Environmental Science - 21CIV5767

Environmental Science – 21CIV57/67
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The science that deals with the relationship of various organisms with their environment
is known as
a) Economics
b) Geology
c) Ecology
d) Anthropology
2. Objective of environmental studies is to

a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) Create environmental ethics that foster awareness about the ecological inter -
dependence ofeconomic, social and political factors in a human community and
the environment.
c) teach environmentally appropriate behavior
d) All the above.
3. An ecosystem consists of
a) Biotic Component
b) Abiotic Component
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
4. The perfect equilibrium existing in the biosphere between the various organisms is
known as
a) Environmental balance
b) Ecological balance
c) Ecological cycle
d) None of these
5. A simple detritus food chain starts with

a) Green plant
b) wastes of organisms and dead organisms
c) both of the above
d) none of these
6. In a food chain humans are

a) Primary consumers
b) Secondary consumers
c) Primary and secondary consumers
d) Producers
7. Facultative Bacteria exists in which type of Environmental condition?

a) Presence of oxygen
b) Absence of oxygen
c) Both a and b
d) None
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8. Word Environment is derived from:

a) English
b) German
c) French
d) Italy
9. Organisms who directly feed on producers are called:
a) Carnivores
b) Omnivores
c) Herbivores
d) Decomposers
10. Largest reservoir of Nitrogen is existing in:
a) Hydrosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) Stratosphere.
11. 'Earth's Day' is celebrated every year on:
a) Oct 26th
b) June 5th
c) April 22nd
d) Dec 23rd.
12. 'World Environmental Day' is celebrated every year on:
a) 5thMay
b) 5thJune
c) 5th July
d) 18th July.
13. Eutrophication means:
a) Waste water Treatment process

b) Neutralization of wastewater
c) Enrichment of plant nutrients in waterbodies.
d) Water purification
14. An ecosystem is a region in which
a) Dead organism interacts with their environment

b) Living organism do not interact with their environment
c) Living organism interact with their environment
d) All the above.
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15. The term ecosystem was first proposed by
a) JacobVanVerkul
b) A.G. Tansley
c) Costanza
d) Tyler Miller
16. Biotic components include
a) All living organisms

b) Water, mineral and gases
c) Self-nourishing green plants
d) light, temperature etc.
17. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Carbon cycle
b) food chain
c) Sulphur cycle
d) Hydrological cycle
18. An animal that feeds upon another animal is
a) Consumer
b) producer
c) predator
d) decomposer
19. Which part of plant contains nitrogen fixing bacteria?
a) Roots
b) Stems
c) Leaves
d) All the above.
20. Green revolution is
a) Crop variety improvement

b) Judicious use of fertilizers
c) Expansion of irrigation
d) d) All the above.
21. Organic farming is
a) farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers

b) enhancing biodiversity
c) Promoting soil biological activity
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d) All the above.
22. Percentage of nitrogen in earth's atmosphere
a) 98% b) 78% c)21% d) 12%
23. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and hydrosphere
b) Atmosphere and lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere and lithosphere
d) Lithosphere and thermosphere
24. A food web consists of

a) Portion of food chain
b) Producers, consumers and decomposers
c) Interlocking of food chains
d) A set of similar consumers
25. Which atmospheric layer is closest to the Earth's surface?
a) Mesosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Thermosphere
26. Earth's body temperature is approximately equal to?

a)16.4°C b) 16.6°C c) 36°C d) 21.6°C
27. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
a) Sunlight b) Fungi c) Temperature & Water d) Wind
28. Amount of carbon dioxide present in atmospheric air is

a) 21% b) 0.383% c) 78% d) 0.318%
29. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Explanation: A forest ecosystem has two parts they are, abiotic and biotic. Abiotic type of forest depends
on abiotic conditions at the site, they are also called non-living aspects of the forest. Biotic type of forest
depends on plants and animals form communities that are specificto each forest type.
30. On which factor forest type is mainly dependent?
a) Abiotic
b) Size of the forest
c) Shape of trees
d) Products from the trees
Explanation: The forest type mainly depends on abiotic factors such as the climate and soil
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characteristics of a region. It also depends on the nature of the tree species whether they areevergreen
forest, deciduous, xerophytes or mangroves.
31. Why most of the Sun light does not penetrate to the ground in evergreen forest?
a) Because of snowfall
b) Because of less temperature
c) Because of trees overlap with each other
d) Because of less rainfall
Explanation: Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The treesoverlap
with each other to form a continuous canopy. Thus, little light penetrates down to theforest floor. The
forest is rich in orchids and ferns.
32. What is considered as lungs of nature?
a) Rock
b) Sun
c) Water
d) Trees
Explanation: Tress is considered as lungs of nature. Trees control pollutions by absorption andcarbon
dioxide and they release oxygen in return. This is similar to the respiration mechanismof lungs in humans
where it takes oxygen by eliminating carbon dioxide.
33. How erosion controlled by forest?

a) By reducing in the sunlight penetration
b) By reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
c) By reducing the pressure
d) By increasing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
Explanation: Forest prevents erosion by reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface. Forest
absorbs water and they do not allow it to flow directly run off. By this method, theyprevent the removal
of topsoil.
34. How forests increase the atmosphere’s humidity?

a) By transpiration
b) By inspiration
c) By expiration
d) By oxidation
Explanation: Forest release water vapor by transpiration which increases humidity. Forest contains
many trees, these trees undergo photosynthesis. During this process, they released oxygen and water
resulting in increase in humidity of atmosphere.
35. How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

a) By minimizing the human activity
b) By pouring water to desert area
c) By deforestation
d) By killing organisms
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Explanation: Desert ecosystems can be conserved if we minimize the human activities in forestland and
other cultivable land. Humans convert forest land in order to convert it to farming or for industrial
usage.
36. Which is the biggest desert in the world including both hot and cold deserts?
a) Sahara
b) Arctic
c) Arabian
d) Antarctica
Explanation: Antarctica is the biggest desert in the world. Sahara is the biggest only in hot deserts but
overall Antarctica comes to first place. The entirety of Antarctica is a desert with anannual precipitation
of less than 200mm.
37. What makes desert region to become highly unproductive?

a) Salinity
b) Sunlight
c) Temperature
d) Increase in the rain
Explanation: The conversion of desert lands through extensive irrigation systems has changedseveral of
the natural characteristics. Canal water evaporates rapidly bringing the salts to the surface. The region
becomes highly unproductive as it becomes saline.
38. What kind of climate we can find in the Thar desert?

