Test Date Code-A

17-04-2020

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

Max. Marks : 720 TEST - 15 Time : 3 Hrs.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

1. For an angle of incidence  on an equilateral prism 3. A man with hypermetropia cannot see objects
of refractive index 3, the ray is refracted parallel closer than a distance of 40 cm from the eye. The
to the base inside the prism. The value of  is power of the lens required so that he can see
objects at 25 cm from the eye is
(1) 30°
(1) +4.5D
(2) 45°
(2) +4.0D
(3) 60° (3) 1.5D
(4) 75° (4) +3.0D
2. Which of the following graphs is the plot of 4. P-V curve of a one mole of diatomic gas is shown
magnification of a real image against the distance in the figure. The total heat given to the gas in the
from the focus of a concave mirror ? process A  B  C is
P
m B
m 2P0
Isothermal
P0 C
A
(1) (2)
V
Distance Distance V0 2V0
(1) P0V0 + 2P0V0ln2
m m 1
(2) P V + P0V0ln2
2 0 0
5
(3) (4) (3) P V + 2P0V0ln2
2 0 0
Distance Distance (4) 3P0V0 + 2P0V0ln2

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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
5. Two circular discs (black bodies) A and B are with (1) 10m (2) 2.5m
equal radii. They are heated to same temperature
(3) 4m (4) 5m
and are cooled under identical conditions. What
inference do you draw from their cooling curves? 10. Equal masses of water and ice with temperature
equally below and above the melting point of ice
respectively are mixed with each other. At
A

Rate of Cooling
equilibrium 40% of ice melted. The initial
temperature of water was
B
(1) 16°C (2) 32°C
(3) 64°C (4) 96°C
(–0)
11. In the given circuit, with steady current, the
(1) A and B have same specific heat potential drop across the capacitor must be
(2) Specific heat of A is less
R
(3) Specific heat of B is less V
(4) Can not be determined V C
6. A Carnot’s engine operates with an efficiency of 2V 2R
40% with its sink at 27°C. By what amount should
the temperature of the source be increased with an
aim to increase the efficiency by 10%? (1) V (2) V 2
(1) 50K (2) 150K
(3) V 3 (4) 2V 3
(3) 80K (4) 100K
7. The temperature dependence of resistivity of a 12. Identify the wrong statement
semiconductor is best represented by
(1) The electrical potential energy of a system of
two protons shall increase if the separation
between them is decreased
(1)  (2)  (2) The electrical potential energy of a proton and
an electron system will increase if the
T T separation between them is decreased
(3) The electrical potential energy of a proton
electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is increased
(3)  (4)  (4) The electrical potential energy of system of two
electron shall increase if the separation
T T between them is decreased
8. Two bodies of equal masses are suspended from 13. In the given circuit, a galvanometer with resistance
two separate massless springs of spring constant of 70 is converted to an ammeter by a shunt of
K1 and K2 respectively. If two bodies oscillate resistance 5, total current measured by the
vertically such that their maximum speeds are galvanometer is
equal. The ratio of amplitude of P to that of Q is

K1 K1 G
(1) K2 (2) K
2

K2 K2 5
5
(3) K1 (4) K
1

9. Breaking stress of a substance of density 5V

2  103 kg/m3 is 105Pa. The maximum length of
the wire made of this substance that can be (1) 0.88A (2) 0.77A
hanged vertically without breaking due to its own
weight. (g = 10 m/s2) is (3) 0.55A (4) 0.0344A

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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

14. The
 correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field 19. A simple pendulum of mass m and length l has
B vs distance r from the centre of a wire of radius angular amplitude . The maximum kinetic energy
R carrying a uniform current throughout its cross- of the bob is
section is given by
1 1
B B (1) mgl (2) mgl cos
2 2
(3) mgl(1–cos (4) mgl sin
(1) (2)
20. A steel rod of length 100cm is clamped at the
r r middle. The frequency of the fundamental mode of
B B longitudinal vibrations of the rod is (speed of sound
in steel is 5km/s)
(1) 1.5 kHz
(3) (4)
(2) 2 kHz
r r (3) 2.5 kHz
15. Two short bar magnets of magnetic moments m
each are arranged at the opposite corners of a (4) 3 kHz
square of side ‘d’ such that their centres coincide 21. T is time period of revolution of a planet revolving
with the corners and their axes are parallel to the around sun in an orbit of mean radius R, then
opposite sides of the square. If magnetic moments identify the ‘INCORRECT’ graph
are in the same direction, the magnetic induction
T2
at any other corners of the square is
0m  0 2m
(1) (2) (1)
4d3 4 d3
R3
0 m  0 m3
(3) (4) 2
4  2d3 4 2d3 T 3

16. A solenoid has an inductance of 10H and

resistance of 2. It is connected to a 10V battery. (2)
How long will it take for the magnetic energy to R
reach 14 of its maximum value? (ln(2) = 0.693) T2

(1) 2.192s (2) 3.465s

(3) 0.693s (4) 4.345s (3)
1
17. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration
R3
and its velocity after n seconds is V. The
displacement of the particle in last 2s is. T

