CLASS: XII REVISION TEST 22 DATE: 04.12.

24
Subject: Physics MAX.MARKS: 20
Time :8 am -8.50 am
CHAPTER:12
I Answer the following
1. The magnitude of electric field due to a point charge 2q, at distance r is E.
Then the magnitude of electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical
shell of radius R with total charge q at a distance r/2, (r >>R) will be______.
A)𝑬 /4 B) 0 C) 2E D) 4E
2. Three charges q, - q and q0 are placed as shown in figure. The magnitude of
the net force on the charge q0 at point O is [k = 1/4πϵ0]

a) 0 b) 𝟐𝒒𝟏𝒒𝟐 /𝒂2 c) √ 𝟐𝒒𝟏𝒒𝟐 /𝒂2 d) (1/√ 𝟐) 𝒒𝟏𝒒𝟐 /𝒂2

3. Two equal charges are separated by a distance d. A third charge placed on a
perpendicular bisector at x distance, will experience maximum coulomb force
when
A) x= d/√𝟐 B) x=d/2 C) x= d/2√𝟐 D) x= d/2√𝟑
4. ASSERTION: Electric force acting on a proton and an electron, moving in a
uniform electric field is same, the acceleration of electron is 1836 times that of a
proton.
REASON: Electron is lighter than proton.
A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
 B) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false. D) If both assertion and reason are
false.
5. A charge q is placed at the Centre of a cube of side l. What is the electric flux
passing through each face to the cube?
2 A) q/5ϵ0 B) q/9ϵ0 C) q/6ϵ0 D) q/ϵ0
6. What will be the value of electric field at the Centre of the electric dipole?
A) Zero B) Equal to the electric field due to one charge at Centre
C) Twice the electric field due to one charge at Centre
D) Half the value of electric field due to one charge at Centre
7. The ratio of E from left side of plate A at distance 1 cm and 2 m respectively
is

(a) 1: 2 (b) 10: 2 (c) 1: 1 (d) 20: 1

8. Electric potential varies with distance such that V(x) = ax - bx3 ; where a and
b are constants. Where will the electric field intensity be zero?
A) x = 𝑎 /b B) x = 𝑎 /3b c) x = √ (a /b) d) x = √ (a /3 b)
9. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected in a combination as shown
below. Identify the correct statement(s)
(i) The charge on capacitor C1 is greater than that on capacitor C2.
(ii) The charge on capacitor C1 is the same as that on capacitor C3.
(iii) The charge on capacitor C1 is 30 μC.
A) Only (i) is correct B) Only (iii) is correct.
C) Both (i) and (iii) are correct. D) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
10. An electron is introduced in a region of an electric field. The charge starts
accelerating in the direction opposite to that of the field. Which of the following
statements is true?
A) The field does positive work on the electron and its potential energy
increases.
B) The field does positive work on the electron and its potential energy
decreases.
C) The field does negative work on the electron and its potential energy
increases.
D) The field does negative work on the electron and its potential energy
decreases.
11. A dipole is placed parallel to electric field. If W is the work done in rotating
the dipole from 0° to 60°, then work done in rotating it from 0° to 180°is
A) 2 W B) 3 W C) 4 W D) W/2
12. Three charges; 1 𝜇C, 2 𝜇C, 3 𝜇C are kept at vertices of an equilateral
triangle of side 1 m. if they are brought nearer so that they now form an
equilateral triangle of side 0.5 m, then work done is:
A) 11 J B) 1.1 J C) 0.01 J D) 0.11 J
13. The variation potential V with r & electric field E with r for a point charge is
correctly shown in the graphs

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a
distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B in figure. The work done
in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is

A) – qQ /2π ɛₒL B) qQ /6π ɛₒL C) - qQ /6π ɛₒL D) qQ /4π ɛₒL

15. In the figure given below, both switches S1 and S2 are closed. Then

4.A) L1 will be brighter than L2 or L3

B) L1 will be dimmer than L2 or L3.
C) L1 will be as bright as L2 or L3 D) None of the above.
16. Two batteries of ε1 and ε2 (ε2 > ε1) and internal resistance r1 and r2
respectively are connected in parallel as shown in figure.
A) The equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is between ε1 and ε2, i.e. ε1 < εeq < ε2.

B) The equivalent emf εeq is smaller than ε1.

C) The εeq is given by εeq = ε1 + ε2 always.
D) εeq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2.
17. In a 𝑑𝑐 circuit the direction of current inside the battery and outside the
battery respectively are:
A) positive to negative terminal and negative to positive terminal
B) positive to negative terminal and positive to negative terminal
C) negative to positive terminal and positive to negative terminal
D) negative to positive terminal and negative to positive terminal
18. If the potential difference V applied across a conductor is increased to 2 V
with its temperature kept constant, the drift velocity of the free electrons in a
conductor will:
A) remain the same B) become half of its previous value
C) be double of its initial value D) become zero
19. The temperature (𝑇) dependence of resistivity of material 𝐴 and material 𝐵
is represented by fig (i) and fig (ii) respectively.

Identify material A and material B.

A) material 𝐴 is copper and material 𝐵 is germanium.
B) material 𝐴 is germanium and material 𝐵 is copper.
C) material 𝐴 is nichrome and material 𝐵 is germanium.
D) material 𝐴 is copper and material 𝐵 is nichrome
20. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit, the point of lowest potential is
negative terminal of the battery. Reason: The current flows towards the point of
the lower potential as it flows in such a circuit from the negative to the positive
terminal.
A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. D) If Assertion and Reason are false.
21. For Ohm’s law is obeyed, then what is the relation between electric field(E)
and drift velocity (vd)?
(a) vd ∝ E2 (b) vd ∝ E (c) vd ∝E/2 (d) vd ∝√ E
22. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity
of v and enters a region of electric field and magnetic field B as shown in the
figure below. For which figure is the net force on the particle is zero?

A B C D
B
23. A circular of radius R carries a current I. The magnetic field at its centre is
B. At what distance from the centre on the axis of the coil, the magnetic field
will be B/8?
A) √2R B) √3R C) 2R D) 3R
24. Assertion(A): Magnetic field interacts with moving charge and not with
stationary charge. Reason(R) : A moving charge produces a magnetic field,
which interacts with another magnetic field.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false. D) A is false and R is also false.
25. What should be the value of shunt resistance of the ammeter in order to
increase its range?
a) S = (n – 1) G b) S = (n – 1)/G c) S = G/𝑛−1 d) S = G /𝑛+1
26. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
connecting it with a:
a) low resistance in series b) low resistance in parallel
c) high resistance in parallel c) high resistance in series
27. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 Ω and gives full scale deflection
for a current of 4mA.To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
a) 10m Ω resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer
b) 10m Ω resistance is to be connected in series to the galvanometer
c) 0.1 Ω resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer
d) 0.1 Ω resistance is to be connected in series to the galvanometer
28. A wire in the shape of an equilateral triangle with sides of length 1m placed
in a magnetic field of 2T , Pointing to the right. What is the magnitude of the
magnetic flux through the triangle?
a) 0 Wb b) 1 Wb c) 1.73 Wb d) 5 Wb
29. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring
b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil
30. A current flow through an infinitely long straight wire. The magnetic field
produced at a point 1m away from it is:
a) 2 x 10-3 T b) 2 π x 10-3 T c) 2 x 10-7 T d) 2π x 10-7 T
31. What is the formula to find the work done in rotating the dipole in a uniform
magnetic field from θ1 to θ2?
A) W = MB (cos θ1/cos θ2) B) W = MB (cos θ1 + cos θ2)
C) W = MB (cos θ1 – cos θ2) D) W = M+B (cos θ1 – cos θ2)
32. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences
A) a torque but not a force. B) neither a force nor a torque.
C) a force and a torque. D) a force but not a torque.
33. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a small bar magnet in the end on position
to the broad side on position is –
A) 1:4 B) 1:2 C) 1:1 D) 2:1
34. .A bar magnet AB with magnetic moment M is cut into two equal parts
perpendicular to its axis. One part is kept over the other so that end B is exactly
over A. What will be the magnetic moment of the combination so formed? –
A) Zero B) M/4 C) M D) 3M/4
35. The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation
versus the applied magnetic field intensity H, for two magnetic materials A and
B, identify the line which represents Diamagnetic material

A) B B) A C) None of these D) Both A and B

36. A small bar magnet place with its axis at 30° with an external field of 0.06 T
experiences a torque of 0.018 Nm. The minimum work required to rotate it from
its stable to unstable equilibrium position is
A) 9.2 x 10-3 J B) 6.4 x 10-2 J C) 11.7 x 10-3 J D) 7.2 x 10-2 J
37. Assertion - The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two
pieces. Reason - The magnetic moment will be reduced to half, when a magnet
is broken into two equal pieces.
A) Assertion and Reason both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Assertion and Reason both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
38. Figure shows a rectangular conductor PSRQ in which movable arm PQ has
a resistance ‘r’ and resistance of PSRQ is negligible. The magnitude of emf
induced when PQ is moved with a velocity v does not depend on:
A) magnetic field (𝐵⃗) B) velocity (𝑉⃗)
C) resistance (r) D) length of PQ
39. The direction of induced current in the loop abc is :

A) along abc if I decreases B) along acb if I increases

C) along abc if I is constant D) along abc if I increases
40. A Square shaped coil of side 10 cm, having 100 turns is placed
perpendicular to a magnetic field which is increasing at 1 T/s. the induced emf
in the coil is
A) 0.1 V B) 0.5 V C) 0.75 V D) 1.0 V
41. Two coils are placed closed to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair
of coils depends upon
A) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils.
B) relative position and orientation of the two coils.
C) the material of the wires of the coils. D) the currents in the two coils.

according to relation 𝐼 = 𝑡 2𝑒 −𝑡 . At what time, emf is zero?

42. In an inductor of self-inductance L= 2mH, current changes with time

A) 2 sec B) 3 sec C) 4 sec D) 1 sec

43. Assertion: At any instant, if the current through an inductor is zero, then the
induced emf may not be zero. Reason : An inductor tends to keep the flux (i.e.
current) constant.
A) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
 B) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) if assertion is true, but reason is false
D) both assertion and reason are false statements.
44. A coil of 100 turns carries a current of 5 mA and creates a magnetic flux of
10-5 Weber. The inductance is
A) 0.02mH B) 2 mH C) 0.002 Mh D) 0.2 mH
Chapter 7
45. A device 'X' is connected to an ac source V(t) = V0 sinωt. The variation of
voltage, current in one cycle is in the following graph: (a) Identify the device
'X'.

(A) Only capacitor (B) Resistor and Inductor

(C) Only inductor (D) Only Resistor
46. The root mean square value of the alternating current is equal to
(a) Twice the peak value (b) ½ of the peak value
(c)1/√2 times the peak value (d) √2 times of peak value
47. Transformers are used
(a) in DC circuit only (b) in AC circuits only
(c) in both DC and AC circuits (d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits
48. The r.m.s voltage of the waveform shown is
(A) 10 V (B) 7 V (C) 6.37 V (D) 12 V
49. Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place. Reason:
Resonance takes place if inductive and capacitive reactances are equal and
opposite.
A) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C) if assertion is true, but reason is false
D) both assertion and reason are false statements.
50. In a step-up transformer, if ratio of turns of primary to secondary is 1:10 and
primary voltage is 230 V. If the load current is 2A, then the current in primary
coil is-
(a) 2A (b) 10 A (c) 20 A (d) 1 A
51. A resistor of 10Ω, a capacitor of reactance 20Ω and a pure inductor of
inductance 0.1 H are joined in series and placed across 200 V, 50 Hz a.c. supply.
The value of inductive reactance is
(A)10 Ω (B) 20 Ω (C) 30 Ω (D)31.4 Ω
52. At resonant condition
(A) Impedance is maximum (B) Impedance is numerically equal to R/2
(C) Impedance is minimum and equal to resistance R (D) Impedance is zero

53. If E = 200Volt, R = 25  , L=2H and C=2μF and the frequency is variable

then the current at f = 0 and f =  will be respectively
(1) 0A, 8A (2) 8A, 0A (3) 8A, 8A (4) 0A, 0A
54. From graph, which one is true from following?

(a) VL>VC (b) VL< VC (c) VL= VC (d) None

55. If E and B represents electric and magnetic field vectors of the
electromagnetic waves , The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave
is along.
A) E B) B C) B X E D) E X B
56. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
A) Cosmic rays B) X-rays C) Radio waves D) Gamma ray
57. What Is the phase difference between electric field and magnetic field in an
electromagnetic wave?
A) Zero degree B)180 degree C)90 degree D)270 degree
58. Assertion :- Dipole oscillations produce electromagnetic waves Reason :-
Accelerated charges produce electromagnetic waves
A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
C) The reason is correct but assertion is incorrect.
D) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
59. What is displacement current?
A. The current flowing through a resistor in an RC circuit
B. The current flowing through a capacitor in an AC circuit
C. The current that appears to flow across a gap in a dielectric material as a
capacitor charges or discharges
D. The current flowing through a conductor in a closed circuit
60. Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is
correct?
A. It includes only visible light.
B. It encompasses a narrow range of frequencies.
C. It does not include radio waves
D. It ranges from extremely high frequencies to extremely low frequencies.
61. All of the following statements are correct except
A) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one
B) A virtual, erect, same-sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror
C) A virtual, erect, magnified image can be formed using a concave mirror
D) A real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror
62. The refractive index of a certain glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in
vacuum is 6000 Å. The wavelength of this light when it passes through glass is
A) 4000 Å B) 6000 Å C) 9000 Å D) 15000 Å
63. The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin plano-convex lens is 15
cm and refractive index of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be
A) 1 D B) – 2 D C) 3D D) 4D
64. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm
respectively and the object is put 1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the
final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power of the microscope is
A) 150 B) 200 C) 250 D) 400
65. To increase the magnifying power of telescope (fo = focal length of the
objective and fe = focal length of the eye lens)
A) fo should be large and fe should be small
B) fo should be small and fe should be large
C) fo and fe both should be large
D) fo and fe both should be small
66. Assertion : Different colours travel with different speed in vacuum.
Reason : Wavelength of light depends on refractive index of medium.
A) If both assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason is true and reason is not the correct explanation
of Assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
67. Two coherent light beams of intensity I and 4I are superposed. The
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are….
A) 9I and I B) 5I and I C) 9I and 3I D) 5I and 3I
68. Young's double slit experiment is performed with light of wavelength 550
nm. The separation between the slits is 1.10 mm and screen is placed at distance
of 1m. What is the distance between the consecutive bright or dark fringes?
A) 1.5 mm B) 1.0 mm C) 0.5 mm D) 0.15 mm
69. In YDSE experiment, when two light rays make third minima, then they
have….
A) phase difference of 3π B) phase difference of 5π/2
C) path difference of 3λ D) path difference of 5λ/2
70. Young’s double slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue
light, one colour at a time. The fringe widths recorded are βG , βR & βB
respectively ,then….
A) βG >βB >βR B) βB>βG >βR C) βR >βB >βG D) βR >βG >βB
71. A light source of 5000Å wave length produces a single slit diffraction. The
first minima in diffraction pattern is seen, at a distance of 5mm from central
maxima. The distance between screen and slit is 2 metre. The width of slit in
mm will be…. A) 0.1 B) 0.4 C) 0.2 D) 2.0
72. Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin convex lens and
another on the refracting face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the
emerging wavefronts respectively become….
A) plane wavefront and plane wavefront
B) plane wavefront and spherical wavefront
C) spherical wavefront and plane wavefront
D) spherical wavefront and spherical wavefront
73. In a photoelectric effect experiment a light of frequency 1.5 times the
threshold frequency is made to fall on the surface of photosensitive material.
Now if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the number of photo
electrons emitted will be: A) doubled B) halved C) zero D) quadrupled
74. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and α particle are λ and 2λ
respectively. The ratio of the velocities of proton and α particle will be :
A) 8:1 B) 1:2 C) 1:8 D) 4:1
75. In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence 45⁰, at the top surface, what is
the minimum refractive index needed for total internal reflection at vertical face

(a) (√2+1)/ 2 (b √ (3/2) (c) √ (½) (d) √2 + 1

76. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E when the wavelength of
incident light is λ˖ If energy becomes four times when wavelength is reduced to
one–third, then work-function of the metal is
A)3hc/λ B)hc/3λ C)hc/λ D)hc/2λ
77. If E1,E2,E3 represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, an α
particle and a proton each having same de-Broglie wavelength, then
A) E1˃E3˃E2 B) E2˃E3˃E1 C) E1˃E2˃E3 D) E1=E2=E3
78.Which of the following will emit photoelectrons when it collides with a
metal?
A) UV radiations B) Infrared radiation C) Radio waves D) Microwaves
79. Assertion (A): In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected
from near the surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal
Reason (R) :The velocity of ejected electrons will be zero
A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
80. Two H atoms in the ground state collide in-elastically. The maximum
amount by which their combined kinetic energy is reduced is
A) 10.20 eV B) 20.40 eV C) 13.6 eV D) 27.2 eV
81. The Volume of an atom is of the order of
A) 10-10 m3 B) 10-15 m3 C) 10-30 m3 D) 10-45 m3
82. A photon beam of energy 12.1 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom. The orbit
to which electron of H-atom be excited is:
A) 2 nd B) 3 rd C) 4 th D) 5 th
83. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponding to increasing values
of energy i.e., EA < EB < bEC. If λ1, λ2, λ3 are the wavelengths of radiations
corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of
the following statements is correct:
A) λ3 = λ1 + λ2 B) λ3 = λ1 λ2 / ( λ1+λ2)
C) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0 D) 𝜆3 2 = 𝜆1 2 + 𝜆22
84. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is
about -3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is
A) 3.4 eV B) 6.8 eV C) -3.4 eV D) -6.8 eV
85. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1--> n2 where n1 and n2
are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bhor’s model to be
valid, the time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the
final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are
A) n1 = 6 and n2 = 2 B) n1 = 8 and n2 = 1
C) n1 = 8 and n2 = 2 D) n1 = 4 and n2 = 2
86. What were the limitations of the Rutherford model which could not explain
the observed features of atomic spectra explained in Bohr’s model of a
hydrogen atom?
A) It must emit a continuous spectrum B) It loses its energy
C) Gaining its energy D) A discrete spectrum
87. Which of the following statements about nuclear force is not true
A) Nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance is
more than a few femtometers.
B) Nuclear force is much weaker than coulomb force.
C) Nuclear force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fermi and repulsive if
they are separated by distances less than 0.5 fermi.
D) The nuclear force between n-n : p-n and p-p is approximately the same.
88. Which of the following has the highest neutron to proton ratio?
A)8O16 B)2He4 C)26Fe56 D)92U 235
89. A nuclear reaction is given as:
A + B ------------→ C + D
Binding energies of A, B, C and D are given as B1, B2, B3 and B4 respectively.
Then the energy released in the reaction will be
A) (B3 + B4) + (B1 + B2) B) (B1+ B4) - (B3 + B2)
C) (B3 + B4) - (B1 + B2) D) (B3- B4) + (B1- B2)
90. Following data is available about 4 nuclei P, Q, R and S. Which one is most
stable?

A) P B) Q C) R D) S
91. What is missing in the following nuclear reaction? 1H 2 + 1H 2 —> 2He3 + ?
A) meson B) electron C) neutron D) positron
92. Which of the following statements is not true for nuclear forces?
A) They saturate as the separation between two nucleons increases.
B) They have about the same magnitude for different pairs of nucleons.
C) They are stronger than Coulomb forces.
D) They are always attractive.
93. For extrinsic Semiconductor when doping level is increased
A) Fermi level of p- type semiconductor will go downward and Fermi level of
n-type semiconductor will go upward
B) Fermi level of p- type semiconductor will go upward and Fermi level of n-
type semiconductor will go downward.
C) Fermi- level of both p-type and n-type semiconductors will go upward for T
> Tf K and downward for T< Tf K, where, Tf is Fermi temperature.
D) Fermi level of p-type and n-type semiconductors will not be affected
94. Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
A) Decreases with the rise in its temperature
B) Increases with the rise in its temperature
C) Does not change with the rise in its temperature
D) First increases and then decreases with the rise in its temperature
95. In a PN-junction diode
A) The current in the reverse biased condition is generally very small about μA.
B) The current in the reverse biased condition is small but the forward biased
current is independent of the bias voltage
C) The reverse biased current is strongly dependent on the applied bias voltage
D) The forward biased current is very small in comparison to reverse biased
current
96. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are
characterized by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap
respectively equal to (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge. Which of the following
statements is true?
A) (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)c B) (Eg)c < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)Si
C) (Eg)c > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge D) (Eg)c = (Eg)Si = (Eg)G
97. The semiconductor X is made by doping a germanium crystal with arsenic
(Z= 33). A second semiconductor Y is made by doping germanium with indium
(Z = 49). The two are joined end to end and connected to a battery as shown,
which of the following statements is correct?

A) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is forward biased.

B) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is forward biased.
C) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is reverse biased.
D) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is reverse biased.
98. In the given circuits (a), (b and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n
junction are equal in:

(A) Circuit (a) only B) Circuit (b) only

(C) Circuit (c) only D) Both circuit (a) and (c)
99. Which of the following represents forward bias diode ?
 A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d)
100. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in figure. The
current flowing through the resistance R1 will be.

A) 2.5 A B) 10.0 A C) 1.43 A D) 3.13 A