English

(1001CMD303054230031) *1001CMD303054230031*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 24-09-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE : MAZV

This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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Form Number : in figures

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 2 English

Topic : NLM, WPE, COM, CIRCULAR MOTION, HEAT TRANSFER, KTG, UNIT AND DIMENSION
(COMPLETE) [BACK UNIT] : LAW OF MOTION & FRICTION

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. A particle is suspended from a string of length R.

It is given a velocity U = 3 gR at the bottom.
√

1. Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10 m apart at a Find velocity at B:-
certain instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s making an
angle 30° with line joining P and Q and velocity of Q is
6 m/s making an angle 30° with PQ as shown in figure.
Then the angular speed of P with respect to Q is :

(1) √ 7gR (2) √ 5gR

(3) √ 3gR (4) √ 8gR

(1) 0 rad/s (2) 0.1 rad/s
5. A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The
(3) 0.4 rad/s (4) 0.7 rad/s tension in the string when passing through two
2. A simple pendulum is oscillating without positions at angle of 30° and 60° from vertical (the
damping. When the displacement of the bob is lowest position) are T1 and T2 respectively, then:-
less than maximum, its acceleration vector →a is (1) T1 = T2
correctly shown in :- (2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 > T2
(1) (2) (4) Tension in the string always remains the same.
6. Two particles of mass 2kg and 1kg are moving
along the same straight line with speeds 2 m/s and
5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system
when particles are moving in opposite directions
(3) (4) is V1 and when particles are moving in same
direction is V2. The ratio V1/V2 is:
(1) 3:4 (2) 4:3 (3) 9:1 (4) 1:9
3. A rod of length L is hinged at one end and it is rotated
with a constant angular velocity in a horizontal plane. 7. A 60 kg girl and her 45 kg brother are at rest at
Let T1 and T2 be the tensions at the points L/4 and the centre of a frozen pond. He pushes her so
3L/4 away from the hinged end. that she slides away at 2.4 m/s.
(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
How much total work is done approximately ?
(4) The relation between T1 and T2 depends on (Ignore friction).
whether the rod rotates clockwise or
anticlockwise (1) 58 J (2) 170 J (3) 350 J (4) 400 J
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8. A man of mass m stands at the left end of 12. A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in
uniform plank of length L and mass M, which the figure. The tension T2 in the horizontal string
lies on a frictionless surface of ice. If the man (in kg wt) is :-
walks to the other end of the plank, then by what
distance does the plank slide on the ice?
ML
(1) L (2)
M +m
mL mL
(3) (4)
M M +m
9. A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes
into three fragments. Two of the fragments, each
(1) 2/√3 (2) √ 3 /2 (3) 2 √3 (4) 3 √2
of mass m are found to move with a speed of v
each in perpendicular directions. What is the 13. System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at
total energy released in the process? rest. The spring and string are massless, now the
2 7 2
string is cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m
(1) 3 mv (2) mv just after the string is cut will be : –
2
3 2 4 mv2
(3) mv (4)
2
10. A ball of mass m moving at a speed V makes a head
on collision with an identical ball at rest. The kinetic
energy of the balls after the collision is 3 th of the
4
original then coefficient of restitution for the
collision is :
g
1 1 1 (1) upwards, g downwards
√3 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) g
2 2 √ 2 4
(2) g upwards, 2
downwards
11. A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon
by a variable force F for a brief interval of time T. (3) g upwards, 2g downwards
It begins to move with a velocity u after the force (4) 2g upwards, g downwards
stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a function
14. A block of metal weighing 3 kg is resting on a
of time. The curve is a semicircle then – frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at
a rate of 6 kg/s with a speed of 4 m/s. Water does not
rebound. The initial acceleration of the block will be :-
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 12 m/s2
15. A force F→ = 3 ^i − ^j + 2 k^ displaces a body from point
π F02 π F0 T
(1) u= (2) u= A(1,2,1) to B (3,2,4) then work done by the force is
2m 4m
πT 2 F0 T
(1) 12 Joule (2) 10 Joule
(3) u= (4) u=
8m 2m (3) 15 Joule (4) 11 Joule
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16. If momentum of a body changes from p to 1.02 p 23. The length and breadth of a metal sheet are 3.124 m
then find percentage change in kinetic energy. and 3.002 m respectively. The area of this sheet upto
(1) 2 % (2) 1% (3) 4% (4) 6% four correct significant figures is :-

17. If U = x2y + yz + xz2 then find force acting on (1) 9.37 m2 (2) 9.378 m2
the particle at (1,2,1) (3) 9.3782 m2 (4) 9.378248 m2
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 24. The number of circular divisions on the shown
(1) −2i − 5j − 4k (2) −5i − 2j − 4k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ screw gauge is 100. It moves 0.6 mm on main
(3) −4i − 5j − 2k (4) 5i + 2j + 4k
scale for one complete rotation. Main scale
18. Work done in stretching a spring of spring reading is 2mm. The diameter of the ball is :
constant K from 2X0 to 4X0 will be
(1) 16 KX02 (2) 6 KX02

(3) 8 KX02 (4) 12 KX02

19. A machine can lift 0.6 tonn of coal from a 20 m

(1) 2.15 mm (2) 2.20 mm
deep mine in 2 min find power
(3) 1.20 mm (4) 1.25 mm
(1) 1 KW (2) 2 KW
(3) 3 KW (4) 6 KW
25. A particle experiences a force F→ = Ar3 ^r , where ^r
is the unit vector along position vector →r . The
20. A particle is projected with speed u at an angle θ dimensional formula of A is :-
with the horizontal find instantaneous power
(1) ML – 1T – 2 (2) ML – 2T – 2
developed by gravitational force at maximum
height : (3) ML – 2T – 1 (4) ML – 3T – 2
− Mgu sin θ 26. The time period T of a soap bubble under SHM
(1) (2) mg u cos θ
2 is given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is
− Mgu cos θ
(3) (4) Zero density and S is surface tension. Then the values
2
of a, b and c are dimension of surface tension is
21. A pump can take out 7200 kg of water per hour
from a 100 m deep well then find power of the (M1L0T – 2) :-
pump if η = 50% 3 1
(1) − , ,1 (2) -1, -2, 3
2 2
(1) 2000 watt (2) 4000 watt 1 3 3
(3) , − , -1/2 (4) 1, 2,
(3) 8000 watt (4) 1000 watt 2 2 2
27. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of
22. According to Joule's law of heating, heat produced cal
is given by H = I 2 Rt, where I is current, R is Aluminium is 0.5 . To conduct the
cm . s . kelvin
resistance and t is time. If the errors in the cal
rate of heat flow 20 2
the temperature
cm . sec
measurement of I, R and t are 3%, 4% and 6% gradient should be
respectively then error in the measurement of H is
kelvin kelvin
(1) ± 17% (2) ± 16%
(1) 20 (2) 40
cm cm
kelvin kelvin
(3) ± 19% (4) ± 25% (3) 10 (4) 30
cm cm
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28. Calculate the temperature of junction if coefficient 33. The rms speed of ideal gas molecules at 127°C
of thermal conductivity of copper is 6 times of and 1 × 105 N/m2 pressure is 200 m/s. If the
temperature is increased to 527° C and pressure
steel as shown in figure
0.5 × 105 N/m2 then rms speed will become
200
(1) 200 m/s (2) m/s
√ 2
(1) 50° C (2) 75° C
(3) 200 √ 2 m/s (4) 400 m/s
(3) 60° C (4) 20° C
34. Three identical rods are connected as shown in
29. Two concentric spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 < R2) the figure, then find the temperature of junction.
are maintained at temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 >T2).
The rate of heat flow is proportional to
(1) R1 + R2 (2) R2 – R1
R1 R2 R1 R2 (1) 30°C (2) 50°C (3) 60°C (4) 70°C
(3) R2 − R1
(4) R1 + R2
35. Solar constant for earth is
30. The rate of energy emitted by a black body at
cal cal
(1) 1.4 (2) 2
127°C is 1 × 106 J 2 . If the temperature is cm2 .
mnt cm2 .
mnt
S. m
increased to 527°C then the rate will become cal cal
(3) 3 (4) 4
2
cm . mnt 2
cm . mnt
J J
(1) 6 × 106 (2) 16 × 106 SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
S. m2 S. m2

(3) 8 × 106 J 2 (4) 12 × 106 J 2 36. A flywheel at rest is to reach an angular velocity
S. m S. m
of 24 rad s-1 in 8 s with constant angular
31. A sphere, cube and thin circular plate having same acceleration. The total angle turned through
mass made of same material are heated to same during this interval is
temperature and placed in same surroundings then (1) 24 rad (2) 48 rad
which will cool last. (3) 72 rad (4) 96 rad
(1) sphere 37. A particle moving along a circular path. The
(2) Plate angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the
(3) Cube
→ , →v, →α , →a c.
particle at any instant respectively are ω
(4) All cool at same rate Which of the following relation is/are correct : –
32. When a gas from a big container is shifted in a → ⊥ →v (b) ω
(a) ω → ⊥ →α (c) →v ⊥ →a c (d) ω → ⊥ →a c
small container then pressure increases because (1) a,b,d (2) b,c,d (3) a,b,c (4) a,c,d
(1) The velocity of molecules increases 38. The maximum velocity (in ms – 1) with which a
(2) The energy of molecules increases car driver must traverse a flat curved path of
radius 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6 to
(3) The number of collisions with the wall increases
avoid skidding is :- (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) The energy of molecules decreases
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 25
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39. The centre of mass of a system of particles does 45. If L.C. of a vernier callipers is 0.2 mm. If zero of
not depend on : vernier scale lies above 12 mm and 3rd division of
(1) masses of the particles vernier scale coincides with any division of main
scale, find measured value by vernier callipers :
(2) internal forces on the particles
(1) 1.23 cm (2) 1.26 cm
(3) position of the particles
(3) 12.6 cm (4) 12.3 cm
(4) relative distance between the particles
46. If the unit of force is doubled and the unit of
40. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3kg have position length is made half, then the unit of energy will be
vectors ^i + 2j^ + k^ and −3i^ − 2j^ + k^ , respectively. 1 1
The centre of mass of this system has a position (1) times (2) times
4 2
vecotor :-
(3) 4 times (4) Unchanged
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(1) −i + j + k (2) −2i + 2k
47. The rate of heat flow from a metallic rod
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(3) −2i − j + k (4) 2i − j − 2k maintained at two different temperatures is Q. If
1 th
41. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two the rod is melted to form a new rod of of
4
fragments which fly off with velocities 27 : 1. radius then the rate of heat flow will be
The ratio of radius of fragments :- Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 4 16 64 256

Which one of the following is true in an inelastic 48. A cup of tea cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10
42.
collision ? minutes. If room temperature is 25°C then find
Kinetic Total
the temperature after next 10 minutes
Momentum
energy Energy 100 ∘ 200 ∘
(1) C (2) C
(1) Conserved Conserved Conserved 7 7
300 ∘ 400 ∘
(2) Conserved Not Conserved Conserved (3) C (4) C
7 7
(3) Conserved Not Conserved Not Conserved 49. The pressure, volume and temperature of ideal gas
(4) Not Conserved Not Conserved Conserved are P,V,T respectively. If mass of single molecule
is m and density of gas is d, then temperature is
43. A force F = x2 + 1 displaces a body from x = 0 to
x = 2 find work done. dk Pm P Pm
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Pm dk mdk kT
8 10
(1) Joule (2) Joule 50. The pressure, and temperature of ideal gas
3 3
16 14 enclosed in a container are P and T. If number of
(3) Joule (4) Joule
3 3 molecules in the box is doubled due to which
44. If potential energy of a particle of mass 2kg pressure becomes P' and temperature T' but
depend on position as U = x2 – 10x + 20 and translational kinetic energy remains same, then
kinetic energy of the particle at x = 2 is 7 joule
then find maximum kinetic energy of the particle T
(1) P = P' and T = T' (2) P = P' and T' =
2
(1) 16 Joule (2) 11 Joule P
(3) P' = 2P and T' = 2T (4) P' = and T' = T
(3) 2 Joule (4) 22 Joule 2 2
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Topic : LIQUID SOLUTION (ABNORMAL COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES), ELECTROCHEMISTRY (UPTO NERNST
EQUATION, ECS), COORDINATION COMPOUNDS (FROM IUPAC) TO LAST, s-BLOCK, d & f-BLOCK [BACK UNIT]
: ATOMIC STRUCTURE

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 54. For following cell

Al|Al+3||Fe+2| Fe, Calculate Δ G° at 298K
51. The emf of cell Given : EAlo +3/Al = −1.66V ; 1F = 96500C
Ni(s)|Ni+2(0.16M)||Ag+(0.002M)|Ag(s) is EFo e+2 /F e = −0.44V
o = 1.05V )
(Given that : Ecell
(1) – 690 KJ (2) – 706.38 KJ
(1) – 0.91 V (2) +0.46 V
(3) – 965.01 KJ (4) – 850.2 KJ
(3) +0.91 V (4) – 0.75 V
55. The standard reduction potentials for the reactions
52. The equilibrium constant of the given reaction at Mn+2 + 2e – → Mn and Mn+3 + e – → Mn+2 are
298 K will be – 1.18V and 1.51V respectively. What is the
aq. + 2Iaq. → 2F eaq. + I2 (s)
2F e+3 − +2 standard reduction potential for the reaction :
o
(Given that : Ecell = 0.237V ) Mn+3 + 3e – → Mn ?
(1) 1012.25 (2) 108.02 (3) 106.8 (4) 109.76 (1) 0.33 V (2) 1.69 V
53. Match List-I with List-II (3) – 0.28 V (4) – 0.85 V
List-I List-II 56. Assertion (A) : Aquatic species are more comfortable
A potential in cold water in comparison to warm water.
difference Reason (R) : At a given pressure, the solubility of
between the
(A) electrode (I) Anode oxygen gas in water increases with decrease in
and the temperature
electrolyte is
known as (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
In galvanic cell,
electrode having (2) A is true but R is false
(B) negative potential (II) Cathode (3) A is false but R is true
with respect to
the solution is (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
In galvanic cell,
electrode having
Cell 57. The diagram given below is a vapour pressure
(C) positive potential (III) potential composition diagram for a binary solution of A
with respect to
the solution is and B. In the solution, A-B interaction are
The potential
difference
(D) between the (IV) Electrode
two electrodes potential
of a galvanic
cell is called
(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D-III (1) Similar to A-A and B-B interactions
(2) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D-II (2) Greater than A-A and B-B interactions
(3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D-III (3) Smaller than A-A and B-B interactions
(4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D-IV (4) Unpredictable
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58. For which of the following Vant haff factor is 63. The radius of 2nd bohr orbit in terms of the bohr
not correctly matched. radius (a0) in Li2+ is :
Salt α i (1) 4a0
(2) 2a0
(3) 2a0
(4) 4a0
9 9 3 3
(1) K2SO4 50% 2
64. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p respectively
(2) K3[Fe(CN)6] 75% 3.25 are :-
(3) [Ag[NH3]2]Cl 80% 1.8 (1) 2 and 0 (2) 0 and 2
(4) Al2(SO4)3 90% 2.8 (3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 1
59. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of weak acid (HX) is 65. An orbital with ℓ = 0 is symmetrical about the :-
20% ionised. If Kf of water is 1.86 K kg mol – 1 (1) x-axis only (2) y-axis only
the lowering in freezing point of solution is :
(3) z-axis only (4) The nucleus
(1) 0.56 K (2) 1.12 K
66. The relative abundance of two rubidium isotopes
(3) – 0.56 K (4) – 1.12 K of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%
60. Consider the following cases :- respectively. The average atomic wt. of rubidium
Case I : 2M CH3COOH solution in benzene at is: –
27°C where there is dimer formation to the (1) 75.5 (2) 85.5 (3) 86.5 (4) 87.5
extent of 100%. 67. An element M has 25 protons. The number of
Case II : 0.5 M KCl aq. solution at 27°C, which electron in its M2 – anion will be -
ionises 100% (1) 27 (2) 23 (3) 25 (4) 22
Which is correct ?
68. The orbital angular momentum for an electron
(1) Both are isotonic (2) I is hypertonic
revolving in an orbit is given by ℓ ( ℓ + 1). h .
√

(3) II is hypertonic (4) None is correct 2π

This momentum for an s-electron will be given by
61. Assertion : Line emission spectra is useful in the
(1) h (2) 1 h
study of electronic structure. √ 2. + .
2π 2 2π
Reason : Each element has a unique line h
(3) zero (4)
spectrum. 2π
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 69. In an atom, the total no. of electrons having
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. quantum numbers n = 4, ℓ = 1, s = ± 1 is
2
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
70. The ratio of magnetic moments of Fe(III) and Co(II) is :
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) √ 5 : √7 (2) √ 35 : √15
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) 7 : 3 (4) √ 24 : √15
62. Ratio between longest wavelength of H atom in
71. When MnO2 is fused with KOH a coloured
Lyman series to the shortest wavelength in compound is the product & the colour is :-
Balmer series of He+ is :-
(1) K2MnO4, green (2) KMnO4 purple
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 36 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
(3) Mn2O3 brown (4) Mn2O4 Black
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72. Find the correct relation of pH from the below 77. Correct Statement is _______.
given reaction :- (A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical
Cr2 O2− 2CrO2− isomerism
7 4
(orange) (yellow) (B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can
(1) pH of x > 7 (2) pH of x < 7 not be superimposed on one another. These are
pH of y < 7 pH of y > 7 called enantiomers.
(3) pH of x < 7 (C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of
(4) All are incorrect
pH of y = 7 magnesium
73. H2 O (D) Ethylenediamine is a monodentate ligand.
Ln −−→ Ln(OH)3 + X, X is :-
(1) Ln2O3 (2) O2 (3) H2 (4) LnH3 (1) (A),(B),(C),(D) are correct options
74. KO2 is used in space and submarines because it :- (2) (A),(B),(C) are correct options
(1) Absorbs CO2 and increase O2 concentration (3) (A),(B),(D) are correct options
(2) Absorbs moisture (4) (A),(D) are correct options
(3) Absorbs CO2 78. The stability order of oxide, peroxide and
superoxide of alkalimetal is
(4) Produces ozone
(1) Normal oxide > super oxide > per oxide
75. The blue colour of the solution (metal dissolved
in liquid ammonia) is due to : (2) Normal oxide > per oxide > super oxide
(1) free electrons (3) super oxide > per oxide > normal oxide
(2) paramagnetic nature of solution (4) per oxide > normal oxide > super oxide
(3) ammoniated electrons 79. Correct IUPAC nomenclature of Brown ring
complex is :
(4) liberation of hydrogen from solution on standing
(1) Pentaaquanitrosonium iron (II) sulphate
76. Match the complexes given in Column -I with
their use/importance given in Column-II and (2) Pentaaquanitronium iron (II) sulphate
assign the correct code :
(3) Pentaaquanitrosonium iron (I) sulphate
Column - I Column - II
(4) Pentaaquanitrosonium iron (I) sulphato
(i) Hydrogenation
(a) Cis − [ P tCl2 (NH3 )2 ]
of Alkenes 80. [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2
(b) [ (P P h3 )3 RhCl] (ii) Lead poisoning [Pt(NH3)4Cl Br]BrCl
−3
(c) [ Ag(S2 O3 )2 ] (iii) Anticancer Agent [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2
(d) [Ca (EDT A)]−2 (iv) Photography Shows:
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) & d(iv) (1) Hydrate isomerism
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) & d(iv) (2) Linkage isomerism
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv) & d(ii) (3) Ligand isomerism
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i) & d(iii) (4) Ionisation isomerism
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81. Which of the following is not a organo-metallic 87. Assertion (A) : It is not possible to obtain pure
compound. ethanol by fractional distillation.
Reason (R) : A solution containing 95% by volume
(1) RMgX of ethanol forms an azeotrope composition.
(2) Ti(OC6H5)4 (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Ti(CH3) (OC6H5)3 explanation of A.
(4) [Ni(CO)4] (2) A is true but R is false
82. Which of the following conversion is favorable (3) A is false but R is true
in aqueous medium. (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
(1) Cu → Cu+2 correct explanation of A.
(2) Mn+2 → Mn 88. If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant
(KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10 – 4, 7.8 × 10 – 4 and
(3) V+2 → V 6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the
(4) Ni → Ni+2 following gas has maximum solubility at same
partial pressure ?
83. Correct order of oxidising nature is :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) CrO3 < MoO3 < WO3
89. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
(2) CrO3 > MoO3 > WO3 the highest boiling point ?
(3) CrO3 > WO3 > MoO3 (1) 0.1 M KNO3 (2) 0.1 M Na3PO4
(4) CrO3 < WO3 < MoO3 (3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M K2SO4
84. Chromyl chloride test given by :- 90. The probability density plots of 1s and 2s orbitals
(1) AsCl3 (2) AgCl are given in Figure :
(3) KCl (4) PbCl2
85. Product formed when acidified K2Cr2O7 react
with H2O2 solution.
(1) CrO3 (2) CrO The density of dots in a region represents the
probability density of finding electrons in the
(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) CrO5 region. On the basis of above diagram which of
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 1s and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
86. In an electrochemical cell, during cell reaction,
(2) The probability of finding the electron is
2 moles of Zn metal reacts with 2 moles of
maximum near the nucleus.
Cu+2 ions to form 2 moles of Zn+2 ions and 2 moles
of Cu metal. Find out correct expression for Δ G of (3) The probability of finding the electron at a
reaction. given distance is equal in all directions.
(1) – 2F Ecell (2) – 4F Ecell (4) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital
decreases uniformly as distance from the nucleus
(3) – 3F Ecell (4) +2F Ecell increases.
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91. The correct order of wavelength of Hydrogen 97. Match the column :-
(1H1), Deuterium (1H2) and Tritium (1H3) (a) [NiCl4]2 – (i) Paramagnetic
moving with same kinetic energy is (b) [Ni(CO)4] (ii) Diamagnetic
(1) λ H > λ D > λ T (2) λ H = λ D = λ T (c) [Co(C2O4)3]3 – (iii) Tetrahedral
(3) λ H < λ D < λ T (4) λ H < λ D > λ T (d) [Fe(CN)6]3 – (iv) Octahedral
92. The circumference of the 2nd orbit of an atom or (v) Square planer
ion having single electron is 4nm. The de-Broglie
(1) a - (i),(iii) b - (ii),(v) c - (i),(iv) d - (ii),(v)
wavelength of electron (in nm) revolving in this
orbit is (2) a - (i),(iii) b - (ii),(iii) c - (ii),(iv) d - (i),(iv)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) a - (ii),(iii) b - (ii),(iii) c - (i),(iv) d - (ii),(iv)
93. If the ionisation potential of an atom (single e – ) (4) a - (ii),(iii) b - (ii),(v) c - (ii),(iv) d - (i),(iv)
is 20 V. It's first excitation potential will be 98. Match the following and choose correct option
(1) 5V (2) 10 V (3) 15 V (4) 20 V Complex e – configuration
94. The number of photons of light, having wave (P) [CoCl6]3 – (a) t52g eg0
no. 'x' in 10 J of energy is (Q) [Co(OX)3]3 – (b) t62g eg0
hc 10
(1) 10 hcx (2) (3) (4) None (R) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (c) t52g eg2
10x hcx
95. Assertion (A) :- Fe+3 not used in brown ring test (S) [Fe(CN)6]3 – (d) t42g eg2
–1 P Q R S
of NO3 .
Reason (R) :- NO3 – is first converted into NO2. (1) b a c d
(2) d a b c
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) d b c a
the correct explanation of (A)
(4) d a c b
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 99. Which of the following shows geometrical
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct isomerism ?
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the (1) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]
correct explanation of (A) (2) K[PtCl3( η 2 – C2H5)]
96. Assertion (A) : [Ni(CN)4] – 2 complex has dsp2
(3) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl]
hybridisation.
Reason (R) : CN – is strong field ligand so pairing (4) [Pd(gly) (Py)Cl]
of e – occur. 100. Number of geometrical, optical and stereo
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is isomers shown by complex
NOT the correct explanation of (A). K3[Co(OX)3] respectively are :
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) 2, 2, 2

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (2) 0, 1, 2

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) 0, 2, 2
correct explanation of (A) (4) 1, 2, 2
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Topic : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE, NERVOUS SYSTEM, MOLECULAR BASIS OF

INHERITANCE [BACK UNIT] : ANIMAL DIVERSITY

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 105. Identify the correct match from the columns I, II
and III :-
101. Which of the following is incorrect match of its Column-I Column-II Column-III
phylum, coelom, notochord, segmentation ? Offence and
1 Protozoa a Choanocyte i
Phylum Coelom Segmentation Notochord defence
(1) Platyhelminthes Coelomate Absent Absent Developed the
(2) Annelida Coelomate Present Absent 2 Porifera b Bi-nucleated ii
water current
(3) Aschelminthes Pseudocoelomate Absent Absent
Comb Help in
(4) Chordate Coelomate Present Present 3 Coelenterata c iii
plates Locomotion
102. Which one of the following is not the basis of Somatic and
animal classification 4 Ctenophora d Nematocyte iv reproductive
function
(1) Arrangement of cell & body symmetry.
(2) Nature of coelom & patterns of digestive system (1) 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 1-d-i, 4-a-ii

(3) Circulatory system & reproductive system (2) 1-b-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-c-i

(4) Nervous system & endocrine system (3) 1-b-iv, 2-a-ii, 3-d-i, 4-c-iii

103. Fill in the blank :- (4) 1-b-iv, 2-a-i, 3-d-ii, 4-c-iii

Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called__A__ 106. Find out the correct match from the following
and __B__. The former is __C__ and cylindrical table :-
whereas the latter is __D__ and free-swimming. Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) A-Polyp, C-umbrella-shaped i Pinctada Pearl oyster Mollusca
(2) A-Polyp, D-sessile ii Chaetopleura Chiton Annelida
(3) B-Polyp, C-umbrella shaped iii Pila Tusk shell Mollusca
(4) B-Medusa, D-sessile (1) Only i (2) i and ii
104. Identify the correct match from column I, II & III. (3) iii only (4) ii and iii
Column-I Column-II Column-III
107. Match the column :-
(1) Taenia solium (a) Asymmetrical (i) Dimorphic
(a) Dentalium (i) Brittle star
(2) Sponge (b) Bilateral
(ii) Exclusively (b) Ophiura (ii) Cuttle fish
marine habitat (c) Antedon (iii) Sea Urchin
(iii) Body have (d) Echinus (iv) Tusk shell
(3) Obelia (c) Radial
different proglottids (e) Sepia (v) Sea lily
(4) Pleurobrachia (d) Biradial (iv) Canal system (1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii), e-(iii)
(1) 4-c-ii, 3-d-i, 2-a-iv, 1-b-iii (2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(v), d-(iii), e-(ii)
(2) 3-c-iii, 2-a-ii, 1-b-i, 4-d-iv
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(v), d-(iii), e-(ii)
(3) 1-b-iii, 2-a-iv, 3-c-i, 4-d-ii
(4) 2-a-iv, 1-b-iii, 4-c-i, 3-d-ii (4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(v), e-(ii)
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108. Match column I with column II and select the 113. Select from the following the total number of
correct option. organism that show indirect development .
Column I Column II Sycon, Salpa, Dentalium, Doliolum, Ascidia, Aurelia
(i) Limulus W. Respiratory tree (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 5
(ii) Locusta X. Blood fluke 114. The body of Rohu fish is covered by
(iii) Cucumaria Y. Blook gills (1) Cycloid scales but the tail is homocercal
(iv) Schistosoma Z. Gregarious Pest
(2) Placoid scales but the tail is heterocercal
(1) (i)Y, (ii) Z, (iii)W, (iv) X
(3) Cycloid scales but the tail is heterocercal
(2) (i)Z, (ii) Y, (iii)W, (iv) X
(4) Placoid scales but the tail is homocercal
(3) (i)W, (ii) Y, (iii)Z, (iv) X
115. Identify the correctly matched option:
(4) (i) Z, (ii) Y, (iii)X, (iv) W
(1) Frog - Two chambered heart
109. Given below are five matching of an animal and
its kind of excretory organ (2) Fish - Warm blooded animals
(A) Balanoglossus — Proboscis gland (3) Toad - Three chambered heart
(B) Scorpion — Coxal gland
(C) Round Worm — Flame cells (4) Hyla - Limbless amphibian
(D) Flat worm — Solenocytes
(E) Sea hare — Nephridia 116. Skin is moist without scales and three chamberd
The correct matchings are :- heart is present in
(1) A, B & E (2) C, D & E (1) Catla
(3) B, C, & D (4) A, B & D (2) Bufo
110. Which one is not a subphylum of chordata? (3) Crocodius
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata (4) Rattus
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata 117. Which one of the following statement is not
111. Which is not a character of chordate animal ? correct with reference to Psittacula :-

(1) Dorsal heart (2) Dorsal Nerve cord (1) Presence of scales on hind limbs

(3) Post anal tail (4) Notochord (2) Able to maintain constant body temperature

112. Identify (A), (B) and (C) respectively : (3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified and the long
bones are hollow with fluid cavities
(4) Fore limbs are modified into wings
118. Which of the following is the correct match of
animal with its common name ?
(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Gill slit (1) Canis - Cat
(2) Notochord, Nerve cord, Post anal part (2) Felis - Flying fox
(3) Nerve cord, Notochord, Post anal part (3) Macropus - Kangaroo
(4) Nerve cord, Notochord, Gill slits (4) Pteropus - Platypus
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119. Identify the given animal. Choose its 122. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
characteristic feature with its name : matching.

(1) Chameleon → Crawling movement

(2) Macropus → presence of mammary glands
(3) Salamandra → presence of hairs
(4) Ornithorhynchus → presence of mammary
glands (1) a-axons, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,
d-dendrites, e-Node of Ranvier,
120. Which of the following animal is not viviparous ? f-Schwan cell
(1) Whale (2) a-dendrites, b-axon, c-Schwan cell,
(2) Flying fox (bat) d-cell body, e-myelin sheath,
(3) Elephant f-Node of Ranvier

(4) Platypus (3) a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwan cell,

d-axon, e-myelin sheath,
121. Read the following sentences and give the f-Node of Ranvier
answer
(4) a-synaptic knobs, b-cell body,
(A) Short fibres which branch repeatedly and
c-myelin sheath, d-axon,
project out of cell body called dendrites.
e-Schwan cell, f-Node of Ranvier
(B) Neural system provides an organised
network of point to point connections for a quick 123. Identify the skeletal structure of following chemical
coordinations. and find only correct statement about it –
(C) The dendrites transmit nerve impulses away
from the cell body to a synapse.
(D) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are not enclosed
by a schwan cell in PNS.
(1) A and C are correct where B and D are (a) These chemicals interacts with receptors present
incorrect principally in gasterointestinal tract.
(2) B and C are correct where A and D are (b) These are known for their effects on
incorrect cardiovascular system.
(c) These drugs generally taken by inhalation and
(3) A and B are correct where C and D are oral ingestion.
incorrect
(1) a only (2) a and b
(4) B and D are correct where A and C are
incorrect (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
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124. Which is correctly matched ? 128. Transmission of an impulse across ___A___
synapse is very similar to impulse conduction
along a single ___B___ .
Choose the correct options for A and B
A B
(1) Chemical Axon
(2) Electrical Cyton
Post-synaptic Action (3) Chemical Cyton
(1) A
membrane potential
(4) Electrical Axon
Post-synaptic Possess
(2) B 129. Which one of the following represents the correct
membrane receptors
sequence of meningies from inner to outer layers :-
Stores
(3) C Mitochondria (1) Duramater → Arachnoid → Piamater
neuro-transmitter
Binds to receptor (2) Piamater → Duramater → Arachnoid
Neuro-
(4) D on pre-synaptic (3) Duramater → Piamater → Arachnoid
transmitter
membrane
(4) Piamater → Arachnoid → Duramater
125. Which of the nervous system transmit impulse from
130. In resting stage axonal membrane is comparatively
CNS to involuntary organs & smooth muscle ?
more permeable to :-
(1) Sympathetic nervous system
(1) Potassium ions (2) Sodium ions
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system
(3) Chloride ions (4) Phosphate ions
(3) Autonomic nervous system
131. Which of the following contains a number of
(4) Somatic nervous system centres which control body temperature urge for
126. Medulla controls :- eating and drinking ?
(1) Respiration (1) Thalamus (2) Medulla oblongata
(2) Gastric secretions (3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum

(3) Cardiovascular reflexes 132. The nervous system is derived from :-

(4) All of the above (1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm

127. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse (3) Mesoderm (4) Ecto and Endoderm
the axonal membrane is comparatively more 133. The ‘association areas’ of cerebral cortex are
permeable to __(A)__ and nearly impermeable to responsible for complex functions like :
__(B)__ :-
(A) (B) (1) Memory
⊕ ⊕
(1) Na ions K ions (2) Communication
(2) K ⊕ ions Na ⊕ ions
(3) Intersensory associations
(3) ions Na ⊕ ions
(4) 2 & 3 both (4) All of the above
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134. Which of the following structures are correctly paired? 140. Identify false statement(s) :-
(A) Annelids are most abundant group with
(1) Forebrain and medulla oblongata calcareous covering
(B) Aschelminthes includes parasitic as well as
(2) Midbrain and cerebrum non parasitic roundworms
(C) Ctenophores are sessile & bear cnidoblast
(3) Brain stem and anterior pituitary gland (D) Ascaris is a flatworm
(4) Hindbrain and cerebellum (1) B, D, C (2) A, B, D (3) B, D (4) A, C, D
135. The dorsal portion of the midbrain mainly 141. Assertion (A): Aschelminths and Annelids
consists of four round swellings (lobes) called : possess bilateral symmetry.
Reason (R): Both Aschelminths and Annelids are
(1) Corpora quadrigemina coelomates
(2) Corpus callosum (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) Cerebral aqueduct correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) Limbic lobe correct explanation of (A).
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I ) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
136. Mesoglea can be observed in :- 142. Complete the analogy Malpighian tubules:
(1) Pleurobrachia (2) Apis Excretion: Radula:________
(3) Unio (4) Trichinella (1) Defence (2) Feeding
137. Which of the following is correct :- (3) Locomotion (4) Chemosensory
(1) Porifera – Sycon – Water Vascular System 143. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates
are not vertebrates. Why ?
(2) Adamsia – Medusa
(1) All chordates have vertebral column
(3) Pleurobrachia – 8 ciliated comb plates
(2) Nerve cord remains throughout life in some
(4) Aurelia-Polyp chordates.
138. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach (3) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in
and Silver fish ? adult of some chordates.
(4) All chordates posses notochord throughout
(1) They all belong to the same phylum their life.
(2) They all have paired jointed appendages 144. A marine cartilaginous fish that has poisonous sting is :-
(3) They all possess dorsal heart (1) Pristis (2) Torpedo
(4) None of them is aquatic (3) Trygon (4) Scoliodon
139. Phylum Annelida resembles Mollusca in :- 145. The most advanced character of crocodile and
(1) Level of organisation Gavialis is :-
(2) Metameric segmentation (1) Shelled egg
(2) Polyphyodont dentition
(3) Open type circulation (3) Four chambered heart
(4) Calcareous shell (4) Powerful jaws and large body size.
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146. Read the following statements and find out the 148. The figure given below shows mode of action of AIDS
incorrect statement :- virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E labelled in it.
a. A synapse is formed by the membranes of a
presynaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron,
which may be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft
b. At electrical synapses, the membranes of a pre-
and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity
c. Electrical current can flow directly from one
neuron into the other across chemical synapses.
d. Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is
always faster than that across a electric synapse
e. Electrical synapses are rare in our system (1) A-New viral DNA introduced into cell, B-Viral
RNA produced, C-Viral DNA incorporated
(1) a and b (2) b and c into host genome, D-New viral DNA, E-New
(3) c and d (4) d and e viruses produced
(2) A-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome,
147. Given below is a diagram showing sagital B-Viral DNA, C-New viral RNA introduced,
section of the human brain, select the option with D-Viral RNA produced, E-New viruses produced
the structures labelled as A, B, C and D with (3) A-Viral RNA introduced, B-Viral DNA,
their correct functions : - C-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome,
D-New viral RNA produced, E-New viruses
produced
(4) A-Viral DNA introduced, B-Viral RNA, C-Viral
RNA incorporated into host genome, D-New
viral DNA produced, E-New viruses produced
149. Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are
maintained by the active transport of ions by Na – K
pump which transport ____A____ ions outward for
(1) A-Controls the voluntary movements and ____B____ into cell. A and B respectively.
also the site for processing of smell, (1) A → 2K+, B → 3Na+
hearing, vision, speech, thoughts, emotion, (2) A → 2Na+, B → 3K+
biological clock, intelligence and memory (3) A → 3Na+, B → 2K+
B-Connects fore brain to hind brain for
CSF circulation (4) A → 3K+, B → 3Na+
(2) B-blockage could cause hydro cephalus 150. Which of the following statement is false –
C-Acts as major coordinating centre for (1) Neurons can detect, receive and transmit
sensory and motor signalling different kinds of stimuli
(3) C-Centre for regulation of body temperature, (2) The fluid outside the axon contains a high
thirst, hunger and emotional behaviour concentration of K+ and a low concentration of Na+
D-Controls body posture and body balance. (3) Active transport of ions is done by Na+ – K+
(4) A-Left one is prominent in a right handed person pump which transports 3Na+ outwards and 2K+
D-Control centre for respiration, cardiovascular into the cell.
reflex and gastric secretion (4) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal
and cranial nerves.
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Topic : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE, NERVOUS SYSTEM, MOLECULAR BASIS OF

INHERITANCE [BACK UNIT] : ANIMAL DIVERSITY

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 157. Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : Dependence is the tendency of the
151. Myelin sheath is produced by body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs is
(2) Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts abruptly discontinued.
(3) Osteoclasts and astrocytes Statement-II : Withdrawal syndrome is manifested
(4) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes in the form of reckless behaviour, vandalism and
152. Select the incorrect statement regarding hindbrain. violence.
(1) Pons consists of fibre tract that interconnect (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
different regions of brain. (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Medulla is connected to spinal cord.
(4) Pons contains centre for gastric secretions. (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
153. Synapse, a junction present between two successive 158. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
neurons, includes Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane Assertion (A) : Subsequent encounter with the same
(2) Post-synaptic membrane pathogen elicit a highly intervified anamnestic response.
(3) Synaptic cleft Reason (R) : This is the fact that our body appears to
(4) All of the these have memory of the first encounter.
154. Excitement, pleasure, rage, fear & motivation are Choose the most appropriate answer?
combined function of :- (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampus correct explanation of (A).
(3) Limbic lobe (4) None (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
correct explanation of (A).
155. Which part of brain acts as relay centre ?
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) Epithalamus (2) Hypothalmus
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Thalamus (4) Pons
159. α - Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked
156. Which of the following is correct statement? genes ?
(1) Passive immunity is slow and takes time to (1) HBA1 and HBB2 (2) HBA2 and HBB
give its full effective response.
(3) HBA1 and HBA2 (4) HBA1 and HBB
(2) Osteoarthritis which affects many people in
our society is an autoimmune disease. 160. Pneumonia is not caused by ?
(3) After maturation the lymphocytes migrate (1) Haemophilus influenzae
to primary lymphoid organs. (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(4) The exaggerated response of the immune
system to certain antigens present in the (3) Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS patients
environment is called allergy. (4) Salmonella typhi
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161. Which of the following substances are not 168. Which of the following acts as physiological barrier ?
misused by certain sportsperson to enhance their (1) Natural killer cells
performance ? (2) Interferons
(3) Tears from eyes
(1) Anabolic steroids (2) Narcotic analgesics
(4) Mucus coating of the epithelial lining
(3) Diuretics (4) Calcium of urogenital tracts
162. The exaggerated response of the immune system 169. Thalassemia is an autosome recessive blood
to certain antigens present in the environment disease due to-
could not be treated by ?
(1) Frame shift mutation
(1) Adrenaline (2) Steroids (2) Aneuploidy
(3) (1) and (2) both (4) Histamin (3) Substitution
(4) Chromosomal aberration
163. Secretions of the body like saliva tears, sebum
contains _________ which destroy microbes- 170. In malaria disease the rupture of RBCs is associated
with release of a toxic substance is called ?
(1) Natural killer cell (2) Interferon
(1) Sporozoites (2) Haemoglobin
(3) Neutrophils (4) Lysozyme
(3) Haemozoin (4) Lutein
164. Which of the following drugs are obtained from
same source ? 171. Which disease is spread by mosquito but does
not occurs due to virus ?
(1) Opium and Ganja
(1) Dengue fever (2) Chikungunya
(2) Morphine and Bhang
(3) Black urine disease (4) Filariasis
(3) Cocaine and Hashish
172. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease-
(4) Hashish and Marijuana
(1) Severe combined immuno deficiency (SCID)
165. Which type of antibody the foetus receive from their
mother, through the placenta during pregnancy ? (2) AIDS

(1) Ig A (2) Ig M (3) Ig G (4) Ig E (3) Allergy

166. Which organ provide the site for intreraction of (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
lymphocytes with the antigen ? 173. The PH of vagina is acidic due to presence of
(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus lactic acid which prevent microbial growth, it is
the example of _____?
(3) Peyer's patches (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier
167. Which are essential before undertaking any graft
or transplant ? (3) Cytokine barrier (4) Cellular barrier

(1) Tissue matching 174. Malignant malaria is caused by-

(1) Oncogene
(2) Blood group matching
(2) Proto oncogene
(3) Species matching (3) Plasmodium malaria
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Plasmodium falciparum
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175. MALT constitutes about ________ of lymphoid 181. Total amount of 'A and T' in DNA is 45%.
tissue in human body- Amount of guanine will be ?
(1) 5 % (2) 15 % (3) 50 % (4) 85 % (1) 22.5% (2) 27.5% (3) 45% (4) 55%
176. The symptoms like internal bleeding, muscular 182. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
pain, fever, anemia and blockage of intestinal bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
passage are of which disease ? the category mentioned against it ?
(1) Ascariasis (2) Elephantiasis (1) Guanine, Adenine – Purines
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Pneumonia (2) Adenine, Thymine – Purines
177. Which one is the confirmatory test for typhoid ? (3) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
(1) Western blot test (2) ELISA (4) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
(3) Widal test (4) X-Ray 183. Chargaff's rules state that :-
178. Gametocytes of plasmodium are formed in ? G
(1) Salivary gland of mosquito (1) In RNA, A = T (2) =1
A
(2) Mosquito gut A+T A+G
(3) =1 (4) =1
(3) Human Liver G+C T +C
(4) Human RBC 184. Histone proteins are rich in :-
179. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid
option which is true for them -
(2) Lysine and arginine
Statement-I : Two nucleotides are linked through
phosphodiester linked to form a dinucleotide. (3) glutamic and valine
Statement-II : In RNA 5 methyl uracil is found at (4) Lysine and valine
place of uracil.
185. Choose correct one :-
(1) Only Statement I is correct.
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both the Statements are correct
(4) Both the Statements are incorrect
180. Match the following columns :-
Column-I Column-II
ϕ × 174 48502
a i
bacteriophage base pair (1) a-DNA, b-H1-histone, c-histone octamer,
b Human (haploid) ii 5386 nucleotides d-core of histone
3.3× 109 (2) a-core of histone, b-DNA, c-H1 histone,
c E.Coli iii
base pair d-histone octamer
4.6 × 106 (3) a-Histone octamer, b-core of histone, c-DNA,
d λ -phage iv
base pair d-H1 histone
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-H1 histone, b-histone octamer, c-core of
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv histone, d-DNA
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SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II ) 189. Match these columns-
Column-I Column-II
186. The Schwann sheath is :-
Acid in stomach Cellular
(1) A non myelinated nerve fibres (A) (i)
and Tears from eye. immunity
(2) Associated with myelin sheath (B) Antibody (ii) Physical barrier
(3) A connective tissue cell Humoral
(C) T-lymphocyte (iii)
(4) Associated with myelinated & non myelinated immunity
nerve fibre Physiological
(D) Mucous coating (iv)
187. barrier
(1) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
Which of the following statement is false for the 190. Given below are two statements-
reflex action shown in the given figure :- Statement-I : Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic
(1) Response towards stimulus bacterium which causes thyroid disorder.
Statement-II : Bacteria like Haemophilus influenzae
(2) Poly synaptic reflex
is responsible for the disease pneumonia.
(3) Monosynaptic reflex
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Example of stretch reflex
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
188. Read the following statements-
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(A) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cell incorrect.
and protect non infected cell from further viral (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
infection.
191. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
(B) Greeks like Hippocrates disproved the good Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
humor hypothesis of health. Assertion (A) : AIDS is caused by the HIV.
(C) Humoral immune response is responsible for Reason (R) : HIV is a member of a group of viruses
graft rejection. called retrovirus.
(D) Antibody is represented as H2 L2. Choose the most appropriate answer ?
How many statements are correct ? (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(1) One
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2) Two correct explanation of (A).
(3) Three (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Four (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
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192. Given below are pairs of pathogens, diseases and 197. Which of the following disease is not infectious ?
causative agent category. Which of these is (1) Typhoid
incorrectly matched ?
Causative (2) Pneumonia
Disease Pathogen
agent (3) Asthma
(1) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria (4) Amoebiasis
(2) Filariasis Microsporum Virus 198. Assertion (A) : In DNA two polynucleotide
Ascaris Round chains are complementary to each other.
(3) Ascariasis
Lumbricoides Worm Reason (R) : If one stand of DNA is known then
Common the sequence in other stand can be predicted.
(4) Rhinovirus Virus
clod (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
193. If a female individual is with small round head, Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
palm with characteristic palm crease. Also the is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
physical, psychomotor and mental development (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
is retarded. It is the-
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Patau's syndrome
199. The salient feature of DNA are –
(3) Cat cry syndrome (4) Edward's syndrome
(i) It is made up of two polynucleotide chain
194. Which type of antibody the foetus receive from (ii) Back bone is constituted by sugar and nitrogen
their(mother through the placenta during pregnancy ?
base
(1) Immunoglobulin - A (iii) Two chain have parallel polarity
(2) Immunoglobulin - G (iv) Bases in two strands are paired through H-bonds
(3) (1) and (2) both (v) The two chain are coiled only in a left handed
fashion
(4) Immunoglobulin - M
(1) i, iv, v (2) i, iv
195. Kapil is suffering from appearance of dry scaly
lesions with intense itching on various parts of (3) i, ii, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
the body such of skin, nails and scalp, these 200. The molecule represented is ?
symptoms are of ?
(1) Filariasis (2) Amoebiasis
(3) Ring worm (4) Ascariasis
196. Pneumonia is caused by ?
(1) Streptococcus pheumoniae (1) Uridine and it is a purine
(2) Salmonella typhi (2) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside

(3) Haemophilus influenzae (3) Uridine and it is a nucleoside

(4) (1) and (3) both (4) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

TOPICS TO BE COVERED IN NEXT ASSIGNMENT

DATE : 22-10-2023
(Session : 2023 - 2024)
ACHIEVER COURSE : MAZV

P KINEMATICS & UNIT DIMENSION AND ERROR

C SOLUTION

B PLANT DIVERSITY

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