Year 4 – Sem 7 / Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) – Unit II

NOTE: the questions are suggestive only and not an end to the number of
questions

AR8701 – LANDSCAPE DESIGN (UNIT 2 – MCQ):

1. Which of the following is not a softscape element?

a) Trees
b) Shrubs
c) Pathways

2. The term _________, in a botanical sense, refers to a tree that sheds its leaves annually.
a) Evergreen
b) Pine
c) Deciduous

3. What is the Environmental role of a landscape design?

a) Pollution control
b) Noise control
c) Both A and B

4. Which of the following is not a terrestrial ecosystem?

a) Forest
b) grassland
c) fresh water

5. Which of the following is a hardscape element?

a) Canopy trees
b) Arbor
c) Shrubs

6. What are the effects of warm colors plant in landscape design?

a) Excitement
b) Relaxing
c) Peace

7. Which of the following is an element of landscape design

a) Form and texture
b) Scale and balance
c) Both A and B
8. What are the effects of cool colors plant in landscape design?
 a) Energetic
b) Relaxing
c) Excitement

9. What are the effects of vase shaped tree in landscape design?

a) Comfortable space beneath the canopy
b) Lead the eye back to the ground
c) Direct the eyes upward

10. Which of the following tree form will belong to coconut tree?
a) Vase
b) Columnar
c) Fountain

11. Which of the following tree form will belong to Neem tree?
a) Spread
b) Round
c) Fountain

12. Meandering lines for the pathways gives -------

a) Direct attention
b) Focal point
c) Undisturbed feeling

13. Informal balance in the landscape design emphasize on

a) Curiosity
b) Stability
c) Dignity

14. The purpose of creating outdoor rooms are

a) Welcoming atmosphere
b) Encourage movement
c) Both A & B

15. Arbors are used in landscape design for________

a) Entry gateway/ Arch
b) Shading element
c) Screening element

16. Trellis creates_____________

a) Focal point
b) Privacy screen
c) Both A & B
17. Ramadas provides____________
a) Shade and cover
b) Support outdoor equipment
c) Both A & B

18. Loose granite trails may _______

a) Prevents erosion
b) Binds aggregate together
c) May migrate and show footprints

19. Which of the following fuel sources are used for the fire place?
a) Propane
b) Gas line
c) Both A & B

20. What are the effects of water in landscape design?

a) Water runoff reduced.
b) Microclimate created.
c) Both A & B

21. Which of the following is the one of the oldest material for pavements?
a) Stone
b) Clay pavers
c) Concrete pavers

22. Which of the following material requires less maintenance?

a) Concrete pavers
b) Flag stone
c) Rubble masonry

23. What are the main disadvantage in using concrete pavers

a) Fades over time
b) Weed growth
c) Both A & B

24. The major benefits of stamped concrete are_______

a) Desirable patterns can be created
b) Permeable
c) Durable
25. What are the hardscape finishes available in market?
a) Veneer
b) Stucco
 c) Both A & B

26. Which of the following is a loose material in landscape design?

a) Natural stones
b) Decomposed granite
c) Veneer stones

27. What are the main advantages of loose material?

a) Weed control
b) Easy to maintain
c) Both A & B

28. What is the thickness of decomposed granite laid for vehicular movement?
a) 2-4 inches
b) 5-7 inches
c) 8-10 inches

29. What are the cons of composite decking?

a) Maintenance problem
b) Higher price
c) Both A & B

30. What is the important point to be considered for using water body in landscaping?
a) Water splashed to be treated
b) Pumps and equipment
c) Both A & B

31. What are the characteristics of woodland ground cover?

a) Vigorous growth
b) High moisture content
c) Dense foliage

32. What is the height of an intermediate trees?

a) 40 feet
b) 30 feet and above
c) 10feet

33. What is the height of an Under storey trees?

a) 20-30 feet
b) 15-20 feet
c) 8-12feet

34. Tall shrubs can grow up to the height of _________

 a) 10 feet
b) 15 feet
c) 8 feet

35. Intermediate shrubs can go to the height of________

a) 3-6 feet
b) 5-7 feet
c) 8-10 feet

36. Low shrubs can go to the height of________

a) 3-6 feet
b) 1-3feet
c) 7-10 feet

37. In addition to the visual effect plant material can be planned for_________
a) Sound and smell
b) Tactile characteristics
c) Both A & B

38. What are the characteristics of deciduous plant?

a) Sheds leaves annually
b) Sharp needle like leaves
c) Dark and dense foliage

39. Spaces while moving gives mass view frame or new spaces opening, which will change
its role in landscaping is called as______
a) Enframement
b) Sequential space
c) Spatial enclosure

40. What is the effect of the sinuous line of water?

a) Confers energy
b) Rhythmic pattern
c) Ripples effect

41. Dark blue color in the swimming pool gives_______effect.

a) Shadowy depth
b) Transparency
c) Purity and cleanliness

42. Overlapping texture in the cascade walls can create_____ effect.

a) Horizontal frothy rhythm
b) Myriad of droplets
 c) Glassy sheet flow

43. Angular landform implies________

a) Softness
b) Passive
c) Energy

44. Architectonic landform have ______.

a) No corners
b) Hard corners
c) Passive corners

45. At Site Level, Surface flow is caused to flow around rather than through the building.
This is achieved by creating ______
a) Grading
b) Trench
c) Subtle swale

46. Mulching can be done with ________

a) Wooden chips
b) Shredded barks
c) Both A & B

47. Stone filled baskets of wire mesh or wickers used as slope retention are called______
a) Gabions
b) Mortar bag
c) Rubbles

48. A laid up crib of interlocking woods or metal filled with rock ballast used as slope
retention are called________
a) Pilling
b) Cribbing
c) Mulching

49. Dumped or placed fragments of broken stones used as slope retention are called______
a) Rubble
b) Gabions
c) Pilling

AR8703 – SPECIFICATION, ESTIMATION AND VALUATION (UNIT 2 – MCQ):

1. The most reliable estimate is

A. Detailed estimate
B. Preliminary estimate
C. Plinth area estimate
D. Cube rate estimate

2. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
A. Wall thickness
B. Room area
C. Verandah area
D. Courtyard area.

3. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate exceeds
A. 2.00%
B. 2.50%
C.4.00%
D. 5.0%.

4. The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is

A. Quantity of the materials
B. Availability of materials
C. Transportation of materials
D. All the above.

5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted during
preparation of the estimate, is called contingencies
B. Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged establishment
C. Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to be used
for a particular item
D. All the above.

6. For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are

A. Earthwork, Concrete work, Brick work
B. Brickwork, Stone work, Roofing
C. Brickwork Flooring, Wood work, Steel work
D. All the above.

7. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

A. The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area
B. The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area
C. The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath room
and glazed verandah, is called floor area
D. None of these.
8. The plinth area of a building includes
A. area of the walls at the floor level
B. area of stair cover
C. internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
D. area of cantilevered porch.

9. Carpet area does not include the area of

A. the walls along with doors and other openings
B. verandah, corridor and passage
C. bath room and lavatory
D. All the above.

10. The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to

A.100%
B.75%
C. 50%
D. 25%.

11. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contigencies, work charged
establishment, tool and plants, is called work value
B. The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishment and
travelling charges, is called actual cost
C. The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the
work, is called administrative approval
D. All the above.

12. While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit is
A. Metre for length
B. Cubic metre for area
C. Square metres for volume
D. Litre for capacity

13. According-Indian Standards Institute, the actual -Size of modular-bricks is

A. 23 cm x 11.5 cm x 7.5 cm
B. 25 cm x 13 cm x 7.5 cm
C. 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm
D. 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm.

14. The order of booking dimensions is

A. Length, breadth, height
B. Breadth, length, height
C. Height, breadth, length
D. None of these.

15. The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of

A. Earth work in excavation
B. Rock cutting
C. Excavation in trenches for foundation
D. All the above.

16. The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of

A. One or more than one brick wall
B. Brick work in arches
C. Reinforced brick work
D. Half brick wall.

17. The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of

A. Honey comb brick work
B. Brick flat soling
C. Half brick walls or the partition
D. All the above.

18. The measurement is made in square metre in case of

A. Cement concrete in foundation
B. R.C.C. structure
C. Hollow concrete block wall
D. None of these.

19. The measurement is not made in square metres in case of

A. D.P.C. (Damp proof course)
B. Form works
C. Concrete Jaffries
D. R.C. Chhajja.

20. The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of
A. Wall facing
B. Columns, lintels, copings
C. Dressed stones in Chajja
D. All the above.

21. The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following:

A. Collapsible gates with rails
B. Rolling shutters
C. Expanded metal wire netting
D. M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works.

22. The area is measured correct to the nearest

A. 0.01 sqm
B. 0.02 sqm
C. 0.03 sqm
D. 0.04 sqm

23. The volume is measured correct to the nearest

A. 0.01 cum
B. 0.02 cum
C. 0.03 cum
D. 0.04 cum

24. The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest

A. 0.25 kg
B. 0.50 kg
C. 0.75 kg
D. 1.00 kg

25. Pick up the correct statement from the following,

A. Bricks are paid per thousand
B. Cement is paid per 50 kg bag
C. Lime is paid per quintal
D. All the above.

26. While preparing a detailed estimate

A. Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m
B. Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm
C. Volume should be measured correct to 0.01cum
D. All the above.

27. Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building
A. Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives total
quantity of the item
B. The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building
C. The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition wall
D. All the above.

28. The 'Centre line method' is specially adopted for estimating

A. Circular buildings
B. Hexagonal buildings
C. Octagonal buildings
D. All the above.

29. In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre
distance between the walls and
A. breadth of the wall
B. half breadth of wall on each side
C. One fourth breadth of wall on each side
D. None of these.

30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment
B. The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
C. The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45?
D. All the above.

31. The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45? in case of a beam of effective
length L, is
A. L + 0.42 d
B. L + 2 x 0.42 d
C. L - 0.42 d
D. L - 2 x 0.4 d.

32. While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is assumed
A. at the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
B. in thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
C. for reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar
which is more
D. All the above.

33. The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in

A. Cubic meter
B. Sq meter
C. Metres
D. None of these.

34. The rate of an item of work depends on

A. Specifications of works
B. Specifications of materials
C. Proportion of mortar
D. All the above.

35. The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per
day, is
A. 1.00 m3
B. 1.25 m3
C. 1.50 m3
D. 1.75 m3.

36. The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is
A. 1.5 m3
B. 2.0 m3
C. 4.0 m2
D. 5.0 m2.

37. The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is
A. 1.5 rn3
B. 2.5 m3
C. 3.5 m3
D. 5.0 m3.

38. The expected out turn of 12 nun plastering with cement mortar is
A. 2.5 sq m
B. 4.0 sq m
C. 6.0 sq m
D. 8.0 sq m

39. The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per manson per day
A. 2.5 sqm
B. 5.0 sqm
C. 7.5 sqm
D. 10 sqm.

40. The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per mazdoor per day is
A. 1.00 cum
B. 2.00 cum
C. 3.00 cum
D. 4.00 cum.

41. Pick up the correct statement from the following: All pipes and fittings are classified
according to their diameters
A. The diameter of the pipes is the nominal diameter of internal bore
B. All pipes are measured along the centre line of the pipes in metres
C. Lead caulked joints are enumerated separately
D. All the above.

42. Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply.

A. Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately
B. Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item
C. Pipes are classified according to their sizes and quality
D. All the above.

44. In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes
A. Setting and laying
B. Bed concreting
C. Connection to drains
D. All of these.

45. The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in
square metres
A. Root slabs
B. Floors
C. D.P.C.
D. All the above.

46. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement
B. No deduction is made for the openings upto 0.1 sq. m
C. No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq. cm in cross-
section
D. None of these.

47. Brick walls are measured in sq. in if the thickness of the wall is
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. None of these.

48. The item of the brick structure measured in sq. m, is

A. Reinforced brick work
B. Broken glass coping
C. Brick edging
D. Brick work in arches.

49. The item of steel work which is measured in sq. m, is

A. Collapsible gates
B. Rolling shutters
C. Steel doors
D. All the above.
50. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Pointing is measured in sq. m
B. Plastering is measured in sq. m
C. Glazing is measured in sq. m
D. All the above.

51. For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq. in new brick work, the quantity of cement
required, is
A. 0.200 m3
B. 0.247 m3
C. 0.274 m3
D. 0.295 m3.

52. For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required, is
A. 0.90 rn3
B. 0.94 m3
C. 0.98 m3
D. 1.00 m3.

53. Which estimate is expected to be least accurate?

A. Preliminary estimate
B. Plinth area estimate
C. Detailed estimate
D. Revised estimate

54. A revised estimate is usually prepared when the original estimate has exceeded by more than
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 10%
D. 100%

55. The person who enjoys the estimate right is called a

A. Lesser
B. Lesse
C. Dominant owner
D. Servient owner

56. Annual repair estimate is usually not allowed to exceed

A. 10% of capital cost
B. 5% of capital cost
C. 2% of capital cost
D. 5% of capital cost
57. Which of the following is necessarily an accurate estimate?
A. Plinth area estimate
B. Cubical content estimate
C. Revised estimate
D. None of the above

58. The estimated time required to complete an activity is known as

A. Duration
B. Restraint
C. Constraint
D. Float

59. Of the total estimated cost of a building, electrification usually amounts for
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 8%
D. 15%

60. Of the total estimated cost of a building, sanitation and water supply works usually amounts
for
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 8%
D. 15%

61. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate exceeds
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 4%
D. 5%

62. To make out an estimate for a work the following data are necessary-Drawing, Specification
and ___________
A) materials
B) rates
C) labours
D) transportation

63. _________________ is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a work or

project.
A) Supplementary Estimate
B) Plinth Area Estimate
C) Revised Estimate
D) Abstract Estimate

64. Approximate cost of a hostel building for 100 students @Rs.10000/- per student works out as
Rs. 10 lakhs.
A) True
B) False

65. The approx. cost of 10 km length of irrigation channel of 3 cu m per sec. capacity @
Rs.70000/- per km works out as Rs.7 lakh.
A) True
B) False

66. Approx. cost of a bridge of 3 spans of 50 m each span @Rs.30000/- per running m of span
comes to 3*50*30000 = Rs. 45 lakhs.
A) True
B) False

67. __________ is prepared on the basis of plinth area of building, the rate being deducted from
the cost of similar building having similar specification, heights and construction, in the locality.
A) cube rate estimate
B) supplementary estimate
C) maintenance estimate
D) plinth area estimate

68.________________ is the amount provided in the estimate and bill of quantities for some
specialised work to be done by a specialised firm; whose details are not known at the time of
preparing estimate.
A) Prime cost
B) Provisional sum
C) Capital cost
D) Building cost index

69. In this method approx. total length of walls is found in running metre and this total length
multiplied by the rate per running metre of wall gives a fairly accurate cost.
A) Annual repair
B) Item rate estimate
C) Approximate quantity method estimate
D) Cubical content estimate

70. _______________ estimate is a detailed estimate and is prepared to maintain the structure or
work in proper order and safe condition.
A) Supplementary and revised estimate
B) Maintenance estimate
C) Item rate estimate
D) Revised estimate

71. A large work or project may consists of several building or small works and each of these
work is known as ___________
A) sub-work
B) sub-project
C) sub-head
D) sub-construction

72. The term ______________ is used to denote a procedure of costing or valuing an item of
work on the basis of actual labourers and materials required.
A) prime cost
B) hour-work
C) day-work
D) sub-work

AR8721 – ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN DETAILING (UNIT 2 – MCQ):

1. Type of a technical drawing that provides power and light details for engineering and
architectural projects.
a) Plumbing drawing.
b) Electrical drawing.
c) Centerline drawing.
d) Structural drawing.
2. ___________ provides a dimensioned graphical information that can be used by contractors
to construct the work in the site.
a) Working drawing.
b) Electrical drawing.
c) Centreline drawing.
d) Structural drawing.

3. Grid of similar lines for a number of columns forms a ______________.

a) Plumbing drawing.
b) Electrical drawing.
c) Centreline drawing.
d) Structural drawing.

4. Area excluding walls in the built-up area is called as_____________.

 a) Carpet area.
b) Super built-up area.
c) Ground coverage.
d) Setback area

5. The concept and principles of the architectural designs are defined by a _________________.

a) Centreline drawing.
b) Schematic drawing.
c) Working drawing.
d) Structural drawing.

6. Centre line plans helps you understand the exact position of ___________ on site.

a) Beam
b) Column
c) Wall
d) Area

7. _____________ is the most common type of stairs found in both residential and commercial
properties.

a) Spiral staircase
b) Straight staircase
c) Quarter turn staircase
d) Steel staircase

8. _____________ beam is used in the middle or on the sides to support the non RCC staircase.

a) Plinth
b) Simply supported
c) Cantilever
d) Stringer

9. ______________ channel section is used in the construction of a steel or timber staircase.

a) L – angle
b) Tee profile
c) I – Section
d) C – section
10. The line joining all the nosing is called ____________

a) Thread line
b) Riser line
c) Pitch line
d) All the above

11. ___________ wall carries the weight of a house from the roof and upper floors to the
foundations on its own.

a) Stone wall
b) Shear wall
c) Load bearing wall
d) Non load bearing wall

12. In residential building, tread nosing to be ___________ for the safety purposes.

a) Splayed
b) Rounded
c) Squared
d) All the above

13. In a traditional cavity wall, what is the ideal width of the cavity required in the center is
________________

a) 100 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 25 mm

14. ________________ is the rate of transfer of heat through a structure.

a) R Value
b) U Value
c) T value
d) All the above

15. Thermal transmittance is also called as ______________

a) R Value
b) U Value
c) T value
 d) Thermal mass

16. _____________ measures the rate of heat transfer.

a) U – Value
b) R – Value
c) T – Value
d) None of the above.

17. U – Value of a solid brick wall is ___________

a) 2 W/m2K
b) 1.5 W/m2K
c) 0.8 W/m2K
d) 2.1 W/m2K

18. What is an ideal cement mortar thickness while plastering the wall ___________

a) 10 mm
b) 12 mm
c) 18 mm
d) 25 mm

19. Which drawing helps us understand the center to center distance of columns?

a. Centreline drawing
b. Setting out drawing
c. Skin section
d. Elevation

20. Which drawing is used to give a detailed section through an individual external wall to
indicate any cladding etc.?

a. Centreline drawing
b. Setting out drawing
c. Skin section
d. Elevation

21. Which of the following lines should be used for indicating centerline
a. ____________
 b. ___ _ ___ _ __
c. …………………
d. ----------------

22. Which of the following lines is used for indicating section line
a. ____________
b. ____ _ _____
c. ___ . ___ . __
d. ----------------

23. Which of the following lines can be used for hidden lines?

a. ____________
b. ____ _ _____
c. ___ . ___ . __
d. ----------------

24. If you had to start construction on site which drawing would you have to consult?
a. Centreline drawing
b. Setting out drawing
c. Skin section
d. Elevation
25. How many reference points do we need to provide in a setting out drawing.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

26. What is the need for the second reference point _____________
a. To confirm
b. To start construction
c. To speed up the process
d. Vaastu

27. Levels are not to be mentioned in which of these drawings

a. Centreline drawing
b. Setting out drawing
c. Skin section
d. Elevation

28. Which Grade of Plywood is Waterproof?

 a) BWS
b) BWR
c) BWP
d) None of the above

29. The Contractor is placing a horizontal member over a large opening to support the load
above in a wall he’s building. What is that horizontal member called?
a) Beam
b) Keystone
c) Lintel
d) All the above

30. What is the commonly available Laminate sizes in Indian Market.

a. 0.8mm to 1.25mm
b. 5mm to 10mm
c. 15mm to 20mm
d. None of the above

31. What is the description of cladding?

a. The external finish covering the base material on a wall

b. The settling factor of a building after the construction process is complete
c. The foundation layer of a building in high rise construction
d. All the above

32. When it comes to quality of paint, which of the following best describes what to look for?

a. Durability
b. Uniformity of color
c. Both
d. None of the above

33. ___________ a term which is used to indicate the covering of entire or part of the exposed
surface of Plywood by means of Veneers.?
a. Rebating
b. Veneering
c. Studding
d. All the above

34. Full form of MDF

 a. Medium Density Fiberwood
b. Mild Density Fiberwood
c. Maximum Density Fiberwood
d. All the above

35. What are common quality complaints in plywood?

a. Warping
b. Termites
c. Both
d. None of the above

36. Which of the following drawing conveys the concept of the project?

a) Schematic drawing
b) Centerline drawing
c) Working drawing
d) Set out plan

37. The representation of schematic drawings can be in _______

a) Graphic symbols
b) Abstract
c) Pictures
d) All the above

38. Working drawings should have

a) Drawn in appropriate scale

b) Proper in graphical representation
c) Drawn with appropriate symbols and proper convention
d) All the above

39. What is the next stage after schematic design stage in a design process?

a) Centerline drawing
b) Working drawing
c) Design development stage
d) None of the above

40. What are the types of dimensioning in the working drawing?

a) Parallel
 b) Running
c) Chain
d) All the above

41. What are the different types of working drawings?

a) Architectural
b) Structural
c) Electrical and plumbing
d) All the above

42. ___________ is the readable map depicting the plot of the land where, building is
constructed

a) Road plan
b) Floor plan
c) Site plan

43. The process of transferring conceptual drawing into architectural drawing is _________

a) Schematic plan
b) Working drawing
c) Setting out plan

44.Developing physical position at the corners of the site for constructing building is called
_________

a) Schematic plan
b) Working drawing
c) Setting out plan

45.Orientation of the building in site plan of architectural drawing ias mentioned as

___________

a) Schematic plan
b) Working drawing
c) North point

46.Which gives the graphical representation of size and distance in the architectural drawing?

a) scale
b) Working drawing
c) North point
 AR8721 – ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN DETAILING (UNIT 2 – MCQ):

1. Mention the energy rating system developed by The Energy and Research Institute for
buildings in India.
a) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
c) Indian Green Building Council
d) Energy Conservation Building Code

2. Calculate the wavelength of the body for the wavelength for temperature 270C.
a) 10 micro metre
b) 100 micro metre
c) 1 milli metre
d) 0.1 micrometre

3. Wavelength of electromagnetic radiation emitted by heat bodies depend on its ---------.

a) Radiation
b) Temperature
c) Distance
d) All the above

4. Which is responsible for solar radiation?

a) Visible light
b) Near Infrared
c) UV
d) All the above

5. The Invisible rays that impact radiation are

a) Infrared rays
b) Ultraviolet Rays
c) All the above
d) None of the above

6. Which of the following is appropriate one?

a) Radio – Low energy, short wavelength, low frequency
b) Radar – Low energy, long wavelength, high frequency
c) Gamma rays – High energy, low wavelength, high frequency
d) All the above

7. The wavelength of visible light in solar radiation band is

a) 250 nm < 380 nm
b) 340 nm < 800 nm
c) 275 nm < 780 nm
d) 380 nm < 780 nm

8. The wavelength of near infrared rays in solar radiation band is

a) 690 nm < 2500 nm
b) 780 nm < 1400 nm
c) 780 nm < 2500 nm
d) 710 nm < 3000 nm

9. The wavelength of UV rays in solar radiation band is

a) 250 nm < 380 nm
b) 140 nm < 300 nm
c) 380 nm < 780 nm
d) 250 nm < 780 nm

10. The Purpose of green building is to __________ of resources such as energy, water and
minerals.
a) Normalize efficiency
b) Reduce Efficiency
c) Increase efficiency
d) Make no change

11. Glass offers which of the following benefits.

a) Thermal comfort
b) Day-lighting/ interior-exterior blending
c) Noise control
d) All the above

12. Green building design measures _____________

a) Reduce operating costs
b) No impact in operating costs
c) Increase operating costs
d) None of the above

13. What is the standard rating system for construction for a green building in Singapore?
a) LEED, Green Globes
b) BREEAM
c) Green Star
d) Green Marks

14. HVAC and artificial lighting constitute _________% of electricity.

a) 40% - 50%
b) 20% - 30%
c) 100%
d) 75% - 80%

15. Passive design features in a building help in

a) Increase carbon monoxide emissions
b) Increase carbon dioxide emissions
c) Decrease carbon dioxide emissions
d) Decrease carbon monoxide emissions

16. The tangible benefits of a green building are

a) Energy savings
b) Water savings
c) Projects green corporate initiatives
d) All the above

17. Solar Control glass can be used to reduce

a) Daylight
b) Solar radiation
c) UV rays
d) Temperature

18. The facture that light transmission depends inside a building are
a) Location
b) Orientation
c) Nature of building operation
d) All the above

19. The parameter that determine energy conservation in artificial lighting is artificial
lighting is
a) Light transmission
b) Solar factor
c) U-value
d) All the above

20. The rate of heat transfer which is also called as U-value can be changed by
a) Tinted glazing
b) Double Glazing
c) Laminated glazing
d) All the above

21. Heat transmittance through a surface by conduction, convection and radiation is

determined by ______
a) R-value
b) U-value
c) R-index
d) U-index

22. The percentage of heat gain that solar factor contributes inside a building is _____
a) 80%
b) 40%
c) 100%
d) 60%

23. The contributing factors for the energy performance of a building are
a) Solar factor or SHGC
b) Light transmission
c) U-Value
d) All the above

24. _________ of a glass determines the heat gain inside a building.

a) R-value
b) Visual light Transmittance
c) Solar factor or SHGC
d) None of the above

25. Solar factor or SHGC is the ratio between ____________

a) Total solar heat gain and the incidental solar energy
b) Heat gain inside building to the total incidental solar energy
c) Total heat transfer to reflected solar energy
d) Heat gain inside building to the total reflected solar energy

26. The key strategy while glazing doors and windows is

a) Lower SHGC on south windows
b) Higher SHGC on North windows
c) Lower SHGC on west windows
d) All the above

27. The process of converting used materials to new products to reduce consumption of fresh
raw materials is ___________
a) Reusing
b) Recycling
c) Manufacturing
d) Reduction

28. Which of the following are the benefits of material resource optimization?
a) Lower energy and raw materials savings
b) Increased cost savings for business and consumers
c) Higher material disposal needs and costs
d) All the above

29. The factors for selection of glass for green building are
a) Climate type
b) Orientation
c) Glazing type
d) All the above

30. The factors that affect thermal comfort are

a) Relative Humidity
b) Air Temperature
c) Occupant’s clothing
d) All the above

31. The factor that light transmission depends inside a building is

a) Orientation
b) Shape of building
c) Size of building
d) None of the above

32. Glass used in the building is ______ recyclable

a) 25%
b) 60%
c) 100%
d) 98%

33. Bigger windows in a building result in

a) High Visual Light Transmittance
b) High Solar Factor
c) Low Visual Transmittance
d) Low Solar Radiation

34. High performance glazing is one of the main objectives of optimizing building design to
a) Increase conventional energy demand
b) Increase material usage
c) Reduce conventional energy demand
d) Reduce renewable energy demand

35. The benefits of GRIHA are

a) Incentive
b) Corporate image
c) Energy Consumption
d) All the above

36. ____________ is one of the criteria requirements of GRIHA Rating Systems.

a) Keeping outdoor and indoor noise at acceptable levels
b) Keeping Outdoor and indoor noise at higher levels
c) Keeping Outdoor noise level at zero
d) Keeping Indoor noise level at Zero

37. Key objectives of optimizing building design to reduce conventional energy demand are
a) Optimize window area
b) Solar passive building design measures
c) Efficient artificial lighting
d) All of the above

38. Which advisory council guides the administrative structure of GRIHA?

a) National Advisory Council
b) The Energy and Research Institute
c) Technical Advisory Committee
d) Ministry of Human Research Development

39. List out the criteria requirements of the GRIHA rating systems
a) Optimize building design to reduce conventional energy
b) Use of low energy materials in interior
c) Optimize energy performance of building in specified limits
d) All of the above

40. ___________ will reflect more daylight that dark coloured surfaces
a) Metallic sunshade
b) Reflective glazing
c) Light coloured surfaces
d) Clear glass

41. Which of the following is used between double glazed unit to redirect sunlight?
a) Argon gas
b) Laminated glass
c) Louvers
d) Venetian blinds

42. ___________ will redirect brightness of sunlight into deeper areas of the building
a) Metallic sunshade
b) Reflective glazing
c) Light coloured surfaces
d) Clear glass
43. To maximise daylight, _____________ can be used in the proposed building to allow
natural light into interiors of the building.
a) Skylight
b) Glass façade
c) Louvers
d) All the above

44. List out the design approache to maximize daylight.

a) Use of louvers between glass facades
b) Use of tinted glass facade
c) Use of louvers between double glazed unit
d) None of the above

45. Which of the following types of glass will be ideal for the building?
a) Glass with SHGC 0.57 and U-value 4.8
b) Glass with SHGC 0.60 and U-value 2.5
c) Glass with SHGC 0.45 and U-value 3.7
d) Glass with SHGC 0.25 and U-value 1.8

46. Colour rendering is the measure of ____________ perceived through a material.

a) U-value
b) Transparence
c) Trueness of colour
d) All the above

47. ECBC stands for

a) Election Commission Building Code
b) Electricity Conservation Building Code
c) Energy Conservation Building Code
d) Energy Consumption Building Code

48. Which windows provide adequate daylight?

a) Punched windows
b) Strip windows
c) Recessed windows
d) Metallic windows

49. Solar control glass with SG/SHGC 0.3 means?

a) 7% solar contribution blocked outside and 93% passes inside
b) 70% solar contribution blocked outside and 30% passes inside
c) 30% solar contribution blocked outside and 70% passes inside
d) 93% solar contribution blocked outside and 7% passes inside
 50. Heat transmittance through a surface by conduction, convection and radiation is
expressed by its _____
a) H-value
b) U-value
c) S-value
d) R-value

51. Which is responsible for night time glare?

a) External light reflection
b) Light transmission
c) Internal light reflection
d) Light radiation

52. Hot bodies emit electromagnetic radiation in the form of __________ radiation
a) Ultraviolet
b) Infrared
c) Visible light
d) All the above
--------------------------------------------------x--------------------------------------------------------------------------

AR 8008 - GLASS ARCHITECTURE AND DESIGN (UNIT 2 – MCQ):

1. Mention the energy rating system developed by The Energy and Research Institute for
buildings in India.
a) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
c) Indian Green Building Council
d) Energy Conservation Building Code

2. Calculate the wavelength of the body for the wavelength for temperature 270C.
a) 10 micro metre
b) 100 micro metre
c) 1 milli metre
d) 0.1 micrometre

3. Wavelength of electromagnetic radiation emitted by heat bodies depend on its ---------.

a) Radiation
b) Temperature
c) Distance
d) All the above

4. Which is responsible for solar radiation?

 a) Visible light
b) Near Infrared
c) UV
d) All the above

5. The Invisible rays that impact radiation are

a) Infrared rays
b) Ultraviolet Rays
c) All the above
d) None of the above

6. Which of the following is appropriate one?

a) Radio – Low energy, short wavelength, low frequency
b) Radar – Low energy, long wavelength, high frequency
c) Gamma rays – High energy, low wavelength, high frequency
d) All the above

7. The wavelength of visible light in solar radiation band is

a) 250 nm < 380 nm
b) 340 nm < 800 nm
c) 275 nm < 780 nm
d) 380 nm < 780 nm

8. The wavelength of near infrared rays in solar radiation band is

a) 690 nm < 2500 nm
b) 780 nm < 1400 nm
c) 780 nm < 2500 nm
d) 710 nm < 3000 nm

9. The wavelength of UV rays in solar radiation band is

a) 250 nm < 380 nm
b) 140 nm < 300 nm
c) 380 nm < 780 nm
d) 250 nm < 780 nm

10. The Purpose of green building is to __________ of resources such as energy, water and
minerals.
a) Normalize efficiency
b) Reduce Efficiency
c) Increase efficiency
d) Make no change

11. Glass offers which of the following benefits.

a) Thermal comfort
b) Day-lighting/ interior-exterior blending
c) Noise control
d) All the above
12. Green building design measures _____________
a) Reduce operating costs
b) No impact in operating costs
c) Increase operating costs
d) None of the above

13. What is the standard rating system for construction for a green building in Singapore?
a) LEED, Green Globes
b) BREEAM
c) Green Star
d) Green Marks

14. HVAC and artificial lighting constitute _________% of electricity.

a) 40% - 50%
b) 20% - 30%
c) 100%
d) 75% - 80%

15. Passive design features in a building help in

a) Increase carbon monoxide emissions
b) Increase carbon dioxide emissions
c) Decrease carbon dioxide emissions
d) Decrease carbon monoxide emissions

16. The tangible benefits of a green building are

a) Energy savings
b) Water savings
c) Projects green corporate initiatives
d) All the above

17. Solar Control glass can be used to reduce

a) Daylight
b) Solar radiation
c) UV rays
d) Temperature

18. The facture that light transmission depends inside a building are
a) Location
b) Orientation
c) Nature of building operation
d) All the above

19. The parameter that determine energy conservation in artificial lighting is

a) Light transmission
b) Solar factor
c) U-value
d) All the above
20. The rate of heat transfer which is also called as U-value can be changed by
a) Tinted glazing
b) Double Glazing
c) Laminated glazing
d) All the above

21. Heat transmittance through a surface by conduction, convection and radiation is

determined by ______
a) R-value
b) U-value
c) R-index
d) U-index

22. The percentage of heat gain that solar factor contributes inside a building is _____
a) 80%
b) 40%
c) 100%
d) 60%

23. The contributing factors for the energy performance of a building are
a) Solar factor or SHGC
b) Light transmission
c) U-Value
d) All the above

24. _________ of a glass determines the heat gain inside a building.

a) R-value
b) Visual light Transmittance
c) Solar factor or SHGC
d) None of the above

25. Solar factor or SHGC is the ratio between ____________

a) Total solar heat gain and the incidental solar energy
b) Heat gain inside building to the total incidental solar energy
c) Total heat transfer to reflected solar energy
d) Heat gain inside building to the total reflected solar energy

26. The key strategy while glazing doors and windows is

a) Lower SHGC on south windows
b) Higher SHGC on North windows
c) Lower SHGC on west windows
d) All the above

27. The process of converting used materials to new products to reduce consumption of fresh
raw materials is ___________
a) Reusing
b) Recycling
 c) Manufacturing
d) Reduction

28. Which of the following are the benefits of material resource optimization?
a) Lower energy and raw materials savings
b) Increased cost savings for business and consumers
c) Higher material disposal needs and costs
d) All the above

29. The factors for selection of glass for green building are
a) Climate type
b) Orientation
c) Glazing type
d) All the above

30. The factors that affect thermal comfort are

a) Relative Humidity
b) Air Temperature
c) Occupant’s clothing
d) All the above

31. The factor that light transmission depends inside a building is

a) Orientation
b) Shape of building
c) Size of building
d) None of the above

32. Glass used in the building is ______ recyclable

a) 25%
b) 60%
c) 100%
d) 98%

33. Bigger windows in a building result in

a) High Visual Light Transmittance
b) High Solar Factor
c) Low Visual Transmittance
d) Low Solar Radiation

34. High performance glazing is one of the main objectives of optimizing building design to
a) Increase conventional energy demand
b) Increase material usage
c) Reduce conventional energy demand
d) Reduce renewable energy demand

35. The benefits of GRIHA are

a) Incentive
 b) Corporate image
c) Energy Consumption
d) All the above

36. ____________ is one of the criteria requirements of GRIHA Rating Systems.

a) Keeping outdoor and indoor noise at acceptable levels
b) Keeping Outdoor and indoor noise at higher levels
c) Keeping Outdoor noise level at zero
d) Keeping Indoor noise level at Zero

37. Key objectives of optimizing building design to reduce conventional energy demand are
a) Optimize window area
b) Solar passive building design measures
c) Efficient artificial lighting
d) All of the above

38. Which advisory council guides the administrative structure of GRIHA?

a) National Advisory Council
b) The Energy and Research Institute
c) Technical Advisory Committee
d) Ministry of Human Research Development

39. List out the criteria requirements of the GRIHA rating systems
a) Optimize building design to reduce conventional energy
b) Use of low energy materials in interior
c) Optimize energy performance of building in specified limits
d) All of the above

40. ___________ will reflect more daylight that dark coloured surfaces
a) Metallic sunshade
b) Reflective glazing
c) Light coloured surfaces
d) Clear glass

41. Which of the following is used between double glazed unit to redirect sunlight?
a) Argon gas
b) Laminated glass
c) Louvers
d) Venetian blinds

42. ___________ will redirect brightness of sunlight into deeper areas of the building
a) Metallic sunshade
b) Reflective glazing
c) Light coloured surfaces
d) Clear glass
43. To maximise daylight, _____________ can be used in the proposed building to allow
natural light into interiors of the building.
a) Skylight
b) Glass façade
c) Louvers
d) All the above

44. List out the design approache to maximize daylight.

a) Use of louvers between glass facades
b) Use of tinted glass facade
c) Use of louvers between double glazed unit
d) None of the above

45. Which of the following types of glass will be ideal for the building?
a) Glass with SHGC 0.57 and U-value 4.8
b) Glass with SHGC 0.60 and U-value 2.5
c) Glass with SHGC 0.45 and U-value 3.7
d) Glass with SHGC 0.25 and U-value 1.8

46. Colour rendering is the measure of ____________ perceived through a material.

a) U-value
b) Transparence
c) Trueness of colour
d) All the above

47. ECBC stands for

a) Election Commission Building Code
b) Electricity Conservation Building Code
c) Energy Conservation Building Code
d) Energy Consumption Building Code

48. Which windows provide adequate daylight?

a) Punched windows
b) Strip windows
c) Recessed windows
d) Metallic windows

49. Solar control glass with SG/SHGC 0.3 means?

a) 7% solar contribution blocked outside and 93% passes inside
b) 70% solar contribution blocked outside and 30% passes inside
c) 30% solar contribution blocked outside and 70% passes inside
d) 93% solar contribution blocked outside and 7% passes inside

50. Heat transmittance through a surface by conduction, convection and radiation is

expressed by its _____
a) H-value
b) U-value
 c) S-value
d) R-value

51. Which is responsible for night time glare?

a) External light reflection
b) Light transmission
c) Internal light reflection
d) Light radiation

52. Hot bodies emit electromagnetic radiation in the form of __________ radiation
a) Ultraviolet
b) Infrared
c) Visible light
d) All the above
ANSWER KEYS

1B 8C 15 C 22 A 29 D 36 A 43 D 50 B

2C 9A 16 D 23 A 30 D 37 D 44 A 51 C

3B 10 C 17 B 24 A 31 A 38 C 45 C 52 B

4D 11 D 18 D 25 B 32 C 39 D 46 C

5C 12 A 19 D 26 D 33 A 40 C 47 C

6C 13 D 20 B 27 B 34 C 41 C 48 B

7D 14 A 21 B 28 B 35 D 42 A 49 B

-----------------------------------------------------------x-----------------------------------------------------------------

AR8702 – URBAN DESIGN ( MCQ): Not restricted to Unit 2

1. The meeting place/Assembly area in Greek towns are called as _________

a) Acropolis
b) Agora
c) Forum
d) All the above

2. Greek buildings do not have axial relationship but defined _________

a) Enclosure
b) Enclave
c) None of the above
d) Visual relationship
3. _________ is the one of the contribution of urban design in Greek towns
a) Finite size
b) Movement systems
c) Powerfully assertive landscape
d) Central open space

4. _________ is used as scale in Roman Towns

a) Human measurements
b) Module
c) Insulae
d) Decumanus

5. Is Monotony was broken by sculptures in Roman Period

a) Yes
b) No
c) May be
d) None of the above

6. _________ is the one of the contribution of urban design in Roman towns

a) Fortification
b) cardo
c) Castrum
d) All the above

7. Is monuments play vital role in Renaissance planning _________

a) No
b) May be
c) Yes
d) None of the above

8. _________ is one of the contribution of urban design in Renaissance planning

a) Square
b) Imbalanced Architectural Development
c) Defensive systems
d) None of the above

9. Renaissance city planning ideas based on _________

a) Centralized
b) Radial
c) Rectilinear
d) All the above
10. The medieval cities were _________ because
a) Scale
b) Identity
c) Orientation
d) Humanistic

11. Temple towns in India has unique_________

a) Unique Street Naming Systems
b) Grid pattern
c) Temple tank relationships
d) None of the above

12. Which one of the following is a not characteristic of temple towns?

a) Nuclear pattern
b) Haptic experience
c) Processional path
d) Meeting the earth

13. The planning principle of temple towns are based on the_________

a) Vasthusathra
b) Manasara
c) Silpasastra
d) Manasara in silapasatra

14. _________ is called as shopping area in Mughal towns

a) Havelis
b) Madrasa
c) Mohallas
d) Chowk

15. _________ is came into practice during Mughal period

a) Garden Design
b) Human scale
c) Axial relationship
d) Visual relationship

16. Is visual importance played vital role in Mughal planning principle

a) No
b) May be
c) Yes
d) None of the above
17. Chandigarh plan is based on the grid iron pattern defined by system of _________
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight

18. The dimension of the neighbourhood unit in Chandigarh is _________

a) 800x1200
b) 1000x1400
c) 1200x1600
d) None of the above

19. The concept behind the Chandigarh is based on biological analogy

a) No
b) Yes
c) May be
d) None of the above

20. Who planned the city Bhubaneshwar?

a) BV Doshi
b) Albert Mayer
c) Koenisberger
d) None of the above

21. How many types of road are planned in Bhubaneshwar city

a) Seven
b) Fourteen
c) Twenty One
d) Twenty Eight

22. Is neighbourhood unit are distinguished in Bhubaneshwar city

a) No
b) May be
c) Yes
d) None of the above

23. Le Corbusier proposed_________ distinct areas in Radiant city

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
24. The plan had a crisp _________ form with roads creating large rectangles interwoven
with major diagonals
a) Radial
b) Rectilinear
c) All the above
d) Geometric

25. The major objectives were to _________

a) Decongest the central city
b) Increase greenery
c) Improve circulation
d) All of the above

26. The concept behind radiant city is to _________

e) Promote high density
f) Question the sky scrappers
g) New pattern of built arrangement
h) All of the above

27. What are the characteristics of the American grid planning systems
a) Historical
b) Walkable
c) Sustainable
d) All of the above

28. The inherent characteristics of the grid plan are _________

a) Frequent intersections
b) Orthogonal geometry
c) Frequent intersections and Orthogonal geometry
d) None of the above

29. One of the main advantages of the grid plan was _________
a) Allowed the rapid subdivision
b) Check the orientation of non-development areas
c) Centralized plan
d) None of the above

30. In American grid planning systems Costs for streets depend largely on _________
a) Four Variables
b) Eight Variables
c) Nine Variables
d) Twelve Variables
31. Is urban phobia is another name for anti-urbanism
a) No
b) May be
c) Yes
d) None of the above

32. Anti-urbanism is a discourse of fear of the city, produced and reproduced via a variety of
_________
a) Negative representations of urban places
b) Positive representations of urban places
c) Space for recreational
d) None of the above

33. _________ was one of the force which triggered anti-urban representations
a) Industralization
b) Migration
c) New catalyst formation
d) None of the above

34. The idea of the picturesque in urban design is the idea of looking at the environment as a
_________
a) Picture or a collection of 'pictures
b) Picture
c) Collection of 'pictures
d) All of the above

35. In the visual arts, architecture and urban design a sequence is a series of images
expressing a thought or feeling_________
a) Space-time experience
b) Non sequential spaces
c) Haptic experiences
d) All of the above

36. The environment is interpreted as a_________

a) Dynamic succession of scenes
b) Environment perception
c) Spatial composition with respect to the environment
d) All of the above

37. Picturesque is also based on the_________

a) The perception of the environment
b) Spatial composition
c) Axial relationship
d) None of the above

38. Picturesque is also based on the_________

a) The perception of the environment
b) Spatial composition
c) Axial relationship
d) None of the above

39. La cite Industrielle is planned by _________

a) Le Corbusier
b) Mathew Nowicky
c) Tony Garnier
d) None of the above

40. In La cite Industrielle residential and civic centre is segregated by _________

a) Transit nodes
b) Green belt
c) Institutional centre
d) All of the above

41. In city Nuovo neighborhoods which were clustered around a _________

a) Transit nodes
b) Green belt
c) Institutional centre
d) CBC

42. In city Nuovo the industrial hub was located around a_________ which was the railway
station that connected with other cities
a) Transit nodes
b) Green belt
c) Residential neighborhood
d) All of the above

43. Is Industrial revolution is not co related with city growth

a) No
b) May be
c) Yes
d) None of the above

44. Each neighborhood had its own _________core as nucleus

 a) Commercial node
b) Transitional Node
c) Institutional centre
d) All of the above

45. Effect of Industrial revolution leads to _________

a) City beautiful movement
b) Promote Planning of new cities
c) To promote quality of life
d) All of the above

46. The disadvantage of the grid iron pattern is _________

a) Repetitive street geometry
b) Uniform Spatial composition
c) Monatomic in nature
d) All of the above

47. Planning of any cities is based on the _________

a) Density of people
b) Density of built units
c) Circulation movement
d) None of the above

48. Example for Greek cities _________

a) Athens
b) Miletus
c) Prine
d) All of the above

49. Example for Roman cities _________

a) Timgad
b) Nippur
c) Sippar
d) None of the above

50. Time period for Renaissance _________

a) 1420-1830 AD
b) 300-450 AD
c) 600-300 BC
d) None of the above
--------------------------------------------------------x--------------------------------------------------------------