Lesson 2 solutions

Exercise 4 – cont. from lesson 1

Below in the figure you can see half an IPMSM. The motor has 8 poles and 48 slots, and has
the following parameters:
The rotor radius is 𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 80 𝑚𝑚, and the stator outer diameter is 𝑟𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 =
130 𝑚𝑚, while the length of the airgap is 𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 0.001 𝑚.
The length and width of one of the magnets in the V-shape is 𝑙𝑝𝑚 = 0.007 𝑚 and
𝑤𝑝𝑚 = 0.020 𝑚. The magnet remanence is 1.3 T.
The distance between the two magnets in the v-shape, which we call length magnet
post, 𝑤𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑡 = 1 𝑚𝑚, and the shortest distance between the edge of the magnet and
the airgap, which we call length bridge, 𝑤𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑑𝑔𝑒 = 1 𝑚𝑚. The teeth are rectangular,
with a tooth width of 𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑜𝑡ℎ = 6 𝑚𝑚, and length 𝑙𝑡𝑜𝑜𝑡ℎ = 30 𝑚𝑚. The electrical
steel saturates at 2 T.
Yellow windings are Phase A, Green windings are Phase B and blue windings are
Phase C. Darker colors means that the direction of current is coming out from the
picture, while softer colors means that the current is moving into the picture.

𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 0.080 𝑚
𝑟𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 0.135 𝑚
𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 0.001 𝑚
𝑙𝑝𝑚 = 0.007 𝑚
𝑤𝑝𝑚 = 0.020 𝑚
𝑤𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑑𝑔𝑒 = 0.001 𝑚
𝑤𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑡 = 0.001 𝑚
𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑜𝑡ℎ = 0.006 𝑚
𝑙𝑡𝑜𝑜𝑡ℎ = 0.030 𝑚
𝑤𝑦𝑜𝑘𝑒 = 0.025 𝑚
𝜇𝑟,𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 5,000
𝜇𝑟,𝑝𝑚 = 1.08

a. Draw two simplified magnetic circuits, one with the field from the magnets
(open circuit) and one where you can assume that the magnetic field is only
coming from Phase A windings (assume that the magnets have been
replaced with air, and that there is no current in Phase B and C).
I have combined the two circuits into one, see below.
 b. Which parts of the steel do you expect to saturate first? Order them from
first to last.
It can be quite hard to determine if it is the bridge or the post (especially from out simplified
circuit in question a., so we will put both of them in first place since they have the same area
where it is smallest. After that the slots have the smallest area (even when we combine
them). Lastly, we have the yoke and the inner rotor steel. The rotor steel closest to the
airgap will have some saturation, especially local saturation closer to the bridges.
The above list might also change if we have a lot of current, since it can both reduce and
increase flux density depending on the current phase advance angle.
c. Calculate the flux and the flux density in the airgap. Assume no fringing,
however, take leakage flux and saturation into consideration.
We redraw the figure from answer a. into an electrical circuit equivalent, and then simplify:
If we assume no saturation what so ever, we can simplify this even further (by using Norton
and Thevenin equivalents). However, we expect saturation to occur, at least in the bridges
and between the magnets in the v-shape.
First, we will just look into the circuit 𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑝𝑚 , 𝑅𝑝𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 , and see if the bridge and
magnet post (area between magnets in the v-shape) saturates.
In our simplified circuit, the width of our leakage flux path is one length of the bridge, and
half the width of the distance between the two magnets (since the over half is filled by the
𝑤𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑡
second magnet), giving us: 𝑤𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝑤𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑑𝑔𝑒 + = 0.0015 𝑚. Since we have not been
2
given any information regarding the length of these paths, we assume them to be equal to
that of the magnet, 𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝑙𝑝𝑚 = 0.007 𝑚
We assume that 𝑅𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑡 + 𝑅𝑦𝑜𝑘𝑒 + 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟 ≫ 𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 , meaning that 𝜙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 ≫ 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟,𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑡,𝑦𝑜𝑘𝑒 , and
that we have basically all flux as leakage flux:
𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑝𝑚 = 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘
𝐵𝑟 𝑙𝑝𝑚 1.3 ∗ 0007
𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑝𝑚 = = = 7241.5
𝜇0 𝜇 𝑅 1.08𝜇0
𝑙𝑝𝑚 0.007 257,889 𝐴
𝑅𝑝𝑚 = = =
𝜇0 𝜇𝑅 𝐴𝑝𝑚 1.08𝜇0 ∗ 0.020 ∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑊𝑏
𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 0.007 742.7 𝐴
𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = = =
𝜇0 𝜇𝑅 𝐴𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝜇0 𝜇𝑅 𝑤𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 5,000𝜇0 ∗ 0.0015 ∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑊𝑏
257,889 742.7
𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑝𝑚 = 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 ( + ) →
𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
7241.5 ∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 = = 0.027999𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑊𝑏
258,631.7
𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 = 𝐵𝐴𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝐵𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑤𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘
0.027999
0.027999𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 0.0015𝐵𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 → 𝐵𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = = 18.7 𝑇
0.0015
Which means that this area is saturated, giving us 𝐵𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 2 𝑇 and
𝜙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝐵𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝐴𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 2 ∗ 0.0015 ∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 0.0030 (∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 ) 𝑊𝑏

Now we can exclude the 𝑅𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 and only focus on the major circuit.
2 ∗ 𝑚𝑚𝑓 = 2 ∗ 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 𝜙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑅𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 + 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑅𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑡,𝑦𝑜𝑘𝑒,𝑎𝑖𝑟

To simplify it even more, we assume that 𝑅𝑝𝑚 > 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟 ≫ 𝑅𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 , which gives us:

2 ∗ 𝑚𝑚𝑓 = 2 ∗ 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 2 ∗ 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟

(since we have two airgaps). We have already calculated 𝑅𝑝𝑚 , so we only need to find 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟
𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑟 0.001 39.788.6 𝐴
𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟 = = = =
𝜇0 𝐴𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝜇0 𝑤𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 0.020𝜇0 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑊𝑏
Now, we can insert everything into the equation:
2 ∗ 𝑚𝑚𝑓 = 2 ∗ 𝜙𝑡𝑜𝑡 𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 2 ∗ 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟 =
𝐵𝑟 𝑙𝑝𝑚
= (𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 + 𝜙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 )𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟
𝜇0 𝜇𝑅
𝐵𝑟 𝑙𝑝𝑚
− 𝜙𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝑅𝑝𝑚
𝜇0 𝜇𝑅
= 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟
𝑅𝑝𝑚 + 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟
742.7
7241.5 − 0.0030 (∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 ) ∗
𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
= 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟
257,889 39.788.6
+
𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
 𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 0.024317 ∗ 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑊𝑏
𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝐵𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝐴𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝐵𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
We do not now exactly what the width of the air-gap is, so I have assumed it to be the same
as the width of the permanent magnets, 𝑤𝑝𝑚 = 𝑤𝑎𝑖𝑟 .
𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 0.024317𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
𝐵𝑎𝑖𝑟 = = = 1.216 𝑇
𝑤𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 0.020𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟
So, now we need to verify that our previous assumption of 𝑅𝑝𝑚 > 𝑅𝑎𝑖𝑟 ≫ 𝑅𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 , and check
if there is some saturation anywhere in the steel.
The next place where we should see saturation is in the teeth. There are 2.5 teeth per
magnet, giving us 𝐴𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ = 2.5𝐴𝑡𝑜𝑜𝑡ℎ = 15 𝑚𝑚
We have the following relationship (assuming no leakage in the stator):
𝜙𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝜙𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ
𝐵𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝐴𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝐵𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ 𝐴𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ
𝐵𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝐴𝑎𝑖𝑟 1.216 ∗ 0.020
𝐵𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ = = = 1.62 𝑇
𝐴𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑡ℎ 0.015
The teeth will not saturate, meaning that our assumption was okay!

Exercise 1 – Back emf

We have a 3-phase SPMSM with p = 8 poles and Q = 72 slots, with two conductors per slot,
Ns = 2. The winding factor is 0.95 and we have a magnetic flux of φ=0.010 Wb. The
rotational speed, n = 3,000 RPM.
Determine the value of the induced voltage, both for peak phase voltage and RMS line-to-
line voltage.
Answer:
We have that:
m=3
p=8
Q = 72
Ns = 2
kw = 0.95
φ=0.010 Wb
n = 3,000 RPM
We have that:
𝜙 = 𝐵𝐴
𝐵 = 𝐵𝑚 cos(𝜃)
If we integrate this over the area between two poles, this area is given by 𝐴 = 𝑙𝑟 𝑑𝜃𝑚 . The
change in mechanical position can also be expressed as a change in electrical position, 𝜃𝑚 =
2𝜃𝑒 2𝑙𝑟 𝜋 𝜋
, giving us 𝐴 = 𝑑𝜃𝑒 and where the position change from − 2 𝑡𝑜 2 . This means that we
𝑝 𝑝
can express the flux linked by the coil during half an electric rotation as:
𝜋
2 2𝑙𝑟 𝜋2 2𝑙𝑟 4𝐵𝑚 𝑙𝑟
𝜙 = ∫ 𝐵𝑚 𝑐os(𝜃) 𝑙𝑟𝑑𝜃 = [Bm sin(𝜃) ] 𝜋 = 2 ∗ 𝐵𝑚 =
−
𝜋 𝑝 −2 𝑝 𝑝
2

We can rewrite this as:

𝜙𝑝
𝐵𝑚 𝑙𝑟 =
4
This means that we can exchange this from our normal back-emf-equation, giving us:
𝜙𝑚 𝑝
𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝𝑁𝐵𝑚 𝑙𝑟𝜔𝑚 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝𝑁 𝜔𝑚
4
Here we have that
𝑛
𝜔𝑚 = 2𝜋
60
and that
2𝑄𝑁𝑠
𝑝𝑁 =
𝑚
Which gives us:
2𝑄𝑁𝑠 𝜙𝑚 𝑝 𝑛 𝑄𝑁𝑠 𝜙𝑚 𝑝𝑛
𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 2𝜋 = 𝜋𝑘𝑤
𝑚 4 60 60𝑚
Now, we can just insert all of the values, and this gives us:

𝑄𝑁𝑠 𝜙𝑚 𝑝2 𝑛 0.95𝜋(72 ∗ 2 ∗ 0.010 ∗ 8 ∗ 3,000)

𝑒 = 𝜋𝑘𝑤 = = 573 𝑉
60𝑚 60 ∗ 3
So, now we have found the peak back-emf voltage. To get the RMS line-to-line voltage we
multiply with:

3 𝑄𝑁𝑠 𝜙𝑚 𝑝2 𝑛 3
𝐸 = √ 𝜋𝑘𝑤 = √ ∗ 585 𝑉 = 702 𝑉
2 60𝑚 2

Just for fun, we go back to the previously used equation and make some alterations to it:
𝜙𝑚 𝑝
𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝𝑁 𝜔
4
We also have that
𝑝𝑁
= 𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 → 𝑝𝑁 = 2𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒
2
and that
2𝜔𝑒 2∗2𝜋𝑓𝑒
𝜔= = .
𝑝 𝑝

If we exchange this, we get:

𝜙𝑚 𝑝 4𝜋𝑓𝑒
𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 2𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 2𝜋𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝜙𝑚 𝑓𝑒
4 𝑝
The RMS value of this is:
2𝜋
𝐸= 𝑘𝑤 𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝜙𝑚 𝑓𝑒 = 4.44𝑘𝑤 𝑁𝑡,𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝜙𝑚 𝑓𝑒
√2
This is known as the transformer back-emf equation, but it can be used on motors as well.
You can decide to use whichever you feel like, but make sure that you remember to use the
correct variables.

Exercise 2 - Torque
For the machine used in question 1, calculate the torque if the current is 100 A. Assume
that the flux from the machine is unchanged.
The equation we use is:
3
𝑇𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝𝑁𝐵𝑚 𝐼𝑙𝑟
2
We have already established how flux, flux density and area are connected:
𝜙𝑝
𝐵𝑚 𝑙𝑟 =
4
And how the slots, conductors and turns are connected:
2𝑄𝑁𝑠
𝑝𝑁 =
𝑚
So, we can just replace this, insert values, and calculate the torque:
3 𝜙𝑚 𝑝 3 2𝑄𝑁𝑠 3
𝑇𝑒 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝𝑁𝐼 = 𝑘𝑤 𝑝 𝐼𝜙𝑚 = ∗ 0.95 ∗ 8 ∗ 2 ∗ 72 ∗ 100 ∗ 0.01 = 137 𝑁𝑚
2 4 8 𝑚 8∗3
Exercise 3 – Phasor diagram and operation points
The motor needs to be able to reach 5,000 rpm, while still achieving 50 Nm of Torque. The
maximum The DC bus voltage is 1,000 V. The maximum allowed current in the windings is
100 A. The reactance is X = 0.002 H. Draw the phasor diagram. Is it possible for this motor
to achieve this operating point?

First, we need to know what the back-emf is at 5,000 rpm. The back-emf for a SPMSM is
proportional to the speed, so we can just say that:
𝑛2 5,000
𝑒2 = 𝑒1 = ∗ 573 𝑉 = 955 𝑉
𝑛1 3,000
The possible phase voltage can be calculated with:
𝑉𝐷𝐶 1,000
𝑣𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 = = = 577 𝑉
√3 √3
The torque we need is 100 Nm. Assuming the torque is proportional to the current, we need:
100 100
𝐼2 = ∗ 𝐼1 = ∗ 50 = 36.5 𝐴
137 137
The voltage from the current can be calculated with:
5,000 𝑝 5,000 8
𝑣𝑑 = 𝑖𝜔𝐿 = √2𝐼𝑞 ∗ ∗ 2𝜋 ∗ ∗ 0.002 = √2 ∗ 36.5 ∗ ∗ 2𝜋 ∗ ∗ 0.002 = 216
60 2 60 2
5,000 𝑝
𝑣𝑞 = 𝑖𝜔𝐿 = 𝑖𝑑 ∗ 2𝜋 ∗ ∗ 0.002
60 2
2
𝑣𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 = √(𝑒 − 𝑣𝑞 ) + 𝑣𝑑2 → √𝑣𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒
2
− 𝑣𝑑2 = 𝑒 − 𝑣𝑞 →

2
𝑣𝑞 = √𝑣𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 − 𝑣𝑑2 − 𝑒 = √5772 − 2162 − 955 = −420 𝑉

From this we can finally calculate the current:

5,000 𝑝 𝑣𝑞
𝑣𝑞 = 𝑖𝜔𝐿 = 𝑖𝑑 ∗ 2𝜋 ∗ ∗ 0.002 → 𝑖𝑑 =
60 2 5,000 𝑝
60 ∗ 2𝜋 ∗ 2 ∗ 0.002
420 100.3
=− = 100.3 𝐴 → 𝐼𝑑 = = 70.9 𝑉
5,000 8 √2
∗ 2𝜋 ∗ ∗ 0.002
60 2
Giving us the total current:

𝐼 = √𝐼𝑑2 + 𝐼𝑞2 = √70.92 + 36.52 = 80 𝐴

So, this point is possible.