Objective Type Questions

Q1 First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world

(a)
(b) 1931
(c)
(

Q2
BCAS came into existence in the year of
(a)
(b)
(c) 1987
(d)

Q3.
BCAS came into existence after the recommendation of
(a)B N Kirpal Singh committee
(b)

Q4.
Deployment of CISF is a result of
a) IC814 hijack
c)

Q5.
Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of
a) IC814 hijack
b)

Q6
Ramamrithan committee formed at
a) 1979
C) 1981
b)1980
d)1982

Q7
When was CISF inducted at airports?
a) 3 Feb'2000

Q8
Q9
To provide Training on aviation security is the responsibility of ?
a)
d) AAI
Appropriate authority on Safety in India?
a) ICAO
b) Commander of concerned airports
C) BCAS
d) DGCA

Q10 Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking.

a)
c) PEC
d)

Q11 In which year the first convention formed?

a) 1937
b) 1944
c) 1947
d) 1934

Q12 How many conventions are there ?

a)
b) 5
c)

Q13 Which one is the Standard Practice?

a) PEC
b)

Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice?

a)
b) SLPC
c)

Q15.
The explosion at Czhennai airport took place in the year
a) 2 Aug 1984
b)

Q16 Allocation of bays is the duties of?

a) Apron control
c)

Q17 Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"?

a)
d) pilferage
Q18 A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is
a) Pier
b)

Q19 The large no. of aircraft hijacking took place in the year.
a)
d) 1969, Cuba
.at.
7
Q20
The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which
access is controlled
a)
C) Security hold area
d)
Q21 How many hijackings reported yet in India
a)
b) 13

Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of

1976

Q23 Aircraft Rule was framed in India in the year of

a)
b)
1937

Q24. Which airline was connected in Kanishka incident

a) Air India
b)

Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident

b) Kandhar incident

Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident

a) Demolition of twin tower

Q27. An area used for landing/takeoff the aircraft is

a) Runway

Q28 An area used for taxing the aircraft is

a)
b) Taxiway
Q29 The Definition of Hijacking is defined in
a) Article 3 of hijacking act 1982

Q30 The duties of Pilot in command is defined in

c) Rule 141

Q31 The term Aircraft in Service is defined in

c) Montreal Convention

Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to

c) Hague Convention

Q33 The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for secur
of aircraft operation.
b) Section 5A

Q34 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.
b) Rule 8A

Q35 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes
b) Rule 90

Q36 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command
c) Rule 141

Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in

b) Rule 90 of aircraft rule 1937

Q38. CASO stands for

a) Chief Airport Security Officer

Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of

a) 1963

Q40. Haque convention was held in the year of

b) 1970

Q41 Montreal convention was held in the year of

C) 1971

Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of

C) 1988

Q43 Tokyo convention related with

b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft

Q44. Hague convention related with

c) Define what is hijacking

Q45. Montreal convention related with

d) Suppression of unlawful act against safety of civil aviation

Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes

under which aircraft Rule.
c) 19

Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule
a) 24

Q48.
Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule
a) 24A

Q49. Entry into public aerodrome

b) 90

Q50. COSCA stands for:

a) Commissioner Of Security Civil Aviation

Q51. ASG stands for:

b) Aviation Security Group

Q52 ICAO came into existence in which of the following year:

c) 1944

Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft
a) PAPI

Q54 PTI in aviation security stands for

a) Positive Target Identification

Q55. PETN stands for :

a) Penta Erithrotol Tetra Nitrate

Q56. A status of alert, put in place by

to activate an intervention plan intended
to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous or
otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an
aircraft, at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.
a) Competent authorities

Q57
B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident:
a) Second hijacking in India

Q58 DCAS in India was formed in

b) 1978

Q59
Air India aircraft Kanishka was sabotaged in the year:
a) 1985

Q60
Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list
a) Ramamitran committee

Q61
Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates
a) 22.03.1974

Q62 Anti hijacking Act 1982 was amended in the year

c) 1992

Q63 Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India
a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975
b) Anti - Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994
c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994
d) All the above

Q64 Which Annexure contains the SARP on Aviation Security

C) Annexure 17

Q65 Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP
c) COSCA

Q66 Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft
a) Tokyo Convention

Q67 Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft

c) The Hague Convention
Q68
Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil
d) Montreal Protocol

Q69 Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service

a) Montreal Convention

Q70 "Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and maintenance of

NCASP" comes under the subject head of which of the following
b) standard Practice

Q71 What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO
a) For the Purpose of Detection

Q72 Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an
Offence.
c) The Hague Convention

Q73 Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight
b) Tokyo Convention

Q74
Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for
a) Development of NCASP
b) Implementation of NCASP
c) Maintenance of NCASP
d) All the above

Q75
In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on
Civil Aviation security matters in India
a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934

Q76 Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

c) Security and Safety of unclaimed baggage

Q77 Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Penalty for failure to comply with Direction issued under Section 5 A

Q78 Rule 8 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

c) Carriage of Arms, Explosives & Dangerous Goods

Q79 Rule 24 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft

Q80 Rule 24 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Provision for Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder

Q81 Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 193
d) Rule 24 C

Q82 Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

b) Passenger service fees

Q83 Rule 78 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

c) Aerodrome manual

Q84 Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule of
Aircraft Rules 1937
c) Rule 91

Q85 Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937

a) Rule 156

Q86 Terminal building comes under

a) Landside
b) Airside
c) Operational area
d) Both (a) & (b).

Q87 Annexure 17 deals with

b) Aviation security

Q88 NCASQCP deals with

a) Civil aviation security

Q89 First recorded hijacking took place at

b) Peru

Q90. Aircraft act come into

c) 1934

Q91 Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year.

d) 1937

Q92 Which section of Aircraft Act empowers DGCA to frame rule.

b) Sec - 5(a)

Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft
Act 1934
c) Sec -8(C)
Q94 Provision of carriage of prohibited items is described in which rule.
b) Rule - 8a

Q95 In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage PG personnel.
b) 60 rounds

Q96. Entry into domestic airdrome is mentioned in which aircraft rule

b) Rule- 81

Q97 Guarding of deportee /inadmissible pax at refusal room is responsibility of

a) ASG

Q98. Provision of carriage of bird & reptiles into aircraft is given in

d) Rule - 24c

Q99. Provision of carriage of prisoner in the aircraft is mentioned in

c) Rule 24 (B)

Q100 Airport is mainly divided into-

c) Landside and airside

Q101 Airport include

a) Movement area b) Maneuvering area c) None of the above d)Both (a) & (b)

Q102 What is movement area

a) Runway
b) Taxiway
C) Apron
d) All of the above

Q103. What is maneuvering area

a) Runway
b) Taxiway
C) Apron
d) Both (a) & (b)

Q104 BMA is located in which part of the airport

b) Airside

Q105 Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviat
against acts of unlawful interference is
(a) Security

Q106 Categorizing pax into threathing & non-threating category by way of systematic observation
(c) Profiling
Q107 When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is
(a)
Gate no show pax

Q108. Hijacking is -
(b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight

Q109 In an airport, Apron area is within

(b) Airside

Q110 The area of an airport and building to which both traveling pax and the non-traveling public
have unrestricted access is known as .......
(d) Landside

Q111 The main aim of aviation security is

(a) Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference

Q112 First Hijacking in India took place?

a) 30th January 1971

Q113 Which step is not taken after Kandhar Hijacking

Security of BMA

Q114 Which is not Emerging threat to civil aviation

c) Hijacking
d) Biological and chemical war

Q115 What are the major threats to civil aviation

a) Hijacking
Sabotage at airport
c) Sabotage at air navigation facilities
d) All of the above

Q116 How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure - 17, at present ?
a. 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices
90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices
c. 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices
d. 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices

Q117 Head Quarters of ICAO is located at

Montreal, Canada

Q118 The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?
a)1982

Q119 Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under
this Act.
a)Section 5
Q120 Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the
and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions
c) Airport

Q121 Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule of
Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 24 C

Q122 Who is the president of ICAO

c) Mr Roberto Kobeh González

Q123 According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ?
c) Tokyo convention 1963

Q124 Baggage Reconciliation is the duty of ?

d) Airlines

Q125 What is the color of the sticker for cooling off cargo?
a) Red

Q126 What is the color of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?
d) green

Q127 Security of Cargo is related to?

b) Airlines & Regulated agent

Q128 AEP are issued by ........

a) BCAS

Q129 SLPC is practice ?

a) Recommended practice

Q130 Apron guarding is a duty of .

a) ASG

Q131 Guarding is being done for .......

a) Psychological deterrent
c) physical deterrent
b) is to protect the vulnerable points
d) all

Q132 Which one is not the aim of terrorists?.

d) to pose as a VIP at airport
Q133 Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.
b) AIRLINE

Q134. What was the main result of Chicago Convention?

a) Formation of ICAO

Q135 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
C) BCAS & DGCA

Q136 Vehicle should be searched for

c) Prohibited items

Q137 Explain BIPPS

b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system

Q138 What do you mean by STP

b) Standardise training package

Q139. IGI Airport falls under which category?

c) Hypersensitive

Q140 Which is not the duty of Airline Security?

a) Hand baggage screening

Q141 Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication facility

Q142 Which is not a duty of BCAS?

c) Guiding

Q143 J & K Airport falls under which category?

c) Hypersensitive

Q144 Operational control on ASG is the duty of.

a) Airport operator

Q145 Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG

Q146 Hijacking mock drill is done by........

a) QRT

Q147 The duty of QRT is?

a) To avoid the take off of hijacked flight
c) Quick response at the time of crisis
b) To prevent intrusion
d) All the above
Q148 The transponder code for Hijacking?
a) 7500

Q149 Airport entry permit does not contain ?

d) Permanent address

Q150 Who give 3 degree angle for landing of flight?

c) Glide path

Q151 Which color ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?
a) Red
b) Green
c) Blue
d) None of these

Q152 What do you mean by APSU

a) Airport Security Unit

Q153 Head of ASG at a particular Airport?

a) CASO

Q154 While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action?
a) Asking technical question

Q155 Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is?
c) Gate no show

Q156 Aircraft security is concerned with?

d) Airline security

Q157 To cross the runway at non-operational time?

a) Require permission from ATC

Q158 CTX stands for?

c) Computerized tomography X-Ray

Q159 What do you mean by BCAS

c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security

Q160 Which color pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) orange & orange C
Q161 Which rule belongs to power of pre-embarkation check.b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937

Q162 Blue color pass holder can enter in ?

a) All area except SHA

Q163 The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called
d) Unaccompanied baggage

Q164 When you should man access control points

c) Manned at all times

Q165 Access Control point should contain?

a) Barrier and Gates

Q166 Every vehicle, which is running in operational area

a) Need to have light or flag

Q167 To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP

Q168 How many gates are required for better access control?
a) As less as possible

Q169 What is common at every duty post?

c) Standing order

Q170 Mock exercises are done for?

a) Check the preparedness for contingency

Q171 The airport are categorized as per their sensitivity

a) Normal
b) Sensitive
c) Hyper Sensitive
d) All of the above

Q172 What are the features are to be checked in PIC

b) Tally the Photograph

Q173 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

a)Access Gates

0174
d)All of the above

Q175 Security of unattended aircraft is the responsibility of

c) Airline operator

Q176 Airport employees are authorized to by-pass access control point.

c) They need to display PIC/Temporary pass

Q177 Access control to the airport is the responsibility of

C) APSU/ ASG

Q178 Access control to the Aircraft is the responsibility of

b) Concerned Airlines

Q179. Light green passes are issued to the

b) Courier service

Q180 Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points:
b)whenever they are on duty

Q181 Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COCA is
b)Both are same

Q182 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
b) COSCA

Q183 The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices

Q184 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing b)In carry on baggage or checked in baggage
c)None of above
d) both a & b

Q185 Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function

a) Ticketing of the passenger

Q186 Passenger profiling is

c)Observation of passenger, baggage and documents
.
Q187 The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building or portions thereof , access
to which is
is called
d) Controlled
Q188 An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for
services such as
Ariculture,construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and
escue, and aerial advertisement
(c) Specialised

Q189 A parked aircraft which is under

b) surveillance

Q190 A communicated threat,

or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true
or false that the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil
aviation facility or any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.
d) anonymous

Q191 Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated

aircraft.
a) instruments
used on board an
b) personnel

Q192 The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for

c) equipments
d) items
on a particular flight.
b) acceptance

Q193 A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an aircraft
or to follow the
of the airport staff or crew members and thereby
disturbs the good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal
property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is
called
(a) Instructions

Q194 The landside of an airport is defined as

b) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has free access.
access.

Q195 Access control points are located

)within a building, such as a terminal and on the perimeter of airport boundary

Q196 Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following
a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft
b) airport security screening staff
c) trained airline security and engineering staff.
d) Trained Crew members
Q197 Main Components of an IED are
a) weapon, explosive, dangerous article and dangerous substance
b) explosive, detonator, mechanism and battery/power source.
c) ignition, incendiary material and mechanism
d) None of above
Q198 ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk
a) Employees while entering the operational area
b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area
c) Employees while entering SHA
d) All of above
Q199 Baggage of passengers.
to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft
of another operator in the course of the passenger's journey.
a) required
b) subject
c) mentioned
d)permitted Q200 Ultimate authority for airport entry passes are
a) APSU/ASG
b) BCAS
c) DGCA d) Airport operator

Q201 On the basis of color, passes can be divided in to

a) six
b) five
c) seven
d) Eight
Q202 Color code of the PIC's indicate
a) Organization of the holder
c) Rank of the holder
b) Area of validity
d) None of these
Q203. A passenger can access to the airport from the
a) Vehicle gate of the airport
b) Entrance to the terminal
c) From any entrance to the airport
d) None of these
Q204 Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by
Parliament secretariat
a) Employees of the parliament
c) Security staff of the parliament
b) Honorable Member of parliament
d) Embassy personnel
Q205 Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of
a) Not more than a month
b) For one day
c) Not more than three days
d) For three Month
Q206 PIC's are issued by BCAS only after
)Recommendation of the airport operator
c) On individual's request
b) Background checks of the applicant
d) Recommendation of ASG
Q207. Features of an AEP' doesn't include
a) Holder's name
c) Father's name of the holder
b) Name of the organization
d) Designation of holder
Q208 As per BCAS guidelines honorable Member of Parliament
a) Can have access up to arrival and departure hall of terminal on their ID card.
b) Can have access up to boarding gate of the terminal on their ID card.
c) Can have access up to the entry gate of the aircraft on their ID card.
d) None of the above
Q209 Orange (C) passes are issued to the
a) Concessionaries
b) Crew members
c) Courier service
d) Cargo employees

Q210 As per latest circular of BCAS contractors' labor can have access at airport with the
Authority of
b) Bar coded Labor photo pass

Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by

c) Airport operator

Q212 At an airport, Airside vehicle access control point are manned by

b) ASG/APSU

Q213 Secondary ladder point check is the responsibility of the

b) Concerned airlines

Q214 Large area required to be secured for the screening concept

b) Concourse plan
c) Boarding gate plan
c) Security hold Area plan

Q215.
Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COCA is
b) Both are same

Q216 As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports AC's under the
jurisdiction of
c) Airport authority of India

Q217 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
b) COSCA

Q218 Authority to drive a vehicle in the operational area (Airside) is

c) Airside Driving Permit

Q219 AEP's for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of
b) for official duty

Q220. Security of the Aircraft is the responsibility of the

c) Aicraft operator

Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices

Q222 Passenger profiling is

a) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents.

