10/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 7
Topics covered :
Physics : Current Electricity, Moving charges and Magnetism
Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements (Group 15-18), d
and f-Block Elements, Coordination Compounds
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology : Evolution

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The current in a wire bent in the form of a circular conductors is filled with air. The two conductors
arc is as shown in the figure. The magnetic field carry equal currents but in opposite directions.
at the centre point O is (radius of circular part : R) The variation of magnetic field with distance from
the common axis is best plotted as
(R1 < R2 < R3)

(1)

µ0 i µ0 i
(1) (2)
6R 3R
µ0 i µ0 i
(3) (4)
2R 3πR
2. A coaxial cable is made of two conductors. The (2)
inner conductor is solid and of radius R1. The
outer conductor is hollow and of inner radius R2
and outer radius R3. The space between the
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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

6. Two charged particles a and b of same mass are

accelerated through the same potential
difference. On entering a region of uniform
magnetic field, they describe circular paths of
(3) radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of charges
of a and b is
2
R 
(1)  2 
 R1 
R2
(2)
R1
(4) 1/2
R 
(3)  1 
 R2 
R1
3. A thin uniform rod of length l, and mass m is (4)
uniformly charged with a total charge q. The rod R2
l 7. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1, and i2
is rotated about a point at a distancefrom
3 with i1 > i2. When the currents are in same
midpoint of the rod. The magnitude of the direction, the magnetic field at a point midway
magnetic moment of the rod, if the angular between the wires is 40 µT. If the direction of i1 is
velocity is ω is reversed, the field becomes 60 µT. The ratio i1 :i2
is
q ωl 2
(1)
72 (1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 5

7 (3) 5 : 1 (4) 6 : 1
(2) q ωl 2
72 8. A wire carrying current i, is kept in x – y plane
 2πx 
q ωl 2 along the curve y = A sin   . A uniform
(3)  λ 
36
magnetic field B exists in the Z- direction. The
7qωl magnitude of magnetic force on the portion of the
(4)
9 λ
wire between x = 0 and x = is
4. The ratio of energy density of magnetic field at 2
centre of a current carrying loop to that at a
Bi λ
R (1) 2Bi λ (2)
distance from centre of loop on its axis is 3
2
Bi λ
(R : radius of loop) (3) Bi λ (4)
2
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 27 : 4
9. A circuit is composed of ten identical batteries
(3) 27 : 8 (4) 3 : 1
and a resistor R = 10 Ω. Each batteries has an
5. In which condition wire AB can perform simple emf of 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω. The
harmonic motion? voltage difference across the resistor R is

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) 3 V (2) 2 V

(3) 6 V (4) Zero

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

10. Infinite number of straight wires each carrying µ0 λ

current i are equally placed as shown in the (1) (2) µ0 λ
2
figure. Adjacent wires have current in opposite
direction. Net magnetic field at point P is µ0 λ
(3) (4) 2µ0 λ
4
13. A particle of charge 0.5 C and mass 1 kg is
v (2iˆ + 2 ˆj )
projected from the origin with speed =
m/s, in magnetic field (4 iˆ)T . The coordinates of
the particle at time t = π s are
(1) ( 2π,0,0 ) m
(2) ( 4, 2π,0 ) m
(3) ( 2π, 2π,0 ) m
(4) ( 0, 0, 0 ) m
14. The resultant force on the current loop ABCD due
to long current carrying conductor wire be

µ0 i µ0 i
(1) (2)
6πa 4πa
(1) 10–4 N
µ0 i µ0 i
(3) ln(2) (4) ln(2) (2) 3.6 × 10–4 N
4πa 2πa
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 N
11. Consider following two statements
(4) 5 × 10–4 N
(a) For any rigid body of mass m and total
charge q, rotating about an axis, the ratio of 15. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at right
magnitude of magnetic moment to that of angle to the magnetic field. The field exists for a
angular momentum is always q/2m. length equal to 1.5 times the radius of circular
(b) Force experienced by a current carrying path of the particle. The particle will be deviated
closed loop in a uniform magnetic field is from its path by an angle
zero.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. A long hollow cylinder carrying uniform current
per unit length λ along the circumference as
shown. Magnetic field inside the cylinder is

2
(1) 90° (2) sin−1  
3
(3) 30° (4) 180°

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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
 
16. Rank the magnitude of ∫ B.dl for closed paths 19. The magnitude of magnetic field required to
accelerate protons (mass = 1.67 × 10–27 kg) in a
shown in the figure from the smallest to the cyclotron that is operated at an oscillator
largest frequency 6 MHz is approximately
(1) 0.8 T (2) 0.6 T
(3) 0.4 T (4) 0.2 T
20. In the figure shown, the power generated in y is
maximum if y = 8 Ω. The value of resistance of
resistor marked as R is

(1) A < B < C (2) A < C < B

(3) C < A < B (4) B < C < A
17. An electron enters the space between the plates
(1) 6 Ω (2) 8 Ω
of a charged capacitor as shown in the figure.
(3) 10 Ω (4) 4 Ω
The surface charge density on the plate is σ .
21. The amount of heat generated in a resistor of
Electric field intensity in the space between the
resistance 2 Ω, in a time interval of 2 s, if current
plates is E. The uniform magnetic field also exists
in it increases uniformly from zero to
in that space perpendicular to the direction of E.
 4 A in the 2 s is
The electron moves perpendicular to both E and
 81
(1) 16 J (2) J
B without any change in direction. The time 5
taken by the electron to travel a distance l in the
64
space is (3) 64 J (4) J
3
22. In the part of a circuit as shown in the figure, the
ratio of power dissipated in 2 Ω and 12 Ω is

σl σB
(1) (2)
ε0B ε0 l

ε0 lB ε0 l
(3) (4)
σ σB
18. A cylindrical cavity of diameter 2 m exists inside a (1) 2 : 27 (2) 1 : 9
cylinder of diameter 4 m as shown in the figure. A (3) 1 : 6 (4) 8 : 9
uniform current density 2 A/m2 exists along the
23. All the bulbs shown in the figure are identical and
length. If the magnitude of magnetic field at are rated to fuse if the voltage across the bulb
centre of cavity is exceeds 200 V. The bulb(s) which will fuse in the
circuit on closing the switch is

(1) 2 × 10–7 T (2) 4 × 10–6 T (1) B1 (2) B2

(3) 4π × 10–7 T (4) 6π × 10–4 T (3) B3 (4) No bulb will fuse

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

24. A thin uniform rod is connected to a source of 29. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the
constant voltage supply across its ends. The heat following circuit diagram is
dissipated in time t in this case is H. Now, the rod
is cut into n equal parts (perpendicular to its
length) and all parts are connected to the same
power supply in parallel. The heat generated in
second case in the same time will be
(1) 12 Ω (2) 14 Ω
H
(1) n2H (2) (3) 10 Ω (4) 4 Ω
n2
30. Uniform magnetic field of 2 T exists, in a
H
(3) nH (4) cylindrical region of radius 5 cm. The direction
n parallel to axis of cylinder is along east to west. A
25. A part of a circuit is shown in figure. The potential wire carrying current of 7.0 A in the north to south
difference between B and C (VB - VC) is equal to direction passes through this region. Initially wire
12 V. The value of current through the 4 Ω intersect the axis. If the wire in N-S direction is
resistor is lowered from the axis by a distance 3 cm, then
the magnitude and direction of the force on the
wire is
(1) 1.4 N, upwards (2) 1.12 N, upwards
(3) 1.4 N downwards (4) 1.12 N, downward
31. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is
connected across a resistance R. Resistance R
can be adjusted to any value greater than or
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A equal to zero. A graph is plotted between the
current (i) passing through the battery and
(3) 4 A (4) 7 A
potential difference(V) across it. Select the
26. A potentiometer circuit arrangement is as shown
correct alternative
in the figure. The potentiometer wire is
6 m long and having resistance 15r. At what
distance from point A should the jockey touch the
wire to get zero deflection in the galvanometer?

(1) Internal resistance of battery is 5 Ω

(2) emf of battery is 20 V
(3) Maximum current which can be taken from
the battery is 4 A
(4) V – i graph cannot be a straight line as shown
(1) 4.4 m (2) 3.2 m in the figure
(3) 5.5 m (4) 2.8 m 32. The current density in a metallic conductor is
27. A wire is stretched such that the length increases plotted against electric field in a conductor at two
by 0.01 %. The percentage charge in the different temperatures T1 and T2 choose the
resistance is correct statement
(1) 0.02 % (2) 0.2 %
(3) 0.01 % (4) 0.04%
28. Six hundred identical cells of emf E and internal
resistance r are connected in series in same
polarity. The potential difference across any 99
cells will be
(1) Zero (2) E (1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
(3) 99E (4) 501E (3) T1 = T2 (4) None of the these

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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

33. A metallic conductor of irregular cross-section is 37. Three identical circular loops each of radius a
as shown in the figure. A constant potential and with their centres at origin carry current i
difference is applied across ends A and B. then, each. The planes of all three loops are
perpendicular to each other. The net magnetic
field at the centre origin will be
3µ0 i 3µ0 i
(1) Current at cross section P is equal to that of (1) (2)
Q a 2a
(2) Electric field intensity at P is lesser than that 3µ0 i 2µ0 i
at Q (3) (4)
a a
(3) Both (1) and (2) 38. A charged particle having charge 1C is moving
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) with velocity (2iˆ + ˆj ) m/s. The magnetic field (due
34. A hemispherical network of radius a is made up to charged particle) at origin, when the charged
using conducting wires of resistance per unit
particle is at (1 m, 1 m) is
length λ. The equivalent resistance between
–7
points A and B is (1) (–10 k̂ ) T (2) (10–7 k̂ ) T
 10−7   −10−7 
(3)  3/2 kˆ  T (4)  3/2 kˆ  T
2   2 
39. A small block of mass m and charge q is pulled
(from rest) by horizontal force F on a smooth
horizontal ground as shown in the figure. A
uniform magnetic field B, directed into the plane
exists in the region. The normal force between
( 2 + π ) λa ground and the block would become zero at time
(1) (2) 2λa
8
πλa
(3) (4) λa mg m 2g
8 (1) (2)
35. Choose the correct statement(s). qBF qBF

(1) A low voltage supply from which one needs 2m 2g mg

(3) (4)
high current must have very low resistance qBF 2qBF
(2) A high tension (HT) supply of 6 kV (say) must 40. A circular loop of radius a = 1 m is placed in a
have a very large internal resistance
uniform magnetic field B of induction 6 T. The
(3) Ohm’s law is universally applicable for all loop carries a current 2 A. The tension developed
conducting elements in the loop will be (The magnetic field is
(4) Both (1) and (2) perpendicular to the plane of the circular loop)
36. The given wheatstone bridge is showing no (1) 2 N (2) 4 N
deflection in the galvanometer joined between the (3) 6 N (4) 12 N
points A and B. The value of resistance R as
shown in the circuit is 41. The average temperature coefficient of resistance
of a wire is 0.00125°C–1. At 300 K, the resistance
is 4 Ω. The temperature at which the resistance
of the wire will be 4.5 Ω is
(1) 600 K (2) 213 K
(3) 400° C (4) 127° C
42. Two identical heaters, when used individually
take 5 minutes to boil a certain amount of water.
The time taken to boil the water, when both
heaters are used together in parallel is
(1) 50 Ω (2) 200 Ω (1) 1.25 minutes (2) 10 minutes
(3) 100 Ω (4) 150 Ω (3) 2.5 minutes (4) 5 minutes

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

43. The potential of point P in the given circuit 45. For a metallic conductor, choose the correct
diagram is graph

(1)

(1) Zero (2) 8 V

(2)
(3) 2 V (4) 10 V

44. If σ1, σ2 and σ3 are conductances of three rods of

identical shape and size, joined in series as
shown in the figure. The equivalent conductance
is

(3)
σ1 + σ2 + σ3
(1) σ1 + σ2 + σ3 (2)
3

3σ1σ2σ3 1 1 1
(3) (4) + +
σ1σ2 + σ2σ3 + σ1σ3 σ1 σ2 σ3 (4) All of the above

CHEMISTRY
46. Sulphide ore among the following is 51. Correct IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
(1) Bauxite (2) Zinc blende (1) Potassiumcyanateiron (III)
(3) Calcite (4) Dolomite (2) Potassium cyanateiron (II)
47. White phosphorous on reaction with NaOH gives (3) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II)

(1) PH3 (2) NaH2PO2 (4) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (III)

(3) Na3PO4 (4) Both (1) and (2) 52. Which complex is paramagnetic?
(1) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3
48. Solvent used during the leaching of gold is
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 (4) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(1) NaOH (2) NaCN
53. Which complex ion has central atom with d2sp3
(3) NaCl (4) NaNO3
hybridization?
49. Ni is refined by
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(1) Mond process (2) van Arkel method (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Zn(NH3)5Cl]+
(3) Distillation (4) Cupellation 54. CFSE of complex ion [Co(CN)6]3– is (neglect
50. Neutral bidentate ligand among the following is pairing energy)
(1) en (2) H2O (1) –1.2 ∆0 (2) –0.6 ∆0
(3) NH3 (4) EDTA (3) –2.4 ∆0 (4) –1.8 ∆0

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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

55. Correct electronic configuration of the central 64. Correct electronic configuration of Eu (atomic
atom in [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 based on crystal field theory number : 63) is
is (1) [Xe] 4f8 6s1 (2) [Xe] 4f76s2
4 4
(1) t 2g eg (2) t 52ge3g (3) [Xe] 4f9 6s0 (4) [Xe]4f10
6 2
(3) t 2g eg (4) t 82ge0g 65. Oxide(s) of nitrogen which has /have N–O–N
bond is/are
56. The type of isomerism shown by complex (1) N2O3 (2) N2O4
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br is
(3) N2O5 (4) All of these
(1) Geometrical isomerism
66. Catalyst used in Ostwald’s process for production
(2) Ionization isomerism
of Nitric acid is
(3) Optical isomerism
(1) Cu (2) CuCl2
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Pt/Rh (4) Fe2O3
57. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
compound is 67. Cation present in brown ring complex is
(1) CH3MgBr (2) [Fe( η5 – C5H5)2] (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (4) [Fe(H2O)4NOCl]3+
(3) [Cr(η6 – C6H6)2] (4) [V( η5 – C5H5)2]
68. Select the reaction which shows incorrect product
58. Which of the following has longest ‘C – O’ bond formed.
length?
(1) PCl5 + H2O → POCl3 + 2HCl
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) Ni(CO)4
(3) [Co(CO)4]– (4) [Fe(CO)4]2- (2) POCl3 + 3H2O → H3PO4 + 3HCl

59. Complex which on reaction with excess AgNO3 (3) 2Ag + PCl5 → 2AgCl + PCl3
gives 3 moles of AgCl as precipitate is (4) C2H5OH + PCl5 → C2H6 + POCl3 +Cl2
(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 69. Number of P-OH bond(s) in pyrophosphorous
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl acid is
60. Optical isomerism can be shown by (1) 1 (2) Zero
(1) [Fe(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) K[Co(en)Cl4] (4) [Zn(H2O)5Cl]Br 70. Select the mixed oxide from the following oxides.
61. Correct order of bond energy of N – H, P – H,
(1) O (2) S
As – H and Sb – H bonds is
(3) Se (4) Te
(1) N – H > P – H > As – H > Sb – H
(2) Sb – H > As – H > P – H > N – H 71. Hydride of group 16 of lowest boiling point is
(3) Sb– H > N – H > As – H > P – H (1) H2O (2) H2S
(4) Sb – H > As – H > N – H > P – H (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
62. Correct molecular formula of ammonium 72. Select the oxide which is mixed oxide?
dichromate is (1) Fe2O3
(1) NH4CrO3 (2) NH4CrO4 (2) Pb3O4
(3) (NH4)2CrO4 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) Cl2O7
63. Select the reaction in which N2(g) is formed as
(4) N2O5
one of the products.
∆ 73. Incorrect statement about Rhombic sulphur is
(1) Ba(N3 )2  →
(1) It is also known as α-sulphur
∆
(2) (NH4 )2 CO3  → (2) It is of yellow colour
∆
(3) NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2  → (3) It is formed by evaporating the solution of roll
sulphur in CS2
∆
(4) (NH4 )2 SO4 + NaOH  → (4) It is soluble in water

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

74. Necessary condition for maximum yield of H2SO4 82. Element which is regarded as transition element
formation by the Contact process is is
(1) High temperature and high pressure (1) Cr (2) Hg
(2) High temperature and low pressure (3) Cd (4) All of these
(3) Low temperature and high pressure 83. Element which is having largest total number of
(4) Low temperature and low pressure electrons in s-orbitals is
75. Halogen molecule having lowest bond energy is (1) Cu (2) Cr
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 (3) Ag (4) Au
(3) Br2 (4) Ι2 84. Transition element of highest melting point is
76. Hydrogen halides of highest pKa is (1) W (2) Mo
(1) HF (3) Mn (4) Cs
(2) HCl 85. Element of highest first ionization energy among
(3) HBr the following is

(4) HΙ (1) Fe (2) Co

77. Deacon’s process is used in the manufacture of (3) Ni (4) Zn

(1) HCl 86. Element which shows highest number of possible
oxidation states is
(2) Cl2
(1) Sc (2) Cr
(3) HClO4
(4) SO3 (3) Mn (4) Ni

78. Aqua regia is a mixture of 87. Magnetic moment of ion Zn2+ is

(1) Three parts of conc. HCl and two parts of (1) 1.73 BM
conc. HNO3 (2) 2.84 BM
(2) Three parts of conc. HCl and one part of (3) 4.90 BM
conc. HNO3 (4) 0 BM
(3) Three parts of conc. HCl and one part of 88. Interstitial compounds are having
conc. H2SO4
(1) Less melting point than parent metals
(4) Three parts of conc. HCl and two parts of
conc. H2SO4 (2) Less hardness than parent metals

79. Hydrolysis of BrF5 forms (3) More chemical reactivity than parent metals

(1) HBrO4 (2) HBrO2 (4) Similar metallic conductivity as of parent

metals
(3) HOF (4) HBrO3
89. Select the oxide which is most basic in nature.
80. Noble gas element of highest positive electron
gain enthalpy is (1) CrO
(1) He (2) Cr2O3
(2) Ne (3) V2O5
(3) Ar (4) Mn2O7
(4) Kr 90. Oxalate ion on reaction with KMnO4, in acidic
81. Shape of XeF6 molecule is medium at 333 K forms

(1) Square planar (1) MnO2

(2) Linear (2) CO2

(3) Square pyramidal (3) CO
(4) Distorted octahedral (4) C3O2

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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

BOTANY
91. A particular character in diploid species is 97. Select the wrong statement regarding mutations.
controlled by a gene has three alleles in the (1) Frame-shift mutation may be due to deletion
population. Two of them show co-dominance or insertion of one or more bases in a
whereas the third one is recessive. How many nucleotide chain
phenotypes are possible in this population?
(2) When a purine base is substituted by another
(1) Six (2) Four purine base then it is transition mutation
(3) Three (4) Five (3) Transfer of gene segment during crossing
92. Which of the following cross in pea plant is over between homologous chromosome
considered to be test cross? results in chromosomal aberration
(1) Rr × rr (2) Tt × Tt (4) Many chemical and physical factors can be
(3) yy × yy (4) Rr × RR mutagens
93. Select the incorrect statement from the 98. In human beings, which of the following disorders
following. occur due to the dominant allele?
(1) Recombination frequency can be utilized in (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Cystic fibrosis
predicting the sequence of genes on (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia
chromosome. 99. “The phenotype in F1 generation does not
(2) Recombination frequency is inversely resemble either of the two parents and is in
proportional to the distance between genes between the two”. This statement is true for all,
(3) The term centimorgan is used in eukaryotic except
genetics (1) Flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
(4) The genes are arranged linearly on the (2) Size of starch grains in pea seeds
chromosome
(3) Skin colour in human beings
94. Mendel’s law of dominance is applicable in
(4) Eye colour in Drosophila
(1) Sex determination in Drosophila
100. Out of four children of a couple, one is colour-
(2) Flower colour in snapdragon blind. If this child is daughter then which of the
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome following genotypes should be true for the
(4) Phenylketonuria couple?
95. Heterosis is the phenomenon in which (1) XCXC × XY (2) XCX × XCY
(1) Hybrid produced are often superior of both its (3) XX × XCY (4) XCX × XYC
parents 101. If 2816 seeds is obtained in a Mendelian dihybrid
(2) Introns are removed from hnRNA cross preformed for the shape and colour of
seeds then, how many seeds would be of pure
(3) Less vigour organism is transformed into
line?
more vigour by picking up DNA from the
medium (1) 1408 (2) 148
(4) More distinct form is achieved by an (3) 704 (4) 74
organism in its adult stage from its immature 102. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Down’s
form syndrome.
96. Which among the following insects, males (1) It is an example of chromosomal aberration
produce two types of sperms? (2) It develops due to trisomy of chromosome
(a) Grasshopper (b) Moth number 21
(c) Drosophila (d) Honey bee (3) It is not an inheritable disorder
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (4) The inflected individual may be male or
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) female

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

103. One of the reasons for adopting garden pea for 108. In a few insects, Henking observed a specific
experiment by Mendel was nuclear structure only in 50 percent of the sperms
(1) Flowers show cross pollination naturally whereas the other 50 percent lack this structure.
He termed this structure as
(2) It is a leguminous plant
(1) X body (2) Centrosome
(3) It is a dicot plant
(3) Barr body (4) Y body
(4) It has many distinct alternative traits
109. Select the option in which the combination will
104. Study the given pedigree chart and select the result Turner’s Syndrome
statement which is true for this family
(1) Egg (22 + 0) × sperm (22 + 0)
(2) Egg (21 + X) × sperm (22 + Y)
(3) Egg (22 + XX) × sperm (22 + 0)
(4) Egg (22 + X) × sperm (22 + 0)
110. All of the following traits of pea plant appear in
both homozygous and heterozygous conditions,
except
(1) Violet colour of flower
(1) The trait is X–linked recessive
(2) Axial position of flower
(2) All the unaffected individuals in generation Q
(3) Yellow seed colour
are heterozygous for that trait
(4) Constricted pod shape
(3) This pedigree chart can explain the
111. Fathers and mothers of a couple have same
inheritance of myotonic dystrophy
blood groups, i.e., AB and O, respectively. Which
(4) The trait in this pedigree chart is holandric blood group(s) is/are possible in the children of
105. How many different types of gametes will be this couple?
produced by the organism with genotype (1) Only AB and O
PpQQrrssTt?
(2) Only A and B
(1) 8
(3) All AB, A, B and O
(2) 4
(4) Only AB
(3) 32 112. Some feature of Drosophila are given below
(4) 9 (a) It is a tiny fly of about 2mm size
106. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was (b) It has a short life cycle
proposed by
(c) It has smaller number of morphologically
(1) Gregor Mendel distinct chromosomes
(2) Sutton and Boveri (d) It is found over ripe fruits.
(3) T.H. Morgan Which features are considered suitable for
(4) Correns and Tschermak experimental genetics?
107. Which of the following representation related to (1) (a), (c) and (d)
dihybrid cross in Drosophila conducted by (2) (b) and (c)
Morgan is for recombinant type?
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
(1) (2) 113. Bacteriophage φ × 174 has
(1) 48502 nucleotides
(2) 48502 base pairs
(3) (4) (3) 5386 nucleotides
(4) 5386 base pairs

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114. Consider the following representation of DNA 119. Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is genetic
and select the correct option for the names of material through his experiments by working with
different bonds I, II and III. (1) TMV and Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) λ phage and Trichoderma polysporum
(3) T2 bacteriophage and Escherichia coli
(4) Coliphage φ and Rhizobium
120. Identify the following statements as true (T) or
false (F) and choose the option accordingly.
A – Viruses having RNA can directly code for the
synthesis of proteins.
I II III B – Free 5′OH of RNA makes it more easily
degradable as compared to DNA.
(1) Phosphodiester Glycosidic bond Hydrogen
bond bond C – RNA mutates at a faster rate than DNA.
(2) Glycosidic bond Hydrogen bond Phosphodiester A B C
bond
(1) F T T
(3) Glycosidic bond Phosphodiester Hydrogen
(2) T T T
bond bond
(3) T F T
(4) Phosphodiester Hydrogen bond Glycosidic
bond bond (4) F T F
115. A segment of dsDNA has 32.5% of the total 121. To know that the mode of DNA replication is
bases as adenine. What would be the total semiconservative, which of the following isotopes
percentage of pyrimidines in this segment? can be used?
(1) 50% (2) 65% (1) 37Cl (2) 34S

(3) 35% (4) 67.5% (3) 41K (4) 15N

116. The enzyme reverse transcriptase can synthesise 122. In which of the following organisms, only a single
(1) DNA over RNA origin of replication is present?

(2) ssDNA from dsDNA (1) E. coli (2) Vicia faba

(3) RNA from protein (3) Puccinia graminis (4) Euglena viridis

(4) RNA over DNA 123. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual

purpose during DNA replication. These are
117. Nucleosome is
(1) As substrate and making replication fork
(1) Bead like structure in chromatin
(2) Providing energy and unwinding the helix
(2) A negatively charged histone wrapped
around by positively charged DNA (3) Joining the two strands and transfering the
bases
(3) Composed of two pairs of histone proteins
(4) As substrate and providing energy for
(4) Super coiled DNA in prokaryotes
polymerisations
118. In the transformation experiment, conducted by
124. Which of the following enzymes is required to join
Frederick Griffith, when the mixture of heat killed
the discontinuously synthesised fragments of
S strain and live R strain Pneumococcus bacteria
DNA?
injected into mice, they died. Which of the
following was the reason for death of mice? (1) DNA gyrase (2) DNA ligase
(1) Live R strain bacteria were virulent (3) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
(2) R strain bacteria became live in the presence 125. The process in which both the strands of DNA act
of heat killed S strain bacteria as template is
(3) S strain bacteria became live in the presence (1) Replication
of R strain bacteria (2) Reverse transcription
(4) Protein polymers of heat killed S strain (3) Translation
bacteria became toxic for mice (4) Transcription
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126. Match the following columns and select the (3) It takes place in the same compartment
correct option. where translation occurs
Column I Column II (4) Many times the translation can begin much
before the mRNA is fully transcribed
a. Non-coding (i) Towards 5′
strand of DNA end of 131. The role of SnRNPs is to
coding (1) Add adenylate residues at 3′ end of mRNA
strand (2) Remove introns from hnRNA
b. Transcription (ii) 5′→3′ (3) Add methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5′ end
unit polarity (4) Catalise the elongation of mRNA
c. Promoter (iii) 3′→5′ 132. Genetic codes show degeneracy. It means
sequence polarity (1) In mRNA, codon is read in a contiguous
d. Sense strand (iv) Has three fashion
of DNA components (2) Some amino acids are coded by more than
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv) d(ii) one codon
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) d(iii) (3) One codon codes for only one amino acid
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i) d(iii) (4) Each codon is independent and one codon
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i) d(ii) does not overlap the next
127. In most eukaryotes, structural gene is 133. tRNA with which of the following sequence of
monocystronic. It means bases on anticodon loop is responsible to bring
(1) Different type of polypeptides are synthesised methionine to the mRNA?
from only one gene (1) 3′ CAU 5′ (2) 5′ CAU 3′
(2) This gene has only one intron (3) 3′ AUG 5′ (4) 5′ AUG 3′
(3) This gene synthesises only one type of 134. Select the incorrect match w.r.t lac operon.
polypeptide (1) Operator gene – Interacts with regulator
(4) Many introns are present in a single gene molecule
128. The RNA which has/have both structural as well (2) Regulator gene – Codes for repressor protein
as catalytic role is/are (3) Lactose – Binds to promoter gene to induce
(1) mRNA transcription
(2) tRNA (4) Lacz gene – Codes for β-galactosidase
(3) rRNA 135. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) Both tRNA and rRNA option which is true for them.
129. In eukaryots, RNA polymerase II catalyses the Statement-1: VNTRs and SSRs code for many
synthesis of essential proteins.
(1) tRNA (2) SnRNA Statement-2: The degree of polymorphism in
(3) 5S rRNA (4) hnRNA DNA sequence is specific to an individual and is
130. Regarding the transcription in bacteria, which not inheritable.
statement given below is incorrect? (1) Both the statements are correct
(1) There are three types of DNA-dependent (2) Both the statements are incorrect
RNA polymerase for this purpose (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) mRNA does not require any processing to (4) Only statement-2 is correct
become active

ZOOLOGY
136. The concept of ‘organic evolution’ in Darwin’s 137. The chain of islands named the Galapagos,
theory of natural selection can be best explained where the famous small black birds called finches
by were first studied lies off the west coast of
(1) The rise of antibiotic resistant bacteria (1) South Africa
(2) Use of Bt toxins against insects in crops (2) South America
(3) Development of hybrid varieties in plants (3) Australia
(4) Interspecies hybrids like tigon and liger (4) New Zealand

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138. All of the following may be regarded as examples 144. A transitional form which shows characteristic
of evolution by anthropogenic action except features of both birds and reptiles, but is now
(1) Development of pesticide resistant weeds extinct, is
(2) Variation among breeds of domestic pigeons (1) Hyracotherium (2) Pteranodon
(3) Evolution of giraffe and cheetah (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Triceratops
(4) Industrial melanism 145. Natural selection can act on variations only if
139. Match the following w.r.t. major biogeographical (1) They are present in more than one type of
realm, and the area included in it somatic cell
Column I Column II (2) They provide homozygosity in all organisms
(Biogeographical (Area induced) of the species
realm) (3) One extreme of the population is eliminated
a. Ethiopian (i) Tropical part of by them
Asia (4) They are heritable and affect the ability to
b. Neotropical (ii) Europe and survive and reproduce
Asia (North of 146. Read the following statements and choose the
tropics) correct option.
c. Palaearctic (iii) Central America Statement A : Unequal ability of individuals to
adapt for survival leads to accumulation of
d. Oriental (iv) Africa
favourable traits over generations.
(Excluding Atlas
mountains) Statement B : Most species produce more
offsprings than their environment can support.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Both statements are incorrect
140. A bonsai tree is mechanically made to grow as a
dwarf by pruning and shaping, however its seeds (4) Only statement B is correct
would produce a tree of normal size. This 147. Ruminating horse : Merychippus : : Dawn horse :
example can best be used to oppose the theory _____.
of evolution proposed by Complete the analogy.
(1) Georges Cuvier (2) Jean Lamarck
(1) Eohippus (2) Pliohippus
(3) Charles Lyell (4) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Parahippus (4) Mesohippus
141. How many years ago did the formation of earth
148. Read the following characteristics and choose the
supposedly take place?
option best described by them
(1) 4.5 million (2) 20 million
(i) Herbivorous (ii) Long necked
(3) 4.5 billion (4) 20 billion
(iii) Quadruped (iv) Long tail
142. The control apparatus of the Urey-Miller
experiment was devoid of (1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Triceratops
(1) Methane and ammonia (3) Stegosaurus (4) Brachiosaurus
(2) Energy source 149. An old rock possibly from the Precambrian era
(3) Water vapour has to be examined using radioactive dating
technique. The best radioactive isotope employed
(4) Being a closed system
for this method is
143. In the process of chemical origin of life, as
proposed by Oparin and Haldane, which of the (1) Carbon12
following organic compounds formed first? (2) Carbon14
(1) RNA (2) Cellulose (3) Potassium40
(3) DNA (4) Simple sugars (4) Nitrogen14

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

150. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. homologous 155. In the course of human evolution, A was possibly
and analogous structures. the ancestor of B and B was possibly the
ancestor of C. Identify A, B and C.
Homologous Analogous
structures structures A B C

(1) Australopithecus Homo erectus Homo habilis

(1) Brain of Heart of vertebrates
vertebrates (2) Homo habilis Homo erectus Australopithecus

(3) Australopithecus Homo erectus Ramapithecus

(2) Forelimbs of Flippers of Penguins
bats and whales and Dolphins (4) Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus

(3) Thorn of Eye of octopus and 156. The conclusion that was reached by neo
bougainvillea mammals Darwinism was that new species naturally
and tendril of develop through
cucurbita (1) Discontinuous variations which are not
genetic
(4) Forelimbs of Wings of butterfly
(2) Continuous variations with natural selection
cheetah and and birds
humans (3) Mutations with natural selection
(4) Hybridizations with artificial selection
151. A connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca
is 157. The immediate ancestors of Conifers and
Ginkgos were
(1) Peripatus
(1) Bryophytes (2) Psilophyton
(2) Proterospongia
(3) Dicotyledons (4) Zosterophyllum
(3) Neopilina
158. The occurrence of all of the following events will
(4) Balanoglossus
cause a change in gene frequency except
152. Identify the egg laying mammal which shows (1) Genetic drift
similarity to both reptiles and mammals
(2) Non-random mating
(1) Koala bear
(3) Gene migration
(2) Duck-billed platypus
(4) Random mating
(3) Blue-whale
159. The evolution of different species in a given area
(4) Red Panda starting from a point and spreading to other
153. Auricular muscles of pinna and nictitating geographical areas is known as
membrane are ___ organs in man. (1) Adaptive convergence
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (2) Divergent evolution
(1) Homologous (3) Adaptive radiation
(2) Vestigeal (4) Convergent evolution
(3) Analogous 160. If a population is in genetic equilibrium the sum
(4) Functional total of all allelic frequencies is
154. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Less than 1
correct option. (2) Equal to 1
Statement A: Evolution is a directed process in (3) Greater than 1
the sense of determinism. (4) Zero
Statement B: Evolution is a stochastic process. 161. Allopatric speciation is a result of
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Geographical isolation
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Mixing of genes
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Continuous immigration
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) Gene flow
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Test-7 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

162. In post-zygotic barrier to hybridisation if the 169. Africa is known as ‘Cradle of life’ because the
hybrid adults do not produce functional gametes, observation on DNA variation suggests that
it is termed as there is
(1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid sterility (1) No variation in Africa
(3) Hybrid breakdown (4) Hybrid vigour (2) No variation in Asia
163. A popular food supplement and a top-selling (3) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
herbal medicine which is also considered a living
(4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
fossil is
170. Sweet potato is a A modification and potato
(1) Gingko bilboa
is a B modification which are together
(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Oenothera lamarkiana examples of C .

(4) Drosophila melanogaster Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
164. In the course of human evolution, which of the A B C
following is considered least relevant to evolution
of man? (1) Stem Root Analogy
(1) Bipedalism (2) Cranial capacity (2) Root Stem Analogy
(3) Tool making (4) Loss of tail
(3) Stem Root Homology
165. If the frequency of a dominant gene in a
population is 0.6, what is the percentage of (4) Root Stem Homology
homozygous recessive individuals? 171. The action of artificial selection can be observed
(1) 64% (2) 16% in all except
(3) 24% (4) 36% (1) Breeding of dogs and horses
166. Read the following statements. (2) Horticulture and agriculture
Statement A : During the course of evolution the (3) Breeding of animals for sport
pouched mammals of Australia survived.
(4) Wing of bat and wing of pigeon
Statement B : Placental mammals failed to be a
172. The key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution
competition to marsupials as they were separated
is
due to continental drift.
(1) Panspermia
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Physical fitness instead of reproductive
fitness
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Branching descent and natural selection
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Mutations
(4) Only statement B is correct
173. If the addition or deletion of genes from an old
167. According to which law can two species having
population occurs by chance (but not
the same ecological requirement not occupy the
same habitat indefinitely? continuously) it is best termed as

(1) Gause’s law (2) Allen’s law (1) Gene flow (2) Saltation

(3) Bergaman’s law (4) Cope’s law (3) Artificial selection (4) Genetic drift

168. A form of adaptation in which two or more 174. The type of natural selection in which more
inedible or unpalatable species resemble each individuals acquire peripheral character value at
other is called both ends of the distribution curve is
(1) Batesian mimicry (1) Stabilising selection
(2) Mullerian mimicry (2) Unidirectional change
(3) Reproductive isolation (3) Progressive selection
(4) Temporal isolation (4) Disruptive selection

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175. The geological time period which occurred just 179. The skull of which two organisms shown below is
before the Triassic period was most alike?
(1) Jurassic (2) Permian
(3) Cretaceous (4) Tertiary
176. Choose the odd one w.r.t. eras on the geological
time scale.
(1) Coenozoic (2) Mesozoic
(3) Paleozoic (4) Silurian
177. An animal which is believed to have evolved into
the first amphibian is
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Therapsids
(3) Tuataras (4) Coelacanth (1) A and B (2) B and C
178. The dinosaurs disappeared on earth about ___ (3) A and C (4) A, B and C
years ago. 180. The organism that arose in the ice age between
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. 75000 - 10,000 years ago was
(1) 65 mya (2) 65 bya (1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus
(3) 165 mya (4) 165 bya (3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo sapiens

  

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