PMC MOCK TEST 3

A virus has its of genome which is b. 2%

enclosed by a protein coat, called: c. 36%
a. Spore d. 38%
b. Capcid
c. Envelop 7. Which of the following is the
d. Shell final electron acceptor in
respiratory electron transport
2. Viruses are able to recognize the chain?
host surface by means of their: a. NADP+
a. Capsid b. Molecular oxygen
b. Spikes c. PS-I
c. DNA d. PS-II
d. RNA
8. Neil investigation on

M
3. Reverse transcriptase of HIV is photosynthesis was carried on :
used in: a. Cyanobacteria
a. Conversion of viral RNA into viral b. Angiosperms

O
DNA c. Algae
b. Conversion of viral RNA into host d. Bacteria
DNA
c. Conversion of viral DNA into viral
.C
9. Which of the following is milk
T
RNA sugar?
d. Conversion of host DNA into viral a. Sucrose
O

DNA b. Lactose
c. Maltose
G

4. Human immunodeficiency virus d. Starch

is:
E

a. An RNA enveloped virus 10. When two amino acids such as

b. A DNA enveloped virus
IS

glycine and alanine are variously

c. An RNA non-enveloped virus arranged to make dipeptides. How
d. An DNA non-enveloped virus many different dipeptide
W

combinations can be produced?

5. In aerobic respiration, a. 1
chemiosmosis occurs during : b. 2
a. Electron transport chain c. 3
b. Photo phosphorylation d. 4
c. Glycolysis
d. Kreb’s cycle 11. Which of the following bonds
maintain the primary structure of
6. One ATP molecule contains 1% a protein
of total energy of glucose, In a. Hydrogen bonds
anaerobic reactions how much b. Peptide bonds
energy of glucose is released as c. Disulphide bonds
ATP : d. Hydrophobic interaction
a. 1%

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
12. Maximum how many carbon b. Hydrophobic interactions between
atoms does an oligosaccharide phosphate heads
contain? c. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty
a. 3 acid tails
b. 7 d. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid
c. 70 tails
d. Many thousands
18. Which of the following is
13. Cholesterol is not present responsible for giving firmness
in______ and box-like shape to plant cells?
a. milk a. Cell wall
b. egg white b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. egg yolk c. Nucleus and vacuole
d. fish d. Cell membrane

M
14. Hydrogen bonding produces a 19. Golgi complex was discovered
regular coiled arrangement in by which scientist?

O
proteins called a. Robert Brown
a. α-helix b. Camillo Golgi
b. β-helix
c. Tertiary conformation
.C
c. De Duve
d. Robert Hooke
T
d. Quaternary structure
20. Which of these is the right
O

15. Which of the following is combination of molecules which

correct about globular proteins? make up the secondary cell wall in
G

a. Insoluble in water plant cells?

b. Elastic in nature a. Cellulose, lignin and xylem
E

c. Can be crystalized b. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin

d. their final structure is secondary c. Cellulose only
IS

d. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

16. Which cell organelle is
W

incorrectly matched with its 21. Which of the following is the

function? system of elongated sac like
a. Chloroplast – carbon fixation structures (cisternae) or tubes
b. Mitochondria – ATP synthesis linking the cell surface membrane
c. Cell membrane – cell recognition and the nuclear envelope?
d. Golgi apparatus – intracellular a. Mirotubules
digestion b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
17. Which interactions are d. Microfilaments
responsible for the formation of
lipid bilayer in the watery 22. Which one of the following can
environment of the body? easily pass through plasma
a. Hydrophobic interactions between membrane
fatty acid tails a. Fat soluble substances

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
b. Proteins c. Hypothalamus
c. Highly charged materials d. Thalamus
d. Polysacchrides
29. Which of the following is true
23. Endemic goitre relates to about cnidarians?
which altered function? a. They are deuterostomic animals
a. Increased Pancreas function b. They are triploblastic animals
b. Increased Thyroid function c. They are protostomous animals
c. Decreased Pancreas function d. They are diploblastic animals
d. Decreased Thyroid function
30. Which of the following animal
24. How many hormones does the phylum is included in series
Islets of Langerhans secrete? deuterostomia?
a. 1 a. Platyhelminthes

