Che1503 practice😝

1.

The formula weight of the compound, Al2(SO4)3 18H2O is:

(a) 394.4 g
(b) 666.4 g
(c) 110,900 g
(d) 466.8 g
(e) 561.2 g
2.
The weight of a millimole of (NH4)2HPO4 is:
(a) 132 g
(b) 114 g
(c) 1.14 x 10-3 g
(d) 0.132 g
(e) 6.02 x 1020 g
3.
How many moles of alanine, C3H7NO2, are there in 159 g of alanine?
(a) 1.42 x 104
(b) 1.78
(c) 0.992
(d) 0.560
(e) 3.31
4.
How many atoms are in one mole of CH3OH?
(a) 6
(b) 6.0 x 1023
(c) 12.0 x 1023
(d) 3.6 x 1024
(e) 3
5.
The mass in grams of 2.6 x 1022 chlorine atoms is:
(a) 4.4
(b) 11
(c) 0.76
(d) 1.5
(e) 3.2
6.
How many aluminum atoms are there in 3.50 grams of Al2O3?
(a) 4.13 x 1022
(b) 4.90 x 1022
(c) 2.07 x 1022
(d) 1.68 x 1022
(e) 2.45 x 1022
7.
Which one of the samples contains the most atoms?
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
 (b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l)
(d) 1 mol of He(g)
(e) all contain the same number of atoms
8.
Which one of the samples contains the most molecules?
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l)
(d) 1 mol of He(g)
(e) all contain the same number of molecules
9.
Which one of the samples has the largest mass?
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l)
(d) 1 mol of He(g)
(e) all have the same mass
10.
Which of the following statements is(are) FALSE?
1. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of
the compound.
2. The mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of the
compound.
3. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of
element present in the compound.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) another combination
11.
Guanidin, HNC(NH2)2, is a fertilizer. To three significant figures, what is the
percent by mass of nitrogen in the fertilizer?
(a) 45.2%
(b) 49.4%
(c) 54.8%
(d) 65.1%
(e) 71.1%
12.
Calculate the percent, by weight, of carbon in 154 g of C 4H8O3?
(a) 46%
(b) 31%
(c) 72%
(d) 27%
(e) 55%
13.
 Analysis of a sample of a covalent compound showed that it contained 14.4%
hydrogen and 85.6% carbon by mass. What is the empirical formula for the
compound?
(a) CH
(b) CH2
(c) CH3
(d) C2H3
(e) none of these
14.
An oxide of lead contains 90.65% Pb, by weight. The empirical formula is:
(a) Pb
(b) PbO
(c) Pb3O4
(d) Pb2O3
(e) PbO2
15.
A 0.500 g sample of a compound containing only antimony and oxygen was
found to contain 0.418 g of antimony and 0.082 g of oxygen. What is the simplest
formula for the compound?
(a) SbO
(b) SbO2
(c) Sb3O4
(d) Sb2O5
(e) Sb2O3
16.
A compound contains, by mass, 40.0% carbon, 6.71% hydrogen, and 53.3%
oxygen. A 0.320 mole sample of this compound weighs 28.8 g. The molecular
formula of this compound is:
(a) C2H4O2
(b) C3H6O3
(c) C2H4O
(d) CH2O
(e) C4H7O2
17.
What mass of cerussite, PbCO3, would contain 35.0 grams of lead?
(a) 27.1 g
(b) 45.1 g
(c) 42.4 g
(d) 35.6 g
(e) 51.7 g

Answers:1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (e) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (e) 16.(b) 17. (b)

Chemical Reactions and Reaction Stoichiome

 Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions

1.
Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients.
Choose the answer that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation.
Do not forget coefficients of "one."

PtCl4 + XeF2 PtF6 + ClF + Xe

(a) 16
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 26
(e) 32
2.
Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients.
Choose the answer that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation.
Do not forget coefficients of "one."

Cr2(SO4)3 + RbOH Cr(OH)3 + Rb2SO4

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
(e) 15
3.
Balance the following equation using minimum integral coefficients:

NH3 + O2 NO2 + H2O

The stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2 is:

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 7
(e) 5
4.
When iron pyrite (FeS2) is heated in air, the process known as "roasting" forms
sulfur dioxide and iron(III) oxide. When the equation for this process is
completed and balanced, using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient for "O2"?

___ FeS2 + ___ O2 ___ SO2 + ___ Fe2O3

 (a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 11
5.
How many moles of KBrO3 are required to prepare 0.0700 moles of
Br2 according to the reaction:

KBrO3 + 5KBr + 6HNO3 6KNO3 + 3Br2 + 3H2O

(a) 0.210
(b) 0.0732
(c) 0.0704
(d) 0.220
(e) 0.0233
6.
Which of the following statements is FALSE for the chemical equation given
below in which nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to form ammonia gas
assuming the reaction goes to completion?

N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(a) The reaction of one mole of H2 will produce 2/3 moles of NH3.
(b) One mole of N2 will produce two moles of NH3.
(c) One molecule of nitrogen requires three molecules of hydrogen for complete
reaction.
(d) The reaction of 14 g of nitrogen produces 17 g of ammonia.
(e) The reaction of three moles of hydrogen gas will produce 17 g of ammonia.
7.
Calcium carbide, CaC2, is an important preliminary chemical for industries
producing synthetic fabrics and plastics. CaC 2 may be produced by heating
calcium oxide with coke:

CaO + 3C CaC2 + CO

What is the amount of CaC2 which can be produced from the reaction of excess
calcium oxide and 10.2 g of carbon? (Assume 100% efficiency of reaction for
purposes of this problem.)
(a) 18.1 g
(b) 28.4 g
(c) 20.8 g
(d) 19.8 g
(e) 27.2 g
8.
Calculate the mass of hydrogen formed when 25 grams of aluminum reacts with
excess hydrochloric acid.

2Al + 6HCl Al2Cl6 + 3H2

 (a) 0.41 g
(b) 1.2 g
(c) 1.8 g
(d) 2.8 g
(e) 0.92 g
9.
When 12 g of methanol (CH3OH) was treated with excess oxidizing agent (MnO 4-
), 14 g of formic acid (HCOOH) was obtained. Using the following chemical
equation, calculate the percent yield. (The reaction is much more complex than
this; please ignore the fact that the charges do not balance.)

3CH3OH + 4MnO4- 3HCOOH + 4MnO2

(a) 100%
(b) 92%
(c) 82%
(d) 70%
(e) 55%
10.
A commercially valuable paint and adhesive stripper, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO),
(CH3)2SO, can be prepared by the reaction of oxygen with dimethyl sulfide,
(CH3)2S, using a ratio of one mole oxygen to two moles of the sulfide:

O2 + 2(CH3)2S 2(CH3)2SO

If this process is 83% efficient, how many grams of DMSO could be produced
from 65 g of dimethyl sulfide and excess O 2?
(a) 68 g
(b) 75 g
(c) 83 g
(d) 51 g
(e) 47 g
11.
The formation of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) by the fermentation of glucose
(C6H12O6) may be represented by:

C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

If a particular glucose fermentation process is 87.0% efficient, how many grams

of glucose would be required for the production of 51.0 g of ethyl alcohol
(C2H5OH)?

(a) 68.3 g
(b) 75.1 g
(c) 115 g
(d) 229 g
(e) 167 g
12.
The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is one that:
 (a) has the largest molar mass (formula weight).
(b) has the smallest molar mass (formula weight).
(c) has the smallest coefficient.
(d) is consumed completely.
(e) is in excess.
13.
If 5.0 g of each reactant were used for the the following process, the limiting
reactant would be:

2KMnO4 +5Hg2Cl2 + 16HCl 10HgCl2 + 2MnCl2 + 2KCl + 8H2O

(a) KMnO4
(b) HCl
(c) H2O
(d) Hg2Cl2
(e) HgCl2
14.
What mass of ZnCl2 can be prepared from the reaction of 3.27 grams of zinc with
3.30 grams of HCl?

Zn +2HCl ZnCl2 + H2

(a) 6.89 g
(b) 6.82 g
(c) 6.46 g
(d) 6.17 g
(e) 6.02 g
15.
How many grams of NH3 can be prepared from 77.3 grams of N 2 and 14.2 grams
of H2? (Hint: Write and balance the equation first.)
(a) 93.9 g
(b) 79.7 g
(c) 47.0 g
(d) 120.0 g
(e) 13.3 g
16.
Silicon carbide, an abrasive, is made by the reaction of silicon dioxide with
graphite.

SiO2 +3C SiC + 2CO

If 100 g of SiO2 and 100 g of C are reacted as far as possible, which one of the
following statements will be correct?
(a) 111 g of SiO2 will be left over.
(b) 44 g of SiO2 will be left over.
(c) 82 g of C will be left over.
(d) 40 g of C will be left over.
(e) Both reactants will be consumed completely, with none of either left over.
17.
 Calculate the mass of 6.00% NiSO4 solution that contains 40.0 g of NiSO4?
(a) 667 g
(b) 540 g
(c) 743 g
(d) 329 g
(e) none of these
18.
How many grams of water are contained in 75.0 grams of a 6.10% aqueous
solution of K3PO4?
(a) 75.0 g
(b) 73.2 g
(c) 70.4 g
(d) 68.1 g
(e) 62.8 g
19.

The mass (in grams) of FeSO4 7H2O required for preparation of 125 mL of
0.90 M solution is:
(a) 16 g
(b) 25 g
(c) 13 g
(d) 31 g
(e) 43 g
20.
What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a solution labeled 20.0% phosphoric
acid (H3PO4) by weight with a density = 1.12 g/mL?
(a) 0.98 M
(b) 2.3 M
(c) 2.7 M
(d) 3.0 M
(e) 3.6 M
21.
How many mL of 17 M NH3 must be diluted to 500.0 mL to make a 0.75 M
solution?
(a) 13 mL
(b) 22 mL
(c) 39 mL
(d) 73 mL
(e) none of these
22.
How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react with 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH
solution?

Ag2CO3 +2NaOH Ag2O + Na2CO3 + H2O

(a) 7.87 g
(b) 3.93 g
(c) 15.7 g
(d) 10.8 g
(e) 8.16 g
23.
How many milliliters of 0.200 M NH4OH are needed to react with 12.0 mL of
0.550 M FeCl3?

FeCl3 + 3NH4OH Fe(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl

(a) 99.0 mL
(b) 33.0 mL
(c) 8.25 mL
(d) 68.8 mL
(e) 132 mL
24.
When 250. mL of a 0.15 M solution of ammonium sulfide (NH4)2S is poured into
120. mL of a 0.053 M solution of cadmium sulfate CdSO 4, how many grams of a
yellow precipitate of cadmium sulfide CdS are formed? The other product is
(NH4)2SO4. (Hint: Write out and balance the equation. Is this a limiting reagent
problem? )
(a) 5.4 g
(b) 0.92 g
(c) 2.6 g
(d) 1.9 g
(e) 530 g

Answers:

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (e) 6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14.
(d) 15. (b) 16.(d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)

Foundations of Chemistry
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions

1.
Of the following name/symbol combinations of elements, which one is WRONG?
(a) uranium/U
(b) sulfur/S
(c) nitrogen/N
(d) potassium/K
(e) iron/I
2.
 Of the following symbol/name combinations of elements, which one is WRONG?
(a) C/carbon
(b) B/barium
(c) F/fluorine
(d) N/nitrogen
(e) U/uranium
3.
The chemical symbol for manganese is
(a) Mn
(b) Mo
(c) Ma
(d) Ga
(e) Mg
4.
The number 0.005436 has how many significant figures?
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
5.
The number 10.00 has how many significant figures?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
6.
What is the volume of a 2.50 gram block of metal whose density is 6.72 grams
per cubic centimeter?
(a) 16.8 cubic centimeters
(b) 2.69 cubic centimeters
(c) 0.0595 cubic centimeters
(d) 0.372 cubic centimeters
(e) 1.60 cubic centimeters
7.
A cube of 1.2 inches on the side has a mass of 36 grams. What is the density in
g/cm3?
(a) 21
(b) 2.2
(c) 30.
(d) 1.3
(e) 14
8.
Nitric acid is a very important industrial chemical: 1.612 x 10 10 pounds of it were
produced in 1992. If the density of nitric acid is 12.53 pounds/gallon, what
volume would be occupied by this quantity? (1 gallon = 3.7854 liters)
(a) 7.646 x 1011 liters
 (b) 8.388 x 109 liters
(c) 1.287 x 109 liters
(d) 5.336 x 1010 liters
(e) 4.870 x 109 liters
9.
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
(a) Helium in a balloon: an element
(b) Paint: a mixture
(c) Tap water: a compound
(d) Mercury in a barometer; an element
10.
An unused flashbulb contains magnesium and oxygen. After use, the contents are
changed to magnesium oxide but the total mass does not change. This
observation can best be explained by the
(a) Law of Constant Composition.
(b) Law of Multiple Proportions.
(c) Avogadro's Law.
(d) Law of Conservation of Mass.
11.
Which answer includes all the following that are chemical changes and not
physical changes?
I. freezing of water
II. rusting of iron
III. dropping a piece of iron into hydrochloric acid (H 2 is produced)
IV. burning a piece of wood
V. emission of light by a kerosene oil lamp
(a) III and IV
(b) II and V
(c) I, II, III, IV, and V
(d) II, III, and V
(e) II, III, IV, and V
12.
Which response lists all of the following properties of sulfur that
are physical properties and not other properties?
I. It reacts with hydrogen when heated.
II. It is a yellow solid at room temperature.
III. It is soluble in carbon disulfide.
IV. Its density is 2.97 g/cubic centimeter
V. It melts at 112�C.
(a) II, III, IV, and V
(b) II, IV, and V
(c) I
(d) II, III, and IV
(e) III, IV, and V

Answers:
1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (e) 12. (a)

Atomic Structure
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions

1.
Which of the following has a positive charge?
(a) proton
(b) neutron
(c) anion
(d) electron
(e) atom
2.
Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles was
directed at a thin piece of metal foil. From these experiments he concluded that:
(a) electrons are massive particles.
(b) the positively charged parts of atoms are moving about with a velocity
approaching the speed of light.
(c) the positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and extremely
heavy particles.
(d) the diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the nucleus.
(e) electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus.
3.
Consider the species 72Zn, 75As and 74Ge. These species have:
(a) the same number of electrons.
(b) the same number of protons.
(c) the same number of neutrons.
(d) the same number of protons and neutrons.
(e) the same mass number.
4.
The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
(a) different numbers of protons.
(b) equal numbers of neutrons.
(c) the same number of electrons.
(d) the same mass numbers.
(e) the same masses.
5.
 What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes,
one with mass = 64.23 amu (26.0%), and one with mass = 65.32 amu?
(a) 65.3 amu
(b) 64.4 amu
(c) 64.9 amu
(d) 65.0 amu
(e) 64.8 amu
6.
Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. One of the isotopes
consists of atoms having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of 86.901 amu. What is
the percent natural abundance of the heavier isotope?
(a) 15%
(b) 28%
(c) 37%
(d) 72%
(e) 85%
7.
What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10 -6 cm?
(a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1
(b) 2.10 x 104 s-1
(c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1
(d) 1.06 x 1022 s-1
(e) 6.67 x 1015 s-1
8.
The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.676 x 10 -7 m. How
much energy is emitted as the excited electron falls to the lower energy level?
(a) 7.43 x 10-19 J
(b) 5.30 x 10-20 J
(c) 6.05 x 10-19 J
(d) 3.60 x 10-20 J
(e) 5.16 x 10-20 J
9.
Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent with the
Bohr theory of the atom (and no others)?
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs
radiation of a definite frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level) to the M
shell (n = 3 major energy level) by emitting radiation of a definite frequency.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2
(e) 2,3
10.
The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum
numbers.
 (b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of
an electron simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets
of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.
(e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in
motion.
11.
Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe electrons in
atoms is incorrect?
(a) n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......
(b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... , (n+1)
(c) ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0, .... , (+l)
(d) ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.
(e) The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of atomic orbitals
in space.
12.
Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note: you should know and be able
to recognize the shapes of the s orbital, p x, py, and pz orbitals, and dxy, dyz, dxz, dx2-
y2 and dz2 orbitals.)
(a) 2s
(b) 3p
(c) 3d
(d) 4f
(e) they are all spherical
13.
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for
which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14
(e) 8
14.
The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is:
(a) [Ar] 4s2 4p13
(b) [Kr] 4s2 4p1
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d12 4s2 4p1
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5
(e) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3
15.
Which of the following electron configurations is correct for nickel?
(a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8
(b) [Kr] 4s1 4d8
(c) [Kr] 4s1 3d8
(d) [Kr] 4s2 3d8
(e) [Ar] 4s2 3d8
16.
 The outer electronic configuration ns 2np4 corresponds to which one of the
following elements in its ground state?
(a) As
(b) Ca
(c) Cr
(d) Br
(e) S
17.
In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the
atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic
(b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic
(d) 0, diamagnetic
(e) 2, paramagnetic
18.
Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those of the
distinguishing (last) electron of Mo?
(a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2
(d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2
(e) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
19.
How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 9
(e) 6
20.
A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level, 8 in the
second energy level and 8 in the third energy level. This information
does not necessarily tell us:
(a) the atomic number of the element.
(b) anything about the element's chemical properties.
(c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
(d) the total number of electrons in p orbitals.
(e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

Answers:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14.
(e) 15. (e) 16.(e) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (e)
 Chemical Periodicity
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions

1.
The atom having the valence-shell configuration 4s2 4p5 would be in:
(a) Group VIA and Period 5
(b) Group IVB and Period 4
(c) Group VIB and Period 7
(d) Group VIIA and Period 4
(e) Group VIIB and Period 4
2.
Select the term best describing the series of elements: Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu.
(a) d-transition metals
(b) representative elements
(c) metalloids
(d) alkaline earth metals
(e) halogens
3.
Which element has the largest atomic radius?
(a) Li
(b) Na
(c) Rb
(d) F
(e) I
4.
Which of the following terms accurately describes the energy associated with the
process:

Li(g) Li+(g) + e-
(a) electron affinity
(b) binding energy
(c) ionization energy
(d) electronegativity
(e) none of these
5.
The species that contains 24 protons, 26 neutrons and 22 electrons would be
represented by the symbol:
(a) 50V3+
(b) 26Cr2+
(c) 50Cr2+
(d) 50Mn2+
(e) none of these
6.
 Which element has the lowest first ionization energy?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
(e) Xe
7.
Which element has the highest first ionization energy? (Note: this is an
exception to the general trend - see notes- you may be responsible for this.)
(a) Be
(b) B
(c) C
(d) N
(e) O
8.
Which of these isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
(a) Br-
(b) Sr2+
(c) Rb+
(d) Se2-
(e) They are all the same size because they have the same number of electrons.
9.
Which of the following elements has the greatest attraction for electrons in a
covalent bond?
(a) Ge
(b) As
(c) Se
(d) Br
(e) Bi
10.
Which statement is wrong?
(a) The atomic weight of carbon is about 12.
(b) The most stable ion of lithium is Li+.
(c) A phosphorus atom is larger than an antimony atom.
(d) The radius of a sodium atom is larger than that of a sodium cation.
(e) Oxygen has a less negative electron affinity than fluorine.
11.
All of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase going down
the group except
(a) atomic radius
(b) first ionization energy
(c) ionic radius
(d) atomic mass
(e) atomic volume
12.
Which of the following is an ionic hydride?
(a) PH3
(b) H2S
 (c) HI
(d) KH
(e) CH4
13.
Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
(a) N2O3
(b) N2O5
(c) P4O6
(d) P4O10
(e) Bi2O5

Answers:

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (e)

Chemical Bonding
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions

1.
The valence electrons of representative elements are
(a) in s orbitals only.
(b) located in the outermost occupied major energy level.
(c) located closest to the nucleus.
(d) located in d orbitals.
(e) located in the innermost occupied shell.
2.
Which of the following pairs of elements and valence electrons is incorrect?
(a) Al - 3
(b) Br - 7
(c) S - 4
(d) Sr - 2
(e) Tl - 3
3.
With regard to the species 16O2-, 19F- and 20Ne, which of the following statements
is correct?
(a) All three species contain 10 electrons.
(b)The sum of the neutrons in all three species is 27.
 (c) The sum of the protons in all three species is 28.
(d) Both 19F- and 20Ne contain 20 neutrons.
(e) none of the above
4.
Which of the following does not have a noble gas electron configuration? (or
Which of the following is not isoelectronic with a noble gas?)
(a) S2-
(b) Ba+
(c) Al3+
(d) Sb3-
(e) Sc3+
5.
Which one of the formulas for ionic compounds below is incorrect?
(a) SrCl2
(b) Cs2S
(c) AlCl3
(d) Al3P2
(e) CaSe
6.
Which is classified as nonpolar covalent?
(a) the H-I bond in HI
(b) the H-S bond in H2S
(c) the P-Cl bond in PCl3
(d) the N-Cl bond in NCl3
(e) the N-H bond in NH3
7.
Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic?
(a) GaAs
(b) ScCl3
(c) NO2
(d) CCl4
(e) ClO2
8.
The correct electron-dot formulation for hydrogen cyanide shows:
(a) 2 double bonds and two lone pairs of electrons on the N atom.
(b) 1 C-H bond, 1 C=N bond, 1 lone pair of electrons on the C atom and 1 lone
pair of electrons on the N atom.
(c) 1 C-H bond, 1 C-N bond, 2 lone pairs of electrons on the C atom and 3 lone
pairs of electrons on the N atom.
(d) 1 triple bond between C and N, 1 N-H bond and 2 lone pairs of electrons on
the C atom.
(e) 1 triple bond between C and N, 1 C-H bond and 1 lone pair of electrons on the
N atom.
9.
The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has:
(a) 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons.
(b) 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons.
(c) 1 N-Cl bond, 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons.
 (d) 2 N-Cl bonds, 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons.
(e) 3 N-Cl bonds and 9 lone pairs of electrons.
10.
What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of the
sulfite ion?
(a) 8
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 30
(e) 32
11.
In the Lewis structure for the OF2 molecule, the number of lone pairs of electrons
around the central oxygen atom is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4
12.
The electronic structure of the SO2 molecule is best represented as a resonance
hybrid of ____ equivalent structures.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) This molecule does not exhibit resonance.
13.
Consider the bicarbonate ion (also called the hydrogen carbonate ion). After
drawing the correct Lewis dot structure(s), you would see:
(a) two double bonds around the central carbon atom.
(b) three single bonds around the central carbon atom.
(c) four single bonds around the central carbon atom.
(d) two equivalent resonance forms.
(e) three equivalent resonance forms.
14.
Draw one of the resonance structures of SO3. The formal charge of S is
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) 0
(d) -1
(e) -2
15.
Which one of the following violates the octet rule?
(a) PCl3
(b) CBr4
(c) NF3
(d) OF2
(e) AsF5
Answers:

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (e) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14.
(a) 15. (e)

