III - Reading - Passage 4: Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive
more heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, Heat is
transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is Line Moved by winds and some
by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term “latent heat” refers
to the energy that has to be used to Convert liquid water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on
a stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that
if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime they will dry faster than in winter, when temperatures are colder.
The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor is supplied by heat—supplied by the stove in
the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is stored in water vapor in the atmosphere
as latent heat. Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy
will be released to the atmosphere. In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun’s incoming energy is used to
evaporate Water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of the Sun’s
energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity
to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun’s energy. Once this latent heat is stored
within the atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large-scale winds. Or it can
be transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 31. The passage mainly discusses how heat
(A) is transformed and transported in the Earth’s (B) is transported by ocean currents
A B
atmosphere
C (C) can be measured and analyzed by scientists D (D) moves about the Earth’s equator

Page 32 of 44
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 32. The passage mentions that the tropics differ
from the Earth’s polar regions in which of the following ways?
A (A) The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere B (B) The amount of heat they receive from the Sun
C (C) The strength of their largescale winds. D (D) The strength of their oceanic currents
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 33. The word “convert” line 6 is closest in meaning
to
A (A) mix B (B) change
C (C) adapt D (D) reduce

Page 33 of 44
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 34. Why does the author mention “the stove” in line
10?
A (A) To describe the heat of the Sun B (B) To illustrate how water vapor is stored
C (C) To show how energy is stored D (D) To give an example of a heat source
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 35. According to the passage, most ocean water
evaporation occurs especially
A (A) around the higher latitudes B (B) in the tropics
C (C) because of large-scale winds D (D) because of strong ocean currents

Page 34 of 44
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 36. According to the passage, 30 percent of the
Sun’s incoming energy
A (A) is stored in clouds in the lower latitudes B (B) is transported by ocean currents
C (C) never leaves the upper atmosphere D (D) gets stored as latent heat
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 37. The word “it” in line 18 refers to
A (A) square meter B (B) the Sun’s energy
C (C) latent heat D (D) the atmosphere

Page 35 of 44
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 38. The word “primarily” in line 19 is closest in
meaning to
A (A) chiefly B (B) originally
C (C) basically D (D) clearly
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 39. The word “prevailing” in line 19 is closest in
meaning to
A (A) essential B (B) dominant
C (C) circular D (D) closest

Page 36 of 44
then release the energy back to the atmosphere. Question 40. All of the following words are defined in the
passage EXCEPT
A (A) low latitudes (line1) B (B) latent heat (line5)
C (C) evaporate (line7) D (D) atmosphere (line140)
131. Section III - Reading - Passage 5: The Moon, which has undergone a distinct and complex geological history,
presents a striking appearance. The moon may be divided into two major terrains: the maria (dark lowlands) and
the terrace( bright highlands). The contrast in the reflectivity (the capability of reflecting light ) of these two terrains
suggested to many early observers that the two terrains might have different compositions, and this supposition was
confirmed by missions to the Moon such as Surveyor and Apollo. One of the most obvious differences between the
terrains is the smoothness of the maria in contrast to the roughness of the highlands. This roughness is mostly
caused by the abundance of craters; the highlands are completely covered by large craters( greater than 40-50 km
in diameter), while the craters of the maria tend to be much smaller. It is now known that the vast majority of the
Moon’s craters were formed by the impact of solid bodies with the lunar surface. Most of the near side of the
Moon was thoroughly mapped and studied from telescopic pictures years before the age of space exploration.
Earth-based telescopes can resolve objects as small as a few hundred meters on the lunar surface. Close
observation of craters, combined with the way the Moon diffusely reflects sunlight, led to the understanding that the
Moon is covered by a surface layer, or regolith, that overlies the solid rock of the Moon. Telescopic images
permitted the cataloging of a bewildering array of land forms. Craters were studied for clues to their origin; the large
circular maria were seen. Strange, sinuous features were observed in the maria. Although various land forms were
catalogued, the majority of astronomers’ attention was fixed on craters and their origins. Astronomers have
known for a fairly long time that the shape of craters changes as they increase in size. Small craters with diameters
of less than 10-15 km have relatively simple shapes. They have rim crests that are elevated above the surrounding
terrain, smooth, bowl-shaped interiors, and depths that are about one-fifth to one-sixth their diameters. The
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) What astronomers learned from the Surveyor and (B) Characteristics of the major terrains of the Moon
A B
Apollo space missions
(C) The origin of the Moon’s craters (D) Techniques used to catalogue the Moon’s land
C D
forms

Page 37 of 44
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 42. The word ”undergone” in line1 is closest in
meaning to
A (A) altered B (B) substituted
C (C) experienced D (D) preserved
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 43. According to the passage, the maria differ from
the terrace mainly in terms of
A (A) age B (B) manner of creation
C (C) size D (D) composition

