13/10/2024 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Complete Syllabus Test for RM Time : 200 Min.

For NEET 2025

Topics Covered:
Physics : Complete Syllabus of XI
Chemistry : Complete Syllabus of XI
Botany : Complete Syllabus of XI
Zoology : Complete Syllabus of XI

General Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10
questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered /
unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS SECTION-A

1. Stress versus strain graph of two wires A and B made up 2.

A force of ˆ
(−3k) N acts at origin. Its torque about point
of different materials is shown in the figure. If YA and YB
are the respective moduli of elasticity, then (2, –2, 0) m is

(A) ˆ ˆ
−6( i + j ) Nm

(B) ˆ ˆ
6( i − j )Nm

(C) 6(− î + ĵ ) Nm

(D) ˆ ˆ
6( i + j ) Nm

(A) 16YA = 9YB

(B) YA = 3YB

(C) 9YA = 16YB

(D) YA = 9YB

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

3. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on smooth rigid surface. 7. An ideal gas is obeying a law P2V = constant. If gas is
→
F
→
, F
→
and F are forces acting on a it as shown in expanded to 2V0, then final temperature of gas is (Take
1 2 3

figure. The acceleration of block is initial volume and temperature of gas as V0 and T0
respectively)
T0
(A)
√2

(B) –
√2T0

(C) 2T0

(D)
T0

8. Three identical rods are joined in the shape of Y as

(A) 20 ms–2 shown in figure. What is the junction temperature(θ)?

(B) 30 ms–2

(C) 40 ms–2

(D) Zero
(A) 40°C
4. The equation of continuity of an ideal fluid flow in a tube
is based on (B) 30°C
(A) Law of conservation of mass (C) 36°C
(B) Law of conservation of area (D) 44°C
(C) Law of conservation of energy 9. Four particles, each of mass 2 kg are placed at vertices of
(D) Law of conservation of momentum a square of side 2√– 2 m. The potential at the centre of the

square is
5. A string is fixed between two rigid support. Mass per unit
length of the string is λ. Now the tension in the wire is (A) –G
decreased by 19%. The percentage decrease in (B) –2G
frequency will be
–
(C) −4√2G
(A) 21%
(D) –4G
(B) 10%
(C) 19% 10. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius R about
an axis passing through its diameter is I. The sphere is
(D) 11% melted and recast into a circular disc of thickness . The
R

6. The different positions of a planet around the sun in an moment of inertia of this disc about an axis perpendicular
elliptical orbit are shown by A, B and C. If v1, v2 and v3 to plane and passing through its centre of mass is
be the tangential speeds of the planet at A, B & C (A) 5I
respectively, then
(B) 3.5I
(C) 4I
(D) 2.5I

11. An object of mass m fully immersed in a liquid of density σ

if the object is made up of density ρ. The object in the
liquid is
(A) mg
(A) v1 = v2 = v3 (B) Zero

(B) v1 > v2 > v3 (C) mg (1 −

ρ

σ
)

(C) v1 < v2 < v3

(D) mg (1 −
σ

ρ
)

(D) v1 = v2 > v3

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

12. The moment of inertia of a wheel which is having rim of 18. A ball thrown vertically with velocity v attains a maximum
mass 20 M and twenty spokes each of mass M and length height of h. In order to double the height attained, the
L about its axis is velocity of the ball should be

(A)
40 2
ML
(A) 2v
3

(B) 3v
(B) 50

3
2
ML

(C) –
√3v

(C) 20
ML
2

3
(D) –
√2v

(D)
80 2

3
ML
19. Consider two samples of oxygen and hydrogen at room
temperature. As compared to hydrogen molecule, an
13. Moment of inertia of uniform circular disc passing through oxygen molecule hits the wall
periphery and perpendicular to plane is (if moment of
inertia along the diameter is I) (A) With greater average speed

(A) 6I (B) With smaller average speed

(B) I (C) With greater average kinetic energy

(C) 2I (D) With smaller average kinetic energy

(D)
I 20. For a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion, the
square of velocity (v2) is plotted against square of
6

14. The dimensional formula of specific heat capacity is displacement (x)2. The graph obtained will be
(A) [LT–2 K–2] (A) A parabola
(B) [L3T–1K–1] (B) An ellipse

(C) [L2T–2K–1] (C) A straight line

(D) A circle
(D) [L3T–2K–2]
21. If amplitude of oscillations of a simple pendulum is
15. A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without motion increased by 20%, then percentage change in its
on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is at one end and maximum kinetic energy will be
move to other end of boat and stops. The displacement of
(A) 20%
boat is
(B) 10%
(A) 1.5 m in the direction of displacement of man
(B) 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of man (C) 40%

1.5 m in the direction opposite to displacement of (D) 44%

(C)
man 22. Two trains A and B, each of length 250 m are moving on
0.75 m in the direction opposite to displacement of parallel tracks at 90 km/h and 72 km/h respectively in the
(D) same direction. Initially train A is 1 km behind the train B.
man
The time after which train A completely overtakes train B
16. If the temperature of a body increases by 2% then is
calculate the percentage increase in the power radiated
by the body (A) 240 minute

(A) 8% (B) 30 minute

(C) 5 minute
(B) 6%
(C) 2% (D) 5 second

(D) 12% 23. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 10 minutes, when kept
in air at 20°C. In the next 10 minutes its temperature will
17. Consider the process on an ideal gas as shown in figure. be
The work done by the system is
(A) Below 30°C
(B) 30°C
(C) Above 30°C
(D) 22°C

(A) First positive then negative

(B) Always positive
(C) Always negative
(D) First negative then positive

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

24. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by 30. In uniform circular motion which of the following quantity
→ is zero?
ˆ ˆ
r = (r0 cos ωt i + r0 sin ωt j ) m, where ω and r0 are
constants and t is time in second. Choose the correct (A) Change in magnitude of acceleration
statement. (B) Magnitude of change in velocity
→ (C) Change in magnitude of velocity
(A) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
directed towards the origin (D) Both (1) & (3)
Acceleration and velocity are both perpendicular to 31. Kepler's second law is based on
(B) →
r
(A) Newton's second law
(C) Acceleration and velocity are both parallel to →
r (B) Special theory of relativity

→ (C) Stefan law

(D) Acceleration is perpendicular to r and velocity is
directed towards the origin (D) Conservation of angular momentum

25. If pressure of an ideal gas contained in a closed vessel is 32. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on the ground and is acted
increased by 2%, then temperature of the gas is changed upon by a pulling force of 100 N at an angle of 37° with
by the horizontal. Calculate the contact force between block
and the ground
(A) 1%
(A) 10 N
(B) 2%
(B) 20 N
(C) 4%
(C) Zero
(D) No change
(D) 16 N
26. A particle executing simple harmonic motion along x-axis
is given by the equation x = 3 + 2 sinωt. The amplitude of 33. Statement (A): Every periodic motion is simple harmonic
SHM is motion.
Statement (B): The periodic motion governed by the
(A) 3 force law F = kx is simple harmonic motion (where k is
(B) 2 positive constant)

(C) 5 (A) Only statement(A) is correct

(D) 1 (B) Only statement (B) is correct

(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
27. The SI unit of "Angular Impulse'' is
(A) Newton second (D) Neither A nor B are correct

(B) Joule [second]–2

(C) Joule [second]–1

(D) Newton metre second

28. On increasing temperature the surface tension.

(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains same
(D) First increases then decreases

29. At what temperature, the speed of sound in nitrogen gas

will be same as that of sound in oxygen gas at 127°C
(A) 77° C
(B) 97° C
(C) 127° C
(D) 350° C

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

34. A plank of mass 2m and length L is at rest on a

frictionless horizontal floor. At one end of it, a child of
mass m is standing as shown in figure. If child walks and
reaches the other end, then the distance travelled by the
child w.r.t ground will be

(A) L

(B) L

(C) 2L

(D) 3L

35. In a thermodynamic system, internal energy decreases by

300 J when it is doing 350 J of work. What net heat is
taken by system in the process?
(A) 150 J
(B) 650 J
(C) 100 J
(D) 50 J

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

SECTION-B

36. If the acceleration of block A is 2 m/s2, then the 40. In the given V-T graph, what is the relation between
acceleration of block B is (If all the surface are smooth) pressures P1 and P2?

(A) 1 m/s2

(B) 2 m/s2

(C) 3 m/s2

(D) 4 m/s2
(A) P1 = P2
37. The thermal stress of a aluminium cylinder clamp
between the rigid support on increasing the temperature (B) P1 > P2
by 50 K is (Take Y = 7 × 1010 Pa and α = 2.4 × 10–5 K–1) (C) P1 < P2
(D) Cannot be predicted
(A) 8.4 × 105 Pa
41. Liquid rises in capillary tube when angle of contact θ is
(B) 8.4 × 107 Pa
(A) π

2
< θ < π

(C) 4.2 × 105 Pa

(B) 0 < θ <
π

(D) 4.2 × 107 Pa

(C)
π
θ =
2

38. Choose the incorrect statement among the followings

(D) θ = π

Force of gravitation follows Newton’s third law of

(A) 42. ABC is a semicircle. Work done in process ABC is
motion
(B) Law of gravitation cannot explain why gravity exists
(C) Gravitational force is central force
For large distances, gravitational force becomes
(D)
repulsive
39. The angular speed of a body of moment of inertia I
changes according to expression ω = 4(t – t2). The torque
τ acting on it changes with time t according to the graph

(A) (A) Zero

(B)
π
P0 V0
4

(C)
π
P0 V0
2

(B) (D) P0V0

43. The mean free path of molecules of an ideal gas of

diameter d is proportional to
(A) d
(C)
(B) d–1

(C) d0

(D) d–2
(D)

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

44. If radius of earth is R then the height ‘h’ from the surface 48. Thickness of a cylinder measured using a screw gauge of
at which the value of ‘g’ becomes one-fourth of its value least count 0.01 cm is found to be equal to 0.80 cm. The
on surface is percentage error in measurement is
(A) R (A) 2.5%

(B)
R (B) 1.25%
4

(C) 5%
(C) 4 R
(D) 0.5%
(D) 2 R
49. Three forces are acting on a sphere as shown in the
45. The time period of a simple pendulum on surface of earth figure. The net torque acting on the sphere about centre
and moon are 3.5 s and 8.4 s respectively. If the O will be
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is 9.8
m/s2, then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
of moon is
(A) 1.7 m/s2

(B) 2.4 m/s2

(C) 4.9 m/s2

(D) 3.7 m/s2

(A) (F + F cos θ + F cos ϕ) R

46. The shaft of a motor is making 1000 rpm. The torque

(B) (F + F sin θ + F cos ϕ) R
supplied by the motor is 120 N m. The power supplied by
the motor is (C) 3FR
(A) 21 kW
(D)
2
FR
3

(B) 100 kW
50. A rider on horse falls backward when horse starts running
(C) 4.8 kW all of a sudden because of
(D) 12.56 kW (A) Inertia of motion
47. Torque acting on rod about the axis, as shown, is (B) Inertia of direction
(C) Inertia of rest
(D) Both (1) and (2)

(A) 5 N m
(B) 10 N m
–
(C) 5√3N m

–
(D) 10√3N m

7
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

CHEMISTRY SECTION-A

51. Bonds present in NH4Cl is/are 58. The strongest Lewis acid among the following is

(A) Covalent and coordinate only (A) BF3

(B) Covalent, ionic and coordinate (B) BCl3
(C) Only covalent (C) BBr3
(D) Only ionic
(D) BI3
52. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C and D with
59. Arrange following in the order of decreasing acidic
NaOH are –10.5, –13.7, – 5.9 and –12.7 kcal eq–1 character
respectively. Out of A, B, C and D strongest acid is
methanol, ethane, acetylene, ethene

(A) C (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) A
(A) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii)
(C) D
(B) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(D) B
(C) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
53. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the (D) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
sequence
60. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?
(A) Ga < In < Al < Tl
(A) Electron
(B) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(B) Neutron
(C) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(C) Proton
(D) In < Tl < Ga < Al
(D) Alpha particle
54. Catenation is not shown by
61. Match list I with list II.
(A) C
(B) Si List I List II (Oxidation state of
(Species) underlined atom)
(C) Ge
a. PO
3−
(i) +7
(D) Pb ¯
¯¯
4

55. How many carbon atoms are present in 3.42 g of cane b. HIO4 (ii) +6
sugar (C12H22O11)?
c. F2O (iii) +5
(A) 0.12
d. CrO5 (iv) –1
(B) 7.2 × 1022
Choose the correct option.
(C) 7.2 ×1024 (A) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(D) 0.36 (B) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
56. Which of the following molecules contains equal number (C) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
of σ and π -bonds?
(D) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(A) XeO2F2
62. Which of these statements is correct according to VBT?
(B) POCl3 Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of two half-
(A) filled atomic orbitals containing electrons with same
(C) SOCI2
spin
(D) SO3 Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of two half-
(B) filled atomic orbitals containing electrons in opposite
57. The total number of electrons in 6 g of 2−
is (NA is the
CO
3 spin
Avogadro’s number)
Covalent bond is formed by complete overlap of two
(A) 3.2 NA (C) fully filled atomic orbitals containing electrons in
opposite spin
(B) 2.0 NA
Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of two fully
(C) 0.1 NA (D) filled atomic orbitals containing electrons in opposite
spin
(D) 1.6 NA

8
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

63. Molecule having distorted octahedral shape is 70. In which of the following species, central atom is having
incomplete octet?
(A) XeF6
(A) BH3
(B) XeO3
(B) CH4
(C) XeOF4
(C) BF
−

(D) XeO2F2
4

(D) AlC l
−

64. The IUPAC symbol for the element having atomic number 4

106 is 71. The molecular mass of CaSO4.2H2O is (At. mass of Ca =

(A) Unq 40, S = 32)

(B) Unh (A) 190 u

(C) Unb (B) 240 u

(D) Une (C) 172 u

65. If 2-oxopropanal and methanal are obtained by the (D) 120 u

reductive ozonolysis of compound (A), then the number
72. Which of the following species contains only π-bond(s)?
of σ-bonds presents in (A) is
(A) 10 (A) O2+

(B) 11 (B) CN–

(C) 12
(C) F2
(D) 13
(D) C2
66. n-hexane on heating to 500°C at 10-20 atm pressure in
the presence of vanadium pentoxide supported over 73. A : H3PO2 is a stronger reducing agent than H3PO4.
alumina gives R : H3PO2 has no OH group.
(A) Cyclohexene Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
(B) Benzene the correct explanation of the assertion

(C) Hexene–1–ene Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) Hex-2-ene
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
67. E° of cell reaction,
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Cu (s) + I2 (s) → Cu
2+
(aq) + 2I
−
(aq) , is
74. THF
(i) B2 H6 ⋅
o o
(E = 0 .34 V and E = 0 .54 V)
Cu
2+
/ Cu
−
I2 /I CH3 – CH = C H2 −−−−−−−−→A
–
(ii) H2 O2 / OH

(A) –0.2 V
Product A is
(B) 0.88 V
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CHO
(C) 0.2 V
(B) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(D) 0.14 V
68. The atomic orbitals used for filling in sixth period of (C)
periodic table are
(A) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f
(B) 6s, 6p, 4d, 5f (D)

(C) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p

75. Which quantum number gives information about spatial
(D) 6s, 6p, 6d, 5f orientation of the orbital with respect to standard set of co-
69. Number of moles of Cr O required to oxidize one mole
2− ordinate axes?
2 7

of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be (A) Principal quantum number
(A) 2 (B) Azimuthal quantum number

(B) 1 (C) Magnetic orbital quantum number

3

(D) Spin quantum number

(C) 1

(D) 1

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

76. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is 80. Compound having maximum number of hyperconjugative
followed by a statement of reason (R). structures is
Assertion (A) : The second Ionisation enthalphy of an
element will be lesser than the first Ionisation enthalphy. (A)
Reason (R) : It is more easier to remove an electron from
a positively charged ion than from the neutral atom.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer.
Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct (B)
(A)
explanation of the (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct
(B)
explanation of the (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
77. The enthalpy change for the reaction,
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(ℓ) is (Enthalpies of
formation of CH4, CO2 and H2O are –74.8, –393.5, –
286.2 kJ /mol respectively) (D)
(A) –790.2 kJ /mol
(B) –891.1 kJ/mol
(C) –604.9 kJ/mol 81. A molecule contains 8% sulphur by mass. Minimum
molecular mass of the molecule will be
(D) –820 kJ/mol
(A) 200 u
78. For which of the following molecules μ(Dipole moment)
is/are non-zero? (B) 400 u
(C) 600 u
(D) 800 u

82. 3.42 g of sucrose contains

(A) 1.5 NA atoms

(B) 0.45 NA atoms

(C) 2.1 NA atoms

(D) 5.54 NA atoms

83. The incorrect statement about hybridization is

The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number
(A)
of the atomic orbitals that get hybridised
(A) Only (A)
The hybridised orbitals are similar in shape but
(B) Both (A) & (B) (B)
different in energy
(C) Only (C) The hybrid orbitals are more effective in forming
(C)
(D) Both (C) & (D) stable bonds than the pure atomic orbitals

79. A solution is prepared by adding 90 g glucose in 180 g The type of hybridisation indicates the geometry of
(D)
water. The mole fraction of glucose in the solution is the molecule/ions

(A) 10

21

(B) 1

16

(C) 1

15

(D) 1

21

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

84. Among the following, pair of elements belonging to same

period is
(A) Z = 35 and Z = 38
(B) Z = 28 and Z = 38
(C) Z = 55 and Z = 77
(D) Z = 86 and Z = 96

85. Assertion (A) : Boron cannot form [BF ]3–.

6
Reason (R) : Maximum covalency of B is 4 due to the
absence of vacant d-orbitals.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

SECTION-B

86. Empirical formula and molecular formula is same for 92. Appearance of blood red colour in Lassaigne’s test
shows the presence of
(A) CH3COOH
(A) Only nitrogen
(B) H3PO4
(B) Only sulphur
(C) H2C2O4 (C) Both nitrogen and sulphur
(D) H2S2O8 (D) Halogen
87. 93. The neutral oxide of nitrogen is
The IUPAC name of is (A) N2O5

(B) N2O
(A) 3-ketobutanal
(C) N2O3
(B) 4-oxo-butan-2-one
(C) 3-formyl propanone (D) NO2

(D) Butan-1, 4-dione 94. Compounds required for the formation as well as
termination of linear polymeric silicone respectively are
88. The incorrect statement according to Dalton's atomic
theory is (A) CH3SiCl3 and Si(CH3)4

Matter is made up of externally small, indivisible (B) SiCl4 and Si(CH3)4

(A)
particles called atoms
(C) CH3SiCl3 and CH3SiCl3
(B) Atoms of a given elements are identical in all respect
(D) (CH3)2SiCl2 and (CH3)3SiCl
Atoms of different elements are different in all
(C)
respects 95. The formal charge on the central oxygen atom in the
Atoms can be created as well as destroyed in a
(D) structure is
chemical reaction
89. If mole fraction of glucose in its aqueous solution is 0.02
(A) +1
then molality of this solution is
(A) 1.1 m (B) 0

(B) 0.02 m (C) –1

(D) +2
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 2.7 m 96. The formula of an oxide of metal M is M2O3. The formula
of its nitride will be
90. Assertion : Combustion of one mole of methane gives 44
g of CO2 and 36 g of water. (A) M3N2
Reason : For the combustion of one mole methane, five (B) MN
moles of O2 is consumed.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (C) M2N3
option.
(D) M3N
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) 97. The general electronic configuration of p-block elements
the correct explanation of the assertion
is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (A) ns1–2np0–6
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(B) ns0np1–6
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(C) ns2np0–6
91. For the following reaction
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) ⟶ 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) (D) ns2np1–6
The sign of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG respectively would be
(A) –, –, +
(B) –, +, –
(C) –, +, +
(D) +, –, +

12
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

98. Which of the following mixture is a buffer solution? 100.How many moles of ferric oxalate will react with one mole
of KMnO4 in acidic medium?
(A) NaCl + NaOH
(A) 6
(B) HCl + NH4Cl
(B) 5
(C) CH3COOH + HCl
(C)
1

(D) NH4OH + NH4Cl 6

99. The reagent required for the following conversion is (D) 5

(A) Na/Liquid NH3

(B) Zn/HCl

(C) LiAlH4

(D) H2, Pd/C, quinoline

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Complete Syllabus Test for RM

BOTANY SECTION-A

101.Between which of the two phases of cell cycle of an 107.A few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells
animal cell, duplication of centriole occurs? become specialised in their shape and size, are known
as
(A) M and G1
(A) Subsidiary cells
(B) G2 and M
(B) Complementary cells
(C) G1 and G2
(C) Bulliform cells
(D) S and M (D) Passage cells
102.Increased vacuolation is a feature of cells of which of the 108.The aleurone layer is
following growth phase in plants?
(A) Proteinaceous in nature
(A) Phase of cell division
(B) A part of embryo
(B) Phase of elongation
(C) Found in gram seeds
(C) Phase of differentiation
(D) Inner covering of endosperm fused with embryo
(D) Phase of maturation
109.Widely accepted fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
103.Hardness of seed coats of legumes is due to was proposed by
(A) Sclereids (A) Schleiden and Schwann
(B) Collenchyma (B) Robert Hooke
(C) Parenchyma (C) Singer and Nicolson
(D) Sclerenchyma fibres (D) Robert Brown
104.Choose the odd one out w.r.t. function of pericycle. 110.The gritty texture in guava fruit is due to the abundance of
(A) May act as storage organ
(B) Forms lateral roots (A) Sclereids

(C) Forms vascular cambium during secondary growth (B) Suberin deposition in fruit wall

(D) Gives rise to root hair (C) Sclerenchyma fibres

105.Find out the correct sequence of events of meiosis – I. (D) Parenchyma tissues
A. Condensation of chromatin material 111. Kinetochores are
B. Separation of non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes towards the opposite poles (A) Terminal ends of the chromosomes
C. Degeneration of nuclear membrane
The structures that hold two chromatids of a
D. Crossing over (B)
chromosome
(A) A→B→C→D
The parts of chromosomes beyond the secondary
(C)
(B) A→D→C→B constriction
(C) A→D→B→C (D) The disc shaped structures on the side of centromere
(D) C→A→B→D 112.Coralloid roots are found in
106.Read the following statements and choose the correct (A) Pinus
option.
(B) Sequoia
Statement A: The spread of living pteridophytes is
limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions. (C) Cycas
Statement B: Unicellular, free-living, mostly
photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte of pteridophytes is (D) All gymnosperms
called prothallus. 113.Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary with swollen
(A) Only statement A is correct placenta are characteristic features of

(B) Only statement B is correct (A) Aloe

(C) Both the statements are correct (B) Ashwagandha

(D) Both the statements are incorrect (C) Trifolium

(D) Soyabean

14
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

114.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma membrane. 120.Lichens are symbiotic association of
Proteins embedded in membrane are intrinsic (A) Algae and fungi
(A)
proteins
(B) Algae and bacteria
(B) Phospholipid head is polar in nature
(C) Archaebacteria and fungi
(C) Phospholipid tails are hydrophilic
(D) Bacterium with roots of plants
Proteins present on the surface are peripheral
(D) 121.Which of the given symbols is used in floral formula to
proteins
represent epipetalous stamens?
115.Ancestor of all multicellular eukaryotes are
(A)
(A) Protozoans
(B)
(B) Protistans
(C) Fungi (C) C(n)

(D) Cyanobacteria (D)

116.Read the following statements and choose the correct 122.Which of the following may be called ‘starch sheath’?
option.
Assertion (A) : Leaves originate from shoot apical (A) Pericycle of stem
meristems. (B) Epiblema of root
Reason (R) : Leaves are arranged in an acropetal
manner on stem (C) Endodermis of stem

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (D) Hypodermis of stem
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
123.Which of the following types of placentation is found in
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is Dianthus?
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
117.What will be the amount of DNA in each meiosis II
product if the mother cell has 40 pg of DNA in G2 phase?

(A) 10 pg
(B) 20 pg
(C) 40 pg
(D) 80 pg
118.The infectious agent that cause tobacco mosaic disease
has the genetic material
(A) ss RNA
(B) ds RNA (A) (a)

(C) ss DNA (B) (b)

(D) ds DNA (C) (c)

(D) (d)
119.Meiosis II is said to be similar to mitosis, however the two
differ in some aspects like 124.Bacterial cells may be motile or non-motile. If motile,
a. In meiosis II, the two daughter cells formed from each which of the following structures help in their motility?
cell are generally genetically different.
b. Meiosis II occurs in haploid cells only. (A) Pili
c. Synaptonemal complex is formed in meiosis II. (B) Fimbriae
d. Centromere does not split in meiosis II.
The correct statements are (C) Flagella
(A) a and d (D) Cilia
(B) b and c 125.Select the wrong statement about chemoautotrophic
bacteria.
(C) a and b
(A) They do not have photosynthetic pigments
(D) b and d
(B) They use light as energy source for synthesizing food
(C) They oxidise certain inorganic substances
They play a great role in recycling of nutrients like
(D)
nitrogen

15
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

126.Which is incorrect about compound leaf? 132.Member of angiospermic family that includes colchicine
producing plant
(A) Lamina is completely broken into distinct leaflets
(A) Produce non-endospermous seeds
(B) Incision of lamina reaches upto the midrib
Have tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium with axile
(C) Midrib forms a common axis called rachis (B)
placentation
(D) Bud is present in the axil of leaflets (C) Lack cymose inflorescence
127.Dicot leaf is similar to monocot leaf as both show Are characterised by presence of zygomorphic
(D)
(A) Presence of more stomata on abaxial surface flowers

(B) Presence of mesophyll cells 133.Choose odd one w.r.t the presence of nucleus.
(C) Presence of palisade parenchyma (A) Mature Sieve tube cell
(D) Presence of reticulate venation (B) Nerve cell

128.Tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary and axile (C) Mesophyll cell

placentation are found in family. (D) White blood cell
(A) Solanaceae
134.In two kingdom system of classification, algae and fungi
(B) Liliaceae are placed in the same kingdom. This inclusion indicates
that the two kingdom system does not distinguish
(C) Fabaceae between
(D) Brassicaceae (A) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
129.Epigynous flowers are seen in (B) Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms
(A) Guava (C) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms
(B) Mustard (D) Cellular and acellular organism
(C) Chinarose 135.Select the mismatched pair.
(D) Plum (A) Lycopsida – Selaginella
130.Which of the following is found in all green plants? (B) Sphenopsida – Equisetum
(A) Kranz anatomy (C) Pteropsida – Adiantum
(B) Calvin cycle (D) Psilopsida – Dryopteris
(C) Double carboxylation
(D) Scotoactive stomata
131.When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
another, but not in any particular direction, the aestivation
is said to be
(A) Vexillary
(B) Imbricate
(C) Twisted
(D) Valvate

16
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

SECTION-B

136.The symbol which is not correct w. r. t. floral formula is 142.In animal cells, detoxification of drugs and steroid
synthesis are associated to
(A) %
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) −
G
− (1)

(B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Microbodies
(C)
(D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
143.The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase of Krebs cycle is
(D) found

137.Slime moulds show similarity with plants and animals as (A) In soluble state in matrix of mitochondria

They have cell wall composed of peptidoglycan and (B) Attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane
(A)
do not reproduce asexually (C) In the intermembrane space
They don’t have cell wall at any stage of life and show (D) Attached to the outer mitochondrial membrane
(B)
heterotrophic mode of nutrition
144.The function of fimbriae in bacteria is
They have cellulosic cell wall in their spores and
(C) (A) To help in attachment to host tissues or to rocks
main body plasmodium is without cell wall
They have cell wall composed of chitin in spores and (B) Motility
(D)
main body lacks cell wall
(C) DNA replication
138.Read the following statements and choose the correct (D) Secretion process
option.
Assertion : Root cap protects the tender apex of the root. 145.The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as
Reason : Root hair increases the surface area for
absorbtion of water and minerals from the soil. (A) Phyllotaxy

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (B) Inflorescence
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (C) Placentation
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (D) Aestivation
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
146.Which of the following is not a product/ intermediate,
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false produced in the photosynthesis reaction?
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(A) O2
139.Select the incorrect match from the following.
(B) Glucose
(A) ⊕ – Actinomorphic flower (C) NADH
(B) C – Calyx (D) ATP
(C) % – Zygomorphic flower
147.Leaf A has area of 5 cm2 and leaf B has area of 50 cm2.
(D) Ḡ – Inferior ovary
Both leaves show an increase of 10 cm2 in their area
140.Calvin cycle in maize plant after 72 hours. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(A) Occurs in mesophyll cells
(A) Absolute growth of both leaves are different
(B) Occurs in bundle sheath cells
(B) Both the leaves have lateral meristem at their tip
(C) Involve PEPcase enzyme
(C) Relative growth of leaf ‘A’ is higher than that of B
(D) Doesn’t involve the regeneration of RuBP
(D) Relative growth of both leaves are equal
141.During photosynthesis, initial carboxylation reaction in C3
148.Which of the following is not a component of ground
and C4 plants occurs in
tissue system?
(A) Mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells respectively (A) Hypodermis
(B) Bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells respectively (B) Medullary rays
(C) Mesophyll cells (C) Cortex
(D) Bundle sheath cells (D) Vascular bundles

17
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

149.In which of the given plants flowers are asymmetric?

(a) Canna
(b) Cassia
(c) Bean
(d) Mustard
(e) Datura
Choose the correct one(s).
(A) Only (b)
(B) Both (c) and (e)
(C) Both (d) and (e)
(D) Only (a)
150.Slime moulds
(A) Are autotrophs
(B) Produce spores under unfavourable conditions
(C) Lack cell wall throughout the life cycle
(D) Are unicellular prokaryotes

18
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

ZOOLOGY SECTION-A

151.Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of 157.Read the following statements and select the correct
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? option.
Statement A: Fibres of muscular tissue exhibit excitability
(A) Thrombokinase
and contractility.
(B) Thrombin Statement B: All cells of nervous tissue exhibit
excitability and conductivity.
(C) Renin
(A) Both statements A and B are correct
(D) Epinephrine
(B) Both statements A and B are incorrect
152.Which of the following connective tissues has transport
functions? (C) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

(A) Loose connective tissue (D) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

(B) Dense irregular connective tissue 158.Select the correct option w.r.t. ribs.

(C) Fluid connective tissue (A) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are not bicephalic.
(D) Dense regular connective tissue th th
(B) 11 and 12 pairs of ribs are connected to sternum
153.Which type of blood contains anti B-antibodies in the indirectly.
plasma and lacks ‘Rh’ group antigens?
Each rib is connected dorsally to sternum and
(C)
(A) ‘AB' negative ventrally to vertebral column.

(B) ‘A’ negative There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, 3 pairs of

(D)
vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
(C) 'B' negative
159.Mosaic vision in cockroach is characterised by
(D) ‘O’ positive
(A) Less sensitivity, more resolution
154.Read the following statements and select the correct
option. (B) Less sensitivity, less resolution
Statement-I : Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs between (C) More sensitivity, less resolution
Rh+ve mother and Rh –ve foetus after first pregnancy.
Statement-II : Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by (D) More sensitivity, more resolution
administering Rh antigens to mother immediately after
delivery of first child in all cases. 160.Which of the following is allergic disorder of respiratory
system in which, the patient feels difficulty in breathing
(A) Both statements are correct causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles?
(B) Only statement-II is correct
(C) Only statement-I is correct (A) Asthma

(D) Both statements are incorrect (B) Silicosis

(C) Emphysema
155.The contraction of atria increases blood flow into
ventricles by about (D) Occupational respiratory disorder
(A) 20% 161.Residual volume is not equal to
(B) 30% (A) TLC – VC
(C) 40% (B) FRC – ERV
(D) 50% (C) VC – [IRV + ERV]
156.Biomolecule which produces blue colour with I2 is (D) TLC – [IC + ERV]

(A) Cellulose 162.Following is a representation of an enzymatic reaction

E

(B) Glycogen S−G+S

′
→ S+S
′
−G

Select the correct option which represents E for above

(C) Starch
reaction
(D) Inulin (A) Lyase
(B) Ligase
(C) Transferase
(D) Isomerase

19
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

163.A nucleotide contains. 170.Select the correct pair where Nissl's granules are found
(A) Pentose sugar only (A) Axon and dendrites
(B) Pentose sugar and nitrogenous base only (B) Cell body and dendrites
Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate (C) Cyton and axon
(C)
moiety
(D) Cyton and nucleus
(D) Nitrogenous base + PO
−3
only
4
171.Read the following statements and choose the correct
164.Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.
option. Statement A : Red muscle fibres contain plenty of
mitochondria as well as sarcoplasmic reticulum which
Column I Column II
can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for
a. Triglyceride (i) Glycosidic bond ATP production.
b. Cellulose (ii) Phosphodiester bond Statement B : White muscle fibres contain very less
c. Collagen (iii) Peptide bond quantity of myoglobin as well as sarcoplasmic reticulum.
d. Nucleic acid (iv) Ester bond (A) Only statement A is correct.

(A) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (B) Only statement B is correct.

(B) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (C) Both statements A and B are correct.

(C) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (D) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

(D) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 172.Right ventricle pumps X blood into Y .
¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯
Select the option to fill the blanks correctly.
165.Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is found in
(A) X – Oxygenated, Y – Pulmonary artery
(A) Proximal convoluted tubules of nephrons in kidney
(B) X – Deoxygenated, Y – Pulmonary vein
(B) Loop of Henle of the nephrons in the kidney
(C) X – Oxygenated, Y – Aorta
(C) Lining of stomach and intestine
(D) X – Deoxygenated, Y – Pulmonary artery
(D) Wall of Bowman’s capsule
173.Which of the following pairs of hormones have receptors
166.Choose the odd one w.r.t. absence of notochord in adult on the cell membrane of the target cells?
stage.
(A) Epinephrine, glucagon
(A) Ascidia
(B) Thyroxine, progesterone
(B) Salpa
(C) Insulin, cortisol
(C) Doliolum
(D) PRL, estradiol
(D) Branchiostoma
174.Choose the incorrect function w.r.t. mineralocorticoids.
167.All are characteristic features of phylum Platyhelminthes,
except (A) Control electrolyte and water balance of the body
(A) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (B) Increase blood level of Na+ and water
(B) Organ level organisation
(C) Decrease blood level of K+
(C) Presence of true segmentations
Generate anti-allergic and anti-inflammatory
(D) Presence of hooks and suckers (D)
responses
168.In skeletal muscle fibres, the ‘H’ zone is 175.All of the following are present in male cockroaches,
except
Present in ‘A’ band where actin filaments are not
(A)
present (A) Anal cerci
Present in ‘I’ band where myosin filaments are (B) Phallic glands
(B)
present
(C) Maxilla
(C) Present in both ‘A’ band and ‘I’ band
(D) Collaterial glands
Present in sarcomere where both actin and myosin
(D) 176.The part of renal tubule which is impermeable to water is
filaments are present
169.Cortical nephrons differ from juxtaglomerular nephrons in (A) Descending limb of loop of Henle
all of the following, except (B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(A) Their number (C) PCT
(B) Size of loop of Henle (D) Collecting duct
(C) Absence of vasa recta
(D) Presence of peritubular capillaries

20
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

177.All of the following are components of blood, except 182.Skeletal and cardiac muscle fibres can be differentiated
on the basis of all the features given below, except
(A) Erythrocytes
(A) Presence of striations
(B) Leucocytes
(B) Branched appearance
(C) Thrombocytes
(C) Involuntary nature
(D) Fibroblasts
(D) Presence of communication junctions
178.Choose the odd one w.r.t. flying birds.
183.Antennal glands help in removal of nitrogenous wastes in
(A) Columba and Psittacula
(B) Pavo and Neophron
(A) Spiders
(C) Corvus and Columba (B) Prawns
(D) Struthio and Aptenodytes
(C) Rotifers
179.A single ‘U’ shaped bone in the skull which does not (D) Earthworms
articulate directly with any other bone is
184.The microvilli present on the apical surface of the
(A) Mandible
columnar epithelium mainly
(B) Zygomatic (A) Increase the surface area for absorption
(C) Sphenoid
(B) Help in movement of particles
(D) Hyoid
(C) Act as receptors
180.Human lungs are covered by (D) Provide protection
(A) Single membrane pleura
185.Tunica intima of blood vessels is made up of
(B) Double membrane pleura (A) Connective tissue with collagen fibre
(C) Single membrane pericardium (B) Cuboidal epithelium
(D) Double membrane pericardium
(C) Columnar epithelium
181.In cockroach, brain is represented by (D) Squamous epithelium
(A) Supra-pharyngeal ganglion
(B) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(C) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
(D) Sub-pharyngeal ganglion

21
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

SECTION-B

186.Read the statements (A) and (B) w.r.t exothermic 192.Glomerular filtration occurs through filtration membrane
reactions and select the correct option which contains all of the following, except
(A) Energy content of substrate is lower than that of the
(A) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
product.
(B) External supply of energy is not required to form the (B) Endothelium of glomerular blood capillaries
product.
(C) Epithelial cells of efferent arteriole
(A) Both statements A and B are correct
(D) Basement membrane
(B) Both statements A and B are incorrect
193.Two strands in B-DNA are held together in their helical
(C) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect structure by
(D) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (A) Phosphodiester bonds
187.The epithelium which is made up of more than one layer (B) Ester bonds
of cells and their main function is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses is found in (C) Hydrogen bonds
inner lining of (D) Ether bonds
(A) Bronchi 194.The number of chambers of heart in amphibians is
(B) PCT of nephron
(A) One
(C) Stomach
(B) Two
(D) Pancreatic ducts (C) Three
188.Branchial respiration is shown by (D) Four
(A) Aquatic arthropods 195.Which of the following features is shared by both
(B) Flatworms Hemidactylus and Psittacula?
(C) Sponges (A) Completely four chambered heart
(D) Terrestrial reptiles (B) Pneumatic bones

189.Which of the following cell junctions permits the passage (C) Oviparous and show direct development
of ions between adjacent cells? (D) Poikilotherms
(A) Tight junction 196.Statocysts present in arthropods are used in/as
(B) Adhering junction
(A) Excretion
(C) Gap junction
(B) Respiration
(D) Zonula occludens (C) Balancing organs
190.Each kidney of an adult human measures A cm in (D) Feeding organ
length and B cm in width.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks A and B 197.All of the following are associated with control and
respectively coordination of different functions in Rana tigrina, except
(A) 5-7, 10-12 (A) Cerebrum
(B) 2-3, 5-7 (B) Spinal cord
(C) 10-12, 5-7 (C) Hormones
(D) 10-12, 2-3 (D) Pons
191.Choose the correct pathway of air during expiration. 198.'Emphysema' is a chronic disorder in which walls of
alveoli are damaged, as a result
Alveoli →Bronchi → Bronchioles → Pharynx
(A)
→ Nostrils (A) Respiratory surface area increases
Pharynx →Bronchi → Trachea → Alveoli (B) Vital capacity increases
(B)
→ Nostrils
(C) Respiratory surface area decreases
Alveoli →Bronchioles →Bronchi → Larynx
(C) (D) Alveoli collapse to increase total lung capacity
→ Nasal cavity → Nostrils

Bronchi →Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx

(D)
→ Nostrils

22
Complete Syllabus Test for RM

199.In a single nucleotide, _______ bond is present between

phosphate and ribose sugar.
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Ester
(C) Phosphodiester
(D) Disulphide
200.Cranial bones fuse together and form sutures.
Structurally, these sutures belong to the category of
(A) Synovial joints
(B) Fibrous joints
(C) Saddle joints
(D) Cartilaginous joints

23