NLSAT Mock 21

Answer Key

1 (Eng) 2(Eng) 3(Eng) 4(Eng) 5(CR) 6(CR) 7(CR) 8(GK) 9(GK) 10(GK)
(b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c)
11(Eng) 12(Eng) 13(Eng) 14(CR) 15(CR) 16(CR) 17(CR) 18(GK) 19(GK) 20(GK)
(c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (b)
21(Eng) 22(Eng) 23(Eng) 24(CR) 25(CR) 26(CR) 27(GK) 28(GK) 29(GK) 30(Eng)
(c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (a)
31(Eng) 32(Eng) 33(CR) 34(CR) 35(CR) 36(GK) 37(GK) 38(GK) 39(Eng) 40(Eng)
(c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c)
41(Eng) 42(CR) 43(CR) 44(CR) 45(CR) 46(GK) 47(GK) 48(Eng) 49(Eng) 50(Eng)
(b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c)
51(CR) 52(CR) 53(CR) 54(GK) 55(GK) 56(GK) 57(GK) 58(Eng) 59(Eng) 60(Eng)
(b) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (b) (d)
61(CR) 62(CR) 63(CR) 64(GK) 65(GK) 66(GK) 67(Eng) 68(Eng) 69(Eng) 70(CR)
(a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (b)
71(CR) 72(CR) 73(GK) 74(GK) 75(GK)
(c) (a) (d) (b) (b)

Solutions
1. Correct Answer: B) The Governor's delay in assenting to Bills and other executive decisions.
Reference Lines: "Tamil Nadu is also aggrieved that proposals related to grant of remission to some
convicts, sanction for prosecution of some former Ministers and appointments to the State Public Service
Commissions have not been acted upon."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option is a trap. While the passage does mention that Governors need not rubber stamp any
decision, it does not specify this as a grievance of Tamil Nadu.
B) This is the correct answer. The passage explicitly states that Tamil Nadu is aggrieved by the delay in
the Governor's assent to various proposals.
C) This option is misleading. The passage discusses the issue of Governors being hostile to amendments
related to university laws but does not link it directly to Tamil Nadu's core grievance.
D) This option is incorrect. The passage does discuss the role of Governors as chancellors, but it is not
mentioned as a specific grievance of Tamil Nadu.

2. Answer: D
Reference Lines: "It is time to have a national prohibition on Governors being burdened with the role of
chancellor of any university, as recommended by the Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State
relations."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
A) This option is a common misconception. The passage clarifies that the role of Governors as chancellors
is a practice rather than a constitutional requirement, which is subtly different from the option's
statement.
B) This option reflects a misunderstanding that could arise from the passage. The passage indicates the
absence of a timeframe for assent is problematic, but it does not state that the Supreme Court has
provided a strict deadline.
C) This option is tricky because it twists the passage's suggestion that States ought to be prudent. It
implies a criticism that is not directly stated but could be inferred by the reader as a potential subtext.
D) This is the correct answer. The passage implies that the recommendation by the Justice M.M. Punchhi
Commission to prohibit Governors from being chancellors could address the issues of authority misuse
by Governors.

3. Correct Answer: B) Disapproving

Reference Lines: "Governors need not rubber stamp any decision, but one can question the practice of
Governors, especially in States not governed by the ruling party at the Centre, blocking decisions and
Bills."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) Approbatory: This option is incorrect because 'approbatory' suggests approval or praise, which is the
opposite of the passage's tone.
B) Disapproving: This is the correct answer. The term 'disapproving' succinctly encapsulates the passage's
critical tone towards the Governors' conduct.
C) Objective: This option is incorrect. 'Objective' implies an unbiased and impartial tone, which does not
fit the critical nature of the passage.
D) Reformative: This option is incorrect. 'Reformative' suggests a focus on reform without direct criticism,
whereas the passage does criticize current practices.

4. Correct Answer: B
Reference Lines: "Governors...using their authority to delay the implementation of decisions by elected
regimes, if not undermine them."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is incorrect because the passage does not focus on legal scrutiny from the Supreme Court
but rather on the actions of the Governors themselves. The passage mentions the Supreme Court's
observations but does not imply that it is the central issue.
B. This is the correct answer as it encapsulates the central issue discussed in the passage: the delay and
potential blocking of Bills and decisions by Governors, especially in states that are not governed by the
central ruling party.
C. This option is incorrect as the passage does mention the role of Governors as chancellors, but it is not
the main focus of the passage. The contestation of their role is a secondary point rather than the primary
issue.
D. This option is incorrect because it misrepresents the passage's content. The passage does not imply
that state decisions are inherently imprudent or that they are being broadly challenged; it suggests that
there should be prudence to avoid giving Governors an opportunity to delay or question decisions.

5. Answer: A
Reference Line: "Governors need not rubber stamp any decision, but one can question the practice of
Governors, especially in States not governed by the ruling party at the Centre, blocking decisions and
Bills."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option directly correlates with the author's argument about potential partisan bias in the
Governors' actions. If Governors are indeed more lenient with Bills from states aligned with the central
government, it would substantiate the concern of partisan intervention.
B. This option indicates a legislative response to the Governors' perceived overreach, which is relevant
but does not directly substantiate the concern about intervention in the legislative process itself.
C. This option suggests a pattern of bias in favor of the central government's interests, which is a concern
but does not directly address the issue of intervention in the form of delaying or blocking state decisions.
D. This option introduces the idea of constitutional amendments for decision timelines, which is a solution
to the problem rather than evidence that supports the existence of the problem.

6. Answer: A
Reference Line: "The idea of having Governors as ex-officio vice-chancellor of most universities is only a
practice and is actualised through their founding statutes."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option directly counters the author's argument by showing a positive correlation between
Governors' roles as chancellors and university success, suggesting that their involvement is beneficial
rather than burdensome.
B. This option presents historical evidence of positive outcomes from Governors' involvement, which
could weaken the argument for prohibition but doesn't directly refute the idea that the role is a burden.
C. This option indicates broad support for the status quo from those within the university system, which
could challenge the need for prohibition but doesn't address whether the role is inherently problematic.
D. This option reflects a broad legal perspective that Governors' chancellor roles are foundational to the
governance of education, which could weaken the argument for prohibition by highlighting their
importance.
The correct answer (A) is the one that, if true, would most directly challenge the author's argument for
prohibition by presenting empirical evidence of the benefits of Governors' roles as chancellors, thereby
questioning the assertion that these roles are a burden and should be nationally prohibited. The options
have been lengthened slightly to provide more detail while maintaining uniform length, ensuring the
question remains very difficult.

7. Answer: A
Reference Line: "One would have thought the Supreme Court’s observations... would have driven into
them a sense of immediacy in considering Bills."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is consistent with the author's discussion of the Supreme Court's remarks, suggesting that
the author believes Governors should act promptly in accordance with judicial expectations.
B. This option contradicts the author's criticism of Governors' delays in bill assent, indicating the author
would not support the idea of indefinite discretion.
C. The author expresses concern over the misuse of constitutional vagueness, implying disagreement
with the notion of justified flexibility for Governors.
D. The author does not explicitly advocate for states to depend on the Supreme Court for timing
enforcement, making this option less likely to be endorsed.
The correct answer (A) is the one that best reflects the author's implied agreement with the Supreme
Court's interpretation that Governors should not delay bill decisions. The author appears to support a
prompt approach to bill assent, in line with the constitutional phrase "as soon as possible." The options
have been adjusted to similar lengths to maintain the question's high difficulty level.

8. Answer - D
[Explanation: Article 361 provides immunity to the president or the governor from any legal action for
their acts done in the exercise of their powers. However, this point has been settled by a Constitution
bench of the Supreme Court in Rameshwar Prasad and Ors. vs Union Of India and Anr. that the immunity
under Article 361 does not extend to the actions of the president or the governor which are not in
accordance with the Constitution. ]
9. Answer - B
[Explanation: The Supreme Court on Friday, 10 November 2023, ruled that the Punjab Governor cannot
doubt the validity of the assembly session and must decide on the bills sent to him for assent by the state
legislature. The order came on a plea by the Punjab government which said the state governor was sitting
on bills passed by the assembly, including those related to the farm laws and the abolition of the Punjab
State Human Rights Commission. The court said that the governor has to act on the aid and advice of the
council of ministers and cannot keep the bills pending indefinitely. ]

10. Answer - C
[ Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu has appointed Raghubar Das as Governor of Odisha, and Indra
Sena Reddy Nallu as Governor of Tripura. An official statement from the President's Secretariat issued on
Wednesday, said, "The President of India is pleased to make the following appointments:- Shri Indra Sena
Reddy Nallu as Governor of Tripura and Shri Raghubar Das as Governor of Odisha." ]

11. Correct Answer: C. The disparity between economic growth narratives and actual deprivation.
Reference Lines: The passage as a whole, with a particular focus on the lines "In sharp contrast to these
exaggerated claims, we draw attention to pervasive and growing deprivation of access to food and
shelter."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is a plausible distractor because it reflects a critical aspect mentioned in the passage but is
not the central theme.
B. This option is misleading as it suggests a positive role of social safety nets, which the passage does not
primarily focus on.
C. This option is correct as it encapsulates the main argument of the passage regarding the contrast
between claims of economic growth and the reality of poverty.
D. This option presents a related issue mentioned in the passage but does not capture the overarching
theme of the text.

12. Correct Answer: B. India's GDP growth has inclusively raised the poorest's living standards.
Reference Lines: "Although income growth has been sluggish, it has barely trickled down to the poorest."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is incorrect because it reflects a view that is supported by the passage, which aligns with
Amartya Sen's analysis.
B. This option is correct as the least likely to be supported because the passage indicates that the
economic growth has not significantly benefited the poorest, which contradicts the statement.
C. This option is incorrect because it matches the passage's criticism of prioritizing infrastructure over
social safety nets.
D. This option is incorrect because it aligns with the passage's suggestion that the actual state of
deprivation might be understated by the Poverty Index.

13. Correct Answer: A. Metaphor

Reference Lines: "...depicted the severe deprivation and devastation of a man for whom living honestly
became a will-o’-the wisp."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is correct because "will-o’-the wisp" is used metaphorically to represent the elusive nature
of living honestly under severe deprivation.
B. This option is incorrect because a simile would require a comparison using "like" or "as," which is not
present here.
C. This option is incorrect because personification would involve giving human characteristics to a non-
human entity, which is not the case here.
D. This option is incorrect because hyperbole is an exaggeration, and the phrase is not exaggerating but
illustrating the difficulty of achieving honesty in dire circumstances.

14. Correct Answer: C. It perpetuates poverty through reduced adult earnings and health issues.
Reference Lines: "Undernourished children, for example, are more likely to be stunted. Stunting has long-
term effects on individuals, including poor cognition and educational performance, low adult wages, lost
productivity and, when accompanied by excessive weight gain later in childhood, a higher risk of
nutrition-related chronic diseases in adult life."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is incorrect because the passage does not confirm the decline as sustained or irreversible,
only that there are long-term effects.
B. This option is incorrect because it narrows the impact to cognition and education, whereas the passage
indicates broader socioeconomic effects.
C. This option is correct as it aligns with the passage's broader implications of stunting, which include a
range of issues that contribute to the cycle of poverty.
D. This option is incorrect because the passage implies that the setbacks are long-term and does not
suggest that they are easily reversible with economic changes.
Why the Correct Answer is C:
Option C is the correct answer because it captures the essence of the passage's discussion on the long-
term effects of childhood undernutrition. It recognizes the interconnectedness of health and economic
outcomes, which aligns with the passage's indication that stunting has multifaceted effects that extend
into adulthood and contribute to the perpetuation of poverty.

15. Correct Answer: C. Building more affordable housing units would not address the root cause of
homelessness.
Reference Lines: "Starvation is caused not so much by a shortage of food supply as by a lack of
entitlements/real income to buy food. Similarly, a lack of shelter is not due to an inadequate supply of
houses but stems from a lack of real income to rent or buy a house."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option might seem correct at first glance, but it is not the most likely to be true based on the
author's statements. While increasing the minimum wage could improve the ability of individuals to buy
food and rent or buy a house, it does not directly address the entitlements or real income issue as the
root cause, which could include factors beyond just wages, such as social welfare and access to resources.
B. This option is incorrect because, according to the author's statements, the issue is not the supply of
food but the ability to purchase it. Therefore, even with a surplus of food production, if people do not
have the income or entitlements to buy food, starvation could still persist.
C. This option is the most likely to be true based on the author's statements. If the lack of shelter stems
from a lack of real income, then simply building more houses would not solve the problem if people still
do not have the income to afford them.
D. This option is incorrect because it contradicts the author's statements. Economic policies that only
increase food supply would not address the underlying issue of entitlements and real income necessary
to purchase food, according to the author's analysis.
Why the Correct Answer is C:
Option C is the most accurate inference based on the author's statements. The author argues that the
issues of starvation and lack of shelter are not due to shortages but due to a lack of income or
entitlements to acquire these necessities. Therefore, even if more affordable housing is available, without
addressing the income disparities or entitlements to secure housing, the root cause of homelessness
remains unaddressed. This option directly reflects the author's argument about the underlying causes of
these social issues.

16. Correct Answer: A. Economic indicators may not fully capture the actual standards of living and
poverty.
Reference Lines: "In sharp contrast to these exaggerated claims, we draw attention to pervasive and
growing deprivation of access to food and shelter."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is correct as it encapsulates the passage's skepticism towards the economic growth and
poverty reduction metrics, implying they may not reflect the real-life conditions of the population
accurately.
B. This option is incorrect because the passage does not directly address the overall validity of economic
growth as an indicator but rather the authenticity of the specific claims made about India's economic
growth.
C. This option is incorrect as it suggests a direct criticism of the Multidimensional Poverty Index, which
the passage does not explicitly provide; it questions the claims of poverty reduction rather than the tool
itself.
D. This option is incorrect because it suggests an assumption about wealth distribution that the passage
does not directly make; the passage implies that claims of affluence are exaggerated, not necessarily that
wealth is claimed to be evenly distributed.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
Option A is the correct answer because it closely aligns with the passage's underlying assumption that
there is a significant gap between the reported metrics of economic growth and poverty reduction and
the actual living conditions of the populace. The passage highlights a "sharp contrast" between claims of
decreased poverty and the observed deprivation, suggesting that the metrics may not be capturing the
full scope of the issue.

17. Correct Answer: A. Data indicates a disproportionate income rise for the wealthy compared to the
poor.
Reference Lines: "Although income growth has been sluggish, it has barely trickled down to the poorest."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option directly supports the author's argument by suggesting that the income growth has favored
the wealthy, which is consistent with the claim that the poor have not seen significant benefits from
economic growth.
B. This option would weaken the author's argument as it implies that infrastructural projects do benefit
the poor, albeit marginally, which is not in line with the author's stance.
C. While this option appears to support the author's argument, it is not as directly related to the issue of
income distribution as option A.
D. This option implies that the focus on infrastructure might be justified due to lower returns from other
sectors, which would counter the author's argument.
The revised options are now more uniform in length, ensuring that none stand out based on size, which
could inadvertently influence a test-taker's choice. The correct answer remains A, as it most directly
reinforces the author's argument by highlighting the disparity in income growth between the rich and the
poor.

18. Answer - C
[Explanation: The 2023 edition of the report reveals that between 691 and 783 million people faced
hunger in 2022, with a mid-range of 735 million. This represents an increase of 122 million people
compared to 2019, before the COVID-19 pandemic. ]

19. Answer: C
[Explanation: Tehri Garhwal in Uttarakhand witnessed a notable decline of 34 percentage points in the
share of wasted children, indicating a considerable improvement in addressing childhood wasting within
this district over the specified period. ]

20. Answer: B
[Explanation: According to the information, three districts in Arunachal Pradesh and South District of
Sikkim reported a share of underweight children between 7 to 9%, emphasizing a relatively lower
prevalence in Sikkim. ]

21. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines:
"Over the years, the UN gained universal membership... However, the equations of power are not
permanent; they change. Eventually, that is how legitimacy gets eroded. With the major powers
developing severe differences, they have made it impossible for the UN with its frozen membership of
decision-making bodies, such as the UNSC, to be able to undertake any meaningful action."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The passage indicates that the UN's legitimacy and effectiveness are eroded by changing
power dynamics, not strengthened.
B. Incorrect. The passage suggests that the changing power dynamics do indeed impact the UN's role,
contrary to what this option implies.
C. Correct. This option aligns with the passage, which states that the changing power dynamics and major
powers' differences hinder the UN's effectiveness.
D. Incorrect. The passage does not imply that the UN's focus is shifting towards economic issues due to
global power fluidity; this option introduces an unsupported claim.

22. Correct Answer: D

Reference Lines:
"That disappeared by 2008. This is because two-three things happened... and then the global financial
crisis..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The passage explicitly includes the U.S. military deployment in Afghanistan as a factor, as
noted by Sood.
B. Incorrect. Sood's commentary identifies the U.S. military engagements in Iraq as a significant
contributing factor.
C. Incorrect. The financial crisis affecting Western economies is directly cited by Sood as a contributing
event.
D. Correct. The establishment of a global trade regulatory framework is not mentioned by Sood as a factor
in the decline of the unipolar world order.

23. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "Over the last two-three decades, the UN has been like a bystander."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect because a metaphor is a direct comparison without using "like" or "as," and the passage does
not present a direct comparison.
B. Correct because a simile is a figure of speech that compares two different things using "like" or "as,"
which is how "like a bystander" is used.
C. Incorrect because personification involves giving human characteristics to non-human entities, and the
passage does not do this.
D. Incorrect because hyperbole is an exaggerated statement, and the passage makes a comparative
statement without exaggeration.

24. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "The UN was brought into existence (after World War 2) by those who played an
important role in the aftermath of the war; they became the permanent members of the Security Council
(UNSC)."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Rakesh Sood would likely dispute this because he implies that the UN's structure, with permanent
Security Council members from the post-WW2 era, is ineffective for modern conflicts due to outdated
global power dynamics.
B. This option might seem to contradict Sood's views, but he does not state that consensus is the only
factor for the UN's effectiveness, making it a less likely choice for his disagreement.
C. Sood would probably not dispute this as he suggests that providing global public goods is a necessary
function of a global order.
D. Sood is less likely to dispute this because he indicates that the UN must be saleable to the world,
implying some dependence on global community support.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
Rakesh Sood would most likely dispute Option A because it is in direct conflict with his view that the UN's
current structure is not equipped to handle contemporary global conflicts. He suggests that the
unchanged, permanent membership of the Security Council is a key reason for the UN's ineffectiveness
in this area.

25. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "Over the last two-three decades, the UN has been like a bystander. With the major
powers developing severe differences, they have made it impossible for the UN with its frozen
membership of decision-making bodies, such as the UNSC, to be able to undertake any meaningful
action."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is most similar to the author’s statements because it captures the essence of the UN's
current predicament as described in the passage. The author likens the UN to a bystander, suggesting
that it has lost its ability to influence outcomes, much like a referee who cannot control the game due to
a lack of respect from the players.
B. While this option might seem close, it is not the best fit because the author does not imply that the UN
chooses its role as a bystander but rather that it has been forced into it due to the dynamics of major
powers.
C. This option is contrary to the author’s statements. The author suggests that the UN is unable to
navigate the complexities of international politics effectively, unlike the adept diplomat described here.
D. This option is also in contrast to the author’s depiction of the UN. The passage indicates that the UN
has been unable to mediate or resolve disputes effectively, which is the opposite of the successful
mediation described in this choice.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
Option A is the correct answer because it closely parallels the author's portrayal of the UN's diminished
role in managing international conflicts. The author describes the UN as an entity that, despite having a
structure like a referee (with decision-making authority), is unable to exercise meaningful influence, akin
to a referee who cannot enforce rules in a game due to the players' lack of regard for their authority.

26. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "First of all, the liberal international rules-based order is a myth. During the Cold War, we
had a liberal Western order led by the U.S., not an international order."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option reflects a paradox because it describes a peacekeeping organization that is supposed to
prevent conflict but ends up causing it, which aligns with Sood's suggestion that the liberal international
order, ostensibly designed to maintain global order, is a myth and not truly international.
B. The financial institution's bankruptcy is ironic but does not directly parallel the paradox Sood describes,
which is about the discrepancy between the perceived purpose of an international order and its actual
function.
C. The popularity of a health agency is not inherently paradoxical in relation to its effectiveness in
controlling epidemics, making this option less analogous to the paradox Sood is discussing.
D. Educational reform leading to lower literacy rates is counterintuitive but does not capture the specific
nature of the paradox related to international governance and the facade of a liberal order that Sood
points out.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
Option A is the correct answer because it presents a situation where there is a clear contradiction
between the intended purpose of an organization and the actual outcome of its actions. This mirrors the
paradox Sood identifies in the liberal international order, where the supposed rules-based system led by
the U.S. during the Cold War did not equate to a truly international or equitable order. The peacekeeping
organization's role in causing conflict is analogous to the liberal order's failure to be genuinely
international and its contribution to global instability, as implied by Sood's remarks on the U.S.'s actions
post-Cold War.

27. Answer: A
[Explanation: Israel is developing a laser-based system called the Iron Beam that it says will be able to
intercept rockets and other short-range threats at a fraction of the cost of the Iron Dome. Israel says that
system, developed with U.S. funding, has not yet been deployed. The Iron Beam is expected to
complement the Iron Dome and other air defense systems that Israel has, such as the Arrow and David’s
Sling. ]

https://www.economist.com/the-economist-explains/2023/11/13/what-is-israels-iron-beam

28. Answer: B
[Explanation: The UN Security Council has five permanent members - China, France, Russia, the United
Kingdom, and the United States. These countries have the right to veto any resolution or decision. ]

29. Answer: A
[Explanation: Canada said on Tuesday it was targeting nine Moldovan individuals and six TV stations in
new sanctions against Russian collaborators in Moldova. The targeted individuals are associated with
influential oligarchs, such as Vladimir Plahotniuc and Ilan Mironovich Shor, while the TV stations promote
and disseminate disinformation to justify Russia's invasion of Ukraine, the Canadian foreign ministry said
in a statement. ]

30. Answer: A
[Explanation: The Minsk I Agreement, aimed at resolving the conflict in Eastern Ukraine, was signed in
2014. It was the first set of agreements designed to address the ongoing crisis in the region. ]

31. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "However, the court expressed reservations about intervening to ensure the
implementation of the quota law before the general election in 2024."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Changes:
A. This option suggests that the Court is supportive but cautious about the process, which is partially true.
However, the passage does not specifically mention the Court's inclination towards supporting the
enactment of the quota, nor does it discuss the constitutional process that must be followed. The Court's
actual concern is about overstepping its jurisdiction, not about the constitutional process per se.
B. This option correctly captures the Court's acknowledgment of the amendment's positive aspect but
incorrectly suggests that the Court's hesitation is due to a preference for legislative discretion. The
passage indicates the Court's hesitation is due to concerns about judicial overreach, not a preference for
legislative action.
C. This option is aligned with the Court's stance as described in the passage. The Court sees the
amendment as a positive step (endorsement of the principle) but is cautious about taking action that
could be seen as legislative (caution regarding its role), which is beyond its jurisdiction.
D. This option is tricky because it correctly states that the Court recognizes the benefits but incorrectly
implies that the Court is concerned with due process in the context of immediate effectuation. The
passage does not mention the Court's stance on due process; rather, it highlights the Court's reservations
about intervening in a manner that equates to legislating.

32. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "Justice Sanjiv Khanna, heading a Division Bench, remarked that it would be very difficult
for the court to take such action, equating it to legislating, which is not within the purview of the
judiciary."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This suggests the judiciary should take an active role in implementation, which the Court is
hesitant to do.
B. Correct. This aligns with the Court's concern about not overstepping its boundaries into the legislative
domain.
C. Incorrect. This suggests the judiciary should legislate in Parliament's stead, which the Court wants to
avoid.
D. Incorrect. This revised option clearly contradicts the Court's stance as it implies the judiciary should
have the power to create laws, which is a legislative action the Court is keen to avoid.
33. Correct Answer: D
Reference Lines: The entire passage provides a detailed account of the situation without using persuasive
language or advocating for a specific outcome.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. "Persuasive" implies an attempt to convince the reader, which the passage does not do.
B. Incorrect. "Expository" suggests a focus on explaining or expounding upon ideas, which is more
detailed than the passage's approach.
C. Incorrect. "Narrative" would indicate a story-like format, which is not the style used in the passage.
D. Correct. "Descriptive" accurately reflects the passage's style, which is focused on describing the events
and arguments without bias.

34. Correct Answer: B

Reference Line: "However, the court expressed reservations about intervening to ensure the
implementation of the quota law before the general election in 2024."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The passage does not suggest that the judiciary should completely refrain from involvement
in constitutional amendments; it only indicates the court's hesitation to intervene in this specific instance.
B. Correct. The author describes the court as acknowledging the amendment as positive but also shows
the court's concern for maintaining the separation of powers, indicating that the judiciary should not
overstep into the realm of legislation.
C. Incorrect. The passage clearly indicates the court's reservations about taking action that could be seen
as legislative, which contradicts the idea that the judiciary should be the primary facilitator for the
implementation of amendments.
D. Incorrect. The passage does not suggest that the judiciary needs to be more assertive. On the contrary,
it highlights the court's cautious approach to its role in the implementation of the amendment.
Why the Correct Answer is B:
The author most likely agrees with Option B because it accurately reflects the balance the Supreme Court
is trying to maintain between recognizing the importance of legislative changes for gender parity and
respecting the boundaries of its judicial authority. The passage specifically notes the court's reservations
about intervening in a manner that could be equated with legislating, which is not within its jurisdiction,
thus supporting the notion that the judiciary must respect the separation of powers.

35. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "Mr. Singh argued that the clause should be declared 'void ab-initio' as it unduly delays
the implementation of a constitutional amendment that was unanimously passed by Parliament during
a Special Session."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation:
A. Correct. If the clause is annulled as "void ab-initio," the conditions requiring demographic updates prior
to the reservation policy's implementation would be disregarded, leading to its direct enactment.
B. Incorrect. This option would be a continuation of the current situation if the clause were to remain
valid, which is contrary to the scenario where the clause is invalidated.
C. Incorrect. The advocacy for invalidating the clause is to prevent any postponement, which this option
suggests, hence it does not align with the intended outcome of the clause's annulment.
D. Incorrect. This option diverts from the central issue of the clause's invalidation. The advocate's
argument is focused on the unnecessary delay, not the demographic data's age or validity.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
The correct answer is A because the advocate's primary contention is with the undue delay caused by the
stipulation for a subsequent Census and delimitation exercise. Invalidating the clause would eliminate
this stipulation, thereby removing the barrier to immediate implementation of the reservation policy as
originally intended by the constitutional amendment.

36. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "He pointed out that previous constitutional amendments... were implemented without
the need for Census data."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation:
A. Correct. This option is effective as it directly addresses the senior lawyer's contention that previous
amendments did not require Census data for implementation, suggesting that the same approach could
be applied to the current amendment.
B. Incorrect. This option contradicts the senior lawyer's argument that waiting for the Census and
delimitation is unnecessary, as demonstrated by the precedent of earlier amendments.
C. Incorrect. There is no mention in the passage of a need for a judicial review of the enforcement of
previous amendments, making this option ineffective and irrelevant to the argument presented.
D. Incorrect. The senior lawyer's argument is that the implementation of previous amendments did not
wait for new Census figures, so suggesting an interim demographic study does not align with the
established precedent.
Why the Correct Answer is A:
The correct answer is A because it reflects the senior lawyer's argument regarding the precedence of
implementing constitutional amendments without waiting for new Census data. By suggesting the
reservation be implemented independently of the Census schedule, this course of action would
effectively follow the historical precedent and address the lawyer's concerns about unnecessary delays.

37. Answer - A
[Explanation: Article 330 of the Constitution reserves seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People
(Lok Sabha) and Article 332 of the Constitution reserves seats for SCs and STs in the Legislative Assemblies
of the States.]

38. Answer: B
[Explanation: The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill sought to introduce 33 percent reservation for
women in 1996. It faced debates and challenges, including concerns about the capability of women and
the absence of reserved seats for women from backward caste communities. ]

39. Answer: D
[Explanation: The Philippines, among the first countries in the world to introduce reservations for women,
has surpassed the global average with 28 percent women lawmakers. ]

40. Correct Answer: C) The significant alterations in global climatic conditions that are extending the
duration of wind reversal phenomena
Reference Lines: "According to Prof Beig, climatic changes have altered the pattern of wind reversal,
which is now taking longer than usual, resulting in weaker winds."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) Incorrect because, while urban development affects local air quality, it is not the primary factor in
altering meteorological wind patterns as per Prof Beig's analysis.
B) Incorrect as the implementation of sophisticated monitoring systems is designed to track and report
on atmospheric conditions, not to change them.
C) Correct because it directly reflects Prof Beig's statement that climatic changes are responsible for the
altered pattern and weakened wind conditions in Mumbai.
D) Incorrect because infrastructure advancements, while they can affect local wind flow, are not cited as
the cause of the broader climatic wind reversal issues that Prof Beig discusses.

41. Correct Answer: B) Forming an air quality commission to address bureaucratic limits.
Reference Lines: “Tripathi suggests that Mumbai should adopt a commission for air quality management.
'The wind does not obey jurisdictions but the bureaucracy has to, so the municipal commissioner of
Mumbai would not be able to take action against garbage burning in Thane or Navi Mumbai, even if the
pollution from the site affects Mumbai’s AQI,' he explained.”
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) Incorrect because Tripathi's focus is on the structural management of air quality, not specifically on
transportation changes.
B) Correct as Tripathi emphasizes the need for a commission to manage air quality beyond bureaucratic
boundaries.
C) Incorrect because strict enforcement is not the primary issue Tripathi is addressing; it's the need for
structural change.
D) Incorrect because Metro expansion is a solution to reduce pollution, but not the bureaucratic
challenge Tripathi is highlighting.

42. Correct Answer: D) Tackling Mumbai's Air Quality Crisis

Reference Lines: The entire passage
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) Incorrect because this title suggests a singular focus on climate change, whereas the passage addresses
a broader set of issues including construction, policy, and citizen involvement in improving air quality.
B) Incorrect as this title implies the Metro network's expansion is the central theme, but the passage
actually presents it as one of several initiatives to address the air quality crisis.
C) Incorrect because it reduces the passage's content to a conflict between bureaucracy and pollution
control, overlooking the comprehensive strategies and solutions that are discussed.
D) Correct because it broadly encompasses the various strategies and challenges mentioned in the
passage, including the need for policy enforcement, citizen participation, and structural changes in air
quality management.

43. Correct Answer: B) Meteorological reports show no deviation in wind patterns from historical
seasonal norms during the period in question.
Reference Line: "According to Prof Beig, climatic changes have altered the pattern of wind reversal, which
is now taking longer than usual, resulting in weaker winds."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option challenges the impact of industrial activities on air quality, which, if proven insignificant,
could weaken the argument regarding man-made factors.
B) This option directly counters the author's claim about altered wind patterns contributing to poor air
quality, making it the strongest contender for weakening the argument.
C) By attributing the primary source of pollutants to international activities, this option could diminish
the perceived impact of local natural and man-made factors.
D) This option introduces a new variable—vehicular traffic—which, if shown to be inversely related to air
quality, could question the role of local man-made factors.
Why B is the answer:
Option B is the answer because it directly refutes the author's claim regarding the natural factors—
specifically, the change in wind patterns. If meteorological reports indicate that wind patterns have not
changed, the argument that these patterns are contributing to the air quality issues is significantly
weakened.

44. Correct Answer: B) The integration of diverse experts into policy development would yield a more
robust and informed approach to managing air quality.
Reference Line: "The administration needs to involve engineers, scientists, health experts, and legal
advisers, and include academic institutions in the search for solutions."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option, while relevant, does not directly support the multidisciplinary approach as it focuses more
on the structural aspect of management rather than the involvement of various disciplines.
B) This option is the most accurate as it directly correlates with the passage's call for a range of specialized
knowledge in the administration, which is the essence of a multidisciplinary approach.
C) This option is too narrow as it only highlights the scientific aspect of policy-making, not the broad
spectrum of disciplines that constitute a multidisciplinary approach.
D) This option, though important, is more about the execution phase of policies rather than the
formulation phase that benefits from multiple disciplines.
Why B is the answer:
Option B is the correct answer because it encapsulates the essence of the passage's argument for
involving a variety of experts in the administration. This directly supports the fact that addressing air
quality issues in Mumbai requires a comprehensive approach that includes engineers, scientists, health
experts, legal advisers, and academic institutions, which is the core of a multidisciplinary strategy.

45. Correct Answer: C) Adaptability methodologies from global cities, when applied in Mumbai, are
presumed to be universally effective and relevant.
Reference Line: "Mumbai can learn from cities like Delhi and London, which have embraced adaptability
methodologies."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option posits a direct impact of citizen engagement on air quality, which is supportive but not a
necessary assumption for the author's conclusion about adopting other cities' methodologies.
B) This option suggests a direct effect of Metro expansion on car usage, which is not the central
assumption required for the author's conclusion to be logical.
C) This option is the correct assumption that underpins the author's conclusion; it must be presumed that
what works in other cities will work in Mumbai for the conclusion to logically follow.
D) This option implies a direct link between monitoring and policy effectiveness, which is important but
not the primary assumption for the author's conclusion about adopting methodologies.
Why C is the answer:
Option C is the correct answer because it encapsulates the necessary assumption for the author's
conclusion to be logical: that the methodologies which have been successful in cities like Delhi and
London will also be effective when implemented in Mumbai. This assumption is critical because, without
it, there is no logical basis for the recommendation that Mumbai should follow the lead of these cities.

46. Answer: B
[Explanation: The AQI scale uses color codes to categorize air quality. "Orange" indicates conditions that
are "Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups," such as individuals with respiratory or heart conditions. This
category corresponds to an AQI range of 101-150. ]
47. Answer: C
[Explanation: An AQI level of 301-500 is categorized as "Hazardous." This level indicates that the air
quality poses a health alert, with everyone being more likely to be affected. People are advised to take
significant precautions to reduce exposure when the AQI reaches this range. ]

48. Answer: C) Hassan

[Explanation: According to the 2021 World Air Quality Report, Hassan, a city in the state of Karnataka,
had the highest annual average PM2.5 level in 2023, with 242.04 µg/m 3. This was more than 48 times
higher than the WHO recommended limit of 5 µg/m 3. Hassan is known for its coffee and tea plantations,
but also suffers from industrial and vehicular pollution, as well as biomass burning. ]

https://smartairfilters.com/en/blog/20-most-polluted-cities-in-india-2023/

49. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "Perhaps it’s the government that wants secrecy."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option suggests that donors are acting out of a precautionary principle, anticipating negative
outcomes even if there is no historical evidence of such repercussions. It's a plausible reason but does
not align with the author's skepticism, which is rooted in the absence of any known retribution against
donors.
B. This option aligns with the author's implicit assumption that the government may have ulterior motives
for maintaining donor anonymity. It suggests that the government could be using anonymity to
manipulate the flow of political capital, which is a sophisticated interpretation of the author's skepticism.
C. This option acknowledges that while there may be instances of transparency, they are not indicative
of a transparent system as a whole. It's a subtle point that reflects the author's view on the systemic lack
of transparency, but it does not directly address the issue of donor anonymity.
D. This option posits that while donors may claim to support political integrity, their actions suggest a
stronger desire for secrecy. It's a plausible argument but does not directly confront the author's
suggestion that the need for donor anonymity is questionable and possibly a government-driven agenda.

50. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "This set the stage for what one might have hoped would be a resolution to this issue,
but instead, the result was quite the opposite."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. "The unveiling of obscured practices" could be interpreted as a process that reveals what has been
hidden, akin to setting the stage for transparency, but it does not reflect the unexpected reversal implied
in the passage.
B. "The stagnation of reformative efforts" suggests a halt in progress, which might be seen as setting a
stage for something to occur, yet it doesn't capture the sense of an outcome being the opposite of what
was intended.
C. "The inversion of anticipated outcomes" is the correct answer as it closely mirrors the phrase "set the
stage" followed by "the result was quite the opposite," indicating a preparation for one event that leads
to an entirely different result.
D. "The erosion of open dealings" implies a gradual decline in transparency, which might be a backdrop
to a situation but doesn't encapsulate the sudden shift in expectations that "set the stage" conveys.

51. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "However, by April 2021, the ECI counsel had seemingly reversed its position, stating
support for electoral bonds, echoing the government’s stance."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is subtly misleading; it suggests a reconsideration rather than a reversal of stance, which
could be plausible but is not what the passage indicates.
B. This is the correct answer; it is paraphrased to avoid using the exact words from the passage and is of
similar length to the other options, requiring careful reading to discern.
C. This option incorrectly suggests that the ECI did not take a definitive stance, which is contrary to the
passage that indicates a clear position by the ECI.
D. This option introduces an action (proposing to gauge public sentiment) that is not supported by the
passage, making it a plausible but incorrect choice.

52. Answer: B
Reference Line: "What emerged from this situation were electoral bonds, which, rather than promoting
transparency, contributed to its demise."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option suggests a correlation between anonymous donations and corruption, which could imply
that electoral bonds might lead to corruption. However, it does not directly strengthen the argument
about the impact of electoral bonds on transparency in political funding within the specific context of
India.
B. This is the correct answer because it directly supports the main argument. If undisclosed political
donations increased after the introduction of electoral bonds, it would provide concrete evidence that
the scheme has reduced transparency in political funding, which is the central claim of the passage.
C. Voter indifference does not strengthen the argument about the impact of electoral bonds on
transparency; rather, it might suggest that the issue of transparency is not of concern to the public. This
could potentially weaken the implied urgency of the problem rather than strengthen the argument.
D. Reports of legitimate use of electoral bond donations do not address the issue of transparency. Even
if the funds are used legitimately, the lack of transparency remains unaddressed. This option does not
strengthen the argument that electoral bonds have compromised transparency; it could even be seen as
a counterpoint.
Why Option B is the Answer:
Option B directly ties an increase in undisclosed donations to the introduction of electoral bonds, which
would empirically validate the author's claim that electoral bonds have led to a decrease in transparency.
This data would serve as strong evidence to bolster the passage's main argument, making it the best
choice to strengthen the argument.

53. Answer: A
Reference Line: "But why would donors seek anonymity?... Yet, has any ruling party ever targeted a donor
who contributed to its political opponents?"
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option provides a direct historical context for the need for anonymity, which would resolve the
paradox by showing that there were indeed repercussions for donors in the past, justifying the current
need for secrecy.
B. While this option talks about a change in the law, it does not address the historical context of why
anonymity was sought, which is necessary to resolve the paradox.
C. This option introduces a new element of audits and a limited number of entities, which might suggest
a different issue but does not address the historical concern of donor targeting that is central to the
paradox.
D. This option implies a strategic decision by parties to encourage more donations. However, it does not
address the historical evidence of targeting donors, which is needed to resolve the paradox.
Why Option A is the Answer:
Option A is the correct choice because it directly addresses the paradox by providing a historical reason
for the need for anonymity. If donors have historically faced retaliation when their political contributions
became known, this would explain the current desire for anonymity and resolve the paradox suggested
by the author.

54. Answer: D
Reference Line: "However, by April 2021, the ECI counsel had seemingly reversed its position, stating
support for electoral bonds, echoing the government’s stance. This U-turn is unfathomable."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option posits that the ECI's change was due to new evidence, which the passage does not confirm,
making it a less convincing explanation.
B. This option suggests the ECI was swayed by government assurances, but the passage does not mention
such assurances, rendering this explanation speculative.
C. This option implies the ECI's stance evolved from new insights, yet the passage does not reference any
recent research affecting the ECI's views.
D. This option aligns with the passage's tone of disbelief regarding the ECI's sudden change, suggesting
external pressures may have played a role, making it the most plausible explanation given the context.
Why Option D is the Answer:
Option D is the most plausible because it corresponds with the passage's implication of an
"unfathomable" reversal, suggesting the ECI's decision was not based on transparent or justifiable
reasons. The passage provides no clear rationale for the ECI's change, which leaves room for the
interpretation that the ECI was influenced by factors not openly discussed, such as political pressure.

55. Answer: A
[Explanation: Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People
Act, 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to
the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the electoral
bonds. ]

56. Answer: B
[Explanation: A five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court, comprising Chief Justice N V Ramana
and Justices U U Lalit, A M Khanwilkar, D Y Chandrachud and S Ravindra Bhat, is hearing petitions
challenging the validity of electoral bonds used to fund political parties. ]

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/sc-electoral-bonds-hearing-explained-
9006289/

57. Answer - C
[Explanation: The Government of India has authorised the State Bank of India (SBI), in the XXIX Phase of
sale, to issue and encash Electoral Bonds through its 29 Authorised Branches. ]

58. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "That the Grand Old Party can’t shake off Trump despite all the criminal charges against
him says something about the current churn in US politics..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A: This option is misleading because the passage does not explicitly discuss the Republican Party's
strategies regarding demographic engagement. The passage focuses more on the internal dynamics of
the party rather than its external strategies. The term "potential evolution" is vague and does not directly
relate to the specific context of Ramaswamy's rise.
Option B: While the passage does mention the presence of Indian American individuals like Ramaswamy
and Haley, it does not make their ethnicity the centerpiece of their political rise. The passage is more
focused on the broader political implications of Ramaswamy's success rather than just the prominence
of Indian American voices. This option is a plausible distractor but does not capture the essence of the
passage's main point.
Option C: This is the correct answer because it directly relates to the passage's discussion of the
Republican Party's challenges in moving beyond Trump's influence. The passage implies that
Ramaswamy's rise is significant in the context of the party's internal conflicts and the "current churn in
US politics," which is well-reflected in this option.
Option D: This option introduces a broader political analysis that is not directly supported by the passage.
While the rise of unconventional candidates is a relevant topic in American politics, the passage does not
discuss this as a trend or relate it specifically to Ramaswamy's rise. It is a distractor that could confuse
readers by introducing a broader context that the passage does not focus on.

59. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "President Joe Biden has appointed nearly 140 Indian Americans to key positions in the
administration."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Changes:
Option A: This option has been revised to acknowledge the broad spectrum of the Indian diaspora's
success, which is more in line with the passage's content. It is now a plausible distractor because it is true
to the passage but does not directly answer the question about the "notable aspect" highlighted in the
passage.
Option B: This remains the correct answer but has been slightly rephrased for clarity and to better reflect
the specific example given in the passage about the Biden administration's appointments.
Option C: This option has been rephrased to focus on the visibility of the Indian diaspora's contributions
in governance and policy-making, which is a subtle nod to their achievements without being
geographically incorrect. It's a challenging distractor because it is true but not the specific aspect the
question is asking about.
Option D: Previously, this option incorrectly suggested that the diaspora's success was attributed to anti-
colonial sentiment. The revision now presents this as a topic of discussion rather than a cause, making it
a more sophisticated distractor that requires the reader to understand the nuance in the passage.

60. Correct Answer: D

Reference Lines: The entire passage serves as a reference as it explains the situation.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Changes:
Option A Explanation:
"Narrative" suggests a story-like format, which is incorrect because the passage does not tell a story but
rather discusses the implications of certain events.
Option B Explanation:
"Analytical" is a tempting distractor because the passage does involve analysis, but it is not the primary
style of the passage as it does not solely focus on breaking down information but also on presenting it.
Option C Explanation:
"Advocative" is incorrect because the passage does not seek to persuade the reader to a specific
viewpoint or course of action; it is more informative than persuasive.
Option D Explanation:
"Expository" is the correct answer as it describes a style that is informative and intended to explain or
describe something, which aligns with the passage's approach to discussing the political situation and the
role of the Indian diaspora.

61. Correct Answer: A

Reference Lines: "It is not easy for a rank outsider like Ramaswamy to mobilize resources – the
presidential nomination will be finalized only next summer..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Changes:
Option A Explanation:
This option remains unchanged as it directly captures the implicit assumption about the challenges faced
by outsider candidates in mobilizing resources for a campaign, which is suggested by the passage.
Option B Explanation:
This option has been rephrased to suggest that debate performances might be seen as indicative of a
candidate's overall campaign strength, which is a more nuanced take on the importance of debates and
could be a plausible assumption based on the passage.
Option C Explanation:
This option has been rephrased to imply that the scrutiny newcomers face is due to their newness to the
public eye, which requires them to build credibility. This is a subtle point that could be inferred from the
passage, making it a more difficult distractor.
Option D Explanation:
This option has been rephrased to suggest that the timing of campaign events, such as fundraising
milestones, could be strategically important, which is a broader and more nuanced consideration than
the original phrasing and could be inferred as a potential challenge for any candidate.

62. Correct Answer: A

Reference Lines: "The Indian diaspora is doing especially well in the Anglo-Saxon world... President Joe
Biden has appointed nearly 140 Indian Americans to key positions in the administration."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A Explanation:
This option is correct. It mirrors the passage's depiction of the Indian diaspora's success in terms of global
integration and diversity. The multinational corporation's inclusive approach to executive leadership
parallels the Indian diaspora's prominent roles in the Anglo-Saxon world's governmental and business
sectors.
Option B Explanation:
This option is incorrect because it contrasts with the passage's theme by focusing on localism rather than
global integration. The sports club's local talent focus does not reflect the Indian diaspora's international
success and acceptance in the Anglo-Saxon world.
Option C Explanation:
This option is incorrect as it emphasizes cultural preservation rather than international integration. The
cultural institution's dedication to indigenous art does not parallel the cross-cultural success of the Indian
diaspora in the Anglo-Saxon world.
Option D Explanation:
This option is incorrect because it suggests a focus on a specific niche, contrasting with the broad success
of the Indian diaspora across various sectors in the Anglo-Saxon world. The tech enterprise's niche market
strategy does not align with the widespread influence and integration of the Indian diaspora.
Why Option A is the Answer:
Option A is the answer because it best reflects the passage's theme of the Indian diaspora's widespread
success and integration into the Anglo-Saxon world, which is analogous to a multinational corporation's
diverse and inclusive executive team. Both scenarios depict a broad, inclusive approach that transcends
national or cultural boundaries.

63. Correct Answer: A

Reference Lines: "That the Grand Old Party can’t shake off Trump despite all the criminal charges against
him says something about the current churn in US politics..."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A Explanation:
This option is probably false. The passage indicates a "current churn in US politics," which implies a lack
of stability and uniformity within the Republican Party, making this statement contradictory to the
passage's information.
Option B Explanation:
This option is incorrect but not obviously false based on the passage. The passage does not explicitly state
that Ramaswamy and Haley are the only Indian Americans involved in the Republican Party, but it does
not provide enough information to confirm this statement as false.
Option C Explanation:
This option is likely true, aligning with the passage's suggestion that the Republican Party's difficulty in
distancing from Trump is reflective of broader political unrest, not making it the probably false statement.
Option D Explanation:
This option is misleading. The passage focuses on Ramaswamy and Haley but does not claim that policy
debates are limited to Indian American participants. It's an overstatement and could be considered false,
but Option A is more directly contradicted by the passage.

64. Answer - B
[Explanation: New Hampshire's Secretary of State David Scanlan on Wednesday announced New
Hampshire's 2024 primary will be Jan. 23, 2024, ending monthslong speculation and controversy
involving President Biden, the Democratic National Committee (DNC) and state officials. For more than
100 years, New Hampshire has traditionally held the first primary election in the country- a point of pride
for the small New England state, and since 1975, the state has had a law requiring it be held at least a
week before any other primary nominating contest. ]
https://www.cbsnews.com/news/new-hampshire-primary-date-2024-elections-first-in-the-nation-
democrats/

65. Answer: B
[Explanation: The Twenty-second Amendment to the United States Constitution states that “No person
shall be elected to the office of the President more than twice”. This amendment was ratified in 1951,
after Franklin D. Roosevelt became the only president to serve more than two terms. The amendment
also limits the total number of years a person can serve as president to 10, in case they succeed to the
office from the vice presidency or another position. ]

66. Answer: A
[Explanation: Venture capitalist Vivek Ramaswamy, the author of the book "Woke Inc.," announced on
Tucker Carlson’s Fox News show on Tuesday that he's running for president. Ramaswamy’s long-shot
candidacy tries to fill the role that idea-driven outsiders have played in presidential politics, from Steve
Forbes' 1996 GOP flat tax campaign to Andrew Yang's 2020 Democratic universal basic income push. ]

67. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "Only an AoR can file cases before the Supreme Court...the AoR is essentially the link
between the litigant and the highest court of the country."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. An AoR orchestrates the procedural groundwork for Supreme Court cases.
Incorrect because it implies that the AoR's role is limited to procedural preparation, whereas their role is
more comprehensive, involving the filing of cases and acting as a key link between the court and the
litigant.
B. An AoR bridges case strategy between litigants and senior courtroom advocates.
Incorrect as it suggests the AoR's role is primarily strategic coordination, which is part of their duties, but
the passage emphasizes their role in filing cases and being the primary link to the court.
C. An AoR ensures a litigant's case is procedurally presented to the Supreme Court.
Correct because it encapsulates the AoR's role as described in the passage, highlighting their
responsibility for ensuring that a litigant's case is properly filed and presented before the Supreme Court.
D. An AoR primarily offers legal counsel and assists in case filing.
Incorrect because it downplays the AoR's role in the actual filing and procedural handling of cases before
the Supreme Court, which is a significant part of their duties as per the passage.

68. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "The Court censured the lawyer...also called for a 'comprehensive plan' for reforming
and improving the AoR system..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. Incorrect as the passage does not directly link the number of frivolous cases to the leniencies in the
AoR system, making this a speculative statement.
B. Correct because it aligns with the passage's suggestion that the censure may be symptomatic of wider
issues within the AoR system, necessitating a comprehensive plan for reform.
C. Incorrect because the passage does not specifically mention the court's workload or the intention to
limit case filings as a primary goal of the reform.
D. Incorrect as it misinterprets the passage, which does not isolate the dissatisfaction to individual AoRs
but rather points to a systemic issue.

69. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "The Supreme Court this week pulled up an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) for filing a
frivolous case..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is incorrect because 'frivolous' is the opposite of significant importance; it implies
something that is not worthy of serious attention.
B. This option is incorrect because a frivolous case would not be described as having a strong legal
foundation or substantial evidence.
C. This option is correct because 'frivolous' means something that is not serious or lacks merit, which
aligns with the context in which the court dismissed the case.
D. This option is incorrect because 'frivolous' suggests simplicity in lack of seriousness, not complexity.

70. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "The Court censured the lawyer that an AoR cannot merely be a “signing authority.” A
bench of Justices...also called for a “comprehensive plan” for reforming and improving the AoR system..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option, if true, would justify the call for a comprehensive plan, as it would indicate a pattern of
misconduct by at least one AoR, not a flaw in reasoning.
B. This option points out a flaw in the reasoning. If most AoRs are diligent and the incident is an isolated
case, then the need for a comprehensive plan based on this single event might be an overreaction, which
would be a flaw in the reasoning that the system itself is flawed.
C. If the comprehensive plan includes measures unrelated to preventing frivolous filings, it might suggest
a flaw in the reasoning that the plan is a direct response to the censured incident. However, it does not
directly challenge the reasoning behind the need for a comprehensive plan itself.
D. The fact that other courts have implemented reforms without a comprehensive plan does not
necessarily expose a flaw in the Supreme Court's reasoning for wanting a comprehensive plan. Different
courts may have different needs and circumstances.

71. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "The advocate must train with a court approved AoR for at least one year to take up the
exam."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is now a more challenging distractor because it closely aligns with the passage's information
about the four years of practice required before starting AoR training, but it subtly shifts the focus to the
period before the specialized training rather than before the examination.
B. This option is a subtle distractor because it introduces ambiguity regarding the requirement of an AoR
to be based in Delhi, which is implied but not explicitly stated as a requirement in the passage.
C. This option remains the correct answer, as it is directly supported by the passage, which states the
necessity of completing a training period under a court-approved AoR.
D. This option has been rephrased to introduce ambiguity, making it less obviously incorrect. It challenges
the reader to recall that the examination is indeed set by the Supreme Court, as stated in the passage.

72. Correct Answer: A

Reference Lines: "An advocate needs to score at least 60% i.e. a minimum of 240 marks out of 400 with
at least 50% in each subject in a three-hour exam."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is correct because it directly relates to the passage's details about the scoring criteria. The
assumption is that a high scoring threshold ensures that only proficient advocates are selected, which is
the underlying rationale for such a criterion.
B. This option is a nuanced distractor. It suggests an assumption about logistical efficiency, which is not
explicitly stated in the passage but could be a reasonable assumption given the context of the
requirement.
C. This option is subtly tied to the passage's mention of employing a clerk. It introduces the assumption
that this requirement is to maintain high standards of practice management, which is plausible but not
explicitly stated.
D. This option is a sophisticated distractor. It connects the selectivity of the examination process with the
expected level of legal acumen, an assumption that could be inferred from the passage but is not directly
stated as the primary rationale for the examination's difficulty.

73. Answer: D
[Explanation: SCAORA is the official association of the Advocates-on-Record, representing their collective
interests and providing a platform for professional collaboration. ]

74. Answer: B
[Explanation: Solicitors on the rolls of the Bombay Incorporated Law Society are exempted from taking
the Advocates-on-Record Examination if they have been on the roll of the State Bar Council for a period
of not less than seven years. ]

75. Answer: B
[Explanation: The Supreme Court of India is empowered to frame rules, including those related to
Advocates-on-Record, under Article 145 of the Constitution. ]