V(n  1) 2V(n  1)
(1) (2) (4)
n n
3
V(n  1) 2V(n  1) R 2

(3) (4)
n n 22. A particle is thrown vertically upward from the
18. A block is pressed against the wall with a force mg surface of the earth and it reaches to a maximum
height (from surface) equal to the radius of earth.
mg
and another force is applied as shown in the The ratio of the velocity of projection to the escape
2 velocity from the surface of the earth
figure. The minimum value of coefficient of friction
to keep the body in equilibrium is 1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
mg m 1 1
(3) (4)
4 2 2
mg 23. If x = 10.0 ± 0.1 and y = 10.0 ± 0.1, then 2x – 2y
2 with consideration of significant figures is equal to
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2 (1) Zero (2) 0.0±0.1
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.25 (3) 0.0±0.2 (4) 0.0±0.4

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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
24. In the following circuit, assume the resistance of 28. An element A decays into element C by a two
each diode is zero in forward bias and infinity in step process
reverse bias. The current supplied by the battery is
A  B  2 He 4

D 1 10  B  C  2e
(1) A and C are isotopes
(2) A and C are isobars
D2 20 
(3) A and B are isotopes
i
(4) A and B are isobars
5V 29. A uniform cube of mass M is floating on the
surface of a liquid with three-fourth of its volume
(1) 0 (2) 0.5A immersed in the liquid of density = . The edge
length of the cube is
(3) 0.25A (4) 1A 1 1
 4M  3
 4M  3
25. The output of the following logic gates will be (1)   (2)  
equivalent to which logic basic gate?  3    
1 1
M 3
M 3
(3)   (4)  
A  3   4 
30. Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have masses m,
X 2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of mass
of all the four rods lie
B
D C
1 2
(1) OR (2) AND 3 4
A B
(3) NOR (4) NAND (1) in region 1 (2) in region 2
26. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold (3) in region 3 (4) at O
frequency is incident on photo-sensitive material 31. A disc is rolling on a rough surface without slipping.
and the photo current is i. Now if the frequency is C is the centre of the disc and P and Q are
halved and intensity of the light is doubled, the equidistant points from C. V C, V P and V Q are
photocurrent becomes magnitude velocities of C, P and Q respectively, then
(1) i (2) 2i P
C
i
(3) (4) Zero Q
2
27. The intensity distribution of X-rays from two (1) VQ > VC > VP
coolidge tubes operated on different voltages V1 (2) VQ < VC < VP
and V 2 and using different target materials of
atomic number Z1 and Z2 is shown in the figure. (3) VQ = VP > VC
Which of the following options is correct? (4) VQ = VP < VC
I 32. All the surfaces are smooth and the wedge moves
with a velocity of V, then speed of the sphere is
1 K K
2
SPHERE
1  2 
(1) V1 > V2, Z1 < Z2 V
WEDGE
(2) V1 > V2, Z1 > Z2 

(3) V1 < V2, Z1 > Z2 (1) V (2) V tan

(4) V1 = V2, Z1 < Z2 (3) V cot (4) V cos
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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

33. A grass hopper can jump and cover a maximum 41. A polyatomic gas with ‘n’ degree of freedom has a
horizontal distance of 1.6m. If it spends negligible mean energy per molecule given by
time on ground, how far can it go in 102s?
n 1
(1) 45m (2) 30m (1) RT (2) RT
2 2
(3) 20m (4) 40m n 1
(3) kBT kBT
(4)
34. The armature current in a dc motor is maximum 2 2
when the motor has
42. The momentum of a system with respect to centre
(1) just started moving of mass
(2) picked up maximum speed (1) is zero only if all the objects in the system are
(3) intermediate speed moving uniformly
(4) just been switched off (2) is zero only if no external force acts on the
system
35. The rms value of the emf for the following
expression of emf is (3) is not zero

 (4) can be zero even if the objects in the system

E = 8sint + 6sin(t+ ) are accelerating
2
(1) 52 V (2) 72 V 43. The speed of the ball after collision if the surface
(3) 10 V (4) 102 V 1
is smooth and coefficient of restitution is is
2
36. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 2 interfere.
Then the value of (Imax–Imin)/(Imax+Imin) is
1  1  37°
(1) (2) 10m/s
 
1  2
(3) (4) 1  2
 (1) 10 m/s
37. Which of the following can not be explained by (2) 52 m/s
Huygen’s theory of light?
(3) 82 m/s
(1) Reflection (2) Refraction
(4) 62 m/s
(3) Photoelectric effect (4) Diffraction
38. An electric bulb rated 500W and 100V is used in 44. For a diode, which statement is ‘INCORRECT’ ?
a circuit having a 200V supply. The resistance that (1) It is a unilateral device
must be put in series with the bulb so that the
bulb delivers 500W is (2) It can act as an rectifier
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) Zener diode can be used as a voltage regulator
(3) 30 (4) 40 (4) LED(s) are normally used in reverse biased
39. Two isolated charged conducting sphere of radii a 45. A rod is standing vertically on a smooth surface, if
and b produce same electric field near their the rod is slightly disturbed and it fall towards right,
surfaces. The ratio of electric potential on their then
surfaces is
a b3
(1) (2)
b a3
L
a2 b4
(3) 2 (4) 4
b a
40. When a source is going away from a stationary
observer with the velocity equal to that of sound in (1) The centre of mass moves vertically downward
air, then the frequency heard by the observer is ‘n’
times the original frequency. The value of ‘n’ is (2) The centre of mass moves towards right