M
b. 2 b. Annelida
c. 3 c. Chordata
d. 4 d. Mollusca

O
25. The anterior part of cerebral
hemisphere located in the
cerebrum is classified as?
.C
31. Which of the following
invertebrate phylum consists of
the most abundant species on
T
a. Ganglion bulbs planet Earth:
b. Axon bulbs a. Porifera
O

c. Dendrite bulbs b. Cnidaria

d. Olfactory bulbs c. Arthropoda
G

d. Mollusca
26. Grave’s disease is produced
E

due to which of the following? 32. Which among the following

IS

a. Under Secretion of thyroxine lacks the nervous system

b. Under Secretion of corticosteroids a. Flat worms
c. Overproduction of corticosteroids b. Annelida
W

d. Overproduction of thyroxine c. Cnidaria

d. Sponge
27. Insufficient secretion of
thyroxine in adults causes which 33. The enzyme-substrate complex
of the following disorders? is formed in which part of the
a. Myxedema enzyme molecule?
b. Cretinism a. Binding site
c. Goiter b. Allosteric site
d. Addison’s disease c. Catalytic site
d. On all over the surface of enzyme
28. Which of the following is
second largest part of the brain? 34. In non-competitive inhibition,
a. Cerebellum the extent of inhibition depends
b. Cerebrum only on?

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
a. Concentration of enzyme b. greater quantity of melanin all over
b. Concentration of substrate the body
c. Concentration of ES complex c. Strong calf muscles
d. Concentration of inhibitor d. certain aquired characters

35. When the salivary amylase is 41. According to Darwin, the most
reached in stomach cavity: critical factor for evolution is:
a. It becomes an apoenzyme a. Migration
b. It is denatured b. Mutation
c. It participates in protein digestion c. Natural selection
d. It remains unaffected d. Genetic drift

36. Which of the following may 42. Lungs are spongy due to the
attach on active site of an enzyme? presence of million of?

M
a. Products a. Alveoli
b. Coenzyme b. Parabronchi
c. Activator c. Air sacs

O
d. Inhibitor d. Bronchioles

37. Which of the following part of

enzyme recognize the substrate?
.C
43. Functional units of lungs are
called which of the following?
T
a. Binding site a. Alveoli
b. Active site b. Parabronchi
O

c. Catalytic site c. Air sacs

d. Overall structure of an enzyme d. Bronchioles
G

38. Which of the following shows 44. Which of the following fish
E

significant effect of Genetic drift ? drink large amount of seawater

IS

a. Animal population and excrete concentrated urine

b. Plant population resulting in maximum salt
c. Large population excretion and minimal water loss?
W

d. Small population a. Hagfish

b. Freshwater fish
39. Which of the following was c. Bony fish
proposed by Lamarck in his d. Cartilaginous fishes
theory?
a. Overproduction 45. Which respiration is directly
b. struggle for existance involved in the production of
c. Natural selection energy, necessary for all living
d. Use and disuse of organs activities?
a. Organismic
40. Most likely, people who b. Cellular
perform tough manual work can c. Breathing
develop d. External respiration
a. thick subcutaneous fat in their palms

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
46. The mechanism of regulation, c. Photosynthetic bacteria
generally between organism and d. Saprotrophic bacteria
its environment, of solutes and the
gain and the loss of water is 52. A chemical which is applied on
called? non living surface in order to
a. Hemostasis control bacteria is called:
b. Homeostasis a. Disinfectants
c. Osmoregulation b. Antiseptic
d. Thermoregulation c. Vaccines
d. Antibiotics
47. Iliac vein from the lower limb’s
unit to form: 53. Which of the following is true
a. Vena cava about staphylococcus?
b. Renal vein a. It is chain of spherical bacteria
c. Hepatic portal vein

M
b. It is bunch of spherical bacteria
d. Cardiac vein c. It is square of spherical bacteria
d. It is cube of spherical bacteria

O
48. Plasma proteins synthesized
in:
a. Gall bladder
b. Liver
.C
54. End of menstrual cycle in old
age is called?
a. Menarche
T
c. Spleen b. Abortion
d. Skin c. Menopause
O

d. Telophase
49. A bacterial cell envelop does
G

not include : 55. The union of meiotically

a. Slime produced specialized sex cells
E

b. Campsule from each parents produce?

c. Cell wall
IS

a. Corpus luteum
d. Cell membrane b. Embryo
c. Zygote
W

50. A periplasmic space is: d. Neuroglial cells

a. The space between outer membrane
and peptidoglycan layer of cell wall 56. Which of the following is the
b. The space between cell membrane number of chromosomes in
and cell wall human zygote?
c. The space within the cell a. n
d. The space between phospholipid b. 2n
bilayer c. 3n
d. 4n
51. Which of the following bacteria
are also called recyclers of nature? 57. In reproduction, semen refers
a. Pathogenic bacteria to which of the following?
b. Parasitic bacteria a. Fluid and sperms
b. Blood cells and plasma

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. Blood and sperms c. 1 ratio 3
d. Egg and sperms d. 3 ratio 1

58. Which of the following part of 64. The genetic information for a
sperm cell penetrates into the specific character is detrrmined by
ovum during fertilization? a. Genome
a. Cytoplasm b. Transposon
b. Nucleus c. Gene
c. Acrosome d. Trait
d. Mitochondria
65. Blood group AB negative can
59. Hip joint and shoulder joint receive:
are the examples of: a. Blood group A posative
a. Ball and Socket Joint b. Blood group B posative

M
b. Hinge Joint c. Blood group O posative
c. Fibrous joint d. Any of the negative blood group
d. Cartilaginous joints

O
66. Blood group O negative can
60. Cardiac tissue is made up of :
a. Cardiac muscle
b. Smooth muscles
.C
receive:
a. Blood group A positive
b. Blood group B positive
T
c. Skeletal muscles c. Blood group O negative
d. Gut muscles d. Any of the positive blood group
O

61. The composition of skeletal 67. Which of the following is the

G

muscle is: wildtype phenotype of eye color in

a. Myosin only Drosophila
E

b. Actin only a. Black eyes

IS

c. Actin, myosin and troponin b. White eyes

d. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin c. Light red eyes
d. Bright red eyes
W

62. The skeletal system consists of:

a. All bones in body 68. Which of the following disease
b. All muscles and tendons has greater incidence in human
c. All body organs both soft and hard male than female?
tissues a. Haemophilia
d. All the bones in the body and tissues b. Cystic fibrosis
that connect them c. Thalassemia
d. Cretinism
63. What is the ratio of
homozygous to heterozygous PHYSICS
individuals in F2 generation of
monohybrid cross 69. If the bird catches its prey
a. 1 ratio 1 from a height which was initially
b. 1 ratio 2 at rest then momentum will

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
conserve for: b. 0.72 s
a. Bird c. 0.6 s
b. Prey d. 0.5 s
c. Either bird and prey
d. Both bird and prey 75. Kinetic energy of an oscillating
simple pendulum at the
70. A wagon of mass 1000 kg equilibrium positionis:
moves 50 km/h on smooth rails. a. Maximum
Later, a mass of 250 kg is placed in b. Minimum
the wagon. What is the velocity c. Zero
with which it moves? d. Information insufficient
a. 20 km/h
b. 50 km/h 76. A car and a train both have
c. 40 km/h same kinetic energy. Which one
d. 25 km/h

M
has greater momentum?
a. Car
71. A force of 50 dynes is acted on a b. Train

O
body of mass 5 g which is at rest c. Both have same
for an interval of 3 seconds, then d. No change
impulse is
a. 0.00015 N.s
.C
77. Unit of power in british
T
b. 0.0015 N.s engineering system is:
c. 0.15 N.s a. Horse power
O

d. 1.5 N.s b. Watt

c. Kilowatt
G

72. The total momentum of a flock d. Joule

of identical birds could be zero
E

only if the birds are: 78. A 10kW motor pumps out

a. Taking off from the ground
IS

water from a well 10 meter deep.

b. Flying in the same direction What is the quantity of water
c. Flying in different directions pumped out per second?
W

d. Very tired and coming down to rest a. 9.2 kg

b. 9.5 kg
73. Which of the following c. 10.2 kg
quantities has no effect on simple d. 10.8 kg
projectile motion?
a. Velocity 79. The acceleration produced by
b. Force the centripetal force is always:
c. Mass a. Directed parallel to the center of the
d. Acceleration circle
b. Directed perpendicular to the center
74. If a particle launched with of the circle
5m/s at angle of 45 degree, then c. Directed towards the center of the
time of flight is: circle
a. 1.44 s

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
d. Directed away from the center of the c. Nodes
circle d. Intensity

80. The earth rotates 360 ∘ about 86. Sound waves are considered
its axis in about 24 hours. By how as____ waves:
many degrees will it rotate in 2 a. Compressional
hours? b. Transverse
a. 90 c. Longitudinal
b. 60 d. Shock
c. 30
d. 15 87. Stationary waves are produced
by:
81. The direction associated with a. Reflection
angular displacement is given by: b. Interference

M
a. Left-hand rule c. Diffraction
b. Head to tail rule d. Rarefaction
c. Right-hand rule

O
d. Fleming left hand rule 88. When two ends of string are

82. Centripetal force is provided

by________ in a frictional road
.C
struck together simultaneously
such that two troughs are traveling
towards each other, than at
T
around a circular path: reaching the centre of string ____
a. Friction force is formed:
O

b. Normal force a. Higher amplitude

c. Gravitational force b. Lower amplitude
G

d. Pseudo forces c. Waves die immediately

d. Troughs converted to crest
E

83. Speed of sound does not

IS

depend on: 89. Waves which always need

a. Pressure medium to travel are _______
b. Density waves:
W

c. Adiabatic index a. Light

d. Amplitude b. Stationary
c. Sound
84. The speed of sound cannot be d. Both sound and stationary
greater than:
a. Speed of shock wave 90. For a monatomic ideal gas of 6
b. Speed of light mole Cp /Cv :
c. Speed of water wave a. 1.4
d. Speed of sound in vacuum b. 1.67
c. 5
85. The sound waves have no: d. 3
a. Frequency of the wave
b. Energy 91. Cp for monatomic gas in terms
of R is:

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
a. 3/5 R surface
b. 5/3 R d. Magnitude of charge enclosed in the
c. 5/4 R surface
d. 5/2 R
98. Electric potential determines
92. Cp = 49 J/K.mole and Cv= 35 the flow of?
J/K,mol then what type of gas is a. Atom
this? b. Molecule
a. Diatomic c. Compound
b. Monatomic d. Charge
c. Triatomic
d. Nonlinear triatomic 99. In parallel plate capacitor
Capacitance depends on:
93. Which of the following forces a. Charge

M
are only attractive? b. Electric field
a. Electrostatic forces c. Voltage
b. Gravitational forces d. Crosssectional area

O
c. Magnetic forces
d. Forces between same poles of magnet

94. Which of the following forces

.C
100. Ohm’s law is valid at
_______ temperatures
a. Constant
T
are non conservative? b. Varying
a. Electric force c. Low
O

b. Gravitational force d. High

c. Frictional forces
G

d. Elastic spring force 101. In order to achieve high

accuracy, the slide wire of a
E

95. Parallel combination of two potentiometer should be

IS

capacitor C1 and C2 is: a. As long as possible

a. C1+ C2 b. As short as possible
b. (C1)(C2) c. Neither too small not too large
W

c. (C1C2)/(C1+C2) d. Very thick

d. C1/C2
102. ______ is a source of
96. Charge inside conductor is: electrical energy having fixed
a. Possible polarity and terminals
b. Can be greater than zero a. Motor
c. Zero b. Metals
d. Negative always c. Battery
d. Generator
97. The electric flux through a
closed surface depends upon the: 103. Correct form of ohm’s law
a. Size of the surface a. i = vr
b. Shape of the surface b. v = i/r
c. Position of charge enclosed in the

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. v = ir a. Gravitational law
d. r= iv b. Coulomb law
c. Newton’s law
104. Ohm’s law is valid when the d. Lenze’s law
temperature of conductor is :
a. Very low 110. The Lenz’s law is used to find
b. Very high out the direction of
c. Varying a. Current induced in circuit
d. Constant b. Potential energy
c. Magnetic field
105. The specific resistance of a d. Force
conductor increases with:
a. Increase in temperature 111. Transformer works on
b. Increase in cross-sectional area principle of :

M
c. Decrease in length a. Electromagnetic induction
d. Decrease in cross-sectional area b. Coulombs law
c. Gauss’s law

O
106. When two magnets come d. Ampere’s law
closer such that same poles face
each other than field lines:
a. Intersect
.C
112. Transformer can convert
_____
T
b. Repel a. Low DC voltage
c. Come closer b. High DC voltage
O

d. Nothing will happen c. Battery voltage

d. AC voltage
G

107. When two positive charge

particles moves towards each 113. Eddy currents flow in:
E

other in opposite direction: a. Open loops

IS

a. Repulsion occurs b. Closed loops

b. Attraction occurs c. Straight lines
c. Nothing will happen d. Vertical loops
W

d. Charge will be neutralized

114. Ripple factor of half wave
108. When two positive and rectifier is:
negative particles are moving a. 1.21
opposite to each other in uniform b. 0.8
magnetic field: c. 0.6
a. Deflection occurs d. 0.4
b. Attraction occurs
c. Repulsion occurs 115. Planck constant is named
d. Nothing will happen after:
a. Einstein
109. The induced emf will oppose b. Newton
the flux producing it is according c. Maxwell
to: d. Max planck

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
116. Photocell is based on: c. High resolution images
a. Photoelectric effect d. Gamma rays
b. Compton effect
c. Photoluminescence CHEMISTRY
d. Pair production
123. The number of formula units
117. A beam of electrons can be: in 10.0 g of CaCO₃ are:
a. Reflected a. 6.022×10²²
b. Refracted b. 6.022×10²³
c. Reflected and refracted c. 3.011×10²²
d. Polarized d. 3.011×10²³

118. Spectral lines is like a 124. In a perticular chemical

__________ of absorbed or reaction the actual yield was 70gm,

M
emission energy in a spectrum: while that of its theoretical yield is
a. Charged Pattern 100 gm. The pecentage yield of the
b. Fingerprint Pattern

O
said reation is:
c. Discharged Pattern a. 100%
d. Scattered Pattern

119. The black body always _____

.C
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 20%
T
radiations:
a. Emit 125. In the process of iron rusting,
O

b. Absorb which of the following is limiting

c. Both Emit And Absorb reactant?
G

d. Reflects a. Iron
b. Oxygen
E

120. How many up quarks in c. Air

IS

proton: d. Water
a. 1
b. 2 126. Which of the following
W

c. 3 doesnot have complete octet?

d. 4 a. O ²⁻
b. N⁵⁺
121. Which particle has no charge: c. Ca²⁺
a. Electron d. K⁺
b. Proton
c. Neutron 127. The value of Azimuthal
d. Positron quantum number (l) depends
upon:
122. The electrons are accelerated a. n
in microscopes to produce: b. m
a. X rays c. s
b. Beta rays d. p

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
128. In the discharge tube positive 133. Which of the following
rays move in which direction? substances has the largest
a. Towards anode intermolecular forces of attraction
b. Towards cathode ?
c. Move randomly a. H₂O
d. Move towards vacuum in the tube b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
129. What is the shape of s-orbital? d. H₂Te
a. Lobed
b. Spherical 134. Which of the following
c. Dumbell substances has the largest
d. Sausage intermolecular forces of attraction
?
130. According to kinetic theory, a. H₂O
b. H₂S

M
which of the following statements
is/are correct? a. Gases consist of c. H₂Se
particles (atoms or molecules)in d. H₂Te

O
continuous random motion. b.
Collisions between particles are 135. Which of the following solids
elastic. c. The volume occupied by
particles is negligibly small d.
.C
shows the phenomenon of
Isomorphism ?
T
Attractive forces between particles a. Molecular solids
are significant at room temerature b. Covalent solids
O

and pressure. c. Ionic solids

a. a and b d. Metallic solids
G

b. a, b and c
c. b and c 136. Who proposed valence bond
E

d. only d theory for metals?

a. Loren
IS

131. 1 atm is equal to the following b. Drudge

EXCEPT: c. L.Pauling
W

a. 760 mm of Hg d. Maxwell
b. 76 cm of Hg
c. 760 torr 137. Ksp (Solubility product)
d. 1.47 psi depends upon:
a. pressure
132. The temperature at which b. Concentration
volume of all the ideal gases c. Temperature
becomes zero is: d. Volume
a. 0 K
b. 0 C⁰ 138. Nitrogen and Hydrogen
c. 0 F⁰ present in Equilibrium Mixture in
d. 32 F⁰ Haber Process remain in
a. Solid state
b. Liquid state

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. Gaseous state a. Negative reduction potential
d. Mixture of solid and gas b. Negative oxidation potential
c. Positive reduction potential
139. Upon passing Hydrogen d. Negative electrode potential
chloride gas through a brine
solution, which of the following is 145. The element has highest
observed? reduction potential in
a. Concentration of NaCl₍ₐq₎ decreases electrochemical series is:
b. Crystalization of NaCl takes place. a. Zinc
c. Concentraion of Na⁺ ion increases b. Fluorine
d. concentrtion of Cl⁻ ion decreases c. Oxygen
d. Lithium
140. At ordinary temperature only
few molecule possess energy equal 146. The requirement for bond

M
to formation in HF can be met by
a. Kinetic Energy a. 2 orbitals & 1 electron
b. Potential Energy b. 2 orbital & 2 electron

O
c. Activation energy c. 1 orbital & 1 electron
d. Ionization Energy d. 1 orbital & 2 electron

141. The slowest reaction among

.C
147. Covalent radius is defined as
T
these is: half of the single bonded length
a. Neutralization between _____ atoms covalently
O

b. Double Decomposition Reactions bonded in a molecule.

c. Ionic Reactions a. Two Different
G

d. Hydrogenation Reaction b. Two Simultaneous

c. Any Two
E

142. Born Haber cycle is used to d. Two Similar

IS

determine:
a. Enthalpy of lattice 148. When repulsive force tend to
b. Enthalpy of formation push the atoms apart and the
W

c. Enthalpy of neutralization potential energy of the system is

d. Enthalpy of solution _____.
a. No Effect
143. Which of the following law is b. Decrease
an application of first law of c. Increase
thermodynamics? d. Change in alternation
a. Hess’s law
b. Dalton’s law 149. The Halide of aluminum
c. Moseley’s Law is______?
d. Avogadro’s law a. Electron deficient
b. Lewis acid
144. Cu,Au and Ag are least c. High melting point
reactive, because they d. High boiling point
have______?

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
150. Among alkali metals which of c. Catalytic cracking
the following property is high for d. Thermal cracking
Li?
a. Hydration energy 156. Which of the following has
b. Ionic radius anti knocking properties?
c. Electropositivity a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
d. Atomic size b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
151. Among alkaline earth metals d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si
the one which shows the least
chemical reactivity is: 157. Which of the following
a. Be fraction of petroleum has lowest
b. Ca boiling point at STP.
c. Mg a. Kerosine oil
d. Ba

M
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
152. Alkali metal oxides dissolve in d. Natureal gas

O
water to give:
a. Alkaline solution
b. Neutral solution
c. Acidic solution
.C
158. Benzene is less reactive than
is corresponding alkene due to:
a. More Unsaturation
T
d. Buffer solution b. More Saturation
c. Less electronegativity difference
O

153. Electrons flow from———- between C and H-atom

a. Anode to cathode d. Delocalization of pi electrons
G

b. Cathode to anode
c. Don’t flow 159. What is the structure of
E

d. In either directions benzene?

IS

a. Regular, flat planar hexagon

154. A galvanic cell is setup b. Regular, 3D hexagon
a. When a less reactive metal contacts a c. Regular, flat planar octagon
W

more reactive metal via an electrolyte d. Regular, planar pentagon

b. When two reactive metals contact via
an electrolyte 160. The less reactivity of benzene
c. When two reactive metals are placed is due to:
in any solution a. Sigma bond
d. When two metals come in direct b. Delocalization of pi electrons
contact c. Less electronegativity of C atom
d. Hexagonal structure
155. The breaking of large
molecules by heating at high 161. What is the catalyst in Friedel-
temperature and pressure is Crafts Alkylation?
called: a. AlCl₃
a. Reforming b. Al₂S₃
b. Steam cracking

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. AlH₃ 168. Which of the following
d. Al₂O₃ reactions are given by alcohol and
phenol both?
162. In termination step two free a. Esterification
radicals combine to form: b. Nitrosation
a. Another free radical c. Amide formation
b. A molecule d. Lucas Reaction
c. A molecular ion
d. A cation 169. Idoform test is used to check
the presence of :
163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ a. Amines
is: b. Carbonyl compounds
a. Methyl chloride c. Carboxylic acid
b. Methylene chloride d. Alkyl halides

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c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride 170. Acetone is less reactive than
acetaldehyde due to:

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164. Which one of the following is a. More Steric hindrance offered by its
methyl groups.
a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
.C
b. Electron withdrawing nature of its
methyl groups.
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c. OH- c. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp² hybridized.
d. HSO4- d. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more
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electronegative than carbon atom.

165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
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a. Primary Alkyl halides 171. Formaldehyde reacts with

b. Secondary Alkyl Halides which one of the following to give
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c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides primary alcohols

a. Fehling’s reagant
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d. Quarternary Alkyl halides

b. Benedict’s Reagant
c. Grignard’s reagant
166. Which of the following
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d. Millon’s reagant
reactions are given by alcohol and
phenol both?
a. Esterification 172. Complete the following
b. Nitrosation reaction: CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O —>.
c. Amide formation a. Both HOC₂H₅ and CH₃CO₂H
d. Lucas Reaction b. Both HOCH₃ and CH₃CO₂H
c. HOC₂H₅ Only
d. CH₃CO₂H Only
167. Which of the following
reactions are given by alcohol and
phenol both? 173. The aliphatic monocarboxylic
a. Esterification acid is obtained from:
b. Nitrosation a. fats and oils
c. Amide formation b. proteins and oils
d. Lucas Reaction

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. fats and proteins b. rabbit
d. fats only c. squirrel
d. tortoise
174. Acetic acid was first isolated
from: 180. We will go to Dubai. Which
a. Ants tense is used here?
b. Butter a. Present
c. Milk b. Past
d. Vinegar c. Future
d. Past Perfect
175. A solid compound exists in
more than one crystalline form, 181. Which one is future tense?
this phenomenon is called: a. They are going to the market.
a. Allotropy b. I will play football.

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b. Isomorphism c. We watched a movie yesterday.
c. Polymorphism d. He has done his work.
d. Isomerism

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182. Which one is correct?
176. Which of the following is not
true about Polymorphs?
a. Have same chemical properties
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a. I will go to the market.
b. I will gone to the market.
c. I will went to market.
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b. Interconvertible d. I will have go to market.
c. Have same formula unit
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d. Have different formula unit 183. The market is nearer to them

than__________.
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ENGLISH a. we
b. ourself
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177. Ali sent his mother a ______ c. us

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of flowers for her birthday. d. ourselves

a. bar
b. bouquet 184. Find the correctly spelt word
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c. pack a. Sovereign
d. packet b. Soveregn
c. Soverean
178. Can you please ______ your d. Soverein
name at the bottom of the
contract? 185. Choose the word wrongly
a. cross spelt.
b. answer a. Semester
c. sign b. Senesent
d. lay c. Sensory
d. Salacious
179. The ______ climbed up the
tree and hid inside the branches. 186. I ___________ to learn a lot
a. deer of new words within one month.

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
a. am going was on top of the highest point of my
b. will farm.
c. about c. Whatever my father want me to see
d. can be was on top of the highest point of my
farm.
187. I woke up ________ five d. Whatever my father wanted me to saw
o’clock __________ the morning. was on top of the highest point of my
a. for… in farm.
b. at.. in
c. in… at 193. Which one is correct?
d. at… for a. The book that we needed to finish
ours research was missing from the
188. The weather is pleasant here library.
________ the spring. b. The book that we need to finish our
research was missing from the library.

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a. above
b. around c. The book that we needed to finish our
c. in research was missing from the library.

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d. on d. The book that we needs to finish our
research was missing from the library.
189. Choose the correct spelling of
the word.
.C
194. Which one is correct?
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a. Exhebition a. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and
b. Exhibition cereal on the kitchen table to my family.
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c. Exhabation b. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and

d. Exehation cereal on the kitchen table from my
G

family.
c. I set up a breakfast of yogurt and
190. Choose the correct spelling of
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cereal on the kitchen table for my

the word. family.
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a. Brucracy d. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and

b. Beaurocricy cereal on the kitchen table for my
c. Bureaucracy family.
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d. Bueraucracy
LOGICAL REASONING
191. Choose the correct spelling of
the word
a. Bilding 195. I. There has been opposition
b. Buillding by the protestors over the
c. Building government’s decision of removal
d. Bulding of subsidy on fertilizers. II. The
government has decided to remove
subsidy on some of the items to
192. Which one is correct? bring reform to the economy.
a. Whatever my father wanted me see a. Statement I is the cause and
was on top of the highest point of my statement II is its effect.
farm. b. Statement II is the cause and
b. Whatever my father wanted me to see statement I is its effect.

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 PMC MOCK TEST 3
c. Both statements I and II are Ali is farther away than Farhan,
independent causes but closer than Numan.
d. Both statements I and II are the
effects of independent cause. Approximately how far away from
the airport is Ali?
196. Statement: There was a spurt a. Nine miles
in criminal activities in the city b. Seven miles
during the recent festival season. c. Eight miles
d. Six miles
Courses of Action: I. The police
should immediately investigate 200. A boy walks 30 meters in the
into the causes of this increase. II. north direction, after that he takes
In the future the police should take a right turn and walks 40 meters.
adequate precautions to avoid the After that, he takes another right

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recurrence of such situation turn and walks 40 meters more,
during festivals. III. The known and finally, he took a right turn
criminals should be arrested and stops after walking 40 meters.

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before any such season.
a. Only I and II follow.
b. Only II follows
c. All I, II and III follow.
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Find the distance of The boy from
the initial position.
a. 5 m
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d. Either I or II follows b. 10 m
c. 15 m
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197. “Pick the word which is d. 20 m

always associated with “”books””.”
G

a. Pages
b. Learning
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c. Pictures
d. Eraser
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198. Pick the word which is always

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associated with: Electrical Energy.

a. Light
b. Cars
c. Power
d. Water

199. Daniyal has been visiting

friends in his flat for the past two
weeks. He is leaving tomorrow
morning and his flight is very
early. Most of his friends live fairly
close to the airport. Usman lives
ten miles away. Farhan lives five
miles away, Numan, seven miles.

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