24/10/2020 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

(For NEET-2021)
Test – 01

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics: Units and Measurements, Motion in a straight line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry: Some basic concepts of chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plant :
Introduction, The Root - Regions of Root, Modification of Root, The Stem - Modification of Stem,
The Leaf - Venation, Types of Leaves, Phyllotaxy, Modification of Leaves, The Inflorescence, The
Flower
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals-Animal tissues, Biomolecules, Digestion and absorption,
Breathing and Exchange of gases

Choose the correct answer: 4. Least count error belongs to the category of
1. If the size of nucleus is in the range of 10–15 m to (1) Random errors only
10–14 m is scaled up to the tip of sharp pin. (2) Systematic errors only
(Assume tip of pin to be in the range of 10–6 m to (3) systematic error and random error both
10–5). Roughly the size of atom is (4) Neither systematic error nor random error
(1) 0.1 m (2) 1 m 5. A student measures the period of oscillation of a
(3) 0.01 m (4) 10 m simple pendulum in successive measurements,
the reading turn out to be 1.98 s, 1.99 s, 2.06 s,
2. Choose the correct option 2.08 s and 1.95 s. A more accurate way to write
(1) A most precise measurement, will necessarily the measurement with error is
be most accurate (1) 2.0 ± 0.1 s (2) 2.03 + 0.06 s
(2) A most precise measurement may be most (3) 2.0 + 0.06 s (4) 2.03 ± 0.1 s
accurate 6. Each side of a cube is measured to be 6.372 m.
(3) A most accurate measurement will The total surface area of cube with appropriate
necessarily will be most precise significant figures is
(1) 243.614304 m2 (2) 243.6 m2
(4) A most precise measurement will be less
(3) 2 × 102 m (4) 2.5 X 102 m2
accurate
7. Choose the correct statement
3. In cesium clock 1 second is the time in which
(1) A dimensionally correct equation need not
Cesium – 133 atom vibrate between two hyperfine
to be an actually correct equation
level
(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be an
(1) 9,292,631,770 times actually correct equation.
(2) 9,193,631,770 times (3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be
(3) 9, 192, 631, 770 times. correct
(4) 9, 192, 631, 720 times. (4) Both (1) and (2)

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8. A famous relation in physics with many printing (3) Observe the things and act
errors relates the moving mass ‘m’ with rest mass (4) observe the things, think and act.
for an object moving with speed V is written as
14. A person driving a car with a speed of 72 Km/h
η0 2 observe a boy crossing the road at a distance of
m=
 b 
1/2
100 m from car. Driver apply the brake and retard
1 – c 2  the car with a retardation of 5 m/s2 and just able to
 
avoid the accident. The reaction time of driver is
Dimensional formula of η0 and b are (1) 2.0 s (2) 2.4 s
respectively. (c is speed of light) (3) 3.0 s (4) 2.8 s
(1) [M], [LT–1] (2) [M], [L2T– 2] 15. In any realistic Condition (v-t) and (a-t) graph can
(3) [M½], [LT–1] (4) [M½], [L2T– 2]. not have sharp kinks at some points this implies
9. The numerical value of gravitational Constant G = that
N × m2 (1) Only acceleration can not change abruptly at
6.67x10-11 . In a new system of units in an instant but velocity can be change abruptly
Kg2
1 (2) only velocity can not change abruptly at an
which unit of mass is kg, unit of length is 10 instant, but acceleration can change abruptly
40
m and unit of time is 20 s will be (3) Both velocity and acceleration can change
abruptly at an instant
(1) 6:67 × 10 – 11 (2) 6.67 × 10– 8
(4) Both velocity and acceleration can not change
(3) 6.67 X10– 13 (4) 13.34 × 10– 8 abruptly at an instant changes are always
10. Choose the correct statement continuous
(1) Area under acceleration time graph gives the 16. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity
velocity of body of 20 m/s from the top of 160m high building. The
(2) Area under acceleration time graph gives time taken by ball to hit the ground is (g=10 m/s2)
speed of body (1) 8 s (2) 10 s
(3) Area under acceleration time graph gives (3) 12s (4) 6 s
change in speed of body 17. The position time graph of two objects A and B are
(4) Area under acceleration time graph gives as shown in graph, from graph we can conclude
change in velocity of body that
11. Choose the correct statement for one dimensional
motion
(1) With constant speed in an interval may have
non zero acceleration in that interval
(2) With negative value of acceleration speed
must decrease
(3) With positive value of acceleration speed must
increase
(4) With negative value of acceleration speed
(1) Both A and B are moving in same direction.
may increase
(2) Object A starts motion earlier than B
12. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 step
forward & 4 steps backward and then stay for 2 s (3) Both A and B are moving in opposite direction
and repeat the same process. Each step is 1 m (4) Object B starts motion earlier than A.
long and require 1 s . The time taken by drunkard
to fall in a pit 10 m away from start is 18. In which of the following cases an object can be
considered as point object
(1) 45 s (2) 60 s
(1) Length of train in comparison to plate form
(3) 75 s (4) 65 s
(2) Length of engine of train in comparison to
13. The reaction time is the time interval in which a length of train.
person.
(3) A spinning cricket ball to that turns sharply on
(1) Observe the things
hitting the ground
(2) Think about the observations
(4) Size of nucleus in comparison to size of atom