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 (3) The centre of mass moves towards left
(3) 1.0 (4) No sound is heard (4) The centre of mass does not move

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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY

46. The correct order of ‘P’-compounds in its 52. Identify the products A, B and C in the given
increasing order of oxidation states is sequences of reactions:
(1) P4, PH3, H4P2O7, H3PO2 anhydrous 1. Alkaline CH 3MgBr
+ C 2H 5Cl A B C
(2) PH3, P4, H3PO2, H4P2O7 AlCl3 KMnO4 Dry Et 2O
2. H 
(3) H3PO2, H4P2O7, P4, PH3
CH2CH3 CO 2H
(4) P4, PH3, H3PO2, H4P2O7
47. Number of B–O–B bond present in Borax is (1) A = ,B= , C = CH 4

(1) 3 (2) 5 CH2CH3 CO 2H

(3) 4 (4) 6
(2) A = ,B= , C = C2H6
48. 2X + O2  2XO
G° CH2 CH3
C + O 2  CO 2
CH3 CO2 H

2C + O 2  2CO
(3) A = ,B= , C = CH4
T
1600K
1623K

CH2CH2Cl CO2 H

Considering the above Ellingham diagram, which of

(4) A = ,B= , C = C2H6
the following statements is correct?
(1) Above 1623K, metal oxide XO can be reduced 53. Which of the following compound is most basic?
by carbon to produce metal ‘X’
NH2 CH2NH2
(2) Below 1623K, metal (X) can oxidise carbon
into CO2 (1) (2)
(3) Carbon can reduce XO only in between 1600K
and 1623K NH2 NH2
CH3
(4) XO can be reduced by carbon only below (3) (4)
1600K CH3
49. The correct order of Electronegetivity values of
54. Which of the following is an example of crossed-
group 13 elements is
linked polymer(s)?
(1) B > Tl > In > Al > Ga
(1) Bakelite (2) Malmac
(2) B > In > Tl > Al > Ga
(3) PVC (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Al > B > Tl > ln > Ga
55. Chemically peptide linkage is a/an
(4) B > Tl > ln > Ga > Al
50. Which of the following statements is correct for (1) Amide linkage (2) Sulphide linkage
chalcogens? (3) Ester linkage (4) Peroxide linkage
(1) Sulphur has lower electron affinity than oxygen 56. Which of the following compound can liberate CO2
(2) First electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is on reaction with NaHCO3?
exothermic but second electron gain enthalpy
OH NH2
is endothermic
(3) All compounds of oxygen are acidic (1) (2)
(4) S-S single bond is weaker than O-O single NO2
bond due to poorer overlap of orbitals. OH
51. The ratio of bond pairs to lone pairs in XeF4 is O2N NO2
(3) (4) H – C  C – H
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 7 (4) 7 : 2 NO 2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

57. Which of the following sets represents amphoteric 62. Which of the following hydrocarbons can form only
compounds? two dichloro derivatives?
(1) Na2O, ZnO, BeO CH3
(2) BeO, ZnO, Al2O3 (1) CH3 C H (2) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(3) Al2O3, BeO, CaO CH3

(4) ZnO, CO2, NO

CH 3
58. 4 ml of a gaseous mixture of O3 and O2 on heating
(3) CH3 C CH3 (4) CH3CH2CH3
produces 5 ml as final volume at same
CH3
temperature and pressure. The ratio of volume of O3
and O2 present in initial gas mixture was 63. Which of the following molecules is linear?
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) H2C == C == CH2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 (2) H2C == CH — CH == CH2
59. Photochemical smog contains
(3) HC  C — C  CH
(1) CO2 (2) CO
(4) H2C == C == O
(3) SO2 (4) PAN
64. Choose the most stable carbocation among the
60. The compound ‘A’ on treatment with NaNH 2 following.
produces ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’. ‘B’ on reaction with 1
CH3 NH2
equivalent CH3I, followed by 1 equivalent Pd and
H2 produces ‘D’, which on reductive ozonolysis (1)  (2)
produces 2 moles of acetaldehyde. Compounds A, 
B, C and D respectively are
OH NO 2
– 
(1) CH3 C CH , CH3 C C Na ,
(3) (4) 
H3C H 
NH3, C C
H CH3 65. Which of the following orders of –I effect is
correct?
– 
(2) CH3 C CH , CH3C C Na , 
(1) NR3 > NO2 > CO2H > Cl
H3C CH3
NH3, C C 
H H
(2) NO2 > NR3 > CO2H > Ph
– 
(3) HC CH , HC C Na , NH3, H2C CH2 
(3) CO2H > NR3 > NO2 > Cl
(4) CH3CH CH2 , CH3CH2OH,

NH3, CH3 CH CH CH3 (4) CO2H > NO2 > NR3 > OCH3

(NH4)2 S NaNO 2 H3PO3

61. C6H4N2O4 A B C CH 3 CH 3
dil HCl 
0°C 
66. + Oleum
Product ‘C’ formed in the above reaction sequence
is
SO3H
NO 2
The electrophile involved in the above reaction is
(1) (2) 
(1) SO 3H
NH2 OH
(2) SO2
(3) (4) –
(3) HSO 3
NH2 NO 2 (4) SO3

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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
67. Ortho-nitro phenol is steam volatile but the para 72. Geometrical isomerism is not possible for
isomer is not. The correct reason for this is
(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]
(1) Ortho nitrophenol undergoes intra molecular
(3) [Co(H2O)3Cl2Br] (4) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]
hydrogen bonding
(2) Para nitrophenol undergoes intramolecular 73. Which of the following statements is correct?
hydrogen bonding (1) Both of [CoF 6 ] 3– and [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ are
(3) Ortho nitrophenol is highly soluble in water octahedral and paramagnetic

(4) Ortho nitro phenoxide ion is highly stable (2) Both of [CoF 6 ] 3– and [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ are
octahedral and diamagnetic
68. Compound ‘A’, having molecular formula C8H9NO
on heating with Br2 / KOH produces C7H9N. This (3) Both of [CoF 6 ] 3– and [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ are
on treating with NaNO2 and dilute HCl followed by octahedral but former is paramagnetic and
boiling with H2O produces ‘B’, having molecular latter is diamagnetic
formula C 7H8O. ‘B’ can give purple colour on (4) Both of [CoF 6 ] 3– and [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ are
addition of freshly prepared FeCl3 solution. A and tetrahedral but former is diamagnetic and latter
B respectively are is paramagnetic

H3C CH3 74. When equal volume of HCl solutions of pH = 2 and

N CH3 pH = 4 are mixed, final pH of the solution will be
approximately
(1) and
(1) 3 (2) 2.9

OH OH (3) 6.2 (4) 2.3

75. Which of the following salts will have maximum
NHCHO OH coagulating value for coagulation of a negatively
charged colloid?
(2) and
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) MgSO4
CH 3 CH3
(3) AlCl3 (4) MgCl2

CONH 2 OH 76. 1 mole of H2 and 4 moles of SO2 is taken inside

a vessel, which effuse through a small orifice of the
(3) and vessel. The ratio of volume of H2 and SO2 effused
initially will be
CH 3 CH3
(1) 1: 2
NHCH 3 CH2OH (2) 2 : 1

(4) and (3) 2 :1

(4) 1 : 2
CHO
77. If solubility of Hg 2Cl 2 at room temperature is
69. Which of the following ion has maximum spin only 2 × 10–3 molL–1, its solubility product will be
magnetic moment?
(1) 3.2 × 10–9
(1) Fe2+ (2) Fe3+
(2) 128 × 10–9
(3) Ni2+ (4) Co3+
(3) 3.2 × 10–8
70. Total number of isomers (including structural and
stereoisomers) for C3H6DCl is (4) 1.28 × 10–8
78. Which of the following samples contains maximum
(1) 3 (2) 4
number of electrons?
(3) 6 (4) 8
(1) 9 gm NH4
71. Which of the following complexe is square planer?
(2) 18 gm H2O
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [NiCl4]2– (3) 18 gm D2O
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [Ni(CO)4] (4) 18 ml H2O vapour at S.T.P

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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

79. Three reactions of first, second and third order 1

show rates r 1, r 2 and r 3 respectively. If initial 86. N2O5  2NO2 + O
2 2
concentrations of reactant are same and greater
than 1M for all these reactions and rate constants Rate of dissociation of N2O5 = K1[N2O5]
are also same, then the correct order of rates will Rate of formation of NO2 = K2[N2O5]
be
Rate of formation of O2 = K3[N2O5]
(1) r1 > r2 > r3 (2) r1 = r2 = r3
The relation between K1, K2 and K3 is
(3) r 2 > r1 > r 3 (4) r3 > r2 > r1
80. Among the carbonates of group-2 metals, correct K1 K
(1)  2K 2  3
order of thermal stability is 2 4
(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 (2) K1 = K2 = K3
(2) SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BeCO3
(3) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3
(3) CaCO3 < BeCO3 < MgCO3 < SrCO3
(4) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3
(4) CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BeCO3 < SrCO3
87. Maximum O – O bond length will be in
E° = 0.5V + E° = –0.32V
81. A A A 2+
(1) Na2O2 (2) RbO2
Consider the change in oxidation state of ‘A’ (3) KO2 (4) O2
corresponding to different EMF values. The value of
88. Which of the following statements is wrong?
E ºA 2 /A couple will be
(1) ‘K’ has higher atomic volume than ‘Na’.
(1) 0.09V (2) 0.82V
(2) ‘Be’ has higher 1st ionization enthalpy than ‘B’.
(3) –0.09V (4) –0.82V
(3) Density of ‘Na’ is lower than ‘K’.
82. aCr2O72– + bFeC2O4 + cH  Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2
+ H2O (4) ‘Ne’ has highest electron affinity among the
group 18 elements.
The values of the coefficients are respectively
(1) a = 2, b = 1, c = 14 89. An atom ‘A’ forms CCP structure keeping ‘B’ at all
edge centres and body centre. The empirical
(2) a = 1, b = 2, c = 14 formula of this arbitrary molecular crystal is
(3) a = 1, b = 1, c = 12 (1) A2B
(4) a = 2, b = 3, c = 10 (2) AB2
83. Which of the following conditions will favour
(3) A2B3
maximum amount of formation of the product in
the following arbitrary reaction? (4) AB
A2(g) + 3B2(g)  2AB3(g) H = + X kJ 90. Given are consecutive ionization enthalpy values of
an element ‘A’.
(1) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
Ionization Enthalpy kJmol–1
(2) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
First x
(3) Increasing both pressure and temperature
(4) Decreasing both pressure and temperature Second 2x

84. 2.8g of a gas at 1 atm and 273K occupies 2.24 lt. Third 10x
The gas can’t be Fourth 13x
(1) N2 (2) C2H4 Fifth 17x
(3) CO (4) O2 The formula of its halide (X) will be
85. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C 2H6 are
(1) AX
respectively 360 and 620 kJ/mole. Bond
dissociation energy of C—C bond is (2) AX2
(1) 80 kJ/mol (2) 90 kJ/mol (3) AX3
(3) 100 kJ/mol (4) 120 kJ/mol (4) A2X3
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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020

BOTANY

91. Which of the following plays an important role in 99. All bryophytes are monoecious, except
lateral root growth in dicot root?
(1) Riccia (2) Funaria
(1) Endodermis
(3) Marchantia (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Pericyle
100. Which one is wrongly matched?
(3) Hypodermis
(1) Red algae – Porphyra
(4) Intrafascicular cambium
(2) Corelloid roots – Cycas
92. The stomata are equally distributed on both the
surfaces of the epidermis in (3) Moss – Funaria
(1) Dorsiventral leaf (4) Bryophyte – Pinus
(2) Dicot stem 101. Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive
(3) Isobilateral leaf events in

(4) Dicot root (1) Bacteria (2) Bryophytes

93. In dicot stems the vascular cambium ring is derived (3) Gymnosperms (4) Flowering plants
from 102. The stage during which chiasmata becomes visible
(1) Intrafascicular cambium is
(2) Interfascicular cambium (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Intrafascicular cambium & Interfascicular (3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
cambium 103. Select the incorrect match
(4) Pericycle (1) Palade particle – Ribosome
94. In some plants, root modified their shape and (2) Flagella – Cell movement
structure to perform
(3) Centriole – Found in higher plants
(1) Absorption
(4) Lysosome – Acid hydrolase
(2) Conduction of water
104. In cyanobacteria, there are membranous
(3) Conduction of minerals
extensions into the cytoplasm called as
(4) Storage
(1) Gas vacuole (2) Chromatophores
95. Presence of starch sheath is the characteristics of
stem of (3) Ribosome (4) Polysome

(1) Maize (2) Mango 105. Which of the following molecules do not found
associated with mitochondrial membrane?
(3) Sugarcane (4) Grasses
(1) SDH (2) Cytochrome C
96. Thorns of Bougainvillea are modification of
(3) Ribosome (4) Oxysome
(1) Apical buds (2) Vegetative buds
106. Disc shaped proteinaceous structure associated
(3) Accessory buds (4) Axillary buds
with centromere is called
97. A phyllotaxy, where more than two leaves arise at
(1) Kinetochore
a node, found in
(1) Calotropis (2) Alstonia (2) Secondary constriction

(3) China rose (4) Sunflower (3) Both Primary and Secondary constriction

98. Select the correct statement(s) (4) Nucleolar organizer

(1) Only few bryophytes are heterosporous 107. Peroxisome is not associated with

(2) Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms (1) Photorespiration

(3) Strobili are found in Selaginella & Salvinia (2) Fomation of H2O2
(4) Female gametophytes of gymnosperm have an (3) Gluconeogenesis
independent free living existance (4) Destruction of H2O2
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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

108. Which of the following micronutrient plays an 116. Select the wrong statement
important role in pollen germination? (1) A protein rich layer, pellicle present in Euglena
(1) Copper (2) Boron (2) Cell wall is absent in Mycoplasma and Euglena
(3) Iron (4) Phosphorus (3) Ascospores are produced in all algae
109. PS II is not found involved in exogenously
(1) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Unicisternal Golgi complex found in fungi
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation 117. Dikaryon phase appears during sexual reproduction
of
(3) Photolysis of H2O
(1) Mushroom
(4) Formation of NADPH
(2) Alternaria
110. Two copper centres are found associated with
(3) Albugo
(1) Complex I (2) Complex II
(4) Mucor
(3) Complex III (4) Complex IV
118. Which of the following is not true for amoeboid
111. Select the correct statement protozoan?
(1) All enzymes of Krebs cycle found in (1) Pseudopodia helps in feeding
mitochondrial matrix
(2) Silica shells present in marine form
(2) All the ATP produced during aerobic respiration
are due to oxidative phosphorylation (3) Contractile vacuole
(4) Flagella helps in locomotion
(3) Rate limiting step of glycolysis is catalyzed by
phosphofructokinase 119. Red tides is due to rapid multiplication of
(4) FAD+ received one redox equivalent from PGAL (1) Cyanobacteria
during glycolysis (2) Chlamydomonas
112. A cell is placed in isotonic solution, the cell will (3) Gonyaulax
remain
(4) Diatoms
(1) Remain unchanged (2) Plasmolysed
120. Pollen grains lose its viability within 30 minutes of
(3) Become Turgid (4) Deplasmolysed their release in
113. Select the incorrect statement for absorption of (1) Rice (2) Legumes
minerals by root
(3) Rose (4) Potato
(1) Occurs in the form of ions
121. Apomixis is a method of
(2) Occurs mainly by active transport
(1) Asexual reproduction
(3) Occurs mainly by passive transport
(2) Sexual reproduction
(4) Is energy dpendent process
(3) Sexual reproduction that mimics asexual
114. Which of the following does not belong to kingdom reproduction
Protista?
(4) Fusion of somatic cells
(1) Euglena
122. Plant in which endosperm is completely consumed
(2) Dinoflagellates by the developing of embryo before seed
maturation is
(3) Amoeba
(1) Castor (2) Coconut
(4) Spirullina
(3) Pea (4) Maize
115. The first oxygenic photosynthetic organism
originated on earth is 123. Perisperm is a
(1) Green algae (1) Persistant nucellus
(2) Cyanobacteria (2) Protein rich layer
(3) Euglena (3) Rudiment endosperm
(4) Diatoms (4) Triploid covering of endosperm

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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
124. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 130. Select the correct match
(1) Dog flower – Incomplete dominance (1) Alc Jeffreys – Automated DNA sequencers
(2) Non-Disjunction – Aneuploidy (2) Frederick Sanger – Amino acid sequencing
(3) Linkage – Morgan
(3) Holley – Inverted L-shaped Structure of tRNA
(4) Sutton and Boveri – Recombination and
Linkage (4) Meselson & Stahl – DNA structure

125. Select the correct statement 131. A circular DNA of 200bp, what will be the number
of phosphodiester bonds?
(1) Chemical characterization of transforming
principle by Watson (1) 200
(2) Test cross helps to determine the genotype of (2) 398
a dominant plant of F2
(3) 400
(3) ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ hypothesis proposed
by Morgan (4) 199
(4) Haemophilia is a X-linked dominant trait. 132. Physiological ecology tries to understand how
126. Pedigree analysis is useful to trace the disorders different organisms are adapted to their
occurs due to environments in terms of

(1) Imbalance in chromosome number (1) Survival

(2) Mutation in single gene (2) Reproduction
(3) Non-disjunction (3) Survival & reproduction
(4) Infection
(4) Competition
127. Which of the following characteristics represent
133. Which of the following is not included in the “Evil
polygenic inheritance of skin colour in human?
Quarlet” (w.r.t. causes of biodiversity loss)
(a) Bell shaped normal distribution curve
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(2) Coevolution
(c) Multiple allelism
(d) Quantitative inheritance (3) Alien species invasion and co-extinction

(e) Intermediate ones are more frequent (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) a, b and e (2) a, d, e 134. The factors which play a very important role in the
(3) b, d, e (4) b, c, d formation of major biomes on earth are

128. Predominant site for control of gene expression in (1) Temperature

prokaryote is
(2) Precipitation and temperature
(1) Initiation of transcription
(3) Wind and precipitation
(2) Splicing
(4) Rainfall only
(3) Initiation of translation
135. Since resources for growth are finite and become
(4) Replication
limiting sooner or later, on this basis which growth
129. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase unequivocally model is considered as more realistic one?
proved that DNA is genetic material by using
(1) Exponential
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Logistic
(2) Cyanophage
(3) Fungi (3) Arithmatic

(4) Vicia faba (4) J-shaped

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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY

136. The animal which is a poikilotherm is 141. A three year old child with wasted muscles, thin
limbs, reddish hair and oedema in leg is most
(1) Aptenodytes (2) Pteropus
likely suffering from
(3) Chelone (4) Balaenoptera
(1) Jaundice
137. Worm-like animal with proboscis, collar and trunk
has ______ and ______ type of fertilisation and (2) Marasmus
development respectively. (3) Kwashiorkar
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly (4) Rickets
(1) External and direct (2) Internal and indirect 142. Choose the odd-one with respect to secondary
(3) External and indirect (4) Internal and direct metabolites in plants
138. Choose the incorrect match (1) Vincristin
(1) Smooth muscle-intercalated disc (2) Prostaglandin
(2) Fibroblast-secretes fibres (3) Curcumin
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue-skin (4) Ricin
(4) Loose connective tissue- store fat 143. Structure present in submucosa of GIT is
139. Choose the statement which is incorrect with (1) Gastric gland
respect to neuroglial cells
(2) Villi
(1) Act as a packaging and supporting cell
(3) Rugae
(2) Forms blood-brain barrier
(4) Brunner’s gland
(3) Secrete myelin which decreases the
conduction speed in CNS 144. Identify the left end of glycogen chain
(4) Helps in phagocytosis (1) Reducing end
140. Match the following (2) Non-reducing end
Column I Column II (3) N-terminal end
(A) GIP (i)  Crypts of (4) C-terminal end
Lieberkulin
145. How many of the following statements are
(B) Secretin (ii)  HCO3– secretion incorrect?
in pancreatic juice
(i) The living state is a equilibrium steady-state to
(C) Cholecystokinin (iii)  Brunner’s gland be able to perform work.
secretion
(ii) Most coenzymes are derived form water
(D) Duocrinin (iv)  Gastric juice soluble vitamins.
secretion
(iii) In DNA, the nitrogen bases are perpendicular
(v)  Gastric juice to sugar-phosphate-sugar chain and face
secretion
inside.
(vi)  Contraction of gall
(iv) Tyrosine amino acid is represented by the
bladder
letter ‘T’.
A B C D
(v) GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into cells.
(1) (v) (ii) (vi) (iii)
(1) 4
(2) (ii) (v) (iii) (vi)
(2) 3
(3) (v) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) 2
(4) (ii) (iv) (vi) (iii) (4) 1
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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
146. Read the following statements with respect to 152. Read the following statements :
cellulose
(i) The second heart sound is heard at the
A - Gives blue colour when treated with I2 beginning of ventricular diastole.
B - Unbranched polysaccharide (ii) Mountain sickness can stimulate the process
C - Made of 6000 -glucose residues of erythropoiesis.
D - Storage polysaccharide (iii) Vagal stimulation can increase the heart beat
rate.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (iv) Subclavian vein carries blood from lower limbs.

(3) 3 (4) 1 How many of these statements are incorrect?

147. The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the arterial (1) 4

blood respectively is (2) 3
(1) 40 mmHg and 45 mmHg (3) 2
(2) 100 mmHg and 45 mmHg (4) 1
(3) 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg 153. Match the following
(4) 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg Column I Column II
148. The site and movement of ions during reverse
(A) Ammonotelic (i) Star fish
chloride shift is
(B) Ureotelic (ii) Lizard
(1) Body organs; HCO3 enters RBC from plasma
(C) Uricotelic (iii) Spider
in exchange of Cl–
(D) Guanotelic (iv) Shark
(2) Lung alveoli; HCO3 enters RBC from plasma
in exchange of Cl– A B C D

(3) Body organs; Cl– enters RBC from plasma in (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
exchange of HCO3 (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) Lung alveoli; Cl– enters RBC from plasma in (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
exchange of HCO3 (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
149. Choose the odd-one with respect to cartilage of 154. Deuterostomia and indirect development with open
larynx circulation is found in
(1) Thyroid-hyaline (1) Starfish, Herdmania, leech
(2) Corniculate - elastic (2) Balanoglossus, Ascidia, Herdmania
(3) Epiglottis - hyaline (3) Cockroach, brittle star, Petromyzon
(4) Cuneiform - elastic
(4) Amphioxus, Salpa, Myxine
150. A person with around 90% obstruction in blood
155. The following characteristics are the key
supply to the walls of right ventricle of heart causes
evolutionary advances of flatworms except
tissue damage, leading to
(1) Ventricular escape (1) Cephalisation

(2) Heart block (2) Organ level of organisation

(3) Myocardial infarction (3) Ladder-like nervous system

(4) Heart failure (4) Blind-sac body plan
151. Release of epinephrine neurotransmitter in heart 156. The identifying characteristic of class
leads to chondrichthyes
(1) Decreased heart rate (1) Gill slits are without operculum
(2) Increased heart rate (2) Mouth is anterior in position
(3) Bradycardia (3) Tail is symmetrical
(4) Decreased cardiac output (4) Scales are cycloid

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Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-15 (Code-A)

157. Match the columns 163. Choose the incorrect match

Column I Column II (1) Testicular lobules in each testis  250
(A) Myasthenia gravis (i) Wild contractions for
(2) Number of primary follicles in each ovary at
prolonged period due
puberty  6000 to 8000
to Ca++ in blood
(B) Tetany (ii) Affects (3) Sperm count in healthy male per ejaculate 
neuromuscular 200 to 300 million
junction and results
(4) Mammary lobes in each breast  15 to 20
in muscle paralysis
(C) Muscular dystrophy (iii) Increased uric acid 164. Read the following statements and choose the
levels in blood and correct option
joints
Statement A: Secretion of milk is inhibited in a
(D) Gout (iv) Degeneration of non-pregnant female by the action of PIH.
skeletal muscles
Statement B: Pitocin is administered to female
A B C D
who are unable to eject milk.
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) Both the statements are correct
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) Only statement A is correct
158. Complete the analogy respect to joints
(4) Only statement B is correct
Saddle joint : Between carpal and metacarpal of
thumb : : Hinge joint :______ 165. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Between femur and acetabulum option that correctly represents the true and false
ones
(2) Between femur and tibia
(3) Between atlas and axis (i) Inbreeding depression can be corrected by
(4) Between occipital condyle and atlas outcrossing.

159. Read the following statements w.r.t. central nervous (ii) In MOET fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stage
system of human and choose the correct option are surgically recovered
(a) Inner most layer of meninx, duramater is thin (iii) More than 70% of the world livestock
and fibrous population is in India and China.
(b) Ventricles lined by ependyma
(iv) Poultry birds exclusively grown for meat are
(c) Optocoel connected to metacoel
called roosters.
(d) Vasomotor centre in medulla oblongata
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b only (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) b, c and d (4) b and d only (1) T F T F
160. Estrogen in females is produced by (2) T T T F
(1) Sertoli cell, Graafian follicle, Corpus luteum (3) T F F T
(2) Anterior pituitary, Placenta, Corpus luteum (4) F F T F
(3) Corpus luteum, Placenta, Graafian follicle
(4) Theca externa, Membrana granulosa, Placenta 166. The disease in which the pathogenic infection
produces haemozoin granules resulting in high fever
161. If the menstrual cycle of a lady is of 40 days, then
in the body is
ovulation takes place on the
(1) 21st day (2) 20th day (1) Filariasis (2) Ascariasis
(3) 26th day (4) 14th day (3) Amoebiasis (4) Malaria
162. Mife-pristone is chemically 167. Choose the odd one with respect to auto-immune
(1) Anti-estrogen and anti-progesterone disorder
(2) Anti-androgen and anti-gonadotropin
(1) IDDM (2) Addison’s disease
(3) Anti-gonadotropin only
(3) Cretinism (4) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Anti-progesterone only
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Test-15 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
168. Darwin’s finches is an example of 174. The correct sequence of steps in PCR
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (1) Denaturation  Annealing  Extension
(3) Parallel evolution (4) Artificial selection (2) Dehydration  Annealing  Extension
169. How many of the structures given in the box are (3) Annealing  Degeneration  Denaturation
vestigeal organs in humans?
(4) Extension  Denaturation Annealing
Nictitating membrane, Ear pinna, Gall bladder, 175. The most accepted line of descent in human
evolution is
Appendix, Wisdom teeth
(1) Australopithecus  Homo erectus  Homo
(1) 5 (2) 4 habilis  Homo sapiens
(3) 3 (4) 2 (2) Homo erectus  Homo habilis  Homo
170. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus neanderthalensis  Homo sapiens
thuringiensis is (3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo
(1) Acidic pH of the stomach of insect erectus  Homo sapiens
(2) Alkaline pH of the gut of Bollworm (4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo
habilis Homo sapiens
(3) Neutralising pH of the toxin in the gut
176. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of
(4) The increase in temperature of the toxin in the M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively. The
gut expected frequency of MN blood group bearing
171. Match the following organisms is likely to be
Column I Column II (1) 42%
(A) -1 antitrypsin (i) SCID (2) 96%
(B) C-peptide (ii) Emphysema (3) 58%
(C) Human lactalbumin (iii) Rosie (4) 49%
(D) ADA deficiency (iv) Proinsulin 177. Choose the incorrect match
A B C D (1) First non cellular form of life – 3 bya
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) First cellular form of life – 2 bya
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (3) Fish like reptiles – 200 mya
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) Ramapithecus – 1.2 mya
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 178 Antibodies present in colostrum
172. Choose the incorrect statement (1) IgG
(1) CaCl2 increases the efficiency of DNA uptake (2) IgA
to produce transformed bacterial cell.
(3) IgD
(2) Restriction endonuclease cut DNA strands of
the double helix in their Hydrogen backbones (4) IgE
(3) RNAi technique can be used to block the 179 The cancer of brain and glands respectively is
expression of Meloidogyne incognita in tobacco (1) Sarcoma and glioma
(4) DNA fragments appears bright orange colour in (2) Carcinoma and lymphoma
agarose gel in presence of EtBr.
(3) Glioma and adenoma
173. If a DNA fragment is cut by EcoRI at a specific
recognition site then (4) Myeloma and carcinoma

(1) Blunt-end cannot be obtained 180. ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from

(2) Sticky-ends cannot be obtained (1) Latex of Papaver somniferum
(3) Construction of rDNA would not be possible (2) Dried leaves of Cannabis sativa
(4) The plasmid with one site get cut into two (3) Latex of hemp plant
fragments (4) Dried flowers of poppy plant

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