Page 38 of 44
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 44. The passage supports which of the following
statements about the Surveyor and Apollo missions?
(A) They confirmed earlier theories about the Moon’s (B) They revealed that previous ideas about the
A B
surface. Moon’s craters were incorrect.
(C) They were unable to provide detailed information (D) They were unable to identify how the Moon’s
C D
about the Moon’s surface. craters were made.
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 45. The word ”vast” in line 10 is closest in meaning
to
A (A) special B (B) known
C (C) varied D (D) great

Page 39 of 44
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 46. All of the following are true of the maria
EXCEPT:
A (A) They have small craters. B (B) They have been analyzed by astronomers.
C (C) They have a rough texture. D (D) They tend to be darker than the terrace.
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 47. All of the following terms are defined in the
passage EXCEPT
A (A) Moon (line1) B (B) reflectivity(line3)
C (C) regolith(line16) D (D) rays(line19)

Page 40 of 44
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 48. The author mentions “wispy marks” in line 19 as
an example of
(A) an aspect of the lunar surface discovered through (B) a characteristic of large craters
A B
lunar missions
(C) a discovery made through the use of Earth-based (D) features that astronomers observed to be common
C D
telescopes to Earth and the Moon
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 49. According to the passage, lunar researchers
have focused mostly on
A (A) the possibility of finding water on the Moon B (B) the lunar regolith
C (C) cataloging various land formations D (D) craters and their origins

Page 41 of 44
complexity of shape increases for larger craters. Question 50. The passage probably continues with a
discussion of
A (A) the reasons craters are difficult to study B (B) the different shapes small craters can have
(C) some features of large craters (D) some difference in the ways small and large
C D
craters were formed

Page 42 of 44
Answer Key
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a
5. b 6. c 7. b 8. b
9. c 10. b 11. d 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. c 16. d
17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. b 22. d 23. b 24. b
25. a 26. b 27. d 28. b
29. b 30. b 31. c 32. a
33. a 34. c 35. d 36. b
37. c 38. a 39. c 40. d
41. b 42. d 43. a 44. b
45. c 46. d 47. d 48. b
49. a 50. b 51. d 52. b
53. a 54. c 55. b 56. c
57. b 58. c 59. c 60. a
61. b 62. c 63. d 64. b
65. a 66. b 67. a 68. d
69. a 70. d 71. a 72. b
73. c 74. a 75. d 76. a
77. d 78. b 79. d 80. a
81. d 82. a 83. c 84. a
85. d 86. a 87. d 88. a
89. c 90. a 91. a 92. b
93. c 94. c 95. c 96. d
97. d 98. a 99. a 100. b
101. d 102. a 103. c 104. b
105. d 106. a 107. d 108. c
109. d 110. b 111. c 112. d
113. c 114. d 115. a 116. a
117. d 118. a 119. b 120. c
121. a 122. b 123. b 124. d
125. b 126. d 127. c 128. a

Page 43 of 44
125. b 126. d 127. c 128. a
129. b 130. d 131. b 132. c
133. d 134. a 135. d 136. c
137. c 138. c 139. d 140. c

Page 44 of 44

Toefl Itp - 2002 - 08

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NAME :

1. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

C He isn’t hungry right now. D He need to shop before eating.

2. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

3. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

4. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

A Help him complete a for. B Advise him about his classes.

C Lend him some money. D Visit the man’s apartment.

5. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

6. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

7. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

9. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

10. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

11. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

12. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

13. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

14. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

15. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

17. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

18. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

19. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

20. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

21. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

22. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

23. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

25. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

26. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

27. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

28. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

29. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

30. Section I - Listening - Part A: Chose the correct answer:

31. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

A (A) Wind speed. B (B) Rainfall

C (C) Water temperature. D (D) Direction of approach.

33. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

A (A) By name. B (B) By number.

C (C) By location. D (D) By month.

34. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

A (A) Study a weather map. B (B) Visit a weather station.

C (C) Listen to a weather report. D (D) Go to a storm shelter.

35. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

36. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

A (A) In caves. B (B) On the ocean floor.

C (C) Far below the Earth’s crust D (D) Inside Achaean.

37. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

38. Section I - Listening - Part B: Chose the correct answer:

A (A) Their genetics. B (B) Their size.

39. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer:

40. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer:

A (A) In place of physical therapy. B (B) To control brain seizures.

C (C) To prevent heat disease. D (D) To relieve tension.

https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/5edcc6f6e615bf001b401d1f 28/12/23, 12.25

42. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer:

43. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer:

44. Section I - Listening - Part C: Chose the correct answer: