1) What does "Geography" literally mean?

A) Place memorization.
B) The study of rocks.
C) Map making.
D) To write (about) Earth.
Answer:

2) What is the main methodology governing geographic inquiry?

A) Behavioural analysis.
B) Spatial analysis.
C) Chronological organization.
D) Field work.
Answer:

3) Which of the following is true of scientific theories?

A) They are based on a single hypothesis.
B) They are narrow in scope because they unify several known facts about the world.
C) They are based on natural laws (such as those pertaining to gravity, relativity, atomic theory,
etc.).
D) They are absolute truths and can never be proven wrong.
Answer:

4) What is the key idea behind the scientific method?

A) The use of intuition in testing theories.
B) An appeal to supernatural explanations when natural explanations have not yet been found for
a phenomenon.
C) The testing of ideas through controlled observations and experiments.
D) Unbridled speculation about the world.
Answer:

5) Which of the following pairs of words best describes the relationship between carbon dioxide
absorbed by plants to: 1) a forest; and, 2) the atmosphere?
A) 1) input; 2) input.
B) 1) input; 2) output.
C) 1) output; 2) output.
D) 1) output; 2) input.
Answer:

6) A large flood in a river may cause abrupt shifts leading to the carving of a new channel.
Which of the following best defines the point at which this change occurs?
A) A type of dynamic equilibrium condition.
B) A type of metastable equilibrium.
C) A threshold.
D) An input.
Answer:
7) T/F: The prime meridian and the 180th meridian are opposite halves of the same great circle.
Answer:

8) T/F: The day officially changes on Earth at the prime meridian.

Answer:

9) T/F: Latitude is the angular distance measured north or south of the equator from the center of
Earth and it describes a parallel line on the surface.
Answer:

10) Which of the following best describes the subsolar point?

A) The highest latitude at which it occurs is 60° N/S.
B) It only occurs at lower latitudes, between the tropics (23.5° N/S).
C) It occurs at all latitudes at least once throughout the year.
D) It never occurs beyond a few degrees of the equator.
Answer:

11) Which of the following is characterized by the longest wavelengths?

A) X-rays.
B) Gamma rays.
C) Visible.
D) Radio waves.
Answer:

12) To what does the thermopause refer?

A) The magnetic field of Earth.
B) The solar atmosphere that extends into space.
C) The top of the atmosphere of Earth.
D) The surface of the Sun.
Answer:

13) Which of the following is best describes the relationship between insolation at the
thermopause relative to latitude?
A) Insolation is evenly distributed with little change by latitude on an annual basis.
B) Lower latitudes receive more insolation than high latitudes annually.
C) Higher latitudes receive more insolation than lower latitudes annually.
D) Insolation can only be measured longitudinally, not latitudinally.
Answer:

14) To what does the term "net radiation" refer?

A) It refers to the total amount of energy received by Earth.
B) It refers to the total amount of energy radiated by Earth.
C) It refers to the difference in amount of incoming and outgoing radiation.
D) It refers to the radiation emitted by satellite networks.
Answer:
15) The declination of the Sun migrates through how many degrees of latitude annually?
A) 23.5°.
B) 30°.
C) 47°.
D) 66.5°.
Answer:

16) With reference to the figure above, which of the following is true for the March Equinox?
A) The subsolar point is at the equator.
B) The subsolar point is at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N).
C) The subsolar point is at the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S).
D) The subsolar point is at the Prime Meridian.
Answer:

17) While standing at the Tropic of Cancer, Emma's shadow points north at noon (Sun time).
Based on this, which of the following can be definitely concluded?
A) It must be the summer solstice.
B) It must be the winter solstice.
C) It must be one of the equinoxes.
D) It must not be the summer solstice.
Answer:

18) The axis of Earth is titled 19.5° relative to the plane of the ecliptic.
Answer:

19) The electromagnetic spectrum only shows the wavelengths associated with solar radiation.
Answer:
20) Which atmospheric zone supports the biosphere and is the region of principle weather
activity?
A) Thermosphere.
B) Mesosphere.
C) Stratosphere.
D) Troposphere.
Answer:

21) Which of the following is true of Earth's atmosphere?

