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Physical
EXERCISE
1. A sample of protein was analyed for metal content and analysed for metal content and
analysisi revealed that it contained magnesium and titanium in equal amounts, by mass. If
these are the only metallic species present in the protein and contains 0.016% metal, the
minimum possible molar mass of the portein is [Mg=24, Ti = 48]
(A) 600000 (B) 150000 (C) 300000 (D) 1200000
2. 1 mol of N2 and 4 mol of H2 are allowed to react in a vessel to form NH3 gas as only product
and after reaction, water is added. Aqueous solution required 1 mol of HCl for complete
reaction. Mol fraction of H2 in the gas mixture after reaction is
(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6 (C) 1/3 (D) 1.0
3. pH of 0.05 M H2SO4 solution will be
(A) 0.005 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0.01
4. Which of the following does not make any change in pH when added to 10 mi dilute HCl
(A) 5 ml pure water (B) 20 ml pure water (C) 10 ml HCl (D) Same 20 ml dilute HCl
5. The pH of a soft drink is 3.82. Its hydrogen ion concentration will be
(A) 1.96×10–2 mol/l (B) 1.96×10–3 mol/l (C)1.5×10–4 mol/ l (D) 1.96×10–1 mol / l
6. A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to 0.0001%. Its ionization constant is
(A) 1.0×10–3 (B) 1.0×10–6 (C) 1.0×10–8 (D) 1.0×10–10

7. In the reaction A+2B 2C, if 2 moles of A.3.0 moles of B and 2.0 moles of C are placed in
a 2.0 lit. flask flask and the equilibrium concentration of C is 0.5 mole/ l. The equilibrium
constant (KC) for the reaction is
(A) 0.073 (B) 0.147 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.026
8. For which state of matter, the coefficient of cubic expansion is independent to chemical
composition ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) all
k1
9. In a reversible 2NO2 N2O4, the rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to
k2
k1 2
(A) k [NO2 ] (B) 2k1 [NO2]2– 2k2 [N2O4]
2

(C) 2k1 [NO2]2 – k2 [N2O4] (D) (2k1–k2) [NO2]

10. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine headed in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3
moles of HI were found. The equilibrium constant for H2(g) + I 2(g) 2HI(g) is
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 0.33
11. Average velocity of molecules of an ideal gas in a container, moving only in one dimension, is

8RT 1 8RT
(A) (B) (C) zero (D) Infinite
M 3 M

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12. In a chemical equilibrium A+B C+D, when one mole each of the two reactants are mixed,
0.6 mole each of the products are formed. The equilibrium constant calculated is
(A) 1 (B) 0.36 (C) 2.25 (D) 4/9

13. The ratio PVm/RT fof a gas is known as the compressibility factor. What is the value of this
ratio ofr one mole of a vanderwaal's gas at its Boyle temperature ?

b2 b2 b b2
(A) 1  (B) 1  2 (C) 1  (D) 1 – 2
Vm(Vm  b) Vm Vm Vm

14. The following equilibrium exists in aqueous solution CH3COOH CH3COOH— + H+. If dilute
HCl is added without a change in temperature then the
(A) Concentration of CH3COO– will increase
(B) Concentration of CH3COO– will decrease
(C) Equilibrium constant will increase
(D) Equilibrium constant will decrease

15. Reaction in which yield of product will increases with increases in pressure is
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g (B) H2O(g) + CO(g) CO2(g)+H2(g)
(C) H2O(g) + C(s) CO(g) + H2(g) (D) CO(g)+ 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g)

16. The distance between tow nearest neighbors in body centered cubic lattice of axial length, l,
is
3 2
(A) l (B) l (C) l (D) none
2 2
17. Let the height of hop unit cell is 'h'. The height of tetrahedral voids from the bases i
h h 2h h 7h h 3h
(A) (B) , (C) , (D) ,
2 2 3 8 8 4 4

18. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is
(A) 3.0504 (B) 3.64 (C) 3.05 (D) 2.9732

19. Boiling point of chloroform was raised by 0.323 K, when 0.5143 g of anthracence was
dissolved in its its 35 g. Molecular mass of ant hracence is (Kb for CHCl3 = 3.9 k-kg-mol–1)
(A) 79.42 g/mol (B) 132.32 g/mol (C) 177.42 g/mol (D) 242.32 g/mol

20. A solution containing 30 gms of non-volatile solute in exactly 90 gm water has a vapour
pressure of 21.85 mm Hg at 25° C. Further 18 gms of water is then added to the solution. the
resulting solution has a vapour pressure of 22.15 mm Hg at 25°C, Calculate the molecular
weight of the solute
(A) 74.2 (B) 75.6 (C) 70.3 (D) 78.7

N
21. With 63 gm of oxalic acid how many litres of solution can be prepared
10
(A) 100 litre (B) 10 litre (C) 1 litre (D) 1000 litre

22. The heat evolved on combustion of 1 gm of starch, (C6H10O5), into CO2(g) and H2O(l) is 4.18
Kcal. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of 1 gm of starch ? Heat of formation of
CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –94.05 and –68.32 Kcal/mol.
(A) –2.82 Kcal (B) –0.71 Kcal (C) – 1.41 Kcal (D) – 8.46 Kcal

23. The bond enthalpies of C–C=C and bonds are are 348, 610 and 835 kJ/mol, respectively at
298K and 1 bar. The enthalpy of polymeristion permole mole of 2-Butyne at 298K and 1 bar, as
shown below, is
n CH3–C  C—CH3 (g)  –(CH2–CH=CH–CH2)n –(g)
(A) –123 kJ (B) –132 kJ (C) – 139 kJ (D) – 37 kJ

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24. Which of the following in not correct for dieal solution

(A) Smix=0 (B) Hmix=0
(C) It obeys Raoult's law (D) Vmix= 0

25. A 5% solution of canesugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X.
the molecular weight of X is
(A) 34.2 (B) 171.2 (C) 68.4 (D) 136.8

26. A certain aqueous solution of FeCl3 (formula mass =162) has a density fo 1.1 g/ml and
contains 20.0% FeCl3. Molar concentration of this solution is.
(A) 0.028 (B) 0.163 (C) 1.27 (D) 1.47

27. The exact mathermatical expression of Raoult's law is (n= moles of non-volatile solute, N =
moles of solvent, P = V.P. os solution & P°=V.P. of pure solvent)

P0 – P n P0 – P N P0 – P n P0 – P
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D)  nN
P0 N P0 n P N P0

28. Pressure over an ideal binary liquid solution contaaining 10 moles each of liquid A and B is
gradually decreased isothermally. At what pressure, half of the total amount of liquid will get
converted into vapour ? (P0A=200 torr, P0B = 100 torr)
(A) 150 torr (B) 166.5 torr (C) 133.3 torr (D) 141.4 torr

29. Which of the following sets is possible for quantum numbers

1
(A) n=4, l=3, m=–2, s=0 (B) n=4, l=4, m=+2, s=–
2

1 1
(C) n=4, l=4, m=–2, s=+ (D) n=4, l=3, m=–2, s=+
2 2

30. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63×10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0×108 ms–1. Which
value is closest to the wavelenggh in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of
8×1015 S–1
(A) 3×107 (B) 2×10–25 (C) 5×10–18 (D) 4×101

31. Values of four quantum numbers for the last electron in the atom are n=4, l=1, m=+1 and s=–
1
. Atomic number of the atom will be
2
(A) 22 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 36

32. which one of the following explains light both as a stream of particles and as wave motion

h
(A) Diffraction (B)   (C) Interferecne (D) Photoelectric effect.
p

33. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when
they are in
(A) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +100 ml of 0.1 M-KI
(B) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +50 ml of 0.2 M-KI
(C) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +50 ml of 0.1 M-KI
(D) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +100 ml of 0.15 M-KI

34. Be's 4th electron will have four quantum numbers

n l m ms
(A) 1 0 0 +1/2
(B) 1 1 +1 +1/2
(C) 2 0 0 –1/2
(D) 2 1 0 +1/2

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35. In a 3.0 litre vessel, the following equilibrium partial are measured : N2 = 100 mm, H2=400 mm
and NH3=100 mm. Nitrogen is removed from the vessel at constant temperature unit the
pressure of hydrogen at equilibrium is equal to 700 mm. The new equilibrium partial pressure
of N2 is
(A) 11.94 mm (B) 200 mm (C) 18.66 mm (D) 43.78 mm
36. Suppose the gas phase isomeriation reactions A B, A C and B C reach equilibrium at a
fixed temperature. Express the quilibrium mole fraction of A in terms of equilibrium constants,
which are K1, K2 and K3 respectively.
K1 1 1 1
(A) K  K  K (B) 1  K  K (C) K  K  K (D) K
1 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 1  K2

37. The data for the rection A+B  C is

Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Inittila rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.10
4 0.012 0.070 0.80
The rate law corresponds to the above data is
(A) Rate = k[B]3 (B) Rate = k[B]4 (C) Rate = k[A] [B]3 (D) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2
38. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression K [A] [B]. If the volume of the
reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to
original rate will be
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/8 (C) 8 (D) 16
39. The rate of of reaction is doubled for every 10° rise in temperature. The increases in reaction
rate as a result of temperature rise from 10° to 100° is
(A) 112 (B) 512 (C) 400 (D) 614

1
40. The decomposition of N2O5 is a first order reacton represented by N2O5  N2O4+ O . After
2 2
15 minutes the volume of O2 produced is 9 ml and at the end of the reaction 35 mL. The rate
constant it equal to
1 35 1 44 1 44 1 35
(A) In (B) In (C) In (D) In
15 44 15 26 15 35 15 36

1
41. C+ O  CO; H = –42 kJ
2 2
1
CO+ O  CO2; H = –24 kJ
2 2
The heat of formation of CO2 is
(A) –16 kJ (B) +66 kJ (C) +16 kJ (D) –66 kJ
42. The heat of combustion of CH4(g). C(graphite) and H2(g) are 20 kcal, –40 kcal and –10 kcal
respectively. The heat of formation of methane is
(A) –4.0 kcal (B) + 40 kcal (C) –80 kcal (D) + 80 kcal
43. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume
of 10 litres to 20 litres at 25° C is
(A) 2.303×298×0.082 log 2 (B) 298×107×8.31×2.303 log 2
(C) 2.303×298×0.082 log 0.5 (D) 8.31×107×298–2.303 log 0.5
44. When different types of salts have nearly solubility product constant Ksp but less than one,
the most soluble salt is that which
(A) produces maximum nuber of ions (B) produces minimum number of ions
(C) produces high charge on ion (D) produces low chages on ions

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45. When 20 ml of a strong acid is added to 20 ml of an alkali, the temperature rises by 5°C. If
200 ml of each liquid are mixed, the temperature rise would be
(A) 5°C (B) 50°C (C) 20°C (D) 0.5°C

46. To perform an analysis of a mixture of metal ions by electrodeposition, the second metal to be
deposited must not being plating out until the concentration ratio of the second to the first is
about 106. What must be the minimum difference in standard potential of the two metals at
25°C, which form dipositive ions in order for such an analysis to be feasible ?
(A) 0.177 V (B) 0.354 V (C) 0.708 V (D) 0.005 V
47. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat
released when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution, is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is.
(A) 57.0 kJ (B) 11.4 kJ (C) 28.5 kJ (D) 34.9 kJ

48. In a discharge tube, there are only two hydrogen atoms. If the electrons in both atoms are
de-exciting from 4th orbit, the minimum and maximum number of spectral lines should respectively
be
(A) 1, 4 (B) 4, 1 (C) 3, 4 (D) 1, 6
49. If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal numbers, then the expression for
calculating the total number of electrons in any energy level is
l n l  n–1 l n 1 l n–1

(A)  2(2l  1)
l1
(B)  2(2l  1) (C) 
l0
2(2l  1) (D)  2(2l  1)
l 0
l 1

50. The mass defect of the nuclear reaction: 5B84Be8+e+ is

(A) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8
(B) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8+mass of one electron
(C) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8–mass of one electron
(D) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8+mass of two electron

51. An electron is allowed to move freely in a closeed cubic box of length of side 10 cm. The
maximum uncertainty in its velocity will be –
(A) 3.35 × 10–3 m/sec (B) 5.8 × 10–4 m/sec
(C) 4 × 10 m/sec
–5
(D) 4 × 10–6
52. A single e– in an ion has ionization energy equal to 217.6 ev. What is total no. of neutrons
present in one ion of it?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9

53. A small particle of mass m in such a way that P.E. = – 1/2 mKr2, where K is a constant and r
is distance of particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's model of quantization of angular momentum
and circular orbit, r is directly proportional to –
(A) n2 (B) n (C) n (D) None

54. If value of l = 0 to (n + 1) then calculate max. no. of elements in II period of pariodic table
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32

55. When 2L mixture of CO & CO2 is passed over red hot charoal, its volume increased by 1.4
times. If all the volume measurement one made under similar conditions of P & P. Find out the
% composition of mixture –
(A) 40 %, 60% (B) 60 %, 40 % (C) 50 %, 50% (D) 70 %, 30 %
56. 0.8 mole of a mixture of CO & CO2 requires exactly 40 gm of NaOH is solution for conversion of
all the CO2 into Na2CO3. How many moles of NaOH would it requires for conversion nito Na2CO3
if the mixture (0.8 mle) is completely oxidised to CO2?
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.6 (C) 1 (D) 1.5

57. The total no. of neutrons present is 54 ml H2O () are –

(A) 3 NA (B) 30 NA (C) 24 NA (D) None of these

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58. The sulphate of a metal contains 20% metal. This sulphate is isomorphous with zinc sulphate
hepta hydrate. The atomic mass of the metal is–
(A) 30 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 36

59. If w1 g of a metal X displaces w2 g of another metal Y from its salt solution and if the
equivalent weights are E1 and E2 respectively, the correct expression for the equivalent
weight of X is :

w1 w2  E2 w1  w2 w1
(A) E1 =  E2 (B) E1 = (C) E1 = (D) E1 =  E2
w2 w1 E2 w2

60. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream of hydrogen. It is found that after complete
reduction, 3.15 g of oxide yielded 1.05 g of metal. From the above data we can say that
(A) The atomic weight of metal is 8 (B) The atomic weight of metal is 4
(C) The equivalent weight of metal is 4 (D) The equivalent weight of metal is 8

61. 100 mL of 0.1 N hypo decolourised iodine by the addition of x gram of crystalline copper
sulphate to excess of KI. The value of 'x' is
(molecular wt. of CuSO4.5H2O is 250)
(A) 5.0 g (B) 1.25 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 4 g

62. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

(A) 2Na + Cl2  2NaCl (B) C + O2  CO2
(C) AgNO3 + NaCl  AgCl + NaNO3 (D) Zn + H2SO4  ZnSO4 + H2

63. The value of n in

MnO4– + 8H+ + ne–  Mn2+ + 4H2O is
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

64. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately forms MnO42–, MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+
then number of electrons transferred in each case respectively are–
(A) 4, 3, 1, 5 (B) 1, 5, 3, 7 (C) 1, 3, 4, 5 (D) 3, 5, 7, 1

65. The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1/4

66. 1.22 g of a gas measured over water at 15ºC and a pressure of 775 mm of mercury occupied
900 mL. Calculate the volume of dry gas at NTP (vapour pressure of water at 15ºC is 14 mm).
(A) 372.21 mL (B) 854.24 mL (C) 869.96 mL (D) 917. 76 mL

67. A bhalloon filled with methane gas is pricked with a sharp point and quickly plunged into a
tank of hydrogen at the same pressure. After sometime, the balloon will have
(A) Enlarged (B) Collapsed
(C) Remained unchanged in size (D) Unpredictable

68. Gas CO CH4 HCl SO2

Critical
temp.Tc(K) 134 190 324 430
In the context of given values of critical temperature, the greter ease of liquefication is of
(A) SO2 (B) HCl (C) CH4 (D) CO

69. In the heterogeneous equilibrium:

CaCO3(s) NH3(g) ; Kp = 4.0 ×104
what would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium concentration of CO2?
(A) increases (B) Unpredictable (C) Decreases (D) Remains unaffected

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70. What is Gº for the following reaction?

1/2 N2(g) + 3/2 H2(g) NH3(g) ; Kp = 4.0 ×104 at 25ºC
(A) –26.5 kJ mol –1
(B) –11.5 kJ mol–1 (C) – 2.2 kJ mol–1 (D) – 0.97 kJ mol–1

71. Reaction K
1/2N2(g) + O2(g) NO2(g) K1
1/2N2(g) + O2(g) NO2(g) K2
Using above equations, write down expression for K of the following reaction :
N2O2(g) N2(g) + 2O2(g)

K 22 1 1
(A) K1K2 (B) (C) K K (D)
K1 2 1 K12K 2

72. In Haber's process, the ammonia is manufactured according to the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
The pressure inside the chamber is maintained at 200 atm and temperature at 500ºC. Generally,
this reaction is carried out in presence of Fe catalyst.

The preparation of ammonia by Haber's process an exothermic reaction. If the preparation

follos the following temperature pressure relationship for its % yield. Then for temperature T1,
T2 and T3 the correct option is :
50
40 T3
% yield

30 T2
20 T1
10

1 2 3 4
Pressure (atm)
(A) T3 > T2 > T1 (B) T1 > T2 > T3
(C) T1 = T2 = T3 (D) Nothing could be predicted

73. In Haber's process, the ammonia is manufactured according to the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
The pressure inside the chamber is maintained at 200 atm and temperature at 500ºC. Generally,
this reaction is carried out in presence of Fe catalyst.

If Kp for the reaction is 1.44 × 10–5 then the value of Kp for the decomposition of NH3,
2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
will be:

1
(A) 1.44  10  5 (B) (1.44×10–5)2 (C) (D) 2.88 × 10–5
1.44  10 5

74. In Haber's process, the ammonia is manufactured according to the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
The pressure inside the chamber is maintained at 200 atm and temperature at 500ºC. Generally,
this reaction is carried out in presence of Fe catalyst.

For which of these processes is the value of S negative ?

a. Sugar is dissolved in water
b. Stream condenses on a surface
c. CaCO3 is decomposed into CaO and CO2
(A) a only (B) b only (C) a and c only (d) b and c only

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75. Consider this equation and the associated value for Hº.
2H2(g) + 2Cl2(g) 4HCl(g) ; Hº = – 92.3 kJ
Which statement about this information is incorrect?
(A) If the equation is reversed, the Hº value equals + 92.3 kJ
(B) The four HCl bonds are stronger than four bonds in H2 and Cl2
(C) The Hº value will be –92.3 kJ if HCl is produced as a liquid
(D) 23.1 kJ of heat will be evolved when 1 mole of HCl (g) is produced

76. The heat of formation (Hºf) of H2O() is equal to:

(A) Zero (B) Molar heat of combustion of H2()
(C) Molar heat of combustion of H2(g) (D) Sum of heat of formation of H2O(g) and O2(g)

77. Which salt can furnish H+ in its aqueous solution:

(A) NaH2PO2 (B) Na2HPO3 (C) Na2HPO4 (D) All of these

78. Given that Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62ºC, compute the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral
aqueous solution at 62ºC.
(A) 7.0 (B) 13.30 (C) 14.0 (D) 13.0

79. 1 mL of 0.1 N HCl is added to 999 mL solution of NaCl. The pH of the resulting solution will be:
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1

80. What is the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 4 × 10–13) in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution ?
(A) 10–6 (B) 10–7 (C) 2 × 10–6 (D) 2 × 10–7

81. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible ?

1 1
(A) n=2, =1, m = –1, s=– (B) n=2, =0, m = 0, s=+
2 2

1 1
(C) n=3, =2, m = –2, s=+ (D) n=3, =2, m = –3, s=+
2 2

82. The mass of the proton is 1840 times that of electron. If it accelerated by applying a
potential difference of 1 kV, the kinetic energy of proton is

1
(A) 1840 keV (B) keV (C) 1 keV (D) 920 keV
1840

83. The firest emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at -

5R 3R 7R 9R
(A) cm–1 (B) cm–1 (C) cm–1 (D) cm–1
36 4 144 400

84. The four quantum numbers of valence electron of potassium are

1 1 1 1
(A) 4,0,1 (B) 4, 1, 0, (C) 4,0,0 (D) 4,1,1,
2 2 2 2

85. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is

13.6 13.6 13.6 13.6

(A) eV (B) eV (C) eV (D) eV
n4 n3 n2 n

86. If threshold wavelength (°) for ejection of electron from metal is 330 nm, then work function
for the photoelectric emission is -
(A) 6×10–10 J (B) 1.2×10–18 J (C) 3×10–19 J (D) 6×10–19 J

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87. The uncertainty in the position of an electron moving with a velocity of 1.0×104 cm s–1
(accurate up to 0.011%) will be
(A) 1.92 cm (B) 7.68 cm (C) 0.528 cm (D) 3.8 cm

88. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The third ionization energy of lithium
would be -
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 27.2 eV (C) 40.8 eV (D) 122.eV

89. For a 'p'-electron the orbital angular momentum is

(A) 6 h (B) 2 h (C) h (D) 2 h

90. The mass of CO2 that shall be obtained by heating 10 kg of 80% pure limestone (CaCO3) is -
(A) 4.4 kg (B) 6.6 kg (C) 3.52 kg (D) 8.8

91. The number of atoms in 20 g of SO3 is approximately -

(A) 1×1023 (B) 1.5×1023 (C) 2×1023 (D) 6×1023

92. The number of moles of SO2 in 6.4 g is

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4

93. The number of ions present in 2.0 L of a solution of 0.8 M K4[(FeCN)6] is

(A) 4.8×1022 (B) 4.8×1024 (C) 9.6×2424 (D) 9.6×1022

94. The number of moles of BaCO3 which contains 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is -
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 6.02×1023

95. The specific heat of metal is 0.16. Its approximate atomic weight would be -
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 64

96. Caffeine has a molecular mass of 194. If it contains 29.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is -
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3

97. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50%
of element Y (atomic mass 20) is
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY3 (D) X2Y2

98. No. of moles in 11.2 L of CO2 at NTP is -

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1

99. The oxidation number of I in HIO4 is -

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4

100. In which of the following reaction, oxidation number of N does not change -
(A) 2NO2+H2OHNO3+HNO2 (B) N2+O22NO
(C) 2NO2N2O4 (D) NH4NO2N2+2H2O

101. In the following equation :

Cl3—+6H++. XCl—+3H2O, then X is
(A) O (B) 6e— (C) O2 (D) 5e—

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102. In the equation :

Cr2O72—Fe2+H+Cr3+Fe3++H2O
the coefficients of Fe2+ and H+ are respectively
(A) 6, 7 (B) 6, 14 (C) 5, 7 (D) 5, 14

103. Oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO5 is -

(A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +8 (D) +6

104. Which of the following process represents disproportionation ?

(A) Cu+4HNO3Cu(NO3)2+2NO2+2H2O (B) 3I2+6OH—IO3—+5I—+3H2O
(C) Cl2+I2  2ICl (D) Zn+2HCI  ZnCl2 +H2

105. In alkaline medium, KMnO4, reacts as follows

2KMnO4+2KOH  2K2MnO4+H2O+O
Therefore, the equivalent mass of KMnO4 will be
(A) 31.6 (B) 52.7 (C) 7.0 (D) 158.0

106. A meallic oxide contains 60% of the metal is

(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 72

107. 30 mL of diabasic acid is neutralized by 15 mL of 0.2 N NaOH. The molarity of the acid is
(A) 0.05 M (B) 0.2 M (C) 0.3 M (D) 0.4 M

108. 100 mL of a mixture of NaOH and Na2SO4 is neutralized by 10 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4 .The amound
of NaOH in 100 mL solution is
(A) 0.2 g (B) 0.4 g (C) 0.6 g (D) 0.8 g

109. A 1.0 g sample of H2O2 solution contains x% by mass and requires x mL of KMnO4 in acidic
solution for complete oxidation. The normality of KMnO4 is -
(A) 0.58 (B) 0.116 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.3

110. Equivalent mass of FeC2O4 in the reaction

FeC2O4  Fe+3CO2 is -
(A) M (B) M/2 (C) M/3 (D) 2M/3

111. Electrolysis of hot aqueous solution of NaCl gives NaClO4, i.e., sodium perchlorate,
NaCl + 4H2O  NaClO4 + 4H2 
Now many faraday are required to obtain 1000 g of sodium perchlorate ?
(A) 65.3 (B) 40.3 (C) 18.3 (D) 31.6

112. Salt of A (atomic mass 15), B (atomic mass 27) and C (atomic mass 48) were electrolysed
using same amount of charge. It was found that when 4.5 g of A was deposited, the mass of
B and C deposited were 2.7 g and 9.6 g. The valencies of A, B and C were respectively :
(A) 1, 3 and 2 (B) 3, 1 and 3 (C) 3, 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3 and 2

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+ 2+
113. 2Ag (aq) + Cu(s) Cu (aq) + 2Ag(s)
The standard potential Eº for this reaction is 0.46 V. Which change will increase the potential
the most ?
(A) Doubling the [Ag+]
(B) Halving the [Cu2+]
(C) Doubling the size of the Cu(s) electrode
(D) Decreasing the size of the Ag electrode by one-half

114. The plot of cell potential (Ecell) against log10 Q may be given as :

Ecell

log Q

Which of the following is /are correct about the plot ?

0.059
(A) Slope of line = – (B) Intercept = Eºcell
n
(C) Slope of line = Eºcell (D) (A) & (B) Both

115. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g of glucose (P1) ; 10 g of urea
(P2) and 10 g of sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is :
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P3 > P1 > P2 (C) P2 > P1 > P3 (D) P2 > P3 > P1

116. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives blue colour. These are separated
by a semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due to osmosis there is :
A
0.1 M
0.01 M FeCl3
K4Fe(CN)6

Side X Side Y

B
(A) blue colour formation in side X
(B) blue colour formation in side Y
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(D) no blue colour formation

117. Solubility of oxygen gas in water follows Henry's law. When the solubility is plotted against
partial pressure at a definite temperature we get following plots.

T4
T3

Solubility of T2
O2 in water T1

Partial Pressure
of O2

Which of the following sequence of temperatures is correct ?

(A) T1 = T2 = T3 = T4 (B) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 (C) T1 < T2 < T3 < T4 (D) T1 > T2 < T3 > T4

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118. The number of maganess ions in tetrahedral and octahedral sites, respectively in Mn3O4 are :
(A) one Mn2+ and two Mn3+ ions (B) one Mn3+ and two Mn2+ ions
(C) two Mn3+ and one Mn2+ ions (D) two Mn2+ and one Mn3+ ions

119. Xenon crystallizes in face centered cubic unit cell with edge length of 620 pm then radius of
xenon atom is :
(A) 268 pm (B) 219.20 pm (C) 436.6 pm (D) 526.8 pm

B
A
120.

If all the atoms, on the shaded plane are removed then the molecular formula of the solid will
be :
(A) A5 B7 (B) A7 B5 (C) AB (D) A3 B4

121. The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(A) Temperature (B) Initial concentrations of the reactants
(C) Extent of reaction (D) None of these

122. In the following reaction, how is the rate of appearance of the underlined product related to
the rate of disappearance of the underlined reactant
BrO3–(aq) + 5Br–(aq) + 6H+ (aq)  3Br2() + 3H2O(aq)

d[BrO3 ] d[Br2 ] d[BrO3 ] d[Br2 ]

(A)   (B)  1 
dt dt 3 dt dt

 d[BrO3 ] 1 d[Br2 ]
(C)  (D) None of these
dt 3 dt

123. Which of the following expressions is correct for zero order and first order respectively
[where a is initial concentration] ?

1
(A) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  (B) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  aº
a

1
(C) t1 / 2  aº ; t1 / 2  a (D) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  2
a

124. Which one has highest co-agulation power to co-agulate the ferric hydroxide sol -
(A) NaCl (B) MgSO4 (C) Ca3 (PO4)2 (D) all equal

125. Milk is -
(A) liquid in liquid (B) solid in solid (C) liquid in solid (D) solid in liquid

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x
126. When graph is plotted between log10 & log10 P then value of intercept & slope will be
m

1 1
(A) n, log K (B) log K (C) , log K (D) log K, n
n n

127. 18.0 sec are required for the diffusion of x mol of O2 through some porous partition. Another
gas G requires 45.0 sec ofr the diffusion of x mol through the saem partition under similar
conditions, the molar mass of G is
2 2 2 2
 45   45  (32)   18   18  1
(A)    (32) (B)   (C)   ×32 (D)   
 18   18   45   45  32

128. The r.m.s. speed of molecules of a gas of density 4.0 kg m–3 and pressure 1.2×105 Nm–2 is-
(A) 300 m s–1 (B) 900 m s–1 (C) 600 m s–1 (D) 400 m s–1

129. The kinetic energy of 2.8 g of nitrogen gas at 127°C in nearly -

(A) 249.3 J (B) 200.4 J (C) 498.8 J (D) 20.5 J

130. Rates of essusion of hydrogen and deuterium under similar conditions are in the ratio;
(A) 1:1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:4

131. Ideal gas obeying kinetic theory of gases can be liquefied if -

(A) T>TC (B) P>PC
(C) P>P and T<TC (D) It cannot be liquefied at any value of P and T

132. 2 moles fo an ideal gas are compressed isothermally (100°C) and reversibly from a pressure of
10 atm. The value of Wrev. is _
(A) –200 R log 2/5 (B) 746 R In 2/5 (C) +200 R log 5/2 (D) 746 R In 5/2

133. If Hlattice and Hhydration of NaCl are respectively 778 and –774.3 kJ mol–1 and Sdissolution of NaCl
at 298 K is 43 J mol–1. The value of G° for dissolution of 1 mole of Nacl is -
(A) –9.114 kJ (B) –11.14 kJ (C) –7.114 kJ (D) +9.114 kJ

134. Which of the following equaton represents the value for Hf of AgI

1
(A) Ag+ (aq)+I—(aq) AgI(s) (B) Ag(g)+ I (g) AgI(s)
2 2

1
(C) 2Ag(s)+I2(g) 2AgI(s) (D) Ag(s)+ I (s)  AgI(s)
2 2

135. Given the bond energies of NN, and N–H bonds as 945, 436 and 391 kJ/mol respectively, the
enthalpy of reaction N2(g)2NH3(g) is
(A) 102 kJ (B) 90 kJ (C) –93 kJ (D) 105 kJ

136. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant for the backward reaction is 7.5×10–4 and the
equilibrium constant is 1.5. The rate constant for the forward reaction is –
(A) 5×10–4 (B) 2×10–3 (C) 1.125×10–3 (D) 9.0×10–4

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137. A quanity of PCl5 was heated in a 2 litre vessel at 525 K. It dissociates as

PCl5(g) PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)
At equilibrium 0.2 mol each of PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 is found in the reaction mixture. The equilib-
rium constnat KC for the reaction is -
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.05

138. For the equilibrium

NH4HS(s) NH3(g)+H2S(g)
KC=1.8×10 –4
at 298 K. The value of Kp at 298 K would be -
(A) 0.108 (B) 4.4×10–3 (C) 1.8×10–4 (D) 4.4×10–4

139. If K for the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), is 0.025 at a certain temperature, the value of
K for the reaction H2(g)+I2(g) 2HI(g) at the same temperature would be -

(A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

140. The dissociation constants of two acids HA1 and HA2 are 3.0×10–4 and 1.8×10–5 respectively.
The relative strenghts of the acids will be appoximately
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1 (C) 1:16 (D) 16:1

141. The solubility product Ksp fo the sparingly solubel salt Ag2CrO4 is 4×10–12. The solubility of the
salt is -
(A) 1×10–12 mol L–1 (B) 2×10–6 mol L–1 (C) 1×10–6 mol L–1 (D) 1×10–4 mol L–1

142. If Ka=10–5 for a weak acid, then pKb for its conjugate base would be -
(A) 10–10 (B) 9 (C) 10–9 (D) 5

143. A solution is prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.4 M CH3COOH and 0.2 M CH3COONa. Ka for
CH3COOH = 10–6. the pH of the resulting solution would be.
(A) 6 (B) 5.69 (C) 6.69 (D) 6.5

144. A 0.01 M ammonia solution is 5% ionized, the concentration of OH— ion is

(A) 0.005 M (B) 0.0001 M (C) 0.0005 M (D) 0.05 M

145. Select the incorrect statement for CsCl crystal.

(A) Co-ordination number for Cs+ and Cl– is 6
r 
Cs
(B) r = 0.732
–
Cl

(C) The structure changes to NaCl at 760 K

(D) Cl– ions are present at cubic sites

146. The number of atoms in 100 gm of an fcc crystal with density d = 10 g/cm3 and cell edges as
200 pm is equal to -
(A) 3 × 1025 (B) 5 × 1024 (C) 1 × 1025 (D) 5.96 × 10–3

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147. The correct statement regarding defects in solids is -

(A) Frenkal defect is favoured by a very small difference in the size of cation & anion
(B) Frenkal defect is not a dislocation defect
(C) Trapping of e– in lattice leads to the formation of F-center
(D) Schottky defects ahve no effect on the physical properties of solid

148. What will be order of reaction and rate constant for a chemical change having log t50% v/s log
cnc. (a) curve as.

log t50%

45º

log a

(A) 0, 1/2 (B) 1, 1 (C) 0, 1 (D) 3, 1

dx
149. For a reaction = K[H+]. If pH of reaction medium changes from two to one the rate
dt
becomes 100 times of value at pH = 2, The order of reaction is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3

Questions based on statements (Q. 150 - 167)

Each of the questions given below consist of Statement – I and Statement – II. Use the
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true, and Statement - II is the correct
explanation of Statement- I.
(B) If both Statement-I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-I.
(C) If Statement-I is true but Statement - II is false.
(D) If Statement-I is false but Statement - II is true.

150. Statement - I : All the members of any class of hydrocarbon (alkane, alkene, alkyne or
arene) have the same, empirical formula.
Statement - II : Compounds having the same general formula may have different empirical
formula.

151. Statement - I : For reaction : 2A(g) + 3B(g)  4C(g) + D(g), the vapour density remain
constant throughout the progress of reaction.
Statement - II : In all the gaseous chemical reactions, the vapour density remains constant.

152. Statement - I : When any hydrocarbon is burnt, the moles of oxygen needed for complete
combustion is always greater than the moles of hydrocarbon burnt.
Statement - II : Complete combustion of any substance requires more moles of oxygen than
the moles of substance burnt.

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153. Statement - I : At 273 K, hydrogen and helium gases have positive slope at all pressure in PV
vs P graph.

Statement - II : Complete combustion of any substance requires more moles of oxygen than
the moles of substance burnt.

154. Statement - I : Above critical temperature, a substance can not exist in liquid state.

Statement - II : Above critical temperature, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is
always greater than the maximum kinetic energy of a molecule possible in liquid state.

155. Statement - I : Only metallic, never ionic or covalent substances, form crystals exhibiting
the maximum coordination number of twelve among like-sized atoms.

Statement - II : In metallic crystals, the forces are non- directional and hence arrangement
of atoms frequently corresponds to the closest packing of spheres.

156. Statement - I : KCl is more likely to show Schottky defect while LiI is more likely to show
Frankel defect.

Statement - II : Schottky defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and anions are
of comparable size while Frankel defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and
anions have large differences in their ionic sizes.

157. Statement - I : The melting point of diamond is very high.

Statement - II : Diamond has very high packing efficiency.

158. Statement - I : The final temperature of an ideal gas in adiabatic expansion is less in
reversible expansion than in irreversible expansion against a constant external pressure.

Statement - II : The magnitude of work done by an ideal gas in adiabatic expansion is more
in reversible process than that in irreversible process.

159. Statement - I : Standard enthalpy of isomerisation of an enantiomer into the other is zero.

Statement - II : The two enantiomers of any chiral compound have the same enthalpy of
formation.

160. Statement - I : In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the entropy of the surrounding
remains unchanged independent whether the expansion is reversible or irreversible.

Statement - II : In an adiabatic process, the surrounding does not exchange heat with the
system and the process may be reversible or irreversible for system but it always remain
reversible for the sorrounding.

161. Statement - I : When an ideal binary solution of liquids A and B is distilled, the boiling point of
the distillate becomes lower than that of the parental liquid solution.

Statement - II : When an ideal binary solution of liquids A and B is distilled, the distillate
contains relatively larger amount of the more volatile liquid.

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162. Statement - I : The time of completion of reactions of type : A  products (order < 1) may
be determined.
Statement - II : Reactions with order > 1 are ether too slow or too fast and hence, the time
of completion can not be determined.

163. Statement - I : The active mass of pure solid and pure liquid is taken as constant
Statement - II : The active mass of pure solid and liquid depends on density and molecular
mass. The density and molecular mass of pure liquids and solids are constant.

164. Statement - I : For adsorption of gases on solids, G, S and

Statement - II : Adsorption is a spontaneous exothermic process in which randomness
decreases due to force of attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate.

165. Statement - I : Electrode potential of any electrode will change on changing any of its
intensive properties.
Statement - II : Any intensive property of system changes on changing any of its properties
whether intensive or extensive.

166. Statement - I : For Hydrogen spectrum all Balmer lines in the emission spectrum have longer
wavelengths than that of any line of Lyman series.
Statement - II : Transition energy is always greater when electrons come to an orbit with
lower orbit number than an electron come to an orbit with higher orbit number, irrespective to
higher orbit from which electron is coming.

167. Statement - I : If a nucleus may undergo positron decay as well as K-capture, the amount of
energy released in positron decay is more than that in K-capture.
Statement - II : The loss in K-capture is equal to the difference in atomic masses of parent
nucleus and the daughter nucleus but in positron decay, additional mass loss equal to the
mass of two electrons also occur.

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ANSWER KEY
PHYSICAL
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D

7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C

13. A 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D

19. C 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A

25. C 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. D

31. D 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. B

37. A 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. C

43. B 44. A 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. A

49. D 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. C 54. C

55. B 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. C

61. C 62. C 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. B

67. A 68. A 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. B

73. C 74. B 75. C 76. C 77. C 78. D

79. B 80. A 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. C

85. C 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. C

91. D 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. C 96. A

97. B 98. A 99. A 100.C 101. B 102. B

103. D 104. B 105. D 106. A 107. A 108. B

109. A 110. C 111. A 112. C 113. A 114. D

115. C 116. D 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. C

121. A 122. C 123. B 124. C 125. A 126. B

127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132.

133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138.

139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144.

145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. D

151. C 152. C 153. A 154. A 155. A 156. A

157. C 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. A 162. C

163. A 164. A 165. C 166. A 167. A

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