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19. Two vectors are said to be equal, if on shifting one (3) Due to change in both magnitude and
of the vector parallel to itself direction of velocity
(1) Tail of one vector Coincide with other (4) Neither due to change in magnitude of velocity
(2) Head of one vector coincide with other. nor due to change indirection
26. In circular motion the direction of angular velocity is
(3) Both head and tail of one vector Coincide with
other (1) In the plane of circle
(4) Neither head nor tail of one vector Coincide (2) Perpendicular to plane of circle
with other
(3) In the direction of velocity
20. A null vector has
(4) In the direction of acceleration
(1) Zero magnitude and specified direction 27. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along
(2) Zero magnitude and arbitrary direction a fixed direction is as shown in figure. The average
speed of the particle between 5 s to 15 s is
(3) Zero magnitude and no direction
(4) Non zero magnitude and arbitrary direction
21. To a person moving with a speed of 5 m/s towards
east rain appears to be falling vertically downward
with a speed of 5 3 m/s. The actual velocity of
rain is
(1) 10 m/s at 30° with vertical
(2) 20 m/s at 30° with vertical (1) 11.25 m/s (2) 6 m/s
(3) 10 m/s at 60° with vertical (3) 5 m/s (4) 7.5 m/s
(4) 20 m/s at 60° with vertical 28. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one
dimensional motion is as shown in figure.
22. A vector can be resolved
(1) Only in two components
(2) Only in three components
(3) In any number of components
(4) Either two or three components
23. The magnitude of components of vector
(1) Must be less than magnitude of vector Which of the following formulae is correct for
(2) Must be equal to magnitude of vector describing the motion of particle over time interval
t1 to t2 is
(3) May be greater than magnitude of vector
1 2
(4) All the components necessarily less than (1) X t2 = X t1 + v t1 (t2 − t1) + a ( t2 – t1 )
magnitude of vector 2
24. A motorboat is racing towards north at a speed of t2 v t1 + a (t 2 – t1)
(2) v =
10 m/s, wind start to blow with a speed of 10 m/s
at 60° east of north. The resultant velocity of boat 1 2
(3) X t2 = X t1 + v average (t2 − t1) + a average(t2 − t1 )
is 2

(1) 10 3 m/s at 30° east of north X t2 − X t1

(4) v average =
t2 − t1
(2) 10 3 m/s at 30° north of east
(3) 20 m/s at 30° west of north 29. A boy standing on a lift moving with speed 10 m/s.
The lift is open from top. The boy throws the ball
(4) 10 3 m/s at 30° west of north with maximum speed of 24.5 m/s in upward
direction. In how much time the ball returns to the
25. In circular motion. The centripetal acceleration is hand of boy? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) Due to change in magnitude of velocity only (1) 10 s (2) 5 s
(2) Due to change in direction of velocity only (3) 7.5 s (4) 6 s

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30. Which of the following graphs can represent the (1) Angular frequency
one dimensional motion of particle
(2) Angular velocity
(3) Number of moles
(1) (4) Both (1) & (2)
35. Which of the following option is correct
(1) Each component of a vector is always scalar
(2) Three vectors not lying in a plane can never
add up to give null vector
(3) Two vectors of different magnitude can be add
(2) up to give null vector
(4) Minimum number of vector not lying in a plane
to give null vector is five
36. A particle A is moving with velocity (3iˆ + 4 jˆ) m/s
and particle B is moving with velocity
(3) ( −3iˆ − 4 jˆ) m/s . The magnitude of relative velocity
of B w.r.t. A is
(1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s
 
37. If two vectors, =A a iˆ + 6 jˆ and B
= biˆ + cjˆ are
(4) equal then correct option for value of a, b and c is
(1) a = b
(2) a = c
31. A man walks on a straight road from his home to
market 2.0 km away with a speed of 4.0 km/h, stay (3) c = 6
in market for 30 min for purchasing and returns to (4) Both (1) & (3)
home with a speed of 6 km/h. The magnitude of
average speed of whole journey is 38. In uniform circular motion