A) It allows gamma rays and X-rays reach the surface.
B) The ozonosphere and ionosphere shield the surface from harmful radiation.
C) Variable gases are the dominant gases in the atmosphere.
D) It is denser at higher altitudes.
Answer:

22) How are the gases in the heterosphere arranged and why?
A) They are well mixed because of thermal motions (i.e., convection).
B) They are well mixed due to the influence of gravity which causes gases of different weight to
diffuse randomly.
C) They are poorly mixed as a result of thermal motions (i.e., convection).
D) They are poorly mixed due to the influence of gravity which causes gases of different weight
to separate into layers.
Answer:

23) What are the two most abundant gases in the atmosphere?
A) Water vapour and carbon dioxide.
B) Nitrogen and water vapour.
C) Nitrogen and oxygen.
D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Answer:

24) In which two atmospheric zones does temperature increase with altitude?
A) Troposphere and mesosphere.
B) Troposphere and stratosphere.
C) Stratosphere and mesosphere.
D) Stratosphere and thermosphere.
Answer:

25) Why is stratospheric ozone loss a concern?

A) Stratospheric ozone is a major greenhouse gas; its loss will contribute to the cooling of the
planet.
B) Stratospheric ozone absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation (UVB and UVC).
C) Stratospheric ozone is a component of photochemical smog.
D) Stratospheric ozone contributes to the brilliant auroras.
Answer:
26) Which of the following is correct regarding lapse rates in the troposphere?
A) The term "normal (average) lapse rate" refers to the actual lapse rate in effect at any particular
time.
B) The environmental lapse rate refers to the actual lapse rate at any particular time and may
differ substantially from the normal lapse rate.
C) The normal lapse rate is always the same as the dry adiabatic rate (DAR).
D) Temperatures generally increase with altitude in the troposphere.
Answer:

27) What is the result of the reaction of automobile exhaust and ultraviolet light?
A) The reaction produces photochemical smog.
B) The reaction produces industrial smog.
C) The reaction is affecting the stratospheric ozone concentration.
D) The reaction forms smoke and fog.
Answer:

28) Weather (rain, fog, storms, etc.) occurs primarily in the troposphere.
Answer:

29) Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude.

Answer:

30) The amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is higher now than any time in the last 800 000 years.
Answer:

31) The albedo of a surface is a measure of which of the following processes?

A) Transmission.
B) Reflection.
C) Scattering.
D) Solar radiation receipt.
Answer:

32) Which of the following has the highest albedo?

A) Forests.
B) Asphalt.
C) Dry, light sandy soils.
D) Fresh snow.
Answer:

33) What happens if a surface absorbs insolation?

A) Its temperature increases.
B) Its temperature decreases.
C) Its temperature is unaffected.
D) Refraction occurs.
Answer:
34) If the surface of Earth were to suddenly turn white, what would happen to the temperature of
the planet and why?
A) Temperature would decrease because less insolation would be absorbed.
B) Temperature would decrease because more insolation would be absorbed.
C) Temperature would increase because less insolation would be absorbed.
D) Temperature would increase because more insolation would be absorbed.
Answer:

35) What does the figure above illustrate regarding the relationship between insolation and air
temperature through the course of day?
A) Air temperature reaches a maximum at noon when insolation also reaches a maximum.
B) Air temperature reaches a maximum in the afternoon, whereas insolution reaches a maximum
at noon.
C) Air temperature maximum and minimums are not related to insolation.
D) Air temperature reaches a minimum at midnight when there is no insolation.
Answer:

36) In the surface energy budget, what does the term - SW↑ represent?
A) Heat.
B) Incoming energy.
C) Surface albedo.
D) NET R.
Answer:
37) What is the source for longwave radiation (+ LW↓) arriving at Earth's surface?
A) It comes primarily from infrared energy emitted by the atmosphere.
B) It comes directly from the Sun.
C) It comes from diffuse solar radiation.
D) It comes from UV radiation reflected from the bottoms of clouds.
Answer:

38) The reflective quality of a surface is called its albedo and is expressed as a percentage.
Answer:

39) High latitudes have a higher albedo in winter than do lower latitudes.
Answer:

40) Heat energy flows from objects that are warmer to those that are cooler.
Answer:

41) 2) Air temperature is a measure of the presence of which of the following?

A) Heat capacity.
B) Apparent temperature.
C) Relative humidity.
D) Sensible heat.
Answer:

42) What is temperature?

A) It is a form of energy.
B) It is heat, as perceived by humans and other living things.
C) It is a function of insolation and windspeed.
D) It is a measure of the average kinetic energy of individual molecules in matter.
Answer:

43) Which of the following is the temperature control that includes the heat capacity of a
substance?
A) Movement.
B) Evaporation.
C) Cloud cover.
D) Specific heat.
Answer:

44) If the temperature at the surface of Earth (at sea level) is 40°C, what is the approximate
temperature at 2000 m if the normal lapse rate is 6.4 C° • 1000 m-1?
A) 27°C.
B) 33.5°C.
C) 46.5°C.
D) -21°C.
Answer:
45) How does the specific heat of land compare to water and what does this mean about the rate
of heating of land versus water?
A) Specific heat of land is higher; so land heats more slowly than water.
B) Specific heat of land is higher; so land heats more quickly than water.
C) Specific heat of land is lower; so land heats more slowly than water.
D) Specific heat of land is lower; so land heats more quickly than water.
Answer:

46) What is the difference between elevation and altitude?

A) Elevation is the height of a point on the surface of Earth; altitude is the height above the
surface of Earth.
B) Elevation is the height above Earth's surface; altitude is the height of a point on Earth's
surface.
C) Both refer to the height above the surface of Earth.
D) Both refer to the height of a point on the surface of Earth.
Answer:

47) Both City A and City B are located at the same latitude and experience the same amount of
cloud cover. City A has a mean annual temperature of 27°C and a temperature range of 22°C.
City B has a mean annual temperature of 26°C and a temperature range of 14°C. Which city is
located in the interior of the continent?
A) City A.
B) City B.
C) Both City A and B are located in the interior.
D) Neither City A nor City B is located in the interior.
Answer:

48) Air pressure decreases with increased elevation.

Answer:

49) Clouds moderate temperatures producing lower daily maximums and higher nightly
minimums.
Answer:

50) You would expect a tropical island to have a high degree of continentality.
Answer:

51) Which is the force that initiates air flow?

A) Coriolis force.
B) Pressure gradient force.
C) Friction force.
D) Centrifugal force.
Answer:
52) Which is an isoline of equal pressure plotted on a weather map?
A) An isotherm.
B) An equilibrium line.
C) An isobar.
D) An isohyet.
Answer:

53) On a weather map of air pressure, what can you infer from a closer spacing of isobars?
A) Little without knowing temperature patterns.
B) A steep pressure gradient creating a slower flow of air.
C) A steep pressure gradient creating a faster flow of air.
D) Higher pressures.
Answer:

54) Which best describes the effect of Coriolis force?

A) It drives air from areas of higher to lower barometric pressure.
B) It decreases with height above the surface.
C) It causes the apparent deflection of winds from a straight path.
D) It is the only force acting on flows of air in the upper troposphere.
Answer:

55) If Santa flew from the North Pole due south along the 100° meridian and did not correct his
course, where would he land?
A) He would land on the 100° meridian.
B) He would land east of the 100° meridian.
C) He would land west of the 100° meridian.
D) He would land south of the 100° meridian.
Answer:

56) Which is true of air flowing into low pressure areas?

A) Air converges and ascends.
B) Air diverges and ascends.
C) Air converges and descends.
D) Air diverges and descends.
Answer:

57) Which of the following best describes winds spiralling clockwise out of a high pressure area
in the Northern Hemisphere?
A) Cyclonic.
B) Anticyclonic.
C) Geostrophic.
D) Meridional.
Answer:
58) Which are the dominant surface winds from the subtropics to high latitudes?
A) The westerlies.
B) The trade winds.
C) The polar easterlies.
D) The geostrophic winds.
Answer:

59) Which names the seasonally shifting wind systems associated with the annual cycle of
returning precipitation?
A) Sea breezes.
B) Santa Ana winds.
C) Chinook winds.
D) Monsoons.
Answer:

60) Normal sea level pressure has a standard value of 1013.2 mb of Hg.
Answer:

61) Which of the following phase changes decreases the temperature of the air?
A) Water to ice.
B) Ice to water.
C) Steam to water.
D) Steam to ice.
Answer:

62) Which describes the saturation vapour pressure as temperature increases?

A) It increases.
B) It decreases.
C) It remains constant.
Answer:

63) Which of the following defines relative humidity?

A) The amount of water vapour in the air compared to the normal amount.
B) The amount of moisture in the air relative to your own sensible feelings.
C) The amount of water vapour in the air relative to the water vapour capacity of the air.
D) A basically unused concept when it comes to weather topics.
Answer:

64) If the amount of water vapour in the air remained constant, but the air temperature increased
throughout the day, which of the following describes what would happen to relative humidity?
A) It would increase.
B) It would decrease.
C) It would remain constant.
Answer:
65) At saturation, the further addition of water vapour or a decrease in temperature results in
which of the following?
A) Condensation.
B) Evaporation.
C) Freezing.
D) Sublimation.
Answer:

66 Which of the following would be true of the humidity above the hot, dry, subtropical deserts
of the world during the daytime?
A) The specific humidity would be very low.
B) The relative humidity would always be high.
C) The saturation vapour pressure would be low.
D) The evaporation rate would be low.
Answer:

67) The point where saturation begins in a rising air parcel is which of the following?
A) The dry adiabatic rate.
B) The moist adiabatic rate.
C) The lifting condensation level.
D) Cloud condensation nuclei.
Answer:

68) Which of the following describes an air parcel that is considered unstable?
A) It either remains as it is, or changes its initial position.
B) It continues to rise until it reaches an altitude at which the surrounding air has a similar
temperature.
C) It resists displacement upward.
D) It descends at the dry adiabatic rate until it reaches the lifting condensation level.
Answer:

69) Air that is not saturated will cool or heat at which rate as it rises or descends?
A) 10 C° per 1000 m.
B) 6 C° per 1000 m.
C) 6.4 C° per 1000 m.
D) 4.5 C° per 100 km.
Answer:

70) Which of the following are the class of clouds composed of vertically developed puffy and
globular clouds?
A) Cumuliform.
B) Cirroform.
C) Stratiform.
D) Altoform.
Answer:
71) Which of the following defines weather?
A) The climate of a region.
B) The short-term condition of the atmosphere.
C) The long-term atmospheric condition, including extremes that may occur.
D) A reference to temperature patterns only.
Answer:

72) Which of the following terms is a homogeneous volume of air with respect to temperature,
and moisture characteristics?
A) Cyclone.
B) Air mass.
C) Front.
D) Parcel.
Answer:

73) Consider a mT air mass and a cT air mass. How does the mT air mass compare to the cT air
mass and why?
A) mT is wetter because it is warmer than the cT air mass.
B) mT is wetter because it forms over the ocean.
C) mT is drier because it is a cold air mass.
D) mt is drier because it forms under the equatorial low.
Answer:

74) Which is correctly matched?

A) cT—cold, dense air.
B) mP—warm, moist, stable conditions.
C) mP—warm, humid, variable stability depending on source region.
D) cA—very cold, very dry, stable.
Answer:

75) Air forcibly lifted upslope when it meets a topographic barrier such as a mountain is an
example of which type of lifting?
A) Convergent.
B) Convectional.
C) Orographic.
D) Frontal.
Answer:

76) Which of the following terms refers to the dry leeward side of a mountain?
A) Rain shadow.
B) Chinook.
C) Front.
D) Orogeny.
Answer:
77) Summer afternoon thundershowers in the southeastern United States are more than likely a
result of which of the following?
A) Convectional lifting.
B) Orographic lifting.
C) Frontal lifting.
D) Subtropical high pressure disturbance.
Answer:

78) Which of the following is true of the open stage of a midlatitude cyclone in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A) A disturbance develops along the polar front with warm air converging and rising near the
surface.
B) The faster moving cold front overtakes the slower warm front and wedges beneath it.
C) Warm air moves northward along an advancing front, while cold air advances southward.
D) The lifting mechanism is completely cut off from the warm air mass.
Answer:

79) Which of the following characterizes the severity of storm activity along a warm front as
compared to that along most cold fronts and why?
A) Storm activity along a warm front is less because the rate of uplift is slower along a warm
front.
B) Storm activity along a warm front is less because the rate of uplift is faster along a warm
front.
C) Storm activity along a warm front is greater because the rate of uplift is slower along a warm
front.
D) Storm activity along a warm front is greater because the rate of uplift is faster along a warm
front.
Answer:

80) Which of the following correctly describes how hail forms?

A) Hail forms when water falls from a cloud and freezes during its fall to the ground.
B) Hail forms every time water condenses onto dust particles.
C) Hail forms from repeated circulation of raindrops above and below the freezing level in a
cloud.
D) Hail forms when water vapour sublimates (deposits) inside a cirrus cloud.
Answer:

81) Which occurs when precipitation lands on vegetation or other land cover before reaching the
surface?
A) Infiltration.
B) Overland flow.
C) Interception.
D) Surface runoff.
Answer:
82) Which occurs when water soaks through the soil into the subsurface?
A) Throughfall
B) Overland flow
C) Infiltration
D) Stem flow

83) Which is defined as the downslope, unchannelized flow of water across the surface?
A) Throughfall.
B) Overland flow.
C) Infiltration.
D) Stem flow.
Answer:

84) Which is defined as the subsurface area in which all pore spaces are completely fill with
water?
A) Zone of saturation.
B) Gravitational zone.
C) Water table.
D) Base flow.
Answer:

85) Which of the following best describes the hydrologic cycle?

A) It defines the volume of water only in the oceans and lakes on Earth.
B) It defines the flow of water between water bodies, but cannot be used to quantify the volume
of water in the atmosphere.
C) It only describes how water moves from the frozen state to the liquid state on continents.
D) It is a system that describes and explains all water on Earth.
Answer:

86) Which of the following would decrease the rate at which evapotranspiration occurs?
A) Increased temperatures.
B) Increased wind speed.
C) Increased humidity.
D) Increased water availability.
Answer:

87) Actual evapotranspiration (AE) is determined by which of the following?

A) Deficit subtracted from Precipitation total.
B) Surplus subtracted from Precipitation total.
C) Surplus subtracted from Potential Evapotranspiration.
D) Deficit subtracted from Potential Evapotranspiration.
Answer:
88) Which of the following is 'groundwater mining'?
A) The removal of overlying rock to reach the groundwater table.
B) The excavation of tunnels to reach ground water.
C) The use of ground water to mine minerals.
D) The removal of ground water at a faster rate than it can be replaced.
Answer:

89) Which of the following is defined as the line of contact between the zone of aeration and the
zone of saturation?
A) Water table.
B) Saturation contact.
C) Influent line.
D) Aquiclude.
Answer:

90) Which of the following would make the best aquifer?

A) Uncememted, loosely compacted clay.
B) Cemented, highly compacted sand.
C) Uncemented, loosely compacted sand.
D) Cemented gravel that was loosely compacted when cemented.
Answer:

91) Which is defined as an area with characteristic, long-term weather patterns?

A) A biome.
B) An average weather place.
C) An ecosystem.
D) A climatic region.
Answer:

92) World temperature patterns are primarily controlled by which of the following?
A) Sea level and wind direction.
B) Elevation and latitude.
C) Latent heat and the lifting condensation level.
D) Urban heat islands.
Answer:

93) Potential evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation in all parts of which climate type?
A) Tropical savanna.
B) Mediterranean.
C) Semiarid steppe.
D) Humid subtropical winter-dry.
Answer:
94) An empirical classification is based on which of the following, among other factors?
A) The interaction of air masses.
B) The origin or genesis of the climate.
C) The mean annual temperature and precipitation of an area.
D) Causative factors.
Answer:

95) Which is the most recent epoch of repeated glaciation on Earth?

A) Holocene.
B) Pleistocene.
C) Pliocene.
D) Miocene.
Answer:

96) What has happened since the Industrial Revolution?