Q223 The designated area of an airport used to takeoff/landing of an aircraft is

c) Runway

Q224 Connecting way between runway and apron is called

d) Taxiway

Q225 Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator
a) Baggage

Q226 Which is not the responsibility of BCAS

d) Anti hijacking duties

Q227. Which is not the responsibility of ASG

d) Advisory

Q228 Which is not the responsibility of Airline Operator?

d) Communication facilities

Q229. Which is not the responsibility of Airport Operator?

d) Security of BMA

Q230 All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as:
a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area)

Q231 Which of the following is not an ingredient of Hijacking:

b) Lawfully exercises the control of the aircraft

Q232 Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same
aircraft with the person to whom it belongs.
d) unaccompanied baggage

Q233 Which one is not a component of ASG

d) Anti Sabotage Group

Q234 Which of the following is not an essential component of vehicle permit

d) Photo of the vehicle

Q235 Which of the following is an essential component of an AEP

a) Photo of the holder

Q236 Which of the following is an airside land side boundary

a) Access gates
b) Terminal building
c) Perimeter wall
d) All the above

Q237 The main aim of access control points are:

a) To control the movement of people from land side to airside
b) To control the movement of vehicle from land side to airside
c) Both a & b

Q238 Which of the following should not be practiced by a security person:

a) Being too familiar with staff

Q239 The airside of an airport is defined as

b) Movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain, building and portion thereof access
to which is controlled

Q240 Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points
C) Manned all the time

Q241 For operational reasons who can move from land side to airside without security check
a) APD
b) COSCA
c) Local Police
d) None of these

Q242 What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log
a) Status of the equipment
b) Records of the incident
c) Both a and b

Q243 An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger
of an accident is known as
b) Full emergency

Q244 A white color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
b) Only in operational area

Q245 Blue color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA

Q246 Which of the following does not have Orange AEP

d) DC/Airport

Q247 What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is
entering airside
b) Escorted by airline security

Q248 The main function of localizer is

a) To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing
b) To give guidelines to the pilot
C)
Both a and b

Q249 What is ARP

a) It is a reference point of the airport

Q250 Which of the following is not a part of the ILS

d) Marshaling

Q251 What is the prescribed position of the lights used at perimeter

a) Focusing out

Q252 What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982
a) Life imprisonment and fine
Q253 Which of the following is not a part of act of unlawful interference
d) Flight having technical problem

Q254 Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed
c) Airline operator

Q255 All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and nonscheduled air
transport is known as
b) General aviation

Q256 In interline baggage transfer, baggage of passenger is transferred from

b) Between two aircraft of same operator

Q257 In transfer baggage, baggage of passenger is transferred from

b) Between two aircraft of same operator

Q258 Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into
threatening and non-threatening category is
a) Personating

Q259 Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful
interference is
a) Security

Q260 Which of the following is not a suspicious sign of a passenger

a) Frequent visit to loo

Q261 What will be the course of action when you notice suspicious sign on a passenger during
profiling:
a) Notify supervisor
c) Both a and b
b) Deep observation

Q262 Why courteous behavior is required at airports

b) Passengers expect for good behavior because they have paid a good amount

Q263 Which of the following is not a responsibility of CASO

d) He will be the chair person of the BTAC

Q264 SLPC is carried out by

c) Airline security

Q265 What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after Registered
Baggage has been X-Ray screened:
a) Sealing
b) Safeguarding
c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above

Q266 What are the essential components of Incendairy Device

b) Incendiary chemicals

Q267 BCAS is a
a) Requlatory authority for Security

Q268 Access control system can be

C) Automatic and manual

Q269 Typical external control point will contain

a) Control equipment
b) Communication system
c) Search equipment
d) All of the above

Q270 States of equipments and records of incidents will be maintained in

a) Access control point log

Q271 Airport workers are required to use control points

a) Whenever they enter restricted area

Q272 Airline employees are authorized to by-pass access control points

d) Never

Q273 Access control points are located in

a) Within building b) At cargo complex
c) At vulnerable points
d) All of the above

Q274 Airport Rules for vehicle apply to security staff

a) At all times

Q275 When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights
d) At all the times

Q276 Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building
a) PIC
b) Visitor ticket
c) Valid travel documents
d) All of the above.
Q277 What points to be checked in AEP for people
a) Photograph & name
c) Signature of issuing authority & holder
b) Airport & expiry date
d) All of the above features-correct

Q278. Name the areas of vehicle to be checked for prohibited items

a) Interior & chassis of vehicle
b) Engine compartment
c) Trunk or boot
d) All of the above- corect

Q279 Vehicle can be searched by

a) Trolley mirror
c) Explosive detector
b) Physical checking
d) All of the above-corrc

Q280 What will you check is vehicle pass

a) Vehicle registration number
c) Valid area & gate to be used
b) Name of organization
d) All of the above-corrc

Q281 Searching of vehicle entering into airside is done for

a) Weapon & explosive

Q282 Fire to structure & building at an airport is the example of emergency

b) Not involving aircraft

Q283 Is it necessary to take permission from ATC while crossing runway

d) Necessary at all the time

Q284 It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building
b)All the time

Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted
b)Purple

Q286 Colour of transferable pass(PIC) is

c) Brown

Q287 Passes for people are issued by

c) BCAS
Q288 Vehicle permit are issued by
d) Airport Operator

Q289 Temporary vehicle permit is valid upto-

d) 1 yrs

Q290 Photo identity card is coded into

colour
b) 6

Q291 A person having Green PIC will gain access to

d) Departure check-in and arrival area upto segregation of T.B

Q292 Vulnerable Point at airport includes

d) ATC

Q293 Hijacking is -
(b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight

Q294 Typical permit wouldn't contain

a) Address of the holder

Q295. Who are not authorized to enter into operational area?

b) Brown and Green Colour Pass holder

Q296 AEP stands for airport Entry Pass

a)
Aviation Examination Procedure

Airport Entry Pass

0297 ADP stands for :

a)Airfield Driving Permit

Q298 BMA stands for :

a) Baggage Makeup Area

Q299 LTPE stands for :

a) Low Temperature Plastic Explosive

Q300 Who of the following is authorized to issue AEPs

C) AAI

Q301 What are LAGs

a) Liquids Aerosols and Gels
Q302 What are STEBs
Security Tamper Evident Baggage

Q303 What is the latest aircraft launched by Air Bus Company?

a)
Air Bus 380 b) Air Bus 320 c) Air Bus 760
Inter surveillance Unit d) Anti-Sabotage Unit

Q305 Baggage Identification is the duty of '

b) Airlines

Q306 How many categories of airports in India?

a) One
b) Three
C)
Four
Q307 Flight IC 814 was hijack from
b) Kandhar
d

Q308 Which agency is responsible for secondary ladder point checking

c) Airlines

Q309 Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security
c) Pre-embarkation security check

Q310 Who can carry loaded gun in flight

b)
Sky Marshal

Q311 Which is not the feature of vehicle entry permit

tally the photograph

Q312 An access control point have

Controlling equipment
Communication systems
d)
Controlling equipment
All of the above

Q313 Profiling is a systematic observation to

c) to recognize the person

Q314 ASG took over the charge of Jaipur airport on

a) 04-04-2003
b) 03-02-2000
c) 01-04-2000
c) None of the above

Q315 Which is Hyper sensitive airport

d) Agartala

Q316 Which is Sensitive airport

c) Ahmedabad

Q317 When did India become a contracting state of ICAO

a) On 1st March 1947

Q318 COE stands for

c) Controller Of Electronics
D) NONE OF THESE
c) Chief Of Explosive
d) Controller Of Explosive