a) Cold
b) Dry
c) Cool
d) Moist
Explanation: The climate in the Thar desert is extremely dry. Most of the typical desert landscape seen
in Rajasthan is in the Thar desert. Thar desert has sand dunes and it also hasareas covered with spares
grasses with few shrubs.
39. In which of the following place we can find the cold deserts?
a) Bangalore
b) Chennai
c) Himalaya
d) Rajasthan
Explanation: Cold deserts are the deserts where we can find less vegetation and few organisms which is
adopted to live in cold regions. Cold deserts covered with snow. We can also find this cold deserts in the
high plateaus of the Himalayas.
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40. Types of Freshwater Ecosystems

a) Lentic
b) Lotic
c) Both a & b
d) None
41. The parts of a lake also can be classified by temperature
a) The epilimnion (upper layer), The hypolimnion (lower layer) and the thermocline (in
between)
b) The epilimnion (lower layer), The hypolimnion (upper layer) and the thermocline (in
between)
c) The epilimnion (in between layer), The hypolimnion (lower layer) and the thermocline
(upper)
d) None
42. Lakes and ponds are divided into 4 different “zones” based on depth and distance fromshoreline
a) littoral zone, the limnetic zone, the profundal zone and the bathyal zone.
b) epilimnion, hypolimnion, thermocline and mesocline
c) Littoral, limnetic, epilimnion and hypolimnion
d) None of the above
43. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Explanation: There are two important aquatic ecosystems are there. One is fresh water ecosystem and
one more is marine ecosystem. Again these two ecosystems are further dividedinto various categories.
Marine includes sea whereas fresh water includes lakes, rivers and wetlands.
44. Where can we find both running water as well as stagnant water?
a) Marine ecosystems
b) Wetlands
c) Coral reefs
d) Freshwater ecosystems
Explanation: The freshwater ecosystems that have running water as streams and rivers. Ponds,tanks and
lakes are ecosystems where water doesn’t flow. So in freshwater we can find both running water as well
as stagnant water.
45. In which of the following we can see fluctuation in the water level dramatically in different
season?
a) Coral reefs
b) Brackish water
c) Wetlands
d) Deep oceans
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Explanation: Wetlands are special ecosystems in which the water level fluctuates dramaticallyin different
seasons. They have expanses of shallow water with aquatic vegetation form an ideal habitat for fish and
water birds.
46. Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?

a) Desert
b) Forest
c) Grassland
d) Oceans
Explanation: Ocean is the largest ecosystem on Earth. When we see the Earth from space we can only
see blue colour. That is due to water, seventy percent of Earth’s surface is covered bywater, Water is
vital for the survival of all living things.
47. Which is the simplest aquatic ecosystem?

a) Pond
b) Stream
c) Lake
d) Marine
Explanation: Pond is the simplest aquatic ecosystems. Most ponds become dry after the rainover and are
covered by terrestrial plants for the rest of the year. When the ponds fills in themonsoon season, a large
number of food chains formed in the pond ecosystems.
48. Which ecosystem is known as giant permanent pond?

a) Lake ecosystem
b) Pond ecosystem
c) Seashore ecosystem
d) Marine ecosystem
Explanation: A lake ecosystem functions like a giant permanent pond. A large amount of its plant
material is algae. Algae derives its energy directly from sun, this energy is transferred tomicroscopic
animals which feeds on algae.
Biodiversity: Types, Value; Hot spots; Threats and Conservation of biodiversity, Forest Wealth, and
Deforestation.
49. How many biogeographic does India have?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
50. Lime is generally added to soil

a) Salty
b) Dry
c) Alkaline
d) Acidic
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51. ________ has the maximum genetic diversity in India

a) Potato
b) Tea
c) Mango
d) Teak
52. __________ is one of the most prevalent hotspots of biodiversity in India

a) Himalayas
b) Western Ghats
c) Ganges
53. Galápagos finches are a good example of ________

a) Extinction
b) Heterochromia
c) Island gigantism
d) Adaptive radiation
54. The variety of genes within a species is called

a) species diversity
b) genetic diversity
c) ecosystem diversity
d) all of these
55. ___________ is one of the least porous soils

a) Peat Soil
b) Loam
c) Clayey soil
56. ______ is an example of an ex-situ conservation.

a) Sacred groves
b) Wildlife sanctuary
c) Seed bank
d) National park
57. __ _____ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.

a) Endemism
b) Species richness
c) Loss of diversity
d) Lesser interspecific competition.
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58. __ _____ occurs when the death of the last individual in a species occurs.
a) Adaptation
b) Phylogenic diversity
c) Speciation
d) Extinction
59. ______is defined as an ecological state of a species being unique to a specific

geographic location.
a) Exotic species
b) Endemic species
c) Ecosystem
60. ____is the forest cover to be maintained as per the National Forest Policy (1988)
a) 67% for hills & 33% for plains
b) 37% for hills & 11% for plains
c) 17% for hills & 23% for plains
61. _______is defined as the number of species represented in a specific region,

landscape or an ecological community.
a) Coevolution
b) Commensalism
c) Species richness
d) Population density
62. _______ is the basic unit of classification and a taxonomic rank
a) Species
b) Genus
c) Class
d) Order
63. Which of the following animals is now extinct?

a) Tasmanian tiger
b) Tasmanian devil
c) Pademelon
d) Quoll
64. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuaries?

a) Bharatpur
b) vedanthgol
c) Kaziranga
d) Corbett Park
65. Which of the following is not an example of in situ conservation?

a) Biosphere reserves
b) National parks
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c) Wildilife sanctuaries
d) Zoological parks
66. First ‘Earth Summit’ for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ (CBD) was held at
a) Johannesberg (2002), South Africa
b) Rio de Janeiro (1992), Brazil
c) Dehradun (1992), India
d) New York (2000), U.S.A.
67. Symbol of WWF is

a) tiger
b) Rhododendron
c) white bear
d) giant panda.
68. Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?

a) Brazil
b) South Africa
c) Russia
d) India
69. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity ?

a) Destruction of habitat
b) Invasion by alien species
c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
d) Over-exploitation of natural resources
70. The term biodiversity is popularised by

a) Odum
b) Paul Ehrlich
c) Edward Wilson
d) Tilman.
71. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context ?
a) Lantana
b) Cynodon
c) Parthenium
d) Eichhornia
72. Western ghats have a greater number of amphibian species than the Eastern ghats. What
kind of diversity does it represent ?
a) Species diversity
b) Genetic diversity
c) Ecological diversity
d) None of these
73. Alpha diversity is biodiversity present

a) within community
b) between communities
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c) ranges of communities
d) none of these.
74. A more conservative and scientifically sound estimate about the total number of species
present on earth, was made by
a) Robert May
b) Paul Ehrlich
c) David Tilman
d) Both A and B.
75. What is the total number of species present on earth as estimated by Robert May?
a) 3 million
b) 5 million
c) 7 million
d) 9 million
76. India is one of the 17 megadiversity countries of the world and is being divided into
biogeographical regions.
a) 8
b) 10
c) 16
d) 18
77. Species diversityas one moves from high to low altitudes.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases then decreases
d) first decreases then increases
78. Tropics (23.5°N to 23.5°S) have species as compared to temperate or polar regions.
a) less
b) equal
c) more
d) none of these
79. Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
a) Rainforest of North-East India
b) Sunderbans
c) The Desert
d) Western Ghats
80. Which one of the following is not a feature of biodiversity hotspots ?