A) Human population growth rates have decreased with a subsequent decrease in the warming
trend that characterized pre-Industrial Revolution times.
B) Global temperatures rapidly increased, then steadied out over the past 25 to 30 years.
C) Global temperatures have continued to warm at accelerating rates.
D) No observable warming or cooling trends have occurred, rather temperatures have oscillated
between warm and cold periods.
Answer:

97) To what does the term 'Milankovitch cycles' refer?

A) Changes in Earth-Sun relationships, namely Earth's orbit around the sun, Earth's axial
rotation, and Earth's axial tilt.
B) Cyclical changes in solar irradiance caused by increases and decreases in sunspot activity.
C) Increases and decreases in atmospheric gases and aerosols, primarily caused by natural
activity such as volcanic activity and changes in net primary productivity.
D) Tectonic changes in continental position and topographic changes from orogeny, erosion, and
mass wasting.
Answer:

98) As air temperatures increase, evaporation increases, leading to more condensation and cloud
formation. Low, thick cloud cover increases the albedo of the atmosphere, thereby having a
cooling effect on Earth. Which best describes this process?
A) A positive feedback loop.
B) A negative feedback loop.
C) A dynamic equilibrium.
D) Homeoschedasity.
Answer:
99) Which of the following is an indicator of current climatic warming?
A) Decreased tropospheric, land, and ocean surface temperatures.
B) Decreases in relative humidity.
C) Melting glacial ice and sea ice.
D) Falling sea levels.
Answer:

100) The condition of the atmosphere at any given time and place is called climate.
Answer:

101) Which is the science that specifically studies the origin, evolution, form, and spatial
distribution of landforms?
A) Geology.
B) Geography.
C) Geomorphology.
D) Environmental chemistry.
Answer:

102) Which of the following is a denudation process?

A) Weathering.
B) Subduction.
C) Orogeny.
D) Folding.
Answer:

103) Which of the following is endogenic in nature?

A) Weathering.
B) Erosion.
C) Denudation.
D) Tectonic uplift.
Answer:

104) Which is the broken-up rock created when the upper surface of consolidated rock undergoes
constant weathering?
A) Bedrock.
B) Regolith.
C) Parent material.
D) Outcrop.
Answer:

105) Frost wedging is an example of which weathering process?

A) Chemical.
B) Physical.
C) Biological.
D) Biogeochemical.
Answer:
106) Hydration involves which of the following?
A) The chemical reaction of water.
B) The addition of water with little chemical change.
C) Frost action.
D) Salt crystal growth from evaporation.
Answer:

107) Which are the circular depressions that result from weathering of limestone?
A) Uvalas.
B) Stalactites.
C) Sinkholes.
D) Caverns.
Answer:

108) Chemical weathering is greatest under which conditions?

A) Higher mean annual rainfall and temperatures.
B) Lower mean annual rainfall and temperatures.
C) Temperatures below freezing.
D) Rainfall of less than 25 cm per year.
Answer:

109) Which of the following best describes joints?

A) Joints are small, localized fault planes along which movement occurs.
B) Joint impede both physical and chemical weathering.
C) Joints decrease the amount of exposed surface area of rocks.
D) Joints are fractures in rock that occur without displacement on either side.
Answer:

110) Salt-crystal
growth (salt weathering) is prevalent in which climate type?
A) Mesothermal.
B) Tropical.
C) Arid.
D) Polar.
Answer:

111) Which is the area of land from which all water drains into the same place?
A) Interfluve.
B) Watershed.
C) Drainage divide.
D) Fluvial units.
Answer:
112) Which is known as the science of water and its global circulation, distribution, and
properties?
A) Geomorphology.
B) Climatology.
C) Lithology.
D) Hydrology.
Answer:

113) Drainage basins are which type of systems?

A) Open.
B) Closed.
C) Open in terms of energy, closed in terms of matter.
D) Closed in terms of energy, open in terms of matter.
Answer:

114) Which is the ultimate base level?

A) A drainage divide.
B) A dam.
C) Sea level.
D) Dependent on the geological substrate.
Answer:

115) Which is a tributary that is physically unable to join the main channel on a floodplain due to
natural levees?
A) Alluvial stream.
B) Yazoo tributary.
C) Levee tributary.
D) Meandering tributary.
Answer:

116) Stream transport involves which of the following?