(1) 4 km/h (1) Acceleration of particle remains constant both

in magnitude and direction
(2) 3 km/h
(3) 4.5 km/h (2) Velocity of particle remains constant

(4) 3.5 km/h (3) Speed of particle changes continuously

32. The equation of the trajectory of an object is (4) Acceleration of particle remains constant in
determined by magnitude and change in direction
(1) Acceleration only 39. Equation of trajectory of a projectile is
(2) Velocity of projection only =
y 3 x − 5 x 2 . Then angle of projection with
(3) Initial position and initial velocity only vertical is (assume x-axis as horizontal and y-as
vertical)
(4) Initial position, initial velocity and acceleration
33. Which of the following vector operation is (1) 45° (2) 30°
meaningful (3) 60° (4) 53°
(1) Multiplying any two vectors
40. A projectile is projected with initial velocity
(2) Adding any two vectors (10 iˆ + 20 ˆj ) m/s ) from the ground. The velocity of
(3) Adding a component of vector to the same the body just before hitting the ground is
vector
(4) Both (1) & (3) (1) 10 iˆ + 20 ˆj (2) −10 iˆ + 20 ˆj

34. Which of the following quantities are vector (3) 10 iˆ − 20 ˆj (4) −10 iˆ − 20 ˆj
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41. The component of (3iˆ + 4 jˆ) in the direction of (2) 1000 m

(iˆ − jˆ) is (3) 1732 m

(4) 4000 m
jˆ − iˆ iˆ − jˆ
(1) (2) 44. A man can swim with a speed of 5 km/h in still
2 2 water. How long does he take to cross a river 1.0
7 7 km wide by shortest path, if the river is flowing
(3) (iˆ − jˆ) (4) ( jˆ − iˆ) steadily at 4 km/h
2 2
(1) 20 min
42. The correct statement for a scalar quantity is
(2) 30 min
(1) It is conserved in a process
(3) 12 min
(2) It can never take negative values
(4) 15 min
(3) It does not vary from one point to another in
space 45. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity
(4) It has the same value for the observers with 4.0 Jˆ m/s and moves in x - y plane a constant
different orientation of axis acceleration of (6iˆ + 4 ˆj ) m/s2. The time after
43. On an open ground a motorist follows a track that turn which y-coordinate of particle will be 48 m is
to his left by an angle of 72° after every 1000 m. (1) 6 s (2) 4 s
Starting from a given turn, the displacement of
motorist at forth turn is (3) 8 s (4) 5 s
(1) 1500 m

Chemistry
46. Total energy of electron in the third orbit of He+ ion is 51. If the density of ethanol is 0.78 kg L–1, then volume
(1) –2.18 ×10–18 J (2) –8.72 ×10–18 J of ethanol needed for making 2 L of 0.5 M solution
is
(3) –9.69 ×10–19 J (4) –4.5 ×10–19 J
(1) 45.2 mL (2) 58.97 mL
47. Angular momentum of the electron orbiting in the
second orbit of hydrogen atom is (3) 71.4 mL (4) 25.5 mL
52. Concentration of nitric acid in moles per litre in a
h h
(1) (2) sample which has density 1.25 g mL–1 and mass
π 2π per cent of nitric acid in it being 63 % is
h 2h (1) 8.75 M (2) 6.25 M
(3) (4)
4π π (3) 4.5 M (4) 12.5 M
48. Incorrect statement among the following is 53. Consider the following statements
(1) Cathode rays start from cathode and move (a) Zeros at the end or right of a number are
towards anode. significant provided they are on the right side
of decimal point
(2) The characteristics of cathode rays do not
depend upon the material of electrodes (b) Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are not
significant
(3) Canal rays are positively charged gaseous
ions (c) zeros between two non-zero digits are
significant
(4) The charge to mass ratio of anode rays is
independent of the gas from which these The correct statements are
originate (1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only
49. According to Rutherford, the radius of an atom is (3) (a) & (c) only (4) (a), (b) & (c)
(1) 10–10 cm (2) 10–15 cm 54. Moles of CO2 obtained on complete oxidation of
(3) 10–12 m (4) 10–10 m 22 g of propane in presence of excess of oxygen
is
50. Number of significant figures in 200.0 is
(1) Zero (2) Four (1) 1.5 (2) 2
(3) Three (4) One (3) 2.5 (4) 0.5