a) Large number of species
b) Abundance of endemic species
c) Mostly located in the polar regions
d) Mostly located in the tropics
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81. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary ?

a) Bhitar Kanika
b) Bandipur
c) Kaziranga
d) Corbett park
82. Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India ?

a) Rauwolfia serpentina
b) Santalum album (Sandalwood)
c) Cycas beddonei
d) All of the above
83. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to

a) increased number of predatory birds
b) over exploitation by humans
c) non-availability of the food
d) bird flu virus infection.
84. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
b) Arican catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
c) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.
d) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.
85. Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet earth’?
a) Taiga forest
b) Tundra forest
c) Amazon rainforest
d) Rainforests of North East India
86. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from

a) Datura
b) Rauwolfia
c) Atropa
d) Papaver.
87. Which of the following group exhibit more species diversity?

a) Gymnosperms
b) Algae
c) Bryophytes
d) Fungi
88. Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations ?
a) Tropics
b) Temperates
c) Alpines
d) Both (a) and (b)
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89. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as
a) CITES Convention
b) The Earth Summit
c) G – 16 Summit
d) MAB Programme.
90. Who confirmed communities with more species tend to be more stable than those with less
species ?
a) Alexander von Humboidt
b) David Tilman
c) Paul Ehrlich
d) Edward Wilson
91. Rivert Popper hypothesis was given by

a) Paul Ehrlich
b) Alexander von Humboldt
c) David Tilman
d) Robert May.
92. Organisation responsible for maintaining Red Data Book is

a) IUCN
b) WWF
c) CITES
d) IBWL.
93. Red Data Book deals with

a) organisms on the verge of extinction
b) endemic plants
c) organisms showing photoperiodism
d) organisms that are extinct.
94. How many species are documented to be extinct in last 500 years by IUCN Red List, 2004
?
a) 2,000
b) 87
c) 567
d) 784
95. Bali, Javan and Caspian are

a) species of tiger
b) species of Cheetah
c) subspecies of cheetah
d) subspecies of tiger.
96. Antilope Cervicapra (black buck) is

a) near threatened
b) endangered
c) critically endangered
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d) extinct in the wild.
97. A critically endangered animal is

a) passenger pigeon
b) dodo
c) great Indian bustard
d) zebu.
98. The term “the evil quartet” is related with four major causes of
a) forest loss
b) population explosion
c) air pollution
d) biodiversity losses.
99. An exotic species that is introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly and eliminates native
species is called
a) immigrant species
b) invasive species
c) destructive species
d) none of these.
100. Introduction of Nile Perch in lake Victoria of South Africa resulted in

a) excessive growth of water weeds
b) elimination of water weeds
c) elimination of many species of cichlid fish
d) excessive growth of cichlid fish.
101. The exotic speices, which when introduced in India became notorious weed, is
a) Lantana camara
b) Eicchorniacrassipes
c) Parthenium hysterophorus
d) all of these.
102. Introduction of alien species into new area poses a threat to extinction of indigenous
species due to
a) their high nutrient requirement
b) their symbiotic relationship
c) absence of their natural predators
d) more intraspecific competition.
103. The reasons behind conserving biodiversity have been grouped into which of the
following categories?
a) Narrowly utilitarian
b) Broadly utilitarian
c) Ethical
d) All of these
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104. ______ is the exploration of molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for
gaining the products of economic importance.
a) Exploitation
b) Bioprospecting
c) Co-extinction
d) Patenting
105. Amazon rainforests are considered as ‘lungs of the planet’ as they contribute _________
of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 30%
106. Exsitu conservation is used for the conservation of

a) all plants
b) all animals
c) threatened animals and plants
d) both (a) and (b).
107. Conservation in the natural habitat is

a) in situ
b) ex situ
c) zoo
d) botanical garden.
108. Presently, total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world is

a) 25
b) 34
c) 37
d) 40.
109. Which one of these is not included in the biodiversity hotspots of India?
a) Western Ghats
b) Himalayas
c) Indo-Burma
d) North Indian Plains
110. Ecological hotspots present in India are

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) five.
111. Which pair of geographical area shows maximum diversity in our country?
a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
b) Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats
c) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
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d) Kerala and Punjab
112. In a national park, protection is provided to

a) flora and fauna
b) entire ecosystem
c) fauna only
d) flora only.
113. _______ National Park was the first national park of India.
a) Jim Corbett
b) Nanda Devi
c) Kaziranga
d) Jaldapara
114. First biosphere reserve was established in 1986 at

a) Nilgiri
b) nanda Devi
c) Rann of Kutch
d) Sunderbans.
115. Nanda Devi biosphere reserve is found in

(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pardesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh.
116. MAB Programmed means

a) Man and biosphere programme
b) Man and biodiversity conservation programme
c) Manually aided biosphere conservation programme
d) None of these.
117. Which of these organisms are protected by people of ‘Bishnoi’ community of Rajasthan?
a) Prosopis cineraria
b) Black buck
c) Bhojpatra
d) Both (a) and (b)
118. The animal that has become extinct recently is

a) Dinosaur
b) Dodo
c) Wolly mammoth
d) Archaeopteryx
119. The Dodo was extinct due to

a) pollution
b) invasion of non-native species
c) over-exploitation of resources
d) global environmental changes
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120. Decreased soil fertility through rapid leaching of the essential mineral nutrients is due to
a) Reforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Over exploitation
d) Recycling of forest products.
121. can be estimated for products by determining how much people would have to pay to buy
equivalent products if local sources were not available.
a) consumptive use value
b) productive use value
c) Social value
d) Ethical value
122. Ecotourism is an example of enjoying ________of biodiversity

a) Productive use value
b) Option value
c) Aesthetic value
d) Ethical value
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one represents the regulative function of forests?
a) storage and release of gases
b) production of essential oils
c) production of wood
d) conservation of water and soil
2. In many industries, tin, steel and copper are being substituted by

a) Ceramics
b) high-strength glass fibres
c) plastics
d) all of these
3. Demersal fish is obtained from

a) open sea
b) sea bottom
c) estuaries
d) lakes
4. Deforestation may reduce the chances of

a) frequent landslides
b) erosion of surface soil
c) rainfall
d) frequent cyclones
5. Soil conservation is the process where

a) soil is aerated
b) soil is protected against loss
c) sterile soil is converted to fertile soil
d) soil erosion is allowed
6. Which of the following is an anti-forest conservation activity?