A) Saltation, bed load, traction.
B) Bed load, traction, sheet flow.
C) Traction, sheet flow, saltation.
D) Sheet flow, saltation, bed load.
Answer:

117) The largest material that can be carried by a stream is carried as which load?
A) Bed load.
B) Suspended load.
C) Dissolved load.
D) Flow load.
Answer:
118) If the load exceeds a stream's capacity, sediment accumulates in the bed? Which is this
process?
A) Downcutting.
B) Degradation.
C) Aggradation.
D) Saltation.
Answer:

119) Where is maximum velocity in a meandering stream?

A) Near the bottom.
B) At the inner portion of the meander curve.
C) At the center and near the surface.
D) At the outer portion of the meander curve.
Answer:

120) When does a stream become graded?

A) When erosion and deposition are in equilibrium.
B) When a local base level controls the stream.
C) When a river achieves a longitudinal stream profile of a steeper upstream portion.
D) When its basin becomes rejuvenated.
Answer:

121) Where is the bulk of ice on Earth?

A) North America, specifically Alaska.
B) European and Asian mountain ranges.
C) Greenland and Antarctica.
D) Floating ice shelves and packs.
Answer:

122) Which is glacial ice?

A) It is essentially the same as snow.
B) It is formed from continual accumulation of snow that recrystallizes under its own weight into
an ice mass over a period of many years.
C) It is made of sedimentary rock.
D) It is generally less dense than snow and firn.
Answer:

123) Which is produced by the process of calving?

A) Moraines.
B) Nunataks.
C) Tidewater glacier.
D) Icebergs.
Answer:
124) Which marks the location where accumulation balances ablation?
A) Equilibrium line.
B) Medial moraine.
C) Snowline.
D) Crevasses.
Answer:

125) Which of the following are directly related to glacial erosion?

A) Ablation.
B) Moraines.
C) Plucking.
D) Erratics.
Answer:

126) Which is an asymmetrical hill of exposed bedrock produced by plucking and abrasion?
A) Esker.
B) Drumlin.
C) Roche moutonnée.
D) Bergschrund.
Answer:

127) How do glaciated valleys differ from stream cut valleys?

A) A glaciated valley is V- shaped; a stream cut valley is U- shaped.
B) A glaciated valley is U- shaped; a stream cut valley is V- shaped.
C) A glaciated valley is U- shaped; a stream cut valley is U- shaped.
D) A glaciated valley is V- shaped; a stream cut valley is V- shaped.
Answer:

128) Which is a class of landforms created by the accumulation of glacial till?

A) Drift.
B) Alluvium.
C) Outwash.
D) Moraines.
Answer:

129) Which is a deposit of till that forms behind a terminal moraine as the glacier retreats and is
generally spread widely across the ground surface?
A) Outwash plain.
B) Till plain.
C) Drumlin swarm.
D) Lateral moraine.
Answer:
130) Which is sorted sediment deposited by glaciofluvial action?
A) Glacial erratics.
B) Stratified drift.
C) Till.
D) Moraines.
Answer:

130) Geography can best be described as what type of science?

A) An Earth science.
B) A human science.
C) A physical science.
D) A spatial science.
Answer:

131) Which of the following best describes the field of physical geography?
A) Understanding soil development as a response to the breakdown of organic matter by
decomposers.
B) Mapping the rock types in the Canadian Shield.
C) The study of weather, including stability and humidity.
D) The spatial analysis of all the physical elements, processes, and systems that make up the
environment.
Answer:

132) What realization is the science of physical geography based on?

A) Nature is homogeneous and spatially undifferentiated.
B) Knowledge of spatial distributions is of little value in understanding nature.
C) Nature can best be described and understood as a set of interrelated components through
which matter and energy flow.
D) Humans have no significant impact on the physical phenomena that occur in nature.
Answer:

133) Which of the following terms characterizes the discipline of geography?

A) Esoteric.
B) Integrative.
C) Unscientific.
D) Aesthetic.
Answer:

134) Which of the five fundamental themes of geography does the phrase 'latitude and longitude'
refer to?
A) Location.
B) Regions.
C) Human-Earth relationships.
D) Movement.
Answer: