STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)

PHYSICS SOLUTION
SECTION – A Ans. (D)
1. The dimensional formula of impulse is [b] = [t 2 ] = [M 0 L0 T 2 ] and
[a][x]
A) [M1 L1 T −2 ] B) [M1 L1 T −1 ] [KE] =
[t2 ]
C) [M1 L2 T −1 ] D) [M 2 L2 T −1 ] [KE][t2 ]
[a] =
Ans. (B) [x]
Impulse = (force) [time] [m1 L2 T−2 ]
= [T 2 ] = [M1 L1 T 0 ]
[L1 ]
= [mass] [velocity]
[a ∙ b] = [M 0 0 2 ] [M1 1 0 ] [M1 1 2 ]
LT LT = LT
= kg m/s = [M1 L1 T−1 ]

6. The dimension of time in force is _____.

2. Evaluate 98.956 cm – 78.8 cm
A) 1 B) −1
A) 20.2 cm B) 20.15 cm
C) 2 D) −2
C) 20.156 cm D) 20 cm
Ans. (D)
Ans. (A)
[F] = [M1 L1 T −2 ]
98.956
78.8 Dimensions of time = -2
− 20.156
20.156 ⇒ 20.2 cm 7. Which of the following measurements is
Upto 1 decimal 3 sig. figures. made by most precise measuring
instrument?
3. If the percentage error in the A) 6.00 mm B) 3.00 cm
measurement of radius of the sphere is C) 9.00 m D) 12.00 km
1.2%, then the of maximum percentage Ans. (A)
error in measurement of volume of Smallest unit → most precise
sphere is ________.
A) 3% B) 1.2% 8. One light year is equal to
C) 3.6% D) 2.4% A) 9.46 × 1015 m B) 5 × 105 m
Ans. (C) C) 4.96 × 1010 m D) 1.5 × 1011 m
4
V= 3
πr 3 Ans. (A)
ΔV 3Δr [Memory Based]
∴ V
= r
= 3 × (1.2%) 9. A Vernier caliper has 1 mm marks on the
= 3.6% main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on
main scale divisions. For the Vernier
4. The number of significant figures in the calipers the least count is ________.
measurements 4.7000 × 104 and A) 0.02 mm B) 0.5 mm
47000.50 are respectively ________. C) 0.1 mm D) 0.2 mm
A) 5 and 7 B) 5 and 6
C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4 Ans. (D)
Ans. (A) LC = 1MSD – 1 VSD
4.7000 × 104 47000.50 Also 20 VSD = 16 MSD
16
↓ ↓ 1 VSD = 20
MSD
5 digits 7 digits = 0.8 MSD
So,
5. The kinetic energy of the particle is given LC = MSD – 0.8 MSD
ax
by KE = b+t2 , where x is position and t is =(1-0.8) MSD
time. Find out the dimensions of ab. = 0.2 MSD
A) [M −1 L0 T 2 ] B) [M1 L0 T −2 ] = 0.2 × 1mm
C) [M1 L1 T −2 ] D) [M1 L1 T 2 ] LC = 0.2 mm

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STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
10. Which of the following is a unit less 14. The order of magnitude of 9. 46 × 1015 m is
quantity? A) 15 B) 9
A) Refractive index B) Plane angle C) 10 D) 16
C) Solid angle D) All of these
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)
(Memory Based) 9.46 × 1015
This number is greater than 5,
11. The dimensional formula of (μ0 ε0 )+1 is- But, Order of magnitude = 15 + 1 = 16.
A) [L1 T −1 ] B) [L2 T −2 ]
15. In a particular system, the units of
C) [L−2 T2 ] D) [L−1 T −1 ]
length, mass and time are chosen to be 5
Ans. (C)
1 m, 20 kg and 45s respectively. The unit
𝐶= με
√ 0 0 of force in this system is equivalents to:
1
 μ0 ε0 = 2
C A) 0.16 N B) 6.25 N
 [μ0 ε0 ] C) 0.8 N D) 6.25 N
= [M 0 L−2 T 2 ]
12. Find the maximum permissible Ans. (A)
percentage error in the calculation of n1 u1 = n2 u2
m (20 kg )×(15 𝑚)
force on a object of mass M = (4.0 ± 0.1) 1 kg = n2 ×
s2 (45)2
kg, travelling with velocity v = (10 ± 0.1) m (20 kg )×(5m)
m/s in a circle of radius. ∴ 1 kg = n2 ×
s2 (45)2
r = (8.0 ± 0.2) m. 16 16
n2 = =
A) ± 5% B) ± 8% 20 × 5 100
C) ± 4% D) ±7% n2 = 0 ∙ 16 N
Ans. (D)
mv2 16. Number of fundamental units in SI
F=
ΔF
r
Δm ΔV Δr system are
∴ F = M +2 V + r A) 5 B) 7
0.1 0.1 0.2
= 4 + 2 × 10 + 8 C) 6 D) 9
= 0.025 + 0.02 + 0.025
ΔF Ans. (B)
= 0.07
F [Memory based]
% error = 0.07 × 100 % = 7%

13. If the momentum of a body is increased 17. Which of the following relation is wrong?
10 %, then the percentage increases in A) 1 J = 107 erg
kinetic energy of the body is ________. B) 1 dyne = 105 N
A) 20% B) 21% C) 1 fm = 10−15 m
C) 22% D) 19% D) 1 Parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m
Ans. (B) Ans. (B)
As % change is > 10 % [Memory based]
p2
KE = 2m 18. The volume and surface area of a sphere
2
KE αp is measured and has same value. What
K1 P 2
= ( 1) is the radius of such sphere.
K2 P2
K2 A) 3 unit B) 9 unit
K1
= (1.1)2 C) 27 unit D) 4 unit
k2
= 1.21 Ans. (A)
k1 4
k −k 1.21−1 πr 3 = 4πr 2
∴ 2k 1 = 1 3
1 ⇒r=3
ΔK
∴ = 0.21 = 21%
K

2
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
19. The angle between two observed direction 22. Which pair given below has different
for a planet observed from two dimensional formula?
diametrically opposite points A and B of A) Torque and work
earth is 1.6° If the diameter of the earth is B) Tension, Surface Tension
1.276 × 10 km. Find the distance between C) Impulse of force and
planet and earth. D) Angular momentum, linear
A) 4.57 × 105 km B) 4.57 × 108 km momentum plank’s
C) 3.84 × 108 m D) 4.08 × 108 m Ans. (B)
Ans. (A) Tension ⇒ force = N
Force N
Surface tension = =
Length m

23. If u1 and u2 are units of some physical

quantify and n1 and n2 are their
quantative values, then ________
n u n u
A) n1 = u1 B) n1 = u2
2 2 2 1
n1 u1 n1 n2
C) = D) =
u2 n2 u1 u2
arc
angle = radius Ans. (B)
arc
Radius = angle n1 u1 = n2 u2
n1 u
1.276×1A04 = u2
Radius = π
n2 1
1.6×
180
= 4.57 × 105 km. 24. Momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are
taken as fundamental quantities,
20. A body travels (14.0 ± 0.2) m in (4.0 dimensions of energy are ________.
± 0.3)s Its velocity is ________ m/s A) p1 A−1 T −1 B) p2 A1 T1
A) (3.5 ± 0.51) B) (3.5 ± 0.41) 1
C) p2 A−2 T1 D) p1 A1/2 T −1
C) (3.5 ± 0.31) D) (3.5 ± 0.21) Ans. (D)
Ans. (C) E α px Ay T z
d 14 [M1 L2 T −2 ] = [M1 L1 T −1 ] [L2 ]4 [T1 ]z
v= =
t 4 For mass x = 1
v= For length x + 2y = 2
m 2y = 2 − 1
3.5 s
Δv Δd Δt 2𝑦 = 2 − 1
= +t 1
v d 2y = 1  y = 2
Δv 0.2 0.3
v
= 14
+ 4 For time ⇒ −x + z = −2
Δv ≈ 0.089 × 0.35 z = −2 + x
Δv = 0.31 = −2 + 1
z = −1
21. 9.15 + 3.8 = ________ (consider E α p1 A1/2 T −1
significant figures)
A) 13 B) 13.00 25. Select the following that is true. [q] =
C) 13.0 D) 13.000 [M1 L0−1 T −1 ] and V = velocity, A = area t
Ans. (C) is time
9.15 dv dt
3.8
A) q = A B) q = A
dt dv
+ Only 1 digit after decimal 1 dv
1296 C) q = D) None of these
A dt
13.0 → opt [C]
Ans. (D)

3
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
(A) [L2 ]
[L1 T−1 ]
= [L3 T −2 29. Velocity v is given by v = at 2 + bt + c
[T1 ]
where t is time, find the dimensions of
[T1 ]
(B) [L2 ] [L1 T−1 ] = L1 T 2 abc
[L1 T−1 ] A) [M 0 L3 T −6 ] B) [M 0 L−3 T −6 ]
(C) = L−1 T −2
[L2 ][T] C) [M 0 L3 T 3 ] D) [M 0 L1 T −1 ]
Ans. (A)
26. In a hypothetical system. Unit of velocity [v] = [a] [t 2 ] = [b][t] = [c]
is 4 m/s, the unit of acceleration is 24 c = L1 T −1
m/s 2 and the unit of force is 6 N, then b = L1 T −2
the unit of energy is (Hint- E’ = fv 2 /a) a = L1 T −3
A) 4 J B) 6 J ∴ abc = M 0 L3 T −6
C) 8 J D) 10 J
Ans. (A) 30. The dimensions of stress are
Fv2
E= A) [M 0 L0 T 0 ] B) [M1 L2 T −2 ]
a
𝑚 2 C) [M1 L0 T −2 ] D) [M1 L−1 T −2 ]
6N×(4×4)( )
= 𝑚
𝑠
Ans. (D)
24 ( 2)
6×16
𝑠
[Memory based]
= 24
E=4J 31. If the voltage is 25 volt and current is 2
27. In a screw gauge the main scale division Ampere, then value of resistance is _____
is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on (upto correct significant figure)
circular scale. What is the least count of A) 50 ohm B) 12 ohm
the screw gauge? C) 12.5 ohm D) 10 ohm
A) 1 mm B) 0.1 mm Ans. (D)
C) 0.01 mm D) 1 cm V = IR
Ans. (C) R=
V
=
25
= 12.5 ohm.
pitch 1mm I 2
Least count = = = 0.01 Min significant figure in data is of
No.divisions 100
mm current = 1
So nearest number to 12.5 having 1
28. In a new system of units the significant figure is 10.
fundamental quantities mass, length and
time are replaced by acceleration ‘a’ 32. Given relation between position (x) &
density ‘S’ and frequency ‘f’. The time (t) is x = x 0 Sin ωt Find relation for
dimensional formula for force in this
acceleration.
system is
A) x 0ω2Sinωt B) -x 0ω2Sinωt
A) [S1 a4 f 1 ] B) [S1 a4 f −6 ]
C) [S −1 a−4 f 6 ] D) [S −1 a−4 f −1 ] C) -x 0Sinωt D) -x 0 ω2 Cosωt
Ans. (B) Ans. (B)
[F] = [a]x [S]y [F] 𝑧 d2x d
[M1 L1 T −2 ] = [M 0 L1 T −2 ]𝑥 [𝑀1 𝐿−3 𝑇 0 ]𝑦 a= = (x 0 ωcosωt)
[M 0 L0 T −1 ] 𝑧 dt 2 dt
For mass y = 1 = −x0 ω2 sinωt
For length 1 = x – 3y
∴ x = 1 + 3y = 1 + 3 = 4 33. For a particle velocity-time relation is
For time -2 = -2x – z
given by v = αt 2 , here α = 2 m/s2 . Find its
z = −2x + 2
z = -2×4+2 m
velocity when its acceleration is 4 .
z = −6 s2
Hence, A) 4 m/s B) 8 m/s
F α a4 s1 f −6 C) 2 m/s D) 1 m/s

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STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
V = αt 2 a = -βt
𝑑𝑣 dv
a= 𝑑𝑡
= 2 𝛼𝑡  dt
= -β
4 = 2×2t 
v t
∫0 dv = ∫0 −βt dt
 t = 1s
t2
So, V=-β
2
m
V=2×12 =2
s
37. A particle performing a rectilinear motion
34. For a particle position time relation is
(starting from origin) has acceleration-
given by x = at 2 − bt 3 at what time will the
position relation as a = 7x 2 . If initially it’s
acceleration be zero?
speed is 2m/s, find its velocity when
A) a/b B) a/2b
particle is at unit displacement from
C) b/3a D) a/3b
origin.
Ans. (D)
A) 4.2 m/s B) 2.94 m/s
x = at 2 − bt 3
𝑑 C) 12.1 m/s D) 9.2 m/s
a= 𝑑𝑡
(2at – 3 bt2) Ans. (B)
= 2a – 6 bt = 0 a = 7x 2
𝑎
⇒ t = 3𝑏 dv
 V = 7x 2
dx
35. A particle travelling along straight line v 1
has a displacement time relation as  2 Vdv= 0 7x 2dx
following S = t 3 - 2t 2 . Find its velocity  V 2-22 = 2×7×3
1

when its acceleration is zero. 14

−4 4  V2 = +4
A) m/s B) m/s 3
26
3 3
9 −9  V2 =
C) m/s D) m/s 3
7 7
 V = 2.94 m/s
Ans. (A)
38. For a linear motion, position & velocity
S = t 3 - 2t 2
are related as x 2 =8v3 If particle is at rest
ds
V= = 3t 2 − 4t initially and at origin. What is the
dt
relation between acceleration and time?
a = 6t-4 = 0
A) a α t B) a α t
2 2 1/2
t=3
C) a α t D) a α t
3
V= 3t 2 - 4t
2 Ans. (D)
2 2 x2 = 8v3
V= 3   − 4  
3 3 1
𝑥2 3
−4 ⇒ (8) = 𝑣
= m/s
3 𝑥 2/3
⇒ 𝑣= 2
SECTION – B 2
𝑑𝑥 𝑥3
36. For a particle under straight line motion 𝑑𝑡
= 2
acceleration & time are related as a = - β ⇒
𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑡 𝑑𝑡
= ∫0
∫0 𝑥 2/3 2
t. If particle is at rest initially find it’s 1
𝑡
velocity-time relation. ⇒ 3𝑥 = 3
2
1
-βt 2 βt 2 ⇒ 𝑡 = 6𝑥 3
A) V= B) V=
2 2 𝑡3
⇒ 𝑥 = (6)3
βt
C) V = D) V= - 2βt ⇒𝑎𝛼𝑡
2

5
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
39. Velocity of a particle depends on time as  2√x = kt
V=5t . The particle has
2 k2 2
⇒x= 4
t
A) Uniform acceleration k2
B) Uniform retardation a= 2
C) Non-uniform acceleration ⇒ Δa = 0
D) Zero acceleration
Ans. (C) 43. Find time average for acceleration over
V = 5t2 time, t1 = 2s to t 2 = 3s, given equation of
dv acceleration is a = 6t 2 .
⇒ dt = 10t
A) 38 B) 50
 a = 10t C) 42 D) 47
Hence, a αt Ans. (A)
i.e Acceleration is Non – Uniform t
∫t 2 adt
a= 1
Δt
40. Position time relation for a particle is 3
∫2 6t2 dt 3
given by y = a + bt - ct 2 + dt 4 , find its a= (3−2)
= [2t 3 ]2 = 38.
initial velocity & acceleration.
A) b, - 2c B) –b, - 2c 44. The relation t = √x + 9 describes the
C) 2b, c D) -2b, -2c position of a particle where x is position
Ans. (A) in m & t is time in sec. Find position
y = a + bt - ct 2 + dt 4 where acceleration is zero.
V = b – 2c t + 4dt 3 =
dy A) It is a uniform accelerated motion
dt
B) No such condition is possible
(v)t=0 = b
dv C) Acceleration is 2 m/s 2
a= = −2c + 12dt 2
dt D) All of the above
(a)t=0 = −2c Ans. (D)
t = √x + 9
41. For a particle initially with velocity V0 , ⇒ (t − 9)2 = x
acceleration & time are related as f = at 2. V = 2(t − 9)
Which amongst is correct? ⇒ 𝑎 = 2 m/s2
at at2
A) V = V0 + B) V = V0 −
3 2
at3 at3 45. The displacement for a particle is related
C) V = V0 + 3 D) V = 3 to time as S = 3t 3 + 5t 2 . Find its
Ans. (C) acceleration at t = 1 unit.
F = at 2 A) 18 units B) 28 units
dv
⇒ dt
= at 2 C) 10 units D) 20 units
v t Ans. (B)
⇒ ∫v dv = ∫0 at 2 dt
0 d
at3 a= (9t 2 + 10t) = 18t + 10
 v − v0 = 3
dt
at3 ⇒ (a)t=1 = 18 + 10 = 28
⇒V= V0 + 3
42. If velocity of a particle is related with 46. If position & time are related as x α t 2
position as V = k √x. Find change in then.
acceleration for first 2 seconds. A) Velocity is constant
k2 B) Acceleration is constant
A) 2
B) k 2
C) Acceleration is variable
C) 4 k 2 D) Zero
D) None of the above
Ans. (D)
Ans. (B)
v = k√x
x dx t xαt 2 ⟶ vαt ⟶ a = constant
⇒ ∫0 = ∫0 kdt
√x

6
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
47. If position time relation is x = 5t − 7t .
2 3 dv
= 2(t − 1)
dt
Find ratio of instantaneous acceleration
⇒ v = t 2 − 2t
to instantaneous velocity, when velocity
v=9−2×3 = 3
is zero.
A) 10 : 21 B) 21 : 10
50. If velocity & time for a linear motion are
C) 52 : 17 D) Not defined
related as v = 2t 2. How are position &
Ans. (D)
acceleration related. If initial condition is
V = 10t – 21t 2 = 0
10 as t = 0, x = & v = 0.
⇒ t = 0 or t = 21 1/3 2/3
3 3
a 10−42t
= 10t−21t2 =
10
⟶Not defined. A) 4 (2 x) B) (2 x)
v 0
2 1/3 2 2/3
48. The motion of a particle is defined by x = C) (3 x) D) 4 (3 x)
pt 2 + qt 3 p = 15 cm & q = 3cm/s 2 . Find its Ans. (A)
instantaneous acceleration at t = 3s.
V = 2t 2
A) 92 cm/s 2 B) 82 cm/s 2
x t
C) 84 cm/s 2 D) 20 cm/s 2 ⇒ ∫0 dx = ∫0 2t 2 dt
Ans. (C) ⇒x=
2
t3
d 3
a = dt (2pt + 39t 2 ) = 2p + 6qt 1/3
3
⇒ (a)t=3 = 2 × 15 + 6 × 3 × 3 ⇒ t = (2 𝑥)
⇒ (a)t=3 = 84 cm/s2 3 2/3
V = 2 (2 x)
49. Starting from rest, the acceleration of a dv 3 2/3 3 2/3 d 2
a=V = 2 ( x) 2( ) (x 3 )
particle is a = 2(t − 1). The velocity of the dx 2 2 dx
4
particle at t = 3s is 3 4/3 2/3 2 3 3 3 −1 1/3
=4 ( ) x 𝑥 −1/3 = 4 ( ) ( ) 𝑥
A) 12 B) Zero 2 3 2 2
1/3
C) 3 D) 9 =
3
4 ( ) x1/3
2
Ans. (C)

CHEMISTRY SOLUTION
SECTION – A
51. The third period of periodic table contains 54 Element – Krypton [Noble gas].
A) 8 elements B) 32 elements
C) 3 elements D) 18 elements
Ans. (A) 53. Which of the following represents the
8 elements present in third period. given sequence of hybridization of carbon
Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, Ar. atoms from left to right sp2, sp2, sp, sp?
A) CH2 = CH − C ≡ CH
52. The tenth element in the periodic table
B) CH ≡ C − CH = CH2
resembles the element with atomic
number C) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3
A) 2 as well as 30 D) CH2 = CH − CH = CH2
B) 2 as well as 54
Ans. (A)
C) 8 as well as 18
D) 8 only CH2 = CH − C ≡ CH
Ans. (B)
Tenth element – Neon [Noble gas]
2 Element – Helium [Noble gas]

7
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
sp sp 58. The long form of periodic table was based
H H on.
A) Atomic number
H-C=C-C C-H
B) Atomic mass
2 C) Atomic volume
sp2 sp D) Effective nuclear charge
Ans. (A)
54. The discovery of which of the following Atomic Number
group of elements gave death to the
Newland law of octave? 59. The hydration energy of Mg+2 is greater
A) Inert gas than the hydration energy of
B) Alkaline earth metal A) Al+3 B) Mg+3
C) Rare earth C) Na+ D) Be+2
D) Actinoid series Ans. (C)
Ans. (A) Na+
Inert Gas gave death to the Newland law Hydration energy ∝
Charge on cation
Size of cation
of octave.
60. Which condition favours the bond
formation:
55. What is the name of element with atomic
A) Maximum attraction and maximum
number 105? potential energy
A) Kurchatovium B) Dubnium B) Minimum attraction and minimum
C) Nobelium D) Holmium potential energy
Ans. (B) C) Minimum potential energy and
Dubnium maximum attraction
D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
56. Which of the following oxide is
The most stable condition is condition of
amphoteric?
minimum potential energy.
A) Na2O B) Al2O3
C) SO3 D) P2O5
61. The hydration of ionic compounds
Ans. (B)
involves-
Na2O → Basic oxid
A) Evolution of heat
Al2O3 → Amphoteric
B) Weakening of attraction
SO3 → Acidic
C) Dissociation into ions
P2O5 → Acidic
D) All
Ans. (D)
57. The correct order of electron affinity of Based on definition of hydration.
halogens is:
A) F > Cl > Br > I 62. The lattice energy of the lithium is in the
B) I > Br > Cl > F following order:
C) Cl > F > Br > I A) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI
D) Cl > F > I > Br B) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI
Ans. (C) C) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
The electron affinity of F is less than that D) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF
of Cl due to small size of the F atom. The Ans. (A)
addition of an extra electron to the LE ∝
Charge
Size
valence shell of the F atom produces a
Size : F < Cl− < Br − < I −
−
strong (𝑒 − − 𝑒 − ) repulsion.
 LE : LiF > Licl > LiBr > Li I

8
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
63. An ionic compound A+ B- is most likely to 67. The most covalent halide is: -
be formed when- A) AlF3 B) AlCl3
A) Ionization energy of A is low C) AlBr3 D) AlI3
B) Electron affinity of B is high Ans. (D)
C) Electron affinity of B is low Based on fajan’s rule
D) Both (A) and (B)
Since I- is large anion, hence AlI3 will be
Ans. (D)
most covalent.
Based on definition of Ionic bond.

68. Determine the DU for the structure

64. As compared to covalent compounds
electrovalent compounds generally O
possess?
A) High m.p. and high b.p.
B) Low m.p. and low b.p.
C) Low m.p. and high b.p. N
D) High m.p. and low b.p. A) 6 B) 4
Ans. (A)
C) 5 D) 2
Ionic compounds have strong lattice
structure hence they have high m.p. & Ans. (B)
high b.p. DU = no of π-bonds + No of ring.

65. Which of the compound is least soluble in

water?
A) AgF B) AgCl
C) AgBr D) Agl DU = 4 + 0
Ans. (D) DU = 4.
Based on fajan’s rule
Ionic character 69. The correct order of decreasing
Solubility ∝ Covalent character polarizable ions is:
Ag I will have maximum covalent A) Cl− , Br − , I − , F − B) F − , I − , Br − , Cl−
character hence Ag I is least soluble. C) F − , Cl− , Br − , I − D) I − , Br − , Cl− , F −
Ans. (D)
66. Determine the DU for the structure
Polarizability of anion  size

I- > Br- > Cl- > F-

Br
70. Vital Force Theory was proposed by
A) 3 B) 4 A) Kolbe B) F. Wohler
C) 5 D) 6 C) Berzelius D) Berthelot
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
DU = number of π-bonds + Number of ring Berzelius.

71. How many σ and π bonds are present in

CH2=CH-CH=CH-CH3?
A) 9σ, 4π B) 12𝜎, 2π
C) 12σ, 6π D) 10σ, 3π
Ans. (B)

9
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
c) iii)

d) iv)

12 𝜎, 2 π

72. Identify which functional group are not

A) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
present in the given following compound? B) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
O O C) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii
D) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv
Ans. (A)
NH Bond line Complete represents/condensed
represent represent

O O
A) Ketone B) Ester
C) Amide D) Ether
Ans. (D)

73. Calculate the DU for C8H13BrO

A) 3 B) 2 75. Which of the following correctly matched
C) 4 D) 5 the bond line and condensed structure of
Ans. (B) the compounds?
(H + X − N) (i)
DU = (C + 1) -
2
C8H13BrO
(ii)
C = 8; H = 13; X(Br) = 1

(13 + 1 − 0 )
DU = ( 8 + 1) − =9–7 (iii)
2
DU = 2.

74. Match the column I and column II and A) Only (i) B) Only (ii)
mark the appropriate choice. C) Only (i) and (ii)
D) All are correct
Column I Column II
Ans. (D)
a) i) Bond Condensed
represent/structure

b) ii)

10
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
CH3 CH3 General formula of both alcohol same,
| |
CH3 - C - CH2 - CH- CH3 that is
|
CH3 CnH2n+2O.

OHC - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - CHO 79. Calculate the DU for C10H20O
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4
Ans. (A)
(H + X − N)
D.U = (C + 1) −
2
76. How many 2° hydrogen atoms are present C10H20O
in the given following compounds?
Cl C = 10; H = 20

( 20 + 0 − 0 )
D.U = (10 + 1) −
A) 2 B) 5 2
C) 7 D) 8 = 11 – 10
Ans. (C)
Degree of hydrogen is same as the degree DU = 1.
of carbon to which it is attached. 80. Determine the DU for the structure.
O

OCH2CH3

A) 5 B) 4
2 Hydrogen  7. C) 3 D) 6
Ans. (A)
77. Which of the following electronic
configuration is of transition elements?
A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p1
C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 D.U = Number of π-bonds + number of
D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2 rings.
Ans. (D) =4+1
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2
DU = 5.
78. Homologous compound has same:
A) General formula 81. From the following pairs of ions which
B) Emperical formula one is not an isoelectronic pair?
C) Structural formula A) Na+, Mg2+ B) Mn2+, Fe3+
D) Molecular formula C) Fe2+, Mn2+ D) O2-, F-
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
General formula. Isoelectronic pair is having same number
of e-s.
e.g.  For alcohol.