a) preservation of wild animals
b) preservation of fires
c) clear felling
d) economy in lumbering
7. Soil erosion can be prevented by

a) Afforestation
b) overgrazing
c) increasing birds population
d) removal of vegetation
8. The energy produced by the hydel-power plant is

a) Non-polluting and non-renewable
b) Polluting and non-renewable
c) Non-polluting and renewable
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d) Polluting and renewable
9. This is an example of non-polluting renewable type of energy

a) tidal
b) wind
c) solar
d) all of these
10. This group consists of non-renewable organic resources

a) Water, air and minerals
b) natural gas, oil and coal
c) wood, water and natural pastures
d) sand, air and clay
11. Biosphere consists of

a) Lithosphere
b) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) All the above
12. Component of biosphere related with soil is

a) Lithosphere
b) Hydrosphere
c) Atmosphere
13. Source of energy in the biosphere is

a) Producer
b) Decomposer
c) Sunlight
d) Heat of earth
14. Green House gases are

a) Absorbers of long-wave radiations from earth
b) Transparent to both solar radiations and long-waveradiations from earth
c) Absorbers of solar radiations for warming the atmosphereof earth
d) Transparent to emissions from earth for passage into outerspace
15. Ozone layer occurs in

a) Ionosphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Thermosphere
d) Troposphere
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16. Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy resource?

a) solar
b) methane
c) hydroelectric
d) coal
17. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be consideredpart of our.
a) coal reserves
b) coal resources
c) coal reservoirs
d) none of these

a) tidal
b) wind
c) solar
d) all of these

20. Most of the energy used on earth today originally came from which ofthese sources?
a) The sun
b) The Moon
c) Oceans
d) Soil
21. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Solar energy
b) Biomass energy
c) Hydro-power
d) Geothermal energy
22. Pick the odd one out.

a) Diesel
b) Gasoline
c) Petrol
d) Coal
23. Which of the following source of energy can be replenished after a shortperiod of time?
a) Solar energy
b) Hydro energy
c) Coal
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d) Both (a) and (b)
24. A non-renewable resource is a finite resource.

a) True
b) False
25. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is

a) Coal
b) Petroleum and other liquids
c) Natural gas
d) Nuclear
26. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.

a) True
b) False
27. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?

a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
28. A natural resource that can be replaced in the same rate at which it isconsumed or used is
known as
a) Artificial Resources
b) Natural Resources
c) Renewable Resources
d) Nonrenewable Resources
29.. What are the three R’s that are used to save the environment which includes forest?
a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle
c) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
d) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
30. Which one of the following movement was carried out for the conservation of forests and
the environment?
a) Forest movement
b) Ganaga Action Plan
c) Tehri Andolan
d) Chipko Andolan
31.. Forest management has various scopes.

a) True
b) False
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32. Which one of the following is a branch of forestry?

a) Protection Forestry
b) Deforestation
c) Forest Management
d) Restricted Forestry
33. Which one of the following is not the best way to stop deforestation?
a) Planting trees
b) Not encouraging for recycling the used products
c) Go paperless
d) Eat vegetarian meals as often as possible
34. The forest which are regarded as the most valuable as far as the conservation of forest and
wildlife resources are concerned are called:
a) Protected forests
b) Unclassed forests
c) Reserved forests
d) Private forests
35. The species which are in danger of extinction are called:

a) Endangered species
b) Normal species
c) Vulnerable species
d) Rare species
36.. Mining is an important factor behind deforestation

a) True
b) False
37. The type of forests grown in the Himalayan mountain region is called:
a) Broad-leaved forests
b) Coniferous forests
c) Deciduous forests
38. Which one of the following is not direct use of forest products?
a) Bamboo for baskets
b) Medicine
c) Gums and resins
d) Grass for grazing
39. Which of the following is not a reason for the forest loss?
a) Increasing use of wood
b) Extinction of species
c) Extensive use of fuel woods
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d) Mining and building dams
40.Which is not a source of fresh water?

a) Glaciers and ice sheets
b) Groundwater
c) Surface run off
d) Oceans
41. According to Falkan Mark, water stress occurs when:

a) water availability is less than 1000 cubic metre per personper day.
b) there is no water scarcity.
c) there is flood.
d) water availability is more than 1000 cubic metre per personper day
42. Rain water is referred as

a) Palar pani
b) Potable water
c) Underground water
d) None of these
43. The major source of fresh water in India is

a) rainfall
b) ground water
c) atmospheric water
d) ocean water
44. Rooftop rainwater harvesting is a technique to recharge

a) ground water
b) river water
c) lake water
d) sea water
45. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable watermanagement?

a) Preventing leakage from dams and canals
b) Reducing the rate of surface run-off water.
c) Preventing loss in the municipal pipes.
d) Building small reservoirs in place of a few mega projects.
46.Which of the following activity can lower the water table?

a) Soil erosion
b) Growth of human population
c) Over extraction of groundwater
d) Over grazing
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47. Which of the following element is responsible for groundwater pollutionin various states?
a) Chlorine
b) Fluoride
c) Chemicals
48. Which of the following energy resources is renewable?

a) Coal.
b) Hydroelectric power.
c) Natural gas.
d) Petroleum
49. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a) Coal.
b) Natural gas.
c) Petroleum.
d) Uranium
50. What form of energy is radiated by the earth and trapped by greenhousegasses to cause
global warming?
a) Radio waves.
b) Infrared light.
c) Ultraviolet light.
d) Visible light.
51. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore.

a) Renewable
b) Biotic
c) Flow
d) Non-renewable
52. Afforestation is necessary for

a) Soil conservation
b) Soil erosion
c) Well control
d) Low humidity
53. Deforestation may reduce the chances of

a) frequent landslides
b) erosion of surface soil
c) rainfall
d) frequent cyclones
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54. Which of the following is an anti-forest conservation activity?

a) preservation of wild animals
b) preservation of fires
c) clear felling
d) economy in lumbering
55. Soil erosion can be prevented by

a) Afforestation
b) overgrazing
c) increasing birds population
d) removal of vegetation
56. The energy produced by the hydel-power plant is

a) Non-polluting and non-renewable
b) Polluting and non-renewable
c) Non-polluting and renewable
d) Polluting and renewable

a) tidal
b) wind
c) solar
d) all of these

59. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved inmining?
a) air pollution
b) water pollution
c) soil degradation
d) all of the above
60. Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a) Crop patterns are rotated
b) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c) Erosion of soil
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61. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a) Green plants
b) Sun
c) Inorganic nutrients
d) Animals
62. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a) Inverted
b) Upright
c) Linear
d) Irregular
63. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of
a) Biomes
b) Biogeographically regions
c) Ecosystems
d) Biospheres
64. Who was the first scientist to coin the term SMOG and to describethe layers of SMOG?
(a) Nikola Tesla
(b) Stephen Hawking
(c) Dr Henry Antoine
(d) Nicolaus Copernicus
65. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for the causes of SMOG?
a. From incinerators
b. Emissions from vehicles
c. Both incinerators and emissions from vehicles
d. None of the above
66. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

a. PANs
b. Ozone
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Nitrogen Dioxide
67. Which of the following particles is called the particulate pollutants?

a. Ozone
b. Radon
c. Fly Ash
d. Ethylene
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68. Which of the following agents is responsible for turning the Taj Mahal yellow?
a. Sulphur
b. Chlorine
c. Sulphur dioxide
d. Nitrogen dioxide
69. Which of the following statements is true about SMOG?
a. SMOG is derived from the fog

b. SMOG is derived from smoke
c. SMOG is derived from water vapour
d. SMOG is derived from both fog and smoke
70. What type of precautions should be taken to survive when the ozone level is high?
a. Drive less
b. Stay hydrated
c. Both A and B
d. Go for a long walk
71.Which of the following statements is true about the Air Quality Index?
(a) It indicates the colour of the air.
(b) It predicts ozone levels in your area.
(c) It determines the intensity of sound and sound pollution.
(d) It estimates air pollution mainly sulphur content in the air.
72. The major photochemical smog is .

a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Chlorofluorocarbon
c. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
d. All of the above
73. Which of the following diseases are caused by smog?

(a) Rickets
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Breathing Problems
(d) All of the above
74. DDT and Aluminum cans are examples of .

a. Primary Pollutants
b. Secondary pollutants
c. Biodegradable Pollutants
d. Non-Biodegradable Pollutants
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75. How many different types of primary pollutants together contributeto about 90 per cent
of the global air pollution?
a. Three
b. Five
c. Seven
76. Which of the following agents is mainly responsible for the secondary pollutants?
a. Smog and Ozone
b. Sulphur trioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. All of the above
77. Smoke, fumes, ash, dust, nitric oxide and Sulphur dioxide are the main sources of .
a. Primary Pollutants
b. Secondary pollutants
c. Bio-Degradable Pollutants
78. Which of the following industries plays a major role in polluting air and increasing air
pollution?
a. Brick manufacturing industries
b. Manufacture of gases industries
c. Electrical appliances and electrical goods industries
d. All of the above
79. Which of the following gas is more in percentage in the air?

a. Oxygen gas
b. Nitrogen gas
c. Water vapour
d. Carbon dioxide gas
80. Increased levels of air pollution results in________________.

(a) Soil erosion
(b) Global warming
(c) Respiratory problems
81. The Taj Mahal, Lotus Temple, Golden Temple, India Gate and other famous heritage
monuments are being affected by ______________.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
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c. Noise pollution
d. All of the above
82. What is the total percentage of nitrogen gas in the air?

a. 12 per cent
b. 21 per cent
c. 78 per cent
d. 87 per cent
83. Which of the following gases are called Greenhouse gases?

a. Methane
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Both a and c
84. Which of the following facts is incorrect?

a. Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth’sclimate system
b. Eutrophication is observed in water bodies
c. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
d. Ozone is harmless to breathe
85. Areas that are under the influence of DDT may observe a decline in the population of birds.
This is due to the fact that______
a. Birds stopped laying eggs altogether
b. The eggs did not hatch
c. Predation of the eggs increased
d. None of the above.
86. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is primarily used for

a. Estimating the types of microbes
b. Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
c. Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
87. Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of

a. Soil Pollution
b. Noise Pollution
c. Thermal Pollution
d. Radiation pollution
88. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is

a. Regulation of hazardous wastes
b. Regulate the production of nuclear energy
c. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
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89. The presence of in a water body is an indicator of waterpollution.
a. Zygosporangium
b. E.Coli
c. Deinococcus radiodurans
90. Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when exposed to the pesticides in their
environment. The protein that gets affected is
a. Calmodulin
b. Cysteine
c. Serine
91. Lichens are good bioindicators for

a. Environmental radiation
b. Soil pollution
c. Water and air pollution
92. A moth having a speckled wing, able to blend into its background due to itsdark colouration is
called
a. Industrial melanism
b. Adaptation
c. Predation
d. Evolution
93. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because

a. Traps heat
b. Traps light
c. Traps warm currents
94. Trichoderma harzianum is a that is predominantly used as afungicide

a. Virus
b. Fungus
c. Bacteria
d. Protozoa
95. Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation.Examples inlude
a. Nitrogen
b. Ozone
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c. Argon
96. Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects include
a. Skin cancers
b. Osteoporosis
c. Dyspepsia
97. is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem.

a. Decomposers
b. Predator
c. Bio-remediator
d. Bioindicator
98. is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes areconverted to the
residue and gaseous products through combustion.
a. Incarnation
b. Incineration
c. Incarceration
d. Incubation
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Acid rains are more prominent in

a) Temperate regions b) Tropical regions c) Arid regions d) equally prominent in all
2. The important gaseous pollutants contributing to acid rain are

a) S02 and NOx b) C02 and H2S
c) NOxand03 d) None ofthese
3. World 'Ozone day' is being celebrated on every year

a) June5th b) O c t 15th c)Sept5th d)Sept16th
4. Ozone is present in which layers of the atmosphere?

a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere
5. The term acid rain was coined in the year

a) 1952 b)1852 c)1652 d)1752
6. The major contributors to the acid rain are known as
a) Precursors b)Processors c) Protons d) Pollutants
7. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is
a) 0.1 mm b) 0.01mm c) 0.1m d) 0.01m
8. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is
a) carbon dioxide b)suphur dioxide c) carbon monoxide d)Ozone
9. Major compounds responsible for the destruction of Ozone layer is

a) oxygen b) CFCs c) C02 d) CH4
10. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain?
a) Reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere
b) Use of coal, free from sulphur
c) Use of electrostatic precipitator and catalytic converters
d) All of these.
11. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acidrain?

a) Reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere
b) Use of coal, free from sulphur
c) Use of electrostatic precipitator and catalytic converters
d) All of these
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12. The pH of acid rainis

a) Less than 5.7 b) Less than 3.7 c) Less than 1.7 d) Less than 2.7
13. Acid rain affects
a) Materials b) Plants c) Soil d) All of the above
14. Ozone layer is measured in

a) Centimeters b) Millimeters c) Decibels d) Dobson Units
15. Ozone layer is present in

a) Stratosphere b)Mesosphere c)Thermosphere d)Troposphere
16. The ozone depletion in the stratosphere is chiefly caused by the release of
a) Chlorofluorocarbons b) Methane c) Carbon dioxide d) None of these
17. Freon's are called

a) Hydrocarbons b) Ozone c) Methane d) Solvents
18. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below
a) 200DU b)2000DU c)20 DU d) 2DU
19. The radiations absorbed by ozone layer are

a) Infra-red b) Ultra-violet c) Gamma rays d)Visible
20. The ozone depletion in the stratosphere is chiefly caused by the release of
a) Chloro fluoro carbons b) Carbon dioxide c) Methane d)None of these
21. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water

a) 3.0mg/L b)2.5mg/L c)2.0mg/L d)1.5mg/L
22. The highest pH value of Acid Rain Recorded was:

a) 4.5 b) 5.7 c) 7.2 d) 2.0
23. Movement of Nutrients from the soil by the Acid Rain is called:
a) Infiltration b) Transpiration c) Leaching d) Exfiltration
24. Thickness of the Ozone layer is measured in which units?