Molecular Structure &

Chemical Bonding Theories
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Choose the molecule that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry
about the central atom.
(a) CF4 - tetrahedral
(b) BeBr2 - linear
(c) H2O - tetrahedral
(d) NH3 - tetrahedral
(e) PF3 - pyramidal
2.
Choose the species that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry
about the central atom.
(a) NO2- - trigonal planar
(b) ClO4- - tetrahedral
(c) SO32- - pyramidal
(d) ClO3- - tetrahedral
(e) BrO4- - tetrahedral
3.
Which of the following pairs of molecules and their molecular geometries is
WRONG?
(a) NF3 - trigonal planar
(b) H2O - bent
(c) BF3 - trigonal planar
(d) AsF5 - trigonal bipyramidal
(e) SeF6 - octahedral
4.
Which molecule has a linear arrangement of all component atoms?
(a) CH4
(b) H2O
 (c) CO2
(d) NH3
(e) BF3
5.
Which polyatomic ion is incorrectly matched with its ionic geometry?
(a) SiCl62- - trigonal bipyramidal
(b) PH4+ - tetrahedral
(c) ClO2- - angular
(d) NH4+ - tetrahedral
(e) SO42- - tetrahedral
6.
Which of the following species is planar?
(a) NH3
(b) H3O+
(c) SO32-
(d) PF3
(e) NO3-
7.
What kind of hybrid orbitals are utilized by the carbon atom in CF 4 molecules?
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d
(e) sp3d2
8.
A neutral molecule having the general formula AB3 has two unshared pair of
electrons on A. What is the hybridization of A?
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d
(e) sp3d2
9.
What hybridization is predicted for sulfur in the HSO3- ion?
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d
(e) sp3d2
10.
Which of the following four molecules are polar: PH 3 OF2 HF SO3?
(a) all except SO3
(b) only HF
(c) only HF and OF2
(d) none of these
(e) all of these
11.
Which molecule is nonpolar?
 (a) H2Se
(b) BeH2
(c) PF3
(d) CHCl3
(e) SO2
12.
The F-S-F bond angles in SF6 are ______.
(a) 109o28'
(b) 120o only
(c) 90o and 120o
(d) 45o and 90o
(e) 90o and 180o
13.
Which response contains all of the characteristics listed that should apply to
phosphorus trichloride, PCl3, and no other characteristics?
(1) trigonal planar
(2) one unshared pair of electrons on P
(3) sp2 hybridized at P
(4) polar molecule
(5) polar bonds
(a) 1, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4
(d) 2, 4, 5
(e) another combination
14.

A (pi) bond is the result of the

(a) overlap of two s orbitals.
(b) overlap of an s and a p orbital.
(c) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes.
(d) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals.
(e) sidewise overlap of two s orbitals.
15.
A triple bond contains ___ sigma bond(s) and ___ pi bond(s).
(a) 0, 3
(b) 3, 0
(c) 2, 1
(d) 1, 2
(e) 3, 2
16.
The perchloric acid molecule contains:

(a) 13 lone pairs, 1 bond, and 4 bonds.

(b) 9 lone pairs, no bonds, and 6 bonds.

(c) 8 lone pairs, 2 bonds, and 7 bonds.

 (d) 2 lone pairs, 3 bonds, and 4 bonds.

(e) 11 lone pairs, no bonds, and 5 bonds.

17.
Draw a complete line-bond or electron-dot formula for acetic acid and then
decide which statement is incorrect.
(a) One carbon is described by sp 2 hybridization.

(b) The molecule contains only one bond.

(c) The molecule contains four lone pairs of valence electrons.
(d) One carbon is described by sp 3 hybridization.
(e) Both oxygens are described by sp 3 hybridization.

Answers:

1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (e) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (e) 13. (d) 14. (
d) 15. (d) 16.(e) 17. (e)

Molecular Orbital Theory

Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which statement is false? A sigma molecular orbital
(a) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals perpendicular to the molecular
axis (side-on).
(b) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals along the molecular axis (head-
on).
(c) may result from overlap of two s atomic orbitals.
(d) may result from overlap of one s and one p atomic orbitals.
(e) may be either bonding or antibonding.
2.
Carbon monoxide has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons.
Therefore it has a bond order of
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 5/2
(e) 2
3.
Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for C2?

