SALES, Yvette Jireh C.

DMD4 – E

DENTAL BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Delayed expansion of amalgam restoration is associated with which two factors?

a. Insufficient trituration and condensation

b. High residual mercury
c. The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation
d. The failure to use a cavity varnish
Answer: A&B
 The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and
condensation is unquestionably the principal cause of failures.

2. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class II amalgam preparation
on a permanent tooth:

a. Should result in a long bevel

b. Is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam
c. Should remove unsupported enamel that may fracture
d. Is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong
Answer: C
 The gingival cavosurface margin is beveled only if it is in the enamel.
Beveling is not necessary if the gingival margin is within cementum.

3. Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for a restoration?

a. Mandibular first bicuspid

b. Mandibular second bicuspid
c. Maxillary first molar
d. Maxillary first bicuspid
Answer: A
 Pulpal floor slopes to coincide with the slope (height) of the cusps
4. All four walls of a Class I amalgam preparation should diverge slightly because divergence
prevents undermining of the marginal ridges.

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
Answer: D
 Only the two walls of a Class I amalgam preparation should diverge, the
mesial and distal. The buccal and the lingual walls of a Class I amalgam
preparation should be convergent.
 The reason id still true because there are only two marginal ridges per
tooth: mesial and distal.

5. All of the following are true concerning a Class V amalgam preparation EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?

a. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
b. The mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the cavity preparation diverge outward
c. The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove along the gingivoaxial line
angle and an incisal retention groove along the incisoaxial line angle
d. A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues
Answer: A
 This is false; the outline form is determined primarily by the location
and size of the carious lesion

6. Which of the following statements are true regarding glass ionomer cements?

a. Release fluoride
b. Good chemical adhesion
c. Good thermal insulator
d. Thermal expansion similar to tooth
e. High solubility after setting
Answer: A, B, C, D
 Glass ionomer cements are hybrids of silicate and polycarboxylate
cements designed to combine the fluoride releasing properties of silicate
particles with the chemically adhesive and more biocompatible
characteristics of the polyacrylic acid matrix compared to the extremely
acidic matrix of silicate cement.
7. Glass ionomer cements generally contain fluoro – alumino – silica powder. The fluoro – alumino
– silica is the portion responsible for one of the major advantages of glass ionomer.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
Answer: A
 GI cements are mixed powder – liquid component system. The powder is
fluoro – alumino – silicate glass that reacts with a liquid, which is
polyacrylic acid, to for, a cement of glass particles surrounded by a
matrix of fluoride cements.

8. ZOE cements make good temporary sedative restorations because their pH is very basic.

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct and not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
Answer: C
 ZOE cements make good temporary sedative restorations because their
pH is about 7 (neutral).

9. Zinc phosphate cements should be mixed on a cool glass slab, adding a small amount of powder
to the liquid every 20 seconds. This is done to gain which of the following advantages:
Select all that apply.

a. Stronger final set

b. Lower solubility
c. Greater viscosity
Answer: A&B
 It will create a material with lower viscosity, allowing it to flow
throughout the metal crown.

10. Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion?
 a. Glass ionomer
b. Zinc oxide – eugenol
c. Zinc polycarboxylate
d. Zinc phosphate
Answer: A
 Only Glass ionomer is used as a cement (luting agent) and a permanent
restorative material. Glass ionomer cements are often used for root
surface carious lesions because of the potential advantage of fluoride
releasing in helping to control the spread of caries.

11. When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affecyed but not infected, and
therefore do not need to be removed?

a. Turbid dentin
b. Infected dentin
c. Transparent dentin
d. Normal dentin
e. Subtransparent dentin
Answer: C
 Transparent dentin is softer than normal dentin, shows further
demineralization. No bacteria are present. Capable of remineralization
provided the pulp remains vital.

12. Chronic caries is characterized by which of the following:

Select all that apply.

a. Pain is uncommon
b. Slowly progressing or arrested
c. Common in adults
d. Entrance to the lesion is small
e. Lesion is deep and narrow
Answer: B&C
 Chronic caries is sometimes referred to as slow or arrested caries and is
also characterized by the following:
o The lesion is shallow (small lesion)
o The entrance of the lesion is wide
o Dark pigmentation with leathery consistency
*** Chronic caries should be completely removed when found in enamel and
close to the DEJ
*** With chronic caries, pain is uncommon
13. ________ is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into ______ and ______, thereby causing caries
initiation and progression.

a. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid

b. Glucose, glucans, lactic acid
c. Sucrose, glucose, acetic acid
d. Glucose, sucrose, acetic acid
Answer: A
 Sucrose is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into glucans and lactic
acid, thereby causing caries initiation and progression.

14. The initiation of caries requires four entities; choose the four entities from the following choices.
a. Host
b. Bacteria
c. Carbohydrates
d. Saliva
e. Time
Answer: A, B, C, E
 Dental caries is an infectious microbiological disease that results in the
localized dissolution of tooth structure. For caries to occur, a susceptible
host (a tooth), microflora with cariogenic potential (plaque), and suitable
substrate (dietary carbohydrates) all interact to promote the severity of
the disease. A certain period of time is also required for caries to
develop.

15. Streptococcus mutans are ________ and therefore __________.

a. Acidogenic, cariogenic
b. Aciduric, cariostatic
c. Acidogenic, cariostatic
d. Aciduric, cariogenic
Answer: A
 Streptococcus mutans are acidogenic and therefore, cariogenic. This
means that these species produce acid and, therefore, cause the irritation
and progression of caries.

16. Which property of filled resins is primarily to blame for the failure of Class II composite
restoration?

a. Low flexural strength

b. Low compressive strength
 c. Low tensile strength
d. Low wear resistance
Answer: D
 Its use should be restricted to those instances which it will not be
subjected to excessive occlusal forces and when teeth are in occlusion,
there is cusp – to – cusp contest and not cusp to restoration.
17. Composite filler particles function to do which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Reduce the coefficient of thermal expansion

b. Increase the tensile strength and compressive strength
c. Reduce the polymerization shrinkage
d. Increase the hardness
e. Improve wear resistance
Answer: A, B, C, D
 Fillers are placed in dental composites to reduce shrinkage on curing.
Physical properties of composite are improved by fillers, however,
composite characteristics change based on filler material, surface, size,
load, shape, surface modifiers, optical index, filler load, and size
distribution.

18. When comparing the physical properties of filled resins to unfilled resins, all of the following are
true EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?

a. Filled resins are harder

b. Unfilled resins have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion
c. Filled resins have a higher compressive strength
d. Unfilled resins have a lower modulus of elasticity
e. Filled resins have a lower tensile strength
Answer: E
 Filled resins have higher tensile strength.

19. Acid etching enamel prior to a placement of a composite restoration is required for all of the
following reason EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Conserves tooth structure

b. Reduces microleakage
c. Provides micromechanical retention
d. Increases esthetics
Answer: D
  Acid etching does not increase the esthetics of the enamel margin. Do
not be confused by the fact that you acid etch the bevel, which itself
functions for retention and esthetics.

20. Enamel etching is typically completed with:

a. 37% phosphoric acid

b. 13% phosphoric acid
c. 37% hydrochloric acid
d. 13% hydrochloric acid
Answer: A
 Standard acid etching of enamel involves the application of 37%
phosphoric acid for 15 seconds with a 1 – 5 second rinse and a 15 –
second drying to roughen the surface of the enamel.

21. When preparing a Class V composite preparation, you can have ______ rounded internal line
angles because it is _______ to compress composite into them than amalgam.

a. More, easier
b. Less, harder
c. More, harder
d. Less, easier
Answer: A
 When restoring teeth with composite resin, it is much easier to compress
the material into rounded line angles.

22. A gold onlay you placed last week falls. Which of the following reasons is most likely
responsible for the failure.

a. You “capped” the functional cusp

b. You “shoed” the functional cusp
c. You “capped” the nonfunctional cusp
d. You “shoed” the nonfunctional cusp
Answer: B
 “Shoeing” is never indicated on functional cusp

23. Rapid cooling (by immersion in water) of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it
has been shaped is referred to as:
 a. Annealing
b. Tempering
c. Quenching
d. None of the above
Answer: C
 This usually is undertaken to maintain mechanical properties associated
with a crystalline structure or phase distribution that would be lost on
slow cooling.

24. Gold alloys _______ upon solidification in the investment. This needs to be compensated for by
an equal amount of _______ of the mold.

a. Shrink, expansion
b. Expand, shrinkage
c. Shrink, shrinkage
d. Expand, expansion
Answer: A
 Gypsum bonded investments are used with Type I, II, and III gold alloys.
Gold alloys used for cast gold restorations shrink on solidification.
Therefore, It is necessary to compensate for the solidification shrinkage
of the specific alloy used by expanding the mold enough to equal the
shrinkage.

25. Which of the following finishing margins is essentially a hollow ground bevel, creating more
bulk of restorative material near the margin and providing a greater cavosurface angle?

a. Knife edge
b. Beveled shoulder
c. Chamfer
d. Shoulder
Answer: C
 A chamfer is essentially a hollow ground bevel. Instead of a flat diagonal
cut across the cavosurface margin, the chamfer is “scooped out”, creating
more bulk of restorative material near the margin and providing a greater
cavosurface angle.

26. Which of the following allows for proper retention when preparing a tooth for a disto – occlusal
Class II gold inlay?
 a. Undercut on mesial
b. Undercut on buccal and lingual walls
c. Occlusal lock (dovetail)
d. None of the above
Answer: C
 When designing a Class II preparation for an inlay, an occlusal lock or
dovetail should be established to prevent proximal dislodgement.

27. A patient arrives at your office with their full gold crown in hand. They explain to you that
another dentist delivered it just last week. You the examine the crown and the preparation. What
is the most likely reason the crown fell off?

a. There was very little cement in the crown

b. The preparation was only 4mm high
c. The preparation walls were tapered about 15 degrees
d. The margins were jagged and undefined
Answer: C
 For maximum retention of cast gold retentions, the acial walls should be
as parallel as possible. Retention is directly proportional to the area of
the axial walls and their parallelism. The axial walls should converge
slightly from the gingival walls to the pulpal walls.

28. When attempting to remove a hard and brittle material like amalgam, you would prefer a bur with
a:

a. Zero rake angle

b. Positive rake angle
c. Negative rake angle
Answer: C
 Extremely hard and brittle materials (such as amalgam) are best cut with
negative rake angle burs. A rake angle is said to be negative when the
rake face is ahead of the radius (from the cutting edge to the axis of the
bur).

29. Chisels are used primarily to cut enamel.

Hatchets are primarily used to cut dentin.

a. Both statements are true

 b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
Answer: C
 Hatchets are also primarily used to cut enamel

30. To polish a restoration, you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades. This is because a bur
with less cutting blades will cut more efficiently.

a. Both the statements and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
Answer; D
 The greater the number of cutting blades on a bur results a less efficient
cutting but a smoother surface (polishing burs are of this type). A lesser
number of blades on a bur results in more efficient cutting but a rougher
surface. Crosscut feature burs at high speed or low speed are of this type.

31. There are several types of bleaching products available for use at home, which can either be
dispensed by a dentist or purchased over – the – counter. Currently, only dentist – dispensed
home – use ____________________ tray – applied gels carry the ADA Seal of Acceptance.

a. 30% carbamide peroxide

b. 15% hydrogen peroxide
c. 20% hydrogen peroxide
d. 10% carbamide peroxide
Answer: D
 “At home”, the active ingredient contained in all of the at – home tooth
whiteners which have earned the ADA’s seal, and the compound which
has been evaluated in the vast majority of at – home bleaching studies, is
carbamide peroxide at a concentration of 10%. The active ingredient
found in most over – the – counter at – home – bleaching products is not
carbamide peroxide, but instead -is hydrogen peroxide.

32. If a lab is getting a high occurrence of surface nodules on the casting they make, what might you
suspect about their investing process?
 a. They are vacuum – investing
b. They are hand – investing
c. Nothing in particular, hand and vacuum – investing are the same thing
d. None of the above
Answer: B
 These defects or nodules are caused by the collection of air bubbles
during the investing procedure. The best way to help eliminate these
defects is to subject the water investment mixture to a vacuum during the
investing procedure to remove the air bubbles.

33. On the delivery of your first crown, you notice that the margins are open when you attempt to
seat the crown in the mouth. Which of the following should you check first?

a. The occlusal contacts

b. The proximal contacts
c. For a void on the crown’s interior
d. For a nodule on the crown’s interior
Answer: B
 If a casting fails to completely set on a prepared tooth, one should first
check for residual temporary cement or other debris on the prepared
tooth. Once all the temporary cement and other debris are removed, the
first step in fitting the casting in the mouth is to adjust the proximal
contact areas.

34. All of the following are indications for a cast gold onlay EXCEPT one. Which one is the
exception?

a. Restoration of large lesions

b. Restoration of ideal occlusion in cases of drifting, hypo – and hyper eruption,etc.
c. Restoration of optimum contour and proximal contact
d. Restoration of brittle teeth (endodontically treated teeth)
e. Restoration of a tooth as an abutment for removable prosthesis, creating ideal guiding
planes,r est seats, and undercuts
f. Restoration of teeth to meet patient preference for gold
g. Restoration of a tooth with minimal ferrule, where a full – coverage crown would not
have enough retention
Answer: G
 If a tooth is not a candidate for a full – coverage crown, it is not a
candidate for onlay. A tooth that does not have a minimum of 1.5 ferrule
effect will need a core buildup, crown lengthening, or both.

35. Which cavities can involve any teeth, anterior or posterior?

 a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
e. Class V
f. Class VI
Answer: A, E, F

36. A patient returns to your office only 24 hours after you cemented her new gold crown on tooth
#19. She claims to feel a sharp electrical sensation in both her upper and lower jaw on the left
side, when you explain to her what might be happening, you call it:

a. Electromagnetic pulse
b. Alternating current corrosion
c. Electrolyte explosion
d. Galvanic shock
Answer: D
 Galvanic shock is the brief but sharp electrical sensation one can receive
when two dissimilar metals come into contact in the mouth.

37. The outline form of a cavity preparation is defined as:

a. “That form the cavity takes to resist the forces of mastication”

b. That form of the cavity takes to resist dislodgement or displacement of the restoration”
c. “The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth”
d. “The shape of form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated”
e. “The shape or form of the preparation assumes after the retention form has ben
completed”
Answer: C
 If, when establishing the ideal outline form, caries remains on any of the
walls of preparation, the next step is to extend the outline form before
excavating any caries

38. Which restorative material has the lowest thermal conductivity and diffusivity?

a. Amalgam
b. Gold
c. Unfilled resin
 d. Filled resin
Answer: C
 Unfilled acrylic resins contracted excessively during polymerization,
permitting subsequent marginal leakage, and were not strong enough to
support occlusal loads.

39. Which one of the following is the most important event for dentin bonding?

a. Smear layer removal

b. Smear plug removal
c. Peritubular dentin decalcification
d. Intertubular dentin decalcification
Answer: D

40. The lab calls your office and asks if you want a particular casting done a base or a noble metal.
Which of the following response is appropriate?

a. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit

b. Noble, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit
c. Base, because the patient wants a gold tooth
d. Noble, because the patient wants a gold tooth
Answer: A
 Noble metals are very resistant to corrosion and not oxidize on casting.
Noble systems for dental use are based on the noble or precious metal
elements gold, silver, palladium, and platinum.

41. Gold alloys _______ upon solidification in the investment. This needs to be compensated for by
an equal amount of _______ of the mold.

a. Shrink, expansion
b. Expand, shrinkage
c. Shrink, shrinkage
d. Expand, expansion
Answer: A

42. All of the following are true concerning a Class V amalgam preparation EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
 e. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
f. The mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the cavity preparation diverge outward
g. The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove along the gingivoaxial line
angle and an incisal retention groove along the incisoaxial line angle
h. A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues
Answer: A

43. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class II amalgam preparation
on a permanent tooth:

e. Should result in a long bevel

f. Is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam
g. Should remove unsupported enamel that may fracture
h. Is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong
Answer: C
 The gingival cavosurface margin is beveled only if it is in the enamel.
Beveling is not necessary if the gingival margin is within cementum.

44. ________ is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into ______ and ______, thereby causing caries
initiation and progression.

e. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid

f. Glucose, glucans, lactic acid
g. Sucrose, glucose, acetic acid
h. Glucose, sucrose, acetic acid
Answer: A
 Sucrose is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into glucans and lactic
acid, thereby causing caries initiation and progression.

45. Chronic caries is characterized by which of the following:

Select all that apply.

f. Pain is uncommon
g. Slowly progressing or arrested
h. Common in adults
i. Entrance to the lesion is small
j. Lesion is deep and narrow
Answer: B&C
 Chronic caries is sometimes referred to as slow or arrested caries and is
also characterized by the following:
o The lesion is shallow (small lesion)
 o The entrance of the lesion is wide
o Dark pigmentation with leathery consistency
*** Chronic caries should be completely removed when found in enamel and
close to the DEJ
*** With chronic caries, pain is uncommon