a) PPB b) PPM
c)Dobson unit (DU) d) dB
25. Each chlorine free radical can destroy the number of ozone molecules.
a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10,000 d) 100,000
26. Which of the following is caused by the use of fertilizers in agriculture?
a) Methemoglobinemia b) Eutrophication
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c) Acidification and Salinityofsoils d) All of these
27. The runoff passing over the agricultural fields making liberal use of nitrogenous
fertilizers may cause the following:
a) Blue Baby disease b) Malaria c) AIDS d) None of these
28. Major source of Fluoride available in:

a) River water b) Ground water c) Food products d) Both a and c
29. Excess of Nitrate in drinking water causes:

a) Gastro Enteritis b) Minamata c) Blue Baby Syndrome d) None of the above
30. Fluorosis is caused due to

a) No fluoride intake b)Excess fluoride intake
c) Low fluoride intake d) None of the above
31. Mineral resources are

a) Renewable b) Fossil fuels c) Non-renewable d) Sedimentary rocks
32. Eco-toxicology is the study of
a)Chemical interactions of organism and environment
b) Physical interactions of organism and environment
c) Thermal interactions of organism and environment
d) Biological interactions of organism and environment
33.Hazard estimation in ecotoxicology is done based on

a)Accumulation b)Bio-accumulation c)SARA d) HWL
Explanation: Hazard estimation and estimation in ecotoxicology is done based on the

concentrationof bio-accumulation of a chemical in food chain.
34. species is used as screening of

chemicals.
a) Eisiniafoetida b)Folsomia candida c)Enchytraeus albidus d) Zebra fish
Explanation: The zebra fish which is known as Danio rerio is used in high throughput screening for
chemicals.
35. Restoration of someone to a useful place in society is known as:

a) Resettlement b) Rehabilitation c) Displacement d) Replacement
36. Restoration of someone to a useful place in society is known as:
a) Resettlement b) Rehabilitation c) Displacement d) Replacement
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37. The largest resettlement operation the World Bank has ever supported is:
a) The Upper Krishna Project b) The Tehri Project
c) Sardar Sarovar Project d) Jharia Coal field project
38. In India a major cause of large scale displacement of people is

a) Forest fire b) Development projects c) Earthquake d) war
39. Which of the Following Have Higher Energy Levels and Shorter Wavelengths?
(a) Infrared radiation
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) Beta radiation
(d) Alpha radiation
40. Normal Greenhouse Effect Is Important for the Sustenance of Life on Earth as it Has Increased the
Earth’s Surface Temperature By
(a) 15 ℃ (b) 50 ℃ (c) – 18 ℃ (d) 33 ℃
41. Infrared Radiations Have ----------------Wavelength?
(a) Shorter (b) Infinite (c) Longer (d) Zero
42. Gas Molecules That Absorb Thermal Infrared Radiation and Are Present in Large Quantity to Alter
the Climate System Is Known As
(a) Greenhouse gases (b) Beta radiations
(c) Alpha radiations (d) Ozone gases
43. Burning of Fossil Fuels Results In
(a) Increased oxygen level (b) Decreases greenhouse gases
(c) Increased greenhouse gases (d) Increased ethane level
44. Which One of the Following Is Incorrect About the Greenhouse Effect?
(a) Life on earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect
(b) Greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains the earth’s temperature
(c) More is the emission of greenhouse gases, more is the temperature of the earth’s
atmosphere
(d) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process
45. The GWP is Dependent on Which of the Following Factors?
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a) Absorption capability of InfraRed radiations b) Atmospheric lifetime

c) Range of Infrared wavelengths it can absorb d) All of the above
46. Which of the Following Greenhouse Gases Has the Highest Atmospheric Lifetime?
a) CFC b) Nitrous oxide c) Methane d) Carbon tetrafluoride
47. Which of the Following Has the Highest Radiative Efficiency?

a) Sulphur hexafluoride b) Carbon tetrachloride
c) CFC d) PFTBA
48.Anthropogenic Sources of Carbon Dioxide Are 20 Times More Than Natural Carbon Dioxide
Sources.
a) True b) False
49. Why Is There an Extreme Difference in Temperatures at Day and Night in Deserts?
a) Carbon dioxide is present in low concentrations in desert regions, and thus heat escapes easily
b) Sand has high heat conduction properties
c) There’s lack of moisture leads to escape of heat
d) All of the above
50. What Does the Method of “Enhanced Weathering” Mean?

a) Spraying sulphate aerosols to reduce the greenhouse effect
b) Cloud seeding is done to reduce the contribution of clouds to the greenhouse effect
c) Removing Carbon dioxide from the air
115
1. Waste removal system was established in which of the following cities for the first time?
(a) Athens
(b) Lahore
(c) Paris
(d) London
2. Which of the following solid wastes describes the term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’?
(a) Toxic
(b) Hazardous
(c) Non-toxic
(d) Non-hazardous
3. Why is it difficult to recycle plastics?

(a) It is very hard
(b) It comes in different sizes
(c) It is adhesive
(d) It contains different types of polymer resins
4. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

(a) Burning
(b) Disposal
(c) Recycling
(d) Source reduction
5. Why is recycled paper banned for use in food containers?

(a) Because it creates a lot of spaces
(b) Because it creates contamination
(c) Because paper can be used only one time
(d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
6. Which of the following plans is used as a waste management plan?

(a) Plan for reuse
(b) The integrated plan
(c) Plan for recycling
(d) Plan for reducing
7. The organic material of the solid waste will decompose

(a) By the flow of water
(b) By the soil particles
(c) By the action of microorganisms
(d) By oxidation
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8. Which of the following wastes is called the Municipal Solid Waste (MSW)?
(a) Food wastes

(b) Wood pieces
(c) Plastic cans
9. The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a
specific furnace is called ______.
(a) Landfill
(b) Incineration
(c) Recycling
(d) Vermicomposting
10. The burning of solid waste is not recommended because
(a) It is very costly

(b) It requires a lot of space
(c) It requires modern technologies
(d) It causes several environmental issues
11. When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
12. Which of the following is the oldest and the most common method used to dump solid wastes?
(a) River
(b) Ocean
(c) Landfill
(d) None of the above
13. The disposable wastes contain
(a) Solids
(b) Slurries
(c) Liquids
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14. Find the correct statement
(a) The waste from one process becomes the input for another process
(b) All the processes related to consumption and production produce some kind of waste
(c) There is no real waste in nature
15. Which of the following methods is better for the solid waste problem?
(a) Recycling
(b) Landfilling
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
16. Which of the following statements is incorrect for plastic wastes?
(a) It is used to make compost

(b) It lasts for a longer period of time
(c) Toxic fumes are produced when burnt
17. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
(a) Wood
(b) Plastic
(c) Aluminium
(d) Organic materials
18. Which of the following gas is produced from landfill wastes?
(a) Biogas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Liquified petroleum gas
19. Which of the following statements is true about zero waste management?
(a) Separate collection of each kind of waste

(b) Segregation of garbage at the source
(c) Community involvement
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20. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Seven
(d) Eleven
21) Under which rule of Government, guidelines for solid waste management are followed today?
a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000
b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016
22) The average composition of Municipal solid waste is:

a) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19% recyclable
b) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20% recyclable
c) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50% recyclable
d) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40% recyclable
23. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace
under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill
b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration
Waste Management & Public Health Aspects: Bio-medical Wastes; Solid waste; Hazardous
wastes; E-wastes; Industrial and Municipal Sludge.
24. Cyototoxic and expired drugs are disposed of by
a) dumping
b) autoclave
c) incineration
d) chemical disinfection
23. The color code of plastic bag for disposing of microbial laboratory culture waste –
a) black
b) red
c) blue
d) white
24. The placenta is disposed of in a ———– color bag
a) red b) blue c) yellow d) blackExplanation:
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25. Autoclaving and microwaving are done for which of the following types of medical
waste
a) human anatomical waste
b) recyclable contaminated waste
c) cytotoxic drugs
d) microbiological waste
26. All the following waste can be incinerated except

a) reactive chemical waste b) vaccine c) mutilated parts d) discarded drugs
27. Which of the following solid wastes describes the term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’?
(a) Toxic (b) Hazardous (c) Non-toxic (d) Non-hazardous
28. Why is it difficult to recycle plastics?
(a) It is very hard (b) It comes in different sizes
(c) It is adhesive (d) It contains different types of polymer resins
29. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

(a) Burning (b) Disposal (c) Recycling (d) Source reduction
30. Why is recycled paper banned for use in food containers?
(a) Because it creates a lot of spaces
(b) Because it causes contamination
(c) Because paper can be used only one time
(d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
31. The organic material of the solid waste will decompose
(a) By the flow of water
(b) By the soil particles
(c) By the action of microorganisms
(d) By oxidation
32. Which of the following wastes is called the Municipal Solid Waste (MSW)?
(a) Food wastes (b) Wood pieces (c) Plastic cans (d) All of the above
33. The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and
conditions in aspecific furnace is called .
(a) Landfill (b) Incineration (c) Recycling (d) Vermi composting
34. The burning of solid waste is not recommended because
(a) It is very costly
(b) It requires a lot of space
(c) It requires modern technologies
(d) It causes several environmental issues
35. When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
(a) Methane (b) Nitrogen (c) Hydrogen (d) All of the above
138
36. Which of the following is the oldest and the most common method used to dump solid wastes?
(a) River (b) Ocean (c) Landfill (d) None of the above
37. Which of the following statements is incorrect for plastic wastes?
(a) It is used to make compost (b) It lasts for a longer period of time
(c) Toxic fumes are produced when burnt (d) All of the above
38. Which of the following methods is better for the solid waste problem?
(a) Recycling (b) Land filling (c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
39. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
(a) Wood (b) Plastic (c) Aluminium (d) Organic materials
40. Which of the following gas is produced from landfill wastes?
(a) Biogas (b) Natural gas (c) Liquified petroleum gas (d) All of the above
41. Which of the following statements is true about zero waste management?
(a) Separate collection of each kind of waste (b) Segregation of garbage at the source
(c) Community involvement (d) All of the above
42. Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?
a) Lead b) Cadmium c) Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants d) All of the above
43. What does e- waste stand for?
a) Environment waste b) Electronic waste c) Equipment waste d) None of the
above
44. What are the health hazards which can be caused by E-Waste?
a) Lung cancer
b) DNA damage
c) Brain damage
d) d) All of the above
45. Which country produces the most e-waste per year?

a) India b) China c) USA d) France
46. The most valuable part of a PC or TV is the

a) Lead in the CRT b) Circuit boards that contain silver and gold
c) Copper in the cathode yoke d) None of the above
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1) EIA is defined as
a) process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating the likely impacts of a proposed project
or development todefine mitigation actions to reduce negative impacts and to provide
positive contributions to the natural environment and well-being
b) report written by government representatives on the planned development impacts of
environment, socio-economic issues and culture
c) project life-cycle assessment
d) none of above
2) What is essential in an EIA?

a) that it allows decision makers to assess a project’s impacts in all its phases
b) that it allows the public and other stakeholders to present their views and inputs on
the planned development
c) that it contributes to and improve the project design, so that environmental as well as
socioeconomicmeasures are core parts of it
d) All of the above
3) What is the purpose of the “screening” step of EIA?

a) Toassess the quality of the project design
b) To facilitate informed decision making by providing clear, well-structured, factual
analysis of the effectsand consequences of proposed actions
c) To determine whether a full EIA needed
d) b and c both
4) EIA is study of probable change in socio economic and characteristics of environment due to
proposed action.
a) biophysical
b) geological
c) hydrological
d) Potential
5) What is included in an Impact assessment?

a) a detailed assessment of the planned project and selected alternatives compared to the baseline
conditions
b) Qualitative descriptions measuring high, medium and low impacts
c) Quantitative descriptions such as indicating the cubic metres of water withdrawn, sewage
produced, and pollutants released
d) All of the
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6) What is a contingency plan?

a) A set of guidelines ensuring that the development project will remain within its boundaries.
b) A plan of actions to prevent an emergency and to be taken when
emergencies occur.
c) A plan describing the measures that will be taken to contain or treat any waste
produced by thedevelopment project.
7) EIA is and environmental impacts.

a) beneficial and adverse
b) social and benefit
c) adverse and economical
d) None of above
8) is evident that order to identify, assess and predict the environmental impacts.
a) Environmental attributes
b) Environmental impact
c) Complex system
d) Variable parameter
9) Prediction of impact is .
a) qualitative
b) quantitative
c) economic
d) beneficial
10) EIA is a which helps to evaluate environmental impact of proposed developmental

projectsor programs.
a) quantitative
b) tool
c) subjective
d) clearance
11) EIA was introduced in India in .
a) 1978
b) 1976
c) 1879
d) 1789
151
12) Screening criteria based on .

a) type and location of development
b) difficult and control attribute
c) type and difficult to development
d) partial development
13) Scoping is procedure of environmental issues.

a) identifying
b) impact
c) physical impact
d) attributes
14) EIA is including mechanisms for monitoring, and evaluation.
a) specification
b) auditing
c) reporting
d) concluding
15) EIA is step activity.

a) three
b) four
c) two
d) five
16) Prediction include determination of and magnitude of impact.
a) nature
b) action
c) predict
d) extend
17) Prediction is data and technical knowledge.

a) scientific
b) evaluate
c) error
d) operational
18) EIA is tool for decision making process.

a) management
b) social
c) essential
d) systematic
152
19) EIA is report.

a) applicant
b) logical
c) legal
d) documental
20) Lead agencies decided whether is required or not.

a) EIS
b) EIA
c) MOEF
d) SPCB
21) EIA is study to delineate between beneficial and detrimental impacts.

a) micro
b) action
c) proposed
d) macro
22) Which are environmental attributes?

a) Detailed attributes
b) Review level attributes
c) Economic attributes
d) a and b both
23) EIA is consuming process.

a) Time
b) Preventive
c) Control
d) Short term
24) EIA is intristic link between and economic growth.

a) ecological
b) polluted
c) beneficial
d) environment
153
25) Identification may confirm and .
a) existing
b) new one added
c) stages complete
d) invite
26) The baseline studies in EIA pertain to .

a) Collection of demographic data only
b) prediction of significant residual environmental impact
c) existing environmental settling of proposed development area
d) selection of best project option available
27) Which one of the following steps is not included in the scoping process?
a) baseline description and potential additional data collection needs
b) description of environmental impacts and creation of contingency plan
c) defining set of criteria to assess the projects
d) settling of expert team that will conduct EIA
28) which capacity based on developmental planning

process?
a) regional carrying capacity
b) economic development
c) quality of life
d) resources
29) EIA is way of evaluating and controlling

a) different development activities
b) beneficial and adverse impact
c) quality of human, environment
d) proposed action or project
30) EIA is report to relevant regulatory authority.

a)applicant
b) polluter
c) applicable
d) all of the above
31) must pay principle is applicable.
a) MOEF
b) GPCB
c) polluter
d) applicable
154
32) EIA may define formal process used to predict environmental consequences of
a)identify project
b) any development projects
c) reduced cost
d) impact of laws
33) EIA is supporting the goals of environmental protection and _.

a) sustainable development
b) economic growth
c) involvement of public
d) proposed activities
34) EIA is provided for of public, government agencies to review proposed activities.
a) beneficial
b) mitigation
c) involvement
d) adverse
35) is a way of mapping environmental consequences of significant aspect of project.

a) Impact prediction
b) social impact
c) adverse effect
d) economic
36) Scale and severity of impact is determined by whether it is .
a) development
b) reversible
c) adverse
d) reversible or irreversible
37) EIA is necessary because …………

a) development is bad for the environment
b) there is growing interest in sustainability
c) environmental impacts of developments are of public interest
d) none of the above
155
38) Which of the following statements are false?

a) land use planning systems do the same thing as EIA
b) EIA is costly and time consuming
c) EIA is intended to be a rational and comprehensive assessment
d) EIA is a process
39) Where undertaken, EIA should be used to help determine whether
consent is given fordevelopment?
a) never
b) hardly ever
c) often
d) always
40) The primary reason for Environmental Impact Assessment is to

a) mitigate existing environmental impacts of development
b) predict the size of impacts of developments
c) describe proposed developments
d) identify the environmental consequences of development in advance
41) Environmental impact assessment is specification.

a) site
b) time consuming
c) quantification
d) energy resource
42) Which is EIA methodology?
a) assessment
b) mitigation
c) adverse
d) land use
43) The EIA procedure identifies the possible positive and negative impacts to the
environmentresulting from a proposed project. These impacts are identified
over both_____and______time frame.
a) short term and long term

b) adverse and time consuming
c) beneficial and short
d) adhoc and matrix
44) Who will be decided EIA required or not?

a) public
b) consumer
c) lead agency
156
d) EIAS
45) what is EIAS?
a) environmental impact assessment statement
b) environmental Indian association statement
c) environmental international assess state
d) none of the above
46) EIA is evaluating and simulator quality of .

a) economic
b) human and environment
c) action
d) proposed
47) Screening is whether project required as per statutory notification.

a) environmental clearance
b) environmental impact assessment
c) Seia
d) eias
48) Mitigation measures may be public awareness programme.

a) lead agency
b) correction
c) preventive
d) aspect
157

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Environmental Science – 21CIV57/67

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

2. Objective of environmental studies is to

5. A simple detritus food chain starts with

6. In a food chain humans are

7. Facultative Bacteria exists in which type of Environmental condition?

8. Word Environment is derived from:

9. Organisms who directly feed on producers are called:

10. Largest reservoir of Nitrogen is existing in:

11. 'Earth's Day' is celebrated every year on:

12. 'World Environmental Day' is celebrated every year on:

13. Eutrophication means:

a) Waste water Treatment process

14. An ecosystem is a region in which

a) Dead organism interacts with their environment

15. The term ecosystem was first proposed by

16. Biotic components include

a) All living organisms

17. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called

18. An animal that feeds upon another animal is

19. Which part of plant contains nitrogen fixing bacteria?

20. Green revolution is

a) Crop variety improvement

21. Organic farming is

a) farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers

d) All the above.

22. Percentage of nitrogen in earth's atmosphere

a) 98% b) 78% c)21% d) 12%

24. A food web consists of

25. Which atmospheric layer is closest to the Earth's surface?

26. Earth's body temperature is approximately equal to?

28. Amount of carbon dioxide present in atmospheric air is

29. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem?

33. How erosion controlled by forest?

34. How forests increase the atmosphere’s humidity?

35. How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

37. What makes desert region to become highly unproductive?

38. What kind of climate we can find in the Thar desert?

40. Types of Freshwater Ecosystems

41. The parts of a lake also can be classified by temperature

43. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?

46. Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?

47. Which is the simplest aquatic ecosystem?

48. Which ecosystem is known as giant permanent pond?

49. How many biogeographic does India have?

50. Lime is generally added to soil

51. ________ has the maximum genetic diversity in India

52. __________ is one of the most prevalent hotspots of biodiversity in India

53. Galápagos finches are a good example of ________

54. The variety of genes within a species is called

55. ___________ is one of the least porous soils

56. ______ is an example of an ex-situ conservation.

57. __ _____ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.

59. ______is defined as an ecological state of a species being unique to a specific

61. _______is defined as the number of species represented in a specific region,

62. _______ is the basic unit of classification and a taxonomic rank

63. Which of the following animals is now extinct?

64. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuaries?

57. ___ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.