Q319 EOD stands for :

b)Explosive Ordinance Disposal

Q320 LED stands for:

d) Light Emitting Diode

Q321 What is the significance of 24 July 2001 in civil aviation

a)
b)
Attack on Colombo airport

Q322 Which organization carries Security Audit of Airports Internationally

b) ICAO

Q323 Doc 9691 of ICAO refers to

b) Manual on Airport Security

Q324 What are total no. of ICAO Annexes

c)17

Q325 "Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and
which seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by
proper consideration to human performance" are called
a) Human Factor Principles

Q326 What are MRTDs

a) Machine Readable Travel Documents

Q327 Select weapons in the given items?

d) knife with blade of 4"

Q328 In what color explosive will be seen in X-BIS image ?

c) Orange

Q329 On how many things, the profiling is done?

b) Three

Q330 PEC is the practice.

b) Standard Practice

Q331 Boeing Company belongs to which country?

a) America

Q332 You should not do, when you find a suspicious person?
c) Alarming the passenger

Q333 What is Blue Dart ?

c) cargo flight operator

Q334 Components of APSU?

c) Four

Q335 Which is not suspicious sign of a person?

b) Posing as VIP

Q336 Gelatin is in form of.

c) Stick

Q337 Safety fuse comes under which category?

d) Explosives

Q338 Chisels come under which category?

c) Dangerous articles

Q339 Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

c) only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower
ll
Q340 Passenger can carry liquor in aircraft?
a) From Duty free shops at airport

Q341 What this word BLR denotes to?

b) BANGLORE

Q342 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles

(a) Starter pistol

Q343 Which is electronic gadget is used for surveillance ?

b) CCTV

Q344 Which is not a suspicious sign of passenger?

d) Reporting in time

Q345 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
c) BCAS & DGCA

Q346 Which is not the way to conceal the prohibited item?

d) In Suitcase

Q347 Vehicle should be searched for

c) Prohibited items

Q348 Nitroglycerine is ....

a) Liquid

Q349. What is physical form of CORDTEX?

c) Cord

Q350 Types of explosives?

b) Two

Q351 What is the Natural color of RDX?

d) white/black

Q352 If a person is denying to be frisked - What is the course of action?

b) No search No fly

Q353 What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage?
b) don't touch

Q354 The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?

a) High alert

Q355 What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor

r
Q356 Match box comes under
b) Incendiary

Q357 How many types of detonator available?

b) TWo

Q358 Prohibited items are classified/divided into

a) 4 categories

Q359 Weapons are designed primarily to -

a) Kill
c) Incapacitate & Immobilize
b) Injure
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q360 The phonetic value of 5 is

d) FIFE

Q361 The phonetic value of 9 is

a) NI-NE
b) NINET
C) NIN
d) NIN-er

Q362 PTD switch is comes in which category

b) Time delav

Q363 Which is the appropriate word stands for I in RT communication?

d) India

Q364 Ketone comes under which category of prohibited item ?

a) Weapon
b) Dangerous substances
c) Dangerous articles
d) Explosives

Q365 Which is the component of an IED

b) Detonator

Q366 A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than
b) 100 MItrs

Q367 Size of Kirpan is

C)q"

Q368 An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage

c) Book

Q369. An item a passenger can not carry in his hand baggage

a) Knife

Q370 The switch mechanism are classified into

a)
b)
C)
d)

Q371 Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of

b) Delay Mechanism

Q372 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles?

a) Starter pistol

Q373 Kirpan of 6 inches blade is permitted to a Sikh passenger to be carried in

c) In fully domestic flight in India.

Q374 Prohibited items are

C) Not permitted to be carried on board an aircraft.

Q375 Most important measures to prevent weapons, explosives and other dangerous devices
from being introduced in an aircraft

Screening of passengers and carry on baggage

Q376. Immediate Action which is not required on detection of prohibited item during physical
inspection
b) allow the passenger to board the aircraft

Q377 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing
b) In carry on baggage or checked in baggage
C) BOTH THE ABOVE
e

Q378 Starter Pistol is an example of :

a) Dangerous Article
Q379 Realistic replica of a gun carried by a child will be treated as
d) Dangerous Article

Q380 What is the Natural color of PETN?

a) White

Q381 Nuckles falls under which category of prohibited item

b) Weapon

c) Dangerous Substance
d) Explosive
Q382 Category of people who need to be escorted
a) Prisoner

Q383 Which one is not a primary effect of a high explosive explosion:

d) Water soak

Q384 Which one is not a method of concealment of an explosive:

a) Trafficking

Q385 Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not
primarily design to do so, known as:
b) Dangerous articles

Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when
you detect such item:
a) Will be removed

c) Supervisor should be informed

d) Both a & c

Q387 To use electrical detonators which of the following is essential

c) Power source

Q388 Detonators are used in which kind of explosives

c) High explosive

Q389 Which of the following is not used to detect explosives

c) Thermal imager

Q390 PEK stands for :

a). Plastic Explosive Kirkie

Q391 Light sensitive switch is a kind of

b) Ambient condition switch
Q392 Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function
a) Specificity
b) Sensitivity
c) Selectivity
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q393 Which among the following, is the sensitivity of the EVD

a) Min 5 gms

Q394 How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample
c) 2.5 sec

Q395 To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from
a) Surface wipe for trace particle

Q396 Explosive are -

(a) Chemicals
(b) Solid chemicals
c) Liquid Chemicals
d) ALL ABOVE

Q397 A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is
known as
b) Dismantled

Q398 IED stands for.

a) Improvised Explosive Device

Q399 Sound sensitive type of mechanism is a type of

d) Ambient Switch

Q400 Clock is used as switch in which type of mechanism

Delay Mechanism

Q401 In detonator which type of explosive is used

a) High

Q402 Sound sensitive switch is a type of

a) Ambient

Q403. What is physical form of TNT?

d) Block

Q404 Original color of TNT?

b) Pale yellow
Q405 Light sensor is related to which switch mechanism
c) Ambien

Q406 Which is not the effect of explosion

d) Lightening Effect

Q407 A Toy gun carried by an adult will be treated as

a)Dangerous Article

Q408 An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism
a)Remote control

Q409 What is the color RDX on visual inspection

a) White

Q410 What amount of high explosive can be sustained by Simulation Chamber

b) 5 Kgs of TNT

Q411. What is the identification no. of electric detonator

a)
No. 28
c) No. 32
b)
No.30
d) No. 33

Q412. The qualities of high explosive are

Non-hygroscopic
Safe to handle
C)
To be detonated with detonating waves
ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q413. Actual flight condition are made in .

d) Bomb blanket

Q414. TATP is an example of

c) Liquid explosive

Q415 Nun-chacks falls under which category?

a) Weapon

Q416. PTD switch is comes in which category

b) Time delay
c
Q417 In PEK the word K stands for ...

b) kirkie

Q418 Which one of the following is an example of explosive

a) Detonator

Q419 An IED can be conceal

a) In hand baggage
b) In registered baggage
c) On person
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q420 Which is not the advantage of an EVD

d) Convenience for pax

Q421 Which is not the advantage of an ETD

d) Scan the object easily

Q422 Types of switches/mechanism that can be used to blast an IED

d) Four

Q423 All acids fall under which category of prohibited item

d) Dangerous Substance

Q424 Color of SEMTEX is

a)Pale orange
b)Red
c) Black
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q425 Crackers falls under which category of prohibited item

b) Explosives

Q426 DMNB is a compound used for

a) Marking of explosives
b) Detecting of explosives
c) Searching of explosive
d) All the above

Q427 Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight?
c) Simulation chamber

Q428 How many rings of protection are there?

b) Three
Q429 What is the outer ring of protection?
a) Perimeter

Q430 Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

b) Injured in Tsunami

Q431. The main aim to search the SHA is.

a) To sterile the area

Q432 The emergency, which is involved with aircraft?

c) Fire on TB

Q433 Which is not a medical emergency?

d) Illness

Q434. Emergencies involving aircraft

a) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while in flight
c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground
b) Sabotage on aircraft
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q435. Emergencies not involving aircraft

d) Fire in structure

Q436. Which is not related with medical emergencies

d) terrorist attack

Q437 Which of the following is an emergency not involving the aircraft

c) Terrorist attack at airport

Q438 Which of the following is an emergency involving aircraft

a) Hijacking

Q439 Delivery of a new born is a/an

c) Medical emergency

Q440 .Which is the example of medical emergency

a) Sudden death

Q441. Airside/landside boundary will comes under

a) Outer ring

Q442 .Which is in depth security ring of protection

c) Rings of protection
Q443. The main aim of patrolling is
a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall
C) to help in apprehension
b) To detect the attacks
d) NONE OF THE ABOVE

Q444 . The main aim of guarding is

a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall
c) to help in apprehension
b) to quard the vital installations
D) NONE OF THE ABOVE

Q445
How many types of patrolling are there
a) Foot patrolling
b) Vehicle patrolling c) Both a and b

Q446 .Security staff on duty may cross runway :

care
c) Only after clearance from ground control or the ATC tower

Q447
The main aim of airport protection system is :
a) To protect airport and aircraft from any attack

0448. The main purpose of boundary fencing is :

a) To mark the boundary between restricted and non restricted area

Q449
Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based
a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles
b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas
c) Protecting airport with physical barriers
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q450 .What is the main objective of security patrolling at the airports

a) Ensure effectiveness of physical barriers
b) Respond quickly to attacks and attempted attacks
c) Deter and prevent unauthorized access
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q451 .Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports
a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities
Q452 What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight
a) Aircraft parked in a well - lit area
b) All external doors are locked
c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q453 To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts
of a building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position
a) Windows
b) Roof sky lights
c) Ventilation openings
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q454 How can Non-restricted and Restricted Areas separation be achieved

a) Provision of physical barriers such as fences
b) Use of buildings and natural obstacles
c) Limiting authorized access to controlled gates and designated access points
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q455 What are designated areas to be patrolled

a) Apron and the baggage make up area
c) Airport boundary and outlying vulnerable points
b) Cargo complex
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q456 Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions
a) SECURITY PERSON GUARDING THE AIRCRAFT ENSURE ONLY AUTHORIZED PEOPLE,
BOARD
B) INTERCEPT UNAUTHORIZED PEOPLE ATTEMPTING TO BOARD AIRCRAFT OR IN THE V
C) BOTH A AND B

Q457 The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which
of the following agencies?
a) The airline operating the aircraft

Q458 Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following
agencies ?
c) Trained airline security and engineering staff

Q459 Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect a
parked and unattended aircraft
a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport
b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed
c) All external doors are locked
d) ALL THE ABOVE
Q460 Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an
aircraft?
a) Ensure means of access removed
b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft
c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q461 Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should
visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft
a) Undercarriage wells and wheel assembly
c) Engine access panels
b) Fuel intake panels
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q462 In an airport, Isolation Bay is used for?

c) The Hi-jacked aircraft

Q463 While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action
should be done
a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft
c) Notify airline representative
b) Immediately notify supervisor
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q464 Physical barriers are used to

a) Separate restricted and non-restricted areas

Q465. Objective of physical barrier are to

a) Define area
c) Provide access control point
b) Delay intrusion
d) ALL OF ABOVE.

Q466 Runways & aprons are protected by

a) Patrolling
b) Gaurding
c) Survellience
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q467 Gaurding and Patrolling inside the airport is done by

a) Security personal of ASG

Q468 Airport can be protected by

a) Effective boundry fencing & security lighting
b) Control movement of people &vehicle
c) Boundry protected by physical means
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q469 The main objective of security patrolling

a) Deter & prevent unauthorized access
.
Q470 Security guarding is done to
c) Detect attacks & attempted attacks

Q471 Outer protection ring contain

a) Building, fencing& lighting

Q472. Basic difficulties in protection airport are

a) 24 hrs operation
c) Non-cooperation of passengers
b) Multi agencies are working
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

0473. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security

Q474 A sterile area must be set up

b) Between the passenger check point and passenger screening point

Q475. Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain

(a) Dangerous goods checked

Q476 Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are -
(b) Weapon

Q477 The outer ring of protection is the responsibility of

(a) ASG

Q478 Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based
a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles
b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas
c) Protecting airport with physical barriers
d) ALL THE ABOV

Q479 The landside of an airport is defined as:

b) that part of an airport and buildings to which the non-travelling public has free access.

Q480 Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport
a. Large size of the airport and boundary
b. Large number of workers/agencies at an airport
24 hour operations
d. ALL THE ABOVE
Q481 The main purpose for boundary fencing is
b) To mark the boundary between landside and airside restricted areas

Q482 Which vulnerable points in barriers require special protection

a) Places where natural barriers used as boundary
b) Waterways and storm sewers, service ducts
c) Buildings used to form part of boundary
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q483 Typical location of crash-gate at airport is

d) Near runway

Q484. What is Sterile Area

a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is
strictly controlled

0485 What are the objectives of physical barriers at the airports

a) Define area to be protected
b) Create physical and psychological deterrent
c) Delay intrusion and assist detection/apprehension
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q486 What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises
a) Round the clock patrolling
c) Effective access control
b) Effective lighting
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q487 The main aim of airport protection system is to protect

a) Airport and Aircraft from attack

Q488 Principle of airport protection is

a) Controlling movement of people & vehicle
b) Dividing airport in restricted & non restricted area
Preventing penetration to airport boundaries
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q489. The integrity of barriers are maintained by

a) Security guards protecting access points
b) By foot patrol
c) By mobile patrolling
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q490 In night unattended aircraft can be guarded by

C)
Removing of stairs & loading bridges

Q491 How many types of patrolling?

b) Two

Q492 Why patrolling necessary?

a) To prevent penetration

Q493 In night, aircraft should be parked in .........

b) well-lit area

Q494 Why BWAF is required?

a) To assess specific and non specific calls

Q495 Butter sing means

a) Putting Sand bags around the suspected item

Q496 Searching of furniture fittings comes under

a) Waist to head level

Q497 Which is not the part of levels of search

a) Chest to floor level

Q498 BTAC stands for:

a) Bomb Threat Assessment Committee

Q499. BWAF is a document required for:

b) Taking action for Bomb Threat Contingency

Q500 Which of the following committee is headed by APD:

a) BTAC

Q501 Appendix "A" of BWAF is filled by

a) Recipients of the bomb threat call

Q502 Which is not the member of BTAC

(d) COSAH

Q503 Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation
d) BTAC

Q504 Among the following who is the chairman of COSAH

a) Cabinet secretary
Q505 DG/CIS is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH

Q506 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
c) CC

Q507 Among the following who is not the member of COSAH

a) Principal secretary to PM
b) Secretary Ministry of Defense
c) Secretary Ministry of Home Affairs
d) NONE OF THESE

Q508 The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking
a) CC

Q509 According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to
immobilize the aircraft
a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way

Q510 Who of the following can be a hoax bomb threat caller

b) Besotted lover

Q511 A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its
credibility or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures
b) Non specific call

Q512 What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?
b) Listen carefully and note down the important information

Q513 Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports
c) Customs and Immigration

Q514 Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the
aircraft.
a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90%
b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area
c) Both a and b
d) NONE OF THESE

Q515 Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground
d) No need to form negotiation team

Q516 If hijacking takes place in Chennai this will be treated as

a) National contingency

Q517 Who of the following can be a genuine bomb threat caller

a) One who has planted the bomb
b) Accomplice of the person who has planted the bomb
c) BOTH A AND B

Q518 Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport
prepares its own Contingency Plan
c) BCAS

Q519 In case of "Specific" Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action
a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB
b) ASG will be cordoning the area
c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q520 Which of the following is an action at the time of high alert

a) 100% physical inspection of the vehicle

Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport
b) 100 cms

Q522 Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person,
only by authorization of
a)COSCA

Q523 Coordinator of BTAC?

a) APD

Q524 The coordinator of BTAC at international airport is

a) APD

Q525 BTAC evaluate the threat with the help of

a) Bomb warning assessment form

Q526 In case of specific bomb threat call, the aircraft has to be shifted to
b) Isolation bay

Q527 Which of the following committee deals with hijacking

c) COSAH

Q528 The airport security committee meets every

a) Month

Q529 Permissible size of a hand baggage is

b) 115 cms

Q530 In following, who is not included as a member of Aerodrome committee in District Head
Quarter?
d) Home secretary of state.

Q531 In following, who is not included as a member of Central committee?

a) Secretary of ministry of Civil Aviation,

Q532 The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals
c) Home secretary of state

Q533. Who is permitted to carry weapon in their hand baggage

d) Sky Marshal

Q534 Chief security officer (CASO) is head of

b) ASG/APSU

Q535 Question technique in BTCP formed to know

b) a bomb threat call specific or non-specific

Q536 Committee constituted in India to deal with acts of unlawful interference

d) COSAH

Q537 What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation
c) AC
c) COSAH
d) CC
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q538 Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security
training in India
a)
BCAS

Q539 Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security?
a) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters
b)
To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme
c) To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q540 As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall
a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang
Q541 In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline
engineers and airline security:
a)ASG Personnel
b)BDDS
c) BCAS
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q542 The chairperson of group "A" and group "B" Central Committee is
a)DGCA

Q543 What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the
aircraft
a) 2-3 minutes

Q544 Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as
c) Full emergency

Q545 Formation of BCAS comes after recommendation of.

a) B N Kripal commette

Q546 CCS Stands for...........................

b) Cabinet committee of security

Q547. The convener of A.C. at airports located in the state capital

c) Home secretary

Q548 The chairman of APSC at an international airport is

a) APD

Q549. The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters
a) CP/DM/DC

Q550 Bomb threat comes under?

b) Sabotage

Q551 Convener of APSC?

b) Commissioner of BDDS

Q552 BTAC is convened by

APD

Q553 Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call
c) Filling appendix "A"

Q554 Which is the convener of International/Domestic Airport security committee

c) CASO
Q555 In case of unlawful seizure of an aircraft, Which committee meets at the airport
c) Aerodrome Committee

Q556 Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an
aircraft
d) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay

Q557 Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an
aircraft
d) Fresh boarding cards to be issued

Q558 Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee at state capital

a)
State Home Secretary

Q559 Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee outside District level

d) APD

Q560 To whom pilot gives first information about any crisis

b) ATC

Q561 Who is not the member of Group -A of CC

C) A senior executive of the affected airlines

Q562 Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in
performance of their duties:
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.

Q563 In boarding gate plan

d) Screening starts at boarding gate

Q564 In concourse plan the screening starts at

a) Main entrance

Q565 In holding area plan.

a) Separate area for SHA

Q566 The plan adopted at Srinagar airport is

d) Holding & concourse plan

Q567 Which is concerned with basic screening concept

a)
Concourse Plan
b)
Holding area plan
C)
Boarding gate plan
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE
Q568.
How many screening staff required at each XBIS
a) 4

Q569 How many people required for a ideal screening team

5

Q570 Passengers who refuse to be physically searched

a) Are within their rights but must not be allowed on the aircraft

Q571 Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India
b) Hold Area Plan
c) Concourse Plan d) BOTH B & C

Q572 Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) More time available

Q573 Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) To be staffed only during screening

Q574 Which is the following is not a disadvantage of a Holding Area Plan

b) Less pressure to examine passenger

Q575 What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area
a) Physical search of passenger
b)X-Ray examination of baggage
c) Physical search of baggage
d)ALL THE ABOVE

Q576 A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times
c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area

Q577 The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons
b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items

Q578 One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding
area is as follows
a) Search from floor to waist level

Q579 Which among the following are the don'ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal
building
a) Don't handle it
c) Don't attempt to open the item
b) Don't touch it
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q580 The security plan used at airport are

a) Concourse plan
c) Boarding gate plan
b) Holding area plan
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q581 Prescribed procedure for carry out search of building are

a) Flour to waist level
b) Waist to head level
c) Head to ceiling level
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q582 Large no. of screening staff/equipment are required in

a) Boarding gate plan

Q583 The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is
a) Boarding gate plan

Q584 SHA is secured by

Both a & b above

Q585 Sterility of SHA is maintained by

a). Anti sabotage & access control
b). Effective screening of pax
D). ONLY (A) & (B)

Q586 What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building
a) Not to touch
b) Marking and informing to supervisor.
c) BOTH (A) & (B) ABOVE.
d) Try to open & bring to control room

Q587 A sterile area must be set up

b) Between the passenger check point and passenger screening point

Q588 How many passenger-screening systems are followed in world:

c) Three

Q589 Passenger screening is mainly needed:

b) to ensure that no prohibited items are carried past the screening point.

Q590 Three passenger screening concept are

a) concourse, holding area and boarding gate
Q591 In how many color X-BIS project the image?
d) Four

Q592 X-RAY moves at the speed of .

b) light

Q593 In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in.

b) Orange

Q594 Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than
c) 20 min.
.
Q595 What is through put rate of registered baggage?
a) 300 bag / hr

Q596 There are test in ctp

b) 6

Q597 TIP stands for

a) Threat Image Projection

Q598 Which is not used in security?

d) Laptop

Q599 Which is not a benefit of TIP?

d) Acceptance

Q600 At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP
tests?
c) stop the machine & notify supervisor

Q601 If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage

a) Take action as per local SOP

Q602. What is the radiation distance from tunnel of X-BIS?

b) 5 cms

Q603 XBIS stands for

a) X-ray Baggage Inspection System

Q604 XBIS gives colour to different articles based on

c) Atomic no.

Q605 CTP stands for

b) Combined Test Piece
Q606. Distance between two bags while screening on X-Ray machine should not be less than

Q607 In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible
b). 10mm

Q608 Threat image projection is installed on X-Ray machine not to

d) To check machine efficiency

Q609 SWG stands for

c) standard wire guage

Q610 Which is not the property of X-Ray?

d) It reflected with lens and prism

Q611 Which is the pre-operation check of the X-BIS

a) ensure the inspection tunnel
b)
ensure the lead curtain
c) ensure all emergency switches
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q612 What are the items which create difficulties during screening
a) Children toys
b) Wrapped gifts
c) Urns of human remains
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q613 Measuring unit of an X-Ray is

b) Roentgen

Q614 Which is the advantage of XBIS

c) Safe for film food and drugs

Q615. Which is the requirement of XBIS

a) High penetration rate

Q616 Which is the specification of XBIS

a) Speed of the conveyor belt should be 18 to 0.3 mtr/sec

Q617 Which is not the in built safety measures of XBIS

a) External housing
c)
...
Q618 Which is the speed of conveyer belt
a) 0.18 mtr/sec. to 0.3 mtr/ sec

Q619 How many feed backs we get in TIP

C) 4

Q620 Feedback of detected object appears in which colour

b) Green colour

Q621 Feedback of missed object appears in which colour

c) Yellow colour

Q622 Feedback of aborted/cancelled object appears in which colour

c) Yellow colour

Q623 Tailored training programme is a benefit of

b) TIP

Q624 In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the perspex sheet
c) 40 SWG

Q625 In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge of
aluminum
a) 26 SWG

Q626 Multi energy test it discriminate the material as per their

a)
Atomic number

Q627 Which strip should be seen beneath o 26 mm steel in simple penetration test
a) Pb

Q628 In spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which
plate
a) copper

Q629 In thin metal imaging test which mm strip should be seen

a)0

Q630 Advantages of XBIS is

a) Enable speedy screening
Safe for Food
b) Convenience to the pax
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE
Q631 In Civil Aviation Security X-BIS is used for
a) Screening of a hand baggage
c) Screening of cargo
b) Screening of a registered baggage
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q632 Which among the following are properties of X-rays

a) Invisible electro-magnetic radiations
b) Does not get deflected when passed through prism
c) Impair or destroy the living cells
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q633 X-BIS is considered to be safe for the following

a) Edible items b) Film and cameras
c) Drugs
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q634 As per guidelines of BCAS high resolution of X-BIS is should be

d) 40 SWG

Q635 Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which
comes under which of the following
a) One of the requirements of X-BIS

Q636 In X-BIS, what is meant by TIP

b) Threat Image Projection

Q637 In the X-Ray machines "Lead" is primarily used to

a) Absorb radiation
"
Q638 PLX falls under which category of prohibited item

d) Explosive

Q639 Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray Baggage
Inspection System are detected
b) Multi Energy System

Q640 As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the
speed of conveyor belt should be?
a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec

Q641 Pre-operation check of X-BIS is carried to ensure

a) XBIS is working properly

Q642 In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with
a) The colour and shape of the image

Q643 If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify?
a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked
b)
Q644 Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visib
b) Simple penetration

Q645 Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the
a) Atomic number of the item

Q646 Which of the following is the advantage of TIP

a) Source of motivation for screeners
c) Records individual performance
b) Increase alertness
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q647 Sensors are one of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS, what are the functions of se
in X-BIS?
c) X-Rays are generated only when there is a bag inside the tunnel

Q648 What is the disadvantage of the X-BIS

a) Efficiency depends on human factor
c) Very costly
b) Only trained staff can operate
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q649 What is the main aim of the screening is

a) To detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices

Q650 CP is conducted to check that

b) XBIS is working as per BCAS specifications.

Q651 TIP images are

a) Fictional

Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening
c) Religious objects

Q653 The image which is not clear in X-ray monitor

b) Should be checked physically

Q654 If X-rayed item is obviously a weapon such as a gun

a) Stop the conveyor belt

Q655 If the X-ray operator is IN DOUBT, about an object, he/she should

a) Refer the bag for physical inspection
Q656 As per BCAS Circular on procedure, the total no. of trained staff required to man
in a shift are
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 6
Q657 Typical X-ray screening point log will contain
(a) Location of screening point

Q658 Which is the feature associated with In-Built safety of XBIS

(a) Low x-ray dose
(
Q659 The throughput rate of XBIS machine as per BCAS specifications for hand bagga
be.
(c) 300 bags/hr

Q660 X-rays are-

(a) Invisible rays
(c) Travel in straight line
(b) Electro-magnetic radiation
(d) ALL THE ABOVE

b) Q661 Which of the following item is not allowed in cabin baggage

(d) 200 ml cold drinks in a bottle
c)
Q662 TIP images are helpful to screener because they provide
(a) Immediate feedback
(C) BOTH (A) & (B)
(b) Tailored training
(d) None of the above

d) Q663 Before operating the X-ray equipment

(a) Check that nothing is obstructing the conveyor belt
(b) Make sure there is a table available for searching for physical inspection
(c) Make sure that the conveyor belt and the monitor screen are not dirty
(d) ALL OF ABOVE.

e) Q664 The ability of X-ray machine to image thin metal is tested by

b) Thin metal imaging test of CTP

Q665 In CT test, the "material discrimination" ability of XBIS is tested by

c) Multi energy test

Q666 'SEN' key in XBIS machine stands for

a) Super enhancement
f) Q667 In XBIS item which can not be penetrated by X-ray appears in
g) b) Black/opaque

h) Q668 How many colors are displayed in XBIS monitor

a) Green, Blue, Black & Orange

Q669 Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain

a) Dangerous goods checked

Q670 X-Ray machine is safe for.....

a)Food &

i) Q671 Which among the following is requirements of a X-BIS as per the BCAS guideline
a) Low false alarm rate

Q672 Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin?
a) Mace
C) Marshal art device
b) Replica of weapon
d) ALL THE ABOVE
j)
Q673 In X-Ray machines, CTP is used to
a)To test the performance

Q674 What is the colour of RDX when X-Ray examined

a) Orange

Q675 CTP is not used to

to insure the machine performance

k) Q676 How many types of generators are used in X-BIS?

c) Three

Q677 Color of metals in X-BIS?

a) Green & Blue

l) Q678 Which one of the following is the properties of X-Ray

b) They are invisible

Q679 Low X-Ray dose is belongs to which of the following

a) In -built safety measures

Q680 Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while scr
a) Urns containing human remains
Q681 Minimum amount of metal should detect by DFMD?
b) 30 gms

Q682 Distance from DFMD to person?

a) 90 cms

Q683 The size of the DFMD is

a) 2 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr

Q684 Threshold mass for DFMD is

30gms

Q685 How many zones are in MZDFMD is

a) Seven

Q686 DFMD detects

b) Ferrous and Non ferrous metal

Q687 Which is the part of DEMD

a) Transmitter panel

Q688 Which is not the part of DFMD

Lead curtain

Q689 Size of OTP is

a) 10cms X 10cms

Q690 Weight of OTP is

b) 30gms

Q691 Preparedness of the DFMD is measured with the

c) OTP

Q692 The DFMD resets after

3 Sec

Q693 When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optim
efficiency
a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects
b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects
c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q694 The full form of DFMD is

a) Door Frame Metal Detector
Q695 Acceptable height of DFMD as per BCAS specification is
a) 2 m

Q696 Width of DFMD is

a) 75 cms to 85 cms

Q697 DFMD is tested with the help of

b) OTP

Q698 As per BCAS guidelines DFMD is calibrated to detect metal upto

d) 30 qm

Q699 DFMD gives

a) Audio alarm b) Visual alarm
C) BOTH (A) & (B)

Q700 Control panel and cross piece are found in

(a) DFMD

Q701 When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be
c) 35 cms

Q702 'Sensitivity & Specificity' is the term associated with

c) DFMD

Q702 The full form of HHMD is

a) Hand Held Metal Detector
c) Held Hand Metal Detector
b) Hand Hold Metal Detector
d) None of the above
Q703 The minimum detection capacity of HHMD is
a) 5 gm

Q704 As per BCAS specification, weight of HHMD should not exceed

a) 250 gm

Q705 The HHMD should be kept .

2.5

Q706 The main purpose of access control system at airport is

d) Control movement of pax and vehicle from landside to airside

Q707. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand b
a) Union Council of ministers

Q708 What are the primary reasons for escorting people

a) For their own safety when moving in airside
b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for a
subsequent attack
C) BOTH A AND B

Q709 What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft)
15 km/hr

Q710 Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into
(a)
In hand baggage
(O
In registered baggage
In both (a) & (b)
(d)
None of the above

Q712 SARP on security are given in

(b)
Annex. 12 of ICAO manual

Q713 Check the battery is fully charge is applicable to

b) HHMD

Q714 ETD detects

b) Explosives

Q715 ETD detects explosives by

b) Traces particles

Q716 The approx weight of EVD is

b) 2 Kgs

Q717 The approx weight of ETD is

c 40 KaS

Q718 EDDS Stands for

b) Explosive device detection System

Q719 ETD can detect explosive upto

c) nanogram level

Q720 100% physical baggage checking is required ?

b) on Threat call
Q721
According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ?
a) Normal
b) Sensitive
c) Hyper Sensitive
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q722 What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a pas
a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger
b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious
c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation
d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q723 Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out
a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents o
baggage
b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally
c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q724 At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked
a) Ask passengers to operate the item
b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment
c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q725 Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a
a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag
b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely
before moving on to the next one.
C) BOTH A AND B
d) None of the above

Q726 Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team
c) Issuing the boarding card

Q727 Before commencing search of pax baggage

(a) His/her consent to be taken

Q728. While conducting physical search of baggage method should be

(b) Systematic

Q729 Airport movement rules for vehicles apply to security staff:

(a) at all times.

Q730 Physical inspection of baggage is required

(a) When a prohibited item other than IED is detected
(b) When item is not distinguishable in the monitor
(c) When screener doubt as to the safety of any article in the baggage
(d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q731 The person who need not to be escorted.

d) Passengers

Q732 In night, aircraft should be parked in ...

b) well-lit area

Q733 Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function

b) Provides security control for Cargo which is accepted and required by appropriate
authority.

Q734 How is the diplomatic baggage handled

a) The baggage must bear distinct external marks of the Embassy and the name and th
address of the consignee
b) Diplomatic bags of any classification will not be opened in any case
c) Diplomatic bags which are carried as hand baggage by the diplomatic courier shall n
be screened provided the diplomatic courier produces certificate to that effect that it is a
diplomatice bag and it does not contain any prohibited/ dangerous article
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q735 Why is cargo considered an attractive target for terrorists

a) Generally very bulky, which is difficult for screening.
b) Small amount of explosives could be easily hidden which is sufficient for sabotage
c) Generally unaccompanied and therefore can be used as means of sabotage
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q736 What standard procedure is adopted for security of diplomatic bags

a) Category A bags to be accepted without screening/cooling off restriction subject to
production of certificate
b) Other than category A to be treated at par with cargo
c) In no case should be physically checked
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q737 What is Sterile Area

a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is
strictly controlled

Q738 Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles
the tarmac at civil airports in the country
a) Protocol grounds
b) Medical grounds c) Security grounds
d) ALL THE ABOVE
Q739 What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand b
a) PSOs of President
b) PSOs of Vice President
c) Sky Marshals on duty
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q740 What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand ba
a) Union Council of ministers

Q741 What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered bagga
has been screened
a) Sealed
b) Safeguarded
c) Escorted
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q742 Security personnel will be required to provide an escort as follows

c) For registered baggage after it has been security screened

Q743 Who among the following is responsible for the movement of valuable consignme
a) Airport security personnel
b) Airline security personnel
c) Agency involved
D) BOTH B AND C
Q744 While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that
a) The movement is planned in advance
b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route
c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q745 What are the primary reasons for escorting people

a) For their own safety when moving in airside
b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for a
subsequent attack
C) BOTH A AND B
d) None of the above

Q746 The typical categories of people requiring escort are

a) Deportee & inadmissible persons
b) Person in custody
c) VIPs
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q747 Catering security is ensured by

(a) Access control of premises
(b) Inspection by BCAS and Airline
)Transportation under escort
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q748 Security measures for Cargo are

(a) Physical check
(b) X-ray examination
c) Cooling off method
D) ALL THE ABOVE

Q749 Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle
b) President of India

Q750 C.M. of state & chief Justice of India will be checked by

d) Exempted from security check

Q751 For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from
c) DGCA

Q752 MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport
d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP

Q753 The following persons are not exempted from PEC?

d) Deportee

Q754 Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents i
carriage of dead
d) All the belongings of the deceased

Q755 In-Line Baggage X-Ray screening System is the responsibility of

d) Respective Airport operador

Q756 Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold ba
d) On duty Airline security

Q757 ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk

a) Employees while entering the operational area
b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area
c) Employees while entering SHA
d) ALL OF ABOVE

Q758 Simulation chamber

a) operates on the principle of activating the explosive device in the suspect object by
simulating the condition arises during real air journey

Q759 What document is required for carriage of dead body

a) Death certificate
c) Police clearance
b) Embalming certificate
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q760 Category of people who need to be escorted

a)
Prisoner

Q761 A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hol
baggage with the permission
c) DGCA

Q762 In India NCASTP will be implemented by

a) All agencies involved in Civil Aviation Operations in India

Q763 Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks
a) Member of parliament

Q764 A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be you
a)
Take no special action
b)
Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous
C)
Unscrew the container and smell the contents
NONE OF THE ABOVE

Q765 Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on bo
aircraft
a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops
b)
Lady's hand bag
C)
Umbrella and walking stick
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q766 What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in A
flying in domestic sector?
a)
A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches

Q767 What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected w
screening a baggage through X-BIS
a) Remain calm and polite - do not alarm passenger
b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal
c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q768 The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area
result in:
a) Marking the area of location
b)Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer
c)Clearing the immediate area of vicinity
d)ALL THE ABOVE

Q769 The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with
b)Air Operator

Q770 Which agency has the primary responsibility in moving a deportee?

a) Immigration authorities
c) Airport Security Unit
b) Concerned airline security
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q771 Significance of 23.02.1931

a) First hijacking in the history of civil aviation

Q772 After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India
a) Deployment of Sky marshals
b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports
Secondary Ladder Point Checking
d)
All the above

Q773 Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircr
a) Ask the identity of the person
b)
Ask the reason for being near the aircraft
C)
BOTH A AND B

Q774 Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of
b) Airline Security

Q775 Escorting WIP at airport is the responsibility of

a) ASG
c) Airport Operator
b) Local police
D) BOTH A & B

Q776 The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by
a)
X-ray examination and physical search
b)
Cooling off methods
BOTH (A) & (B)
d) None of the above
.
Q777 Embalming certificate is required for

b)
Carriage of dead body

Q778 Baggage reconciliation is -

a) Tallying number of baggage's checked in & accepted for loading in the aircraft with t
pax reported for boarding the aircraft.
.
Q779 Who among the following is exempted from PESC
a) Chief Justice of high courts
C) BOTH A) & B)
b) Chief Justice of India

Q780 Safeguarding of registered baggage is done by

a) Sealing after checking
b) By surveillance & escorting
c) Ensuring the seals at time of loading
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Q781. Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but with
escort
d) Chief justice of India

Q782 What is not the provision for carriage of prisoner?

c) Prisoner shouldt be hand-cuffed

Q783 Baggage Identification is the duty of ?

b) Airlines

Q784 Which is not exempted from pre embarkation security check

d) Judges of High Court

Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid
a. Wrapped gifts and presents
Bottles containing liquids
Cameras, radios and electrical items
d. ALL THE ABOVE
Q786 Who among the following category of people need to be escorted
a) Authorized visitors
b) Deportees and inadmissible persons
c) VIPS
d) ALL THE ABOVE

Q787 What is the significance of 02-12-1988 in civil aviation history

Explosion of Pan-Am aircraft over Lockerbie, Scotland

Q788 Which is not related with medical emergencies

(d) terrorist attack

Q789 Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of

(b) Delay Mechanism

Q790 In what circumstances the baggage will be physically checked

(c) When machine is not functioning

Q791 Which is the component of an IED

(b) Detonator

Q792 An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage

(c) Book

Q793 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

(a) Access Gates

Q794 The switch mechanism are classified into

4

Q795 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles

(a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile

Q796 Which is not the property of X-Ray

(d) It reflected with lens and prism

Q797 Denser the object the image will be

(c) Darker

Q798 Which is the pre-operation check of the X-BIS

(a) ensure the inspection tunnel
(c) ensure all emergency switches
(b) ensure the lead curtain
(d) ALL OF THE ABOVE
Q799 Measuring unit of an X-Ray is
(b) Roentgen

Q800 Barometric is a switch mechanism of

(d) Ambient