CH3 – OH and CH3 – CH2 – OH both are 82. Total number of different functional
homologous. group present in following compound.

11
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
C N
OH

Cl
A) 4 B) 3
C) 2 D) 5 Number of functional groups = 4.
Ans. (B)
85. Find no of σ and π bond in
CH3

3. H3C CH3
83. Total number of different functional A) 22, 2 B) 21, 3
group present in following compound
C) 22, 3 D) 12, 3
H Ans. (B)
N
N
H
A) 1 B) 2
C) 4 D) 5
Ans. (A)

SECTION – B
86. Wohlr’s synthesis is used for the
preparation of –
A) Glycine B) Amino acids
1. C) Urea D) Proteins
Ans. (C)
84. Total number of different functional Urea
group present in following compound O
||
H 
NH4CNO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
rearrangement
→ NH2 − C− NH2
C O H ( Urea )

H O O O
87. General formula of alkyne is
A) 4 B) 3
A) CnH2n + 2 B) CnH2n
C) 2 D) 1
C) CnH2n – 2 D) CnHn
Ans. (A)
Ans. (C)
General formula of alkyne is CnH2n-2

12
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
88. Which of the following configuration will D) None of the above
have least electron affinity? Ans. (B)
Mendeleev's periodic law is based on
A) ns2np5 B) ns2np2
Atomic Weight.
C) ns2np3 D) ns2np4
Ans. (C) 92. Which of the following pairs of elements
have almost similar atomic radii: -
Due to np orbital is half filled which
A) Zr, Hf B) Mo, W
results in extra stability. C) Co, Ni D) All
Ans. (D)
All are correct
89. Highest melting point would be of
A) AlCl3 B) LiCl 93. In which of the following element has
C) NaCl D) BeCl2 highest value of ionization energy-
Ans. (C) A) Ti B) Zr
C) Hf D) None
NaCl is ionic in characters, hence it will Ans. (C)
have high melting point. Hf element has highest value of ionization
energy.

90. The functional groups present in

94. Second electron affinity of an element is: -
Cortisone are:
A) Always exothermic
CH2OH
OCH3 B) Endothermic for few elements
CH3
O C) Exothermic for few elements
D) Always endothermic
Ans. (D)
Always endothermic
O
A) Ether, alkene, alcohol
B) Alcohol, ketone, alkene, ether 95. Correct order of electronegativity of N, P,
C) Alcohol, ketone, amine C and Si is: -
D) Ether, amine, ketone A) N < P < C < Si
B) N > C > Si > P
C) N = P > C = Si
D) N > C > P > Si
Ans. (B) Ans. (D)
Correct order of electronegativity of N, P,
C and Si is N > C > P > Si

96. Ionic conductances of hydrated M+ ions

are in the order-
A) Li+(aq) > Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) >
Cs+(aq)
B) Li+(aq) > Na+(aq) < K+(aq) < Rb+(aq) <
91. Mendeleev's periodic law is based on-
A) Atomic number Cs+(aq)
B) Atomic weight C) Li+(aq) > Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) <
C) Number of neutrons
Cs+(aq)

13
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
D) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq) < Rb+(aq) <
99. The correct order of increasing thermal
Cs+(aq)
stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and
Ans. (D) BeCO3 is
Ionic conductance ∝ 1/hydrated radii A) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
Order of hydrated radii: B) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
C) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
+
Liaq +
 Na aq +
 K aq +
 Rbaq +
 Csaq D) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3
Ans. (A)
Order of Ionic conductance: The thermal stability of carbonates
+ + + + + increases in a group, as we move from
Liaq  Na aq  K aq  Rbaq  Cs aq
top to bottom and decreases in a period
97. What is the correct order of ionisation as we move from left to right.
energy?
A) K < Cu < Cu+ < K+
100. In which of the following hydration energy
B) K < Cu+ < Cu < K+
is higher than lattice energy
C) Cu+ < K < Cu < K+
A) MgSO4 B) CaSO4
D) K+ < Cu+ < Cu < K
C) BaSO4 D) SrSO4
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
98. CuCl has more covalent character than Charge on cation
NaCl because Hydration energy ∝ Size of cation
A) Na+ has more polarizing power than Cu+
B) Cu+ has more polarizing power than Na+
C) Cl- has pseudo inert gas electron
configuration
D) Na+ has pseudo inert gas electron
configuration
Ans. (B)
Size of Na+ and Cu+ is nearly same
But Zeff of Cu+ is more than Na+.

BOTANY SOLUTION
SECTION – A D) The membrane bound organelles
101. Unicellular organisms are capable of: cause differentiation for proper
A) Independent existence functioning.
B) Forming multicellular organisms Ans. (A)
C) Becoming multicellular 103. Choose incorrect statement:
D) Sexual reproduction A) Leeuwenhoek first saw and described
Ans. (A) a living cell
102. Cell is the fundamental structural and B) Robert Brown discovered cell
functional unit of all living organisms C) Electron microscope revealed all the
because: structural details of cell
A) Anything less than a complete D) A large cell has a higher volume:
structure of a cell does not ensure surface ratio than a smaller cell
independent living. Ans. (B)
B) The metabolic reactions can only 104. Which one of the following is not a
occur inside a living cell. constituent of cell membrane?
C) Nucleic acids present in the cells A) Phospholipids B) Glycolipids
ensure living state. C) Proline D) Cholesterol

14
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
Ans. (A) 111. Cell theory formulated by Schleiden and
105. The plasma membrane consists mainly of Schwann does not explain which one of
A) phospholipids embedded in a protein the following features?
bilayer A) Organisms are composed of cells and
B) proteins embedded in a phospholipid their products
bilayer B) All cells are basically alike in their
C) proteins embedded in a polymer of structure and metabolism
glucose molecules C) New cells originate from pre-existing
D) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate cells
bilayer D) The function of an organism is an
Ans. (A) outcome of activities and interactions
106. The tail of the phospholipid molecule: of its constituent cells
A) Is hydrophilic and composed of Ans. (C)
phosphate 112. Which of the following organelles is
B) Is hydrophilic and composed of smallest in size?
saturated hydrocarbons A) Ribosome B) Mitochondrial
C) Is hydrophobic and composed of C) Chloroplast D) Lysosome
saturated hydrocarbons Ans. (A)
D) Is hydrophobic and composed of 113. Polysome is formed by?
unsaturated Hydrocarbon A) Several ribosomes attached to a single
Ans. (C) mRNA
107. Which of the following is the largest B) Many ribosomes attached to a strand
constituent of the membrane of the of endoplasmic reticulum
erythrocyte in human beings and is also C) A ribosome with several subunits
responsible for performing most of the D) Ribosomes attached to each other in a
functions of the membrane? linear arrangement
A) Proteins B) Lipids Ans. (D)
C) Glycolipids D) Glycoproteins 114. DNA is not present in?
Ans. (B) A) Chloroplast B) Ribosomes
108. Cell theory was proposed by C) Nucleus D) Mitochondria
A) a botanist B) a zoologist Ans. (B)
C) a botanist and p zoologist 115. Which one of the following is not an
D) a psychologist inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
Ans. (A) A) Phosphate granule
109. The concept of "Omnis cellula-e-cellula" B) Cyanophycean granule
regarding cell division was first proposed C) Glycogen granule
by? D) Polysome
A) Rudolf Virchow B) Aristotle Ans. (D)
C) Theodore Schwann D) Schleiden 116. What is true about ribosomes?
Ans. (A) A) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S,
110. Which one of the following is incorrect where S stands for
statement? B) Sedimentation coefficient
A) All organisms are composed of cells C) These are composed of ribonucleic
B) Cell is the basic unit of life acid and proteins
C) All inanimate things are made up of D) These are found only in eukaryotic
cells cells
D) Virus is acellular Ans. (C)
Ans. (C) 117. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place
in?

15
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
A) Mitochondria B) Chromoplast B) Infoldings of membrane
C) Ribosomes D) Chloroplast C) Presence of cell wall
Ans. (C) D) Aerobic respiration
118. Cell envelope in bacteria consists of? Ans. (A)
A) Plasma membrane only 127. The organelle common among prokaryotic
B) Plasma membrane and mesosome and eukaryotic cell is?
C) Glycocalyx only A) Centrosome B) Ribosome
D) Glycocalyx, cell wall and plasma C) Peroxisome D) Glyoxysome
membrane Ans. (B()
Ans. (D) 128. The main arena of various types of
119. Which of the following structure is not activities of a cell is?
found in a prokaryotic cell? A) Plasma membrane B) Nucleus
A) Nuclear envelope B) Ribosome C) Mitochondrion D) Cytoplasm
C) Plasma membrane D) Mesosome Ans. (D)
Ans., (A) 129. Which of the following sequence is correct
120. Pigment-containing membranous w.r.t. size?
extensions in some cyanobacteria are? A) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses >
A) Heterocyst B) Basal bodies Bacteria
C) Pneumatophores B) Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO >
D) Chromatophores Viruses
Ans. (D) C) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Bacteria >
121. In 70 S, S is? Viruses
A) Sedimentation coefficient D) Eukaryotic cell > Viruses > PPLO >
B) Indirect measure of density and size Bacteria
C) Indirect measure of mass and size Ans. (B)
D) Both A and B 130. Plant cell wall is mainly composed of?
Ans. (D) A) Cellulose B) Lipid
122. Prokaryotic cells have something unique C) Protein D) Sugar
in the form of: Ans. (A)
A) Inclusion bodies B) Plasmids 131. The major interaction responsible for
C) 70 S ribosomes D) Cell wall stabilizing plasma membrane?
Ans. (A) A) Hydrophobic interactions
123. Which one of these is not a eukaryote? B) Hydrophilic interactions
A) Euglena B) Anabaena C) Covalent bonds
C) Spirogyra D) Agaricus D) Ionic bonds
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
124. How many of the following kingdoms are 132. Quasi-fluid nature of membrane is due
eukaryotic? (Monera, Protista, Plantae, to?
Animalia, Fungi) A) Phospholipid
A) 5 B) 4 B) Peripheral protein
C) 3 D) 2 C) Integral protein
Ans. (B) D) Sugar moiety
125. Common layer of two plant cells are: Ans. (A)
A) Plasmodermata B) Pit 133. Largest organelles in cell is?
C) Middle lamella D) Pectinase A) Golgi bodies B) Lysosomes
Ans. (A) C) Centrioles in animals and plastids in
126. Eukaryotic cells considered as more plant cell
efficient than prokaryotic cells, due to: D) Mitochondria in animal cell and
A) Compartmentalization of cytoplasm chloroplast in plant cell

16
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
Ans. (D) Ans. (A)
134. This is not the function of plasma 142. A cell “X” contains a cell wall, large
membrane? central vacuole and a nucleus at the
A) Energy transduction periphery. The cell “X” is _________?
B) Intercellular interactions A) Plant cell B) Animal cell
C) Responding to external stimuli C) Prokaryotic cell D) Bacterial cell
D) Assisting in chromosome segregation Ans. (A)
Ans. (D) 143. Which one of the following does not differ
135. Animal cell lacking nuclei would also lack in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?
in? A) Cell membrane B) Cell wall
A) Ribosome B) Lysosome C) Chromosomal organization
C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Ribosomes
D) Chromosome Ans. (A)
Ans. (D) 144. The association of more than one
SECTION – B ribosome with a single molecule of mRNA
136. Different cells have different sizes. complex is called as:
Arrange the following cells in an A) Polypeptide B) Polysome
ascending order of their size. Choose the C) Polysaccharide D) Polymer
correct option among the following? Ans. (B)
(I) Mycoplasma 145. In human cheek cells, the nucleus is
(II) Ostrich eggs located at the ________?
(III) Human RBS A) Center of the cell
(IV) Bacteria B) The left side of the cell
A) I, IV, III, II B) I, I, III, IV C) The right side of the cell
C) II, I, III, IV D) III, II, I, IV D) None of these
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
137. Which structures perform the function of 146. Plasmodesmata is present in:
mitochondria in bacteria? A) Xylum cell B) Phloem cell
A) Mesosomes B) Ribosomes C) Middle lamella D) Pit area
C) Cell wall D) Nucleoid Ans. (D)
Ans. (A) 147. Most abundant lipid in the cell
138. Cytoplasmic connection between two membrane is?
plant cells. A) Phospholipids B) Cerebroside
A) Middle lamella B) Pit C) Glycolipid D) None of these
C) Plasmo desmata Ans. (A)
D) Desmotubules 148. Which pair of structures are usually
Ans. (B) found in both plant and animal cells?
139. A cell that contains a large central A) Cell membrane and nucleolus
vacuole is? B) Cell membrane and cell wall
A) Plant cell B) Animal cell C) Nucleolus and chloroplast
C) Bacterial cell D) Yeast cell D) Nucleus and cell wall
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
140. Middle lamella is formed of: 149. In some bacteria, the outermost layer is a
A) Calcium B) Ca pectate loose sheath layer called as?
C) Magnesium D) Mg pectate A) Slime layer B) Capsule
Ans. (C) C) Cell membrane D) Glycocalyx
141. Which enzyme helps in ripening of fruit? Ans. (B)
A) Pectinase B) Ethylene
C) Ethaphene D) Pectate

17
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
150. Beetroot, if kept in cold water, B) Differentially permeable
anthocyanin does not come out due to C) Permeable to anthocyanins
plasma membrane? D) Impermeable to anthocyanins
A) Dead Ans. (D)

ZOOLOGY SOLUTION
SECTION – A C) Spermatids, Spermatocytes,
151. The vas deferens receives but from seminal Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa.
vesicle and open into Urethra as: D) Spermatogonia, Spermatocytes,
A) Epididymis B) Ureter
C) Ejaculatory duct Spermatozoa, Spermatids.
D) Vasa efferentia Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 156. In humans, the oocytes are maintained in
152. The principal tail piece of human sperm
the state of meiotic arrest by secretions of:
has ________ Microtubular arrangement.
A) 7 + 2 B) 9 + 2 A) Granulosa Cells
C) 9 + 10 D) 10 + 2 B) Zona Pellucida
Ans. (B)
153. All of the following are found in C) Cumulus oophorous
seminiferous tubules. Except: - D) Theca
A) Leydig’s Cells B) Sertoli Cells
Ans. (A)
C) Spermatogonia D) Spermotids
Ans. (A) 157. Glands of Skene and Bartholin’s gland are
154. The difference between spermiogenesis and also known as:
spermiation is: A) Prostate glands
A) In spermiogenesis spermatids are
formed, while in spermiation B) Cowper’s glands
spermatozoa are formed C) Vestibular glands
B) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation D) Homologous glands
spermatids are formed Ans. (C)
C) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
Sertoli Cells are released. Into the 158. Match Column-I with Column-II.
cavity of seminiferous tubules. While in Column-I Column-II
spermiation spermatozoa are formed
D) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are a Proliferative i Breakdown of
formed, while in spermiation phase endometrial
spermatozoa are released from Sertoli
Cells into the cavity of seminiferous fining
tubules
Ans. (D) b Secretory phase ii Follicular
155. What is the correct sequence of sperm phase
formation?
c Menstruation iii Luteal phase
A) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa,
Spermatocytes, Spermatids. a b c
A) iii ii i
B) Spermatogonia, Spermatocytes,
B) i iii ii
Spermatids, Spermatozoa. C) ii iii i
D) iii i ii

18
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
Ans. (C) D) Rest to the follicles get matured during
159. Changes in hypothalamic hormones – childhood
GnRH is controlled by-
Ans. (B)
A) Progesterone only
163. Statement 1 : The primary oocyte and the
B) Progesterone and Inhibin
follicle in Graafian follicle may be regarded
C) Estrogen & Progesterone as sibling cells.
D) Estrogen and Inhibin Statement 2 : Both arise from same parent
Ans. (C) cell, the oogonium, by mitotic divisions.
A) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct
160. Assertion: The middle piece is called
“Power House of the sperm” B) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2
Reason: The numerous mitochondria is incorrect
coiling around axial filament produce C) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement
energy for movement of the tail.
2 is correct
A) Both assertion and Reason are true and
D) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
Reason is correct explanation of
Ans. (A)
Assertion.
164. Which of the following depicts the site of
B) Both assertion and Reason are true but
implantation of blastocyst under normal
Reason is not the correct explanation of condition?
Assertion.
C) Both Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
D) If Assertion is true and Reason is False.
Ans. (A)
161. Mature Graafian follicle is generally A) II B) V
present in the ovary of a healthy human
C) I D) VI
female around-
A) 5-8 days of Menstrual Cycle Ans. (C)

B) 11-17 days of Menstrual Cycle 165. In oogenesis, a diploid oogonium will

produce ________.
C) 24-28 days of Menstrual Cycle
A) 2 Ova B) 1 Ovum
D) 18-23 days of Menstrual Cycle
C) 3 Ova D) 4 Ova
Ans. (B)
Ans. (B)
162. Out of 60,000-80,000 Ovarian Follicles of
166. Tunica albuginea is the covering around
an adult woman’s Ovary, only 500 follicles
A) Oviduct B) Testis
mature and become Ovum. What is the
fate of rest of the eggs/follicles? C) Kidney D) Heart
A) Rest of the eggs move out of the ovary Ans. (B)
and get fertilized 167. Choose the correct sequence for transport
B) Rest of the follicles undergo of sperms in Male Reproductive System
A) Epididymis → Testis → Vasa
degeneration process called as
efferentia → Vas deferens → Urethral
Follicular Atresia meatus
C) Rest of the follicles gives nourishment B) Testis → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
to dominant follicular cell Ejaculatory duct → Urethra

19
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
C) Seminiferous Tubules → Rete testis → B) Ovary of mammal
Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → C) Testis of ascaris
Epididymis D) Pancreas of frog
D) Seminiferous Tubules → Vasa efferentia Ans. (A)
→ Epididymis → Inguinal canal → 173. Bundles of erectile tissues in penis are
Urethra A) Corpora cavernosa
Ans. (B) B) Corpus spongiosum
168. The figure given below depicts a C) Both A and B
diagrammatic sectional view of ovary. D) None of these
Which one set of three parts out of I-VI are Ans. (C)
correctly identified? 174. How many secondary spermatocytes will
form 400 spermatozoa: -
A) 100 B) 400
C) 40 D) 200
Ans. (D)
175. During differentiation the spermatids
remain associated with
A) Leydig's cells B) Sertoli cell
C) Spermatogonia
D) Kupffer's cells
A) VI-Primary follicle; III-Graafian follicle; Ans. (B)
V-Corpus luteum 176. Corps luteum is
B) II-Secondary follicle; III-Tertiary; IV- A) Excretory B) Endocrine
Ovulation C) Digestive D) Reproductive
C) I-Primary follicle; II-Tertiary follicle; V- Ans. (B)
Corpus luteum 177. Which of the following is responsible for
D) I-Primary follicle; II-Corpus Luteum; V- division of fertilized egg?
Graafian follicle A) Centrioles of ovum
Ans. (C) B) Distal centriole of sperm
169. Which of the following layers in an antral C) Karyomeres
follicle is acellular? D) Proximal centriole of sperm
A) Zona Pellucida B) Granulosa Ans. (D)
C) Theca interna D) Stroma 178. First meiotic division during Oogenesis
occurs in:
Ans. (A)
A) Frist polar body
170. Sugar fructose is present in the secretion B) Second polar body
of C) Primary oocytes
A) Seminal vesicle B) Perineal gland D) Secondary polar body
C) Cowper's gland Ans. (C)
D) Bartholin's gland 179. The second meiotic division of the
Ans. (A) mammalian ovum occurs:
171. Which is unpaired gland in male A) In the Graafian follicle following the
reproductive system of human? first maturation division
A) Bartholin gland B) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum
B) Seminal vesicle makes entry into the Fallopian tube
C) Prostate gland C) Until after the ovum has been
D) Cowper's gland penetrated by a sperm
Ans. (C) D) Until the nucleus of the sperm has
172. Sustentacular cells are found in fused with that of the ovum
A) Testis of mammal

20
STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
Ans. (C) (vii) Degeneration of corpus luteum
180. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the (viii) Menstruation
ovary is: Choose the correct options:
A) Ampulla B) Isthmus A) (ii) → (iv) → (iii) → (i) → (vii) → (v) → (viii)
C) Infundibulum D) Cervix → (vi)
Ans. (C) B) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (v) → (vi) → (vii) → (viii)
181. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of: C) (ii) → (iv) → (i) → (iii) → (v) → (vii) → (viii)
A) Prostate gland B) Vas-deferense → (vi)
C) Mammary glands D) Uterus D) (iii) → (ii) → (ii) → (v) → (i) → (vi) → (iv)
Ans. (D) → (vii) → (viii)
182. Which of the following cells during Ans. (B)
gametogenesis is normally dipoid? 187. Fertilization takes place at: -
A) Spermatogonia B) Spermatid A) Cervix B) Ampulla
C) Secondary polar body C) Isthmus D) Vagina
D) Primary polar body Ans. (B)
Ans. (A) 188. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
183. Which of the following events is not portion of human male reproductive
associated with ovulation in human system. Select the correct set of the names
female? of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.
A) LH surge
B) Decrease in Estrogen
C) Full development of Graafian follicle
D) Release of secondary oocyte
Ans. (B)
184. In a 25 years old lady, eggs are released in
form of
A) Primary oocyte B) Oogonia
C) Secondary oocyte A) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-
D) Atretic follicle
Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
Ans. (C)
B) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-
185. Select the correct statement about Bulbourethral, D-Prostate gland
menstrual cycle: - C) A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate,
A) FSH on 12th day and LH on 15th day
D-Bulbourethral gland
affairs the peak level
D) A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle,
B) Both FSH and LH attains the peak level D-Bulbourethral gland
about 14th day
Ans. (A)
C) Progesterone is maximum at 12th day 189. Which one of the following statements is
D) Estrogen in maximum at 6th day incorrect about menstrual cycle?
Ans. (B) A) The first menstruation begins at
SECTION – B puberty and is called menarche
186. The important events that occur during B) Lack of menstruation may also occur
menstrual cycle are given below. due to some environmental factors like
Arrange these phases in proper sequence. stress, poor health
(i) LH surge C) Corpus luteum secretes large amounts
(ii) Proliferation of endometrial wall of progesterone which is essential for
(iii) Secretion of estrogen maintenance of endometrium
(iv) Secretion of progesterone D) In absence of fertilization, corpus
(v) Ovulation luteum degenerates in luteal phase and
(vi) Growth of corpus luteum

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STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
new follicles start developing B) If both Assertion and Reason are True
immediately but Reason is not correct explanation of
Ans. (D) the Assertion.
190. Which of the following enzyme helps sperm C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
to penetrate zona pellucida? False.
A) Hyaluronidase B) Acrosin D) If both Assertion and Reason false.
C) Neuraminidase Ans. (C)
195. Assertion: Formation of sperm takes place
D) Corona penetrating enzyme (CPE)
in seminiferous tubules of testes.
Ans. (B) Reason: Seminiferous tubules lined with
191. Which centriole of spermatozoa is required male germ cells and Sertoli cells.
for first cleavage? A) If both Assertion and Reason are True
A) Proximal centriole & the Reason is a correct explanation of
B) Distal centriole the Assertion.
C) Ring centriole B) If both Assertion and Reason are True
D) Posterior centriole but Reason is not correct explanation of
Ans. (A) the Assertion.
192. Correct sequence of male accessory glands C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
pouring their secretions into urethra: False.
A) Prostate, Seminal vesicle, D) If both Assertion and Reason false.
Bulbourethral glands Ans. (A)
B) Seminal vesicle, Prostate, 196. Assertion: The menstrual flow results due
Bulbourethral glands to breakdown of endometrial lining of the
C) Bulbourethral glands, Prostate, uterus and its blood vessels.
Seminal vesicle
Reason: Rapid fall in the level of
D) Prostate, Bulbourethral glands, M
Ans. (B) progesterone takes place due to
193. Assertion: Menarche starts around the age degeneration of corpus luteum.
of puberty. A) If both Assertion and Reason are True
Reason: After birth oocyte is matured and & the Reason is a correct explanation of
developed to form Graafian follicle. the Assertion.
A) If both Assertion and Reason are True B) If both Assertion and Reason are True
& the Reason is a correct explanation of but Reason is not correct explanation of
the Assertion. the Assertion.
B) If both Assertion and Reason are True C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
but Reason is not correct explanation of False.
the Assertion. D) If both Assertion and Reason false.
C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is Ans. (A)
False. 197. Assertion: Primary spermatocytes of testes
D) If both Assertion and Reason false. are haploid.
Ans. (C) Reason: Primary spermatocytes are formed
194. Assertion: After ovulation ruptured by meiosis I in the spermatogonia.
Graafian follicle transforms into corpus A) If both Assertion and Reason are True
luteum. & the Reason is a correct explanation of
Reason: Corpus luteum act as endocrine the Assertion.
gland and it is stable throughout life. B) If both Assertion and Reason are True
A) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of
& the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
the Assertion. C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
False.

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STUDY BHARAT TEST (21-08-2022)
D) If both Assertion and Reason false. A) At menopause in the female, there is
Ans. (D) especially abrupt increase in
198. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as: gonadotropic hormones
A) Pregnancies terminated due to B) The beginning of the cycle of
menstruation is called menarche
hormonal imbalance.
C) During normal menstruation about 40
B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormally. ml blood is lost
C) Implantation of embryo at site other D) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
Ans. (D)
than uterus.
200. The correct sequence of hormones
D) Implantation of defective embryo in the secreted from the beginning of menstrual
uterus cycle is
A) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
Ans. (C)
B) Estrogen, FSH, progesterone
199. Which one of the following statements is C) FSH, progesterone, estrogen
incorrect about menstruation? D) Estrogen, progesterone, FSH
Ans. (A)

STUDY BHARAT
Physics & Chemistry Solution

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