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55. If a ball of 50 g moving with a velocity of 100 ms–1 66. If a 60 watt bulb emits monochromatic radiation of
then the wavelength associated with the ball will wavelength 600 nm then number of photons
be emitted per second by the bulb will be
(1) 1.3 × 10–34 m (2) 1.3 × 10–37 m (1) 1.8 × 1020 (2) 3.6 × 1021
(3) 1.3 × 10–35 m (4) 1.3 ×10–36 m (3) 1.8 × 1021 (4) 3.6 × 1020
56. Correct order of energy of 2s orbital of K, Na, Li 67. Consider the following statement about
and H is photoelectric effect
(1) E2s(K) > E2s(H) > E2s(Na) > E2s(Li) (a) The number of electrons ejected is
(2) E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K) proportional to the intensity of light
(b) Kinetic energy of ejected electrons increase
(3) E2s(K) > E2s(Na) > E2s(Li) > E2s(H)
with the increase of wavelength of the light
(4) E2s(Li) > E2s(H) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)
(c) Work function of potassium is greater than
57. For hydrogen atom number of degenerate orbitals lithium
in third shell is
Incorrect statements are
(1) 5 (2) 6
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only
(3) 9 (4) 3
(3) (a) & (c) only (4) (a), (b) & (c)
58. For multielectron system the decreasing order of
68. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lie in
energy of given orbitals 5d, 4f, 5p, 5s is
ultraviolet region?
(1) 5d > 4f > 5p > 5s (2) 4f > 5d > 5p > 5s
(1) Pfund (2) Brackett
(3) 5s > 5d > 5p > 4f (4) 4f > 5s > 5d > 5p
(3) Paschen (4) Lyman
59. Which among the following is not a semi-metal?
69. If wavelength of a photon is 500 nm then the mass
(1) Si (2) Ge of the photon will be
(3) Ti (4) As (1) 4.4 × 10–32 kg (2) 2.4 × 10–31 kg
60. Ampoteric oxide(s) among the following is/are (3) 3.3 × 10–30 kg (4) 4.4 × 10–36 kg
(1) Al2O3 (2) Na2O 70. a certain particle carries 5.12 × 10–18 C of static
(3) As2O3 (4) Both (1) & (3) charge. The number of electrons present in the
particle is
61. Decreasing order of negative electron gain
enthalpies of given element Li, O, Cl, Br is (1) 10 (2) 20

(1) Li > O > Cl > Br (2) Cl > Br > O > Li (3) 45 (4) 32

(3) Br > Cl > O > Li (4) O > Cl > Br > Li 71. Incorrect statement about Dalton’s atomic theory
is
62. Element with atomic number 61 belongs to
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(2) Atoms of different elements differ in mass
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(3) All atoms of a given element have identical
63. Element having atomic number 104 is called properties
(1) Hassium (2) Seaborgium (4) The theory could not explain the laws of
(3) Mendelevium (4) Rutherfordium chemical combination
64. Correct order of ionisation energy of Li, Be, B and 72. Mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with
C is 320 mL of 0.25 M HCl is
(1) C > Be > B > Li (2) Be > C > B > Li (1) 4 g (2) 8 g
(3) C > B > Be > Li (4) B > Be > C > Li (3) 6.5 g (4) 12.5 g
65. The element having lowest melting point among 73. Number of angular nodes in 3p and 5d orbitals
the following is respectively are
(1) Ga (2) Cs (1) 2 and 2 (2) 1 and 2
(3) Na (4) Zn
(3) 3 and 5 (4) Zero and 1

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74. A photon of wavelength 6 × 10–8 m strikesa metal 83. Maximum number of possible exchange for d5
surface. If work function of metal is 2 ev then the configuration is
kinetic energy of the photoelectron will be
(1) 5 (2) 8
(1) 2.32 × 10–20 J (2) 8.25 × 10–18 J
(3) 1 (4) 10
(3) 2.99 × 10–18 J (4) 1.44 × 10–20 J
84. Total number of d electrons present in a platinum
75. Which transition in the hydrogen spectrum would atom is
have the same wavelength as the transition n2 = 9
to n1 = 6 for Li2+ spectrum? (1) 30 (2) 28

(1) n2 = 3 to n1 = 1 (2) n2 = 4 to n1 = 2 (3) 29 (4) 19

(3) n2 = 3 to n1 = 2 (4) n2 = 5 to n1 = 3 85. Number of unpaired electrons present in Si and

Ni2+ respectively are
76. According to Mendeleev, the properties of the
elements are periodic function of their (1) 4 and 2 (2) 2 and 2
(1) Atomic numbers (2) Atomic wights (3) 2 and 3 (4) 4 and 3
(3) Mass number (4) Atomic radii 86. Which among the following has largest number of
77. Which among the following elements is called atoms?
Eka- Aluminium? (1) 1g C (2) 1g O2
(1) Boron (2) Germanium (3) 1g Mg (4) 1g Cu(s)
(3) Gallium (4) Indium 87. If 70 g nitrogen gas is reacted with 12 g of
78