(a) 1s
2
2s
2
2py
2 *1s2 *2s2 *2py2

(b) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 *2pz1 2p1

(c) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 2pz2

(d) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py1 2pz1

(e) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py1 *2py1 2pz1 *2pz1

4.
What is the correct electron configuration for the molecular ion, B 2+?

(a) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2

(b) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2

(c) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 2pz1

(d) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p1 2py1

(e) none of the above.
5.
Draw the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, N 2+. The number of

electrons in the 2p molecular orbital is:

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4
6.
What is the bond order in O2+?
(a) 3.5
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.5
(e) 0
7.
Draw the molecular orbital diagram for B2. The number of unpaired electrons in
the B2molecule is _____.
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4
8.
Which one of the following statements is false?
 (a) Valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory can be described as two
different views of the same thing.
(b) When one considers the molecular orbitals resulting from the overlap of any
two specific atomic orbitals, the bonding orbitals are always lower in energy
than the antibonding orbitals.
(c) Molecular orbitals are generally described as being more delocalized than
hybridized atomic orbitals.
(d) One of the shortcomings of molecular orbital theory is its inability to account
for a triple bond in the nitrogen molecule, N 2.
(e) One of the shortcomings of valence bond theory is its inability to account for
the paramagnetism of the oxygen molecule, O2.
9.
Antibonding molecular orbitals are produced by
(a) constructive interaction of atomic orbitals.
(b) destructive interaction of atomic orbitals.
(c) the overlap of the atomic orbitals of two negative ions
(d) all of these
(e) none of these
10.
Which statement regarding stable heteronuclear diatomic molecules is false?
(a) All have bond orders greater than zero.
(b) The antibonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more
electropositive element than of the more electronegative element.
(c) Their molecular orbital diagrams are more symmetrical than those of
homonuclear diatomic molecules.
(d) The bonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more
electronegative element than of the less electronegative element.
(e) The greater is the difference in energy between two overlapping atomic
orbitals, the more polar the resulting bond is, due to electrons occupying the
resulting bonding molecular orbital.

Answers:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)

Acids/Bases/Salts -
Theory and Rxns
Examples of
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Arrhenius defined an acid as:
(a) a species that can donate a proton.
(b) a species that can accept a proton.
(c) a source of OH- ions in water.
(d) a sourse of H+ ions in water.
(e) a species that can accept a pair of electrons.
2.
In the Bronsted-Lowry system, a base is defined as:
(a) a proton donor.
(b) a hydroxide donor.
(c) an electron-pair acceptor.
(d) a water-former.
(e) a proton acceptor.
3.

In the equation: HF + H2O H3O+ + F-

(a) H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid.
(b) H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base.
(c) HF is an acid and F- is its conjugate base.
(d) HF is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.
(e) HF is a base and F- is its conjugate acid.
4.

For the system shown here: HOBr + OH- H2O + OBr-

Bronsted would classify the base species as:
(a) OH- and HOBr
(b) H2O and OH-
(c) OBr- and OH-
(d) OBr- and HOBr
(e) H2O and HOBr
5.
Which is the strongest acid?
(a) HClO4
(b) HClO3
(c) HClO2
(d) HClO
(e) HF
6.
Which of these species is probably the weakest acid?
(a) HCl
(b) H3PO4
(c) H2PO4-
(d) HPO42-
(e) HNO3
7.
 Consider the neutralization reactions between the following acid-base pairs in
dilute aqueous solutions:

(1) CH3COOH + NaOH

(2) HNO3 + Mg(OH)2

(3) H3PO4 + Ba(OH)2

(4) HCl + KOH

(5) H2CO3 + LiOH

For which of the reactions is the net ionic equation: H+ + OH- H2 O ?

(a) 1, 3
(b) 1, 4, 5
(c) 2, 3
(d) 4
(e) 1
8.
Which one of the following represents the net ionic equation for the reaction of
nitric acid with aluminum hydroxide?

(a) 3H+ + Al(OH)3 Al3+ + 3H2O

(b) 3HNO3 + Al(OH)3 Al(NO3)3 + 3H2O

(c) HNO3 + OH- NO3- + H2O

(d) H+ + OH- H2 O

(e) 3NO3- + Al3+ Al(NO3)3

9.
Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide?
(a) KOH
(b) Ba(OH)2
(c) Pb(OH)2
(d) LiOH
(e) Mg(OH)2
10.
According to the Lewis theory, a base _____ .
(a) is a proton acceptor.
(b) is a proton donor.
(c) makes available a share in a pair of electrons.
(d) produces OH- ions in aqueous solution.
(e) accepts a share in a pair of electrons.
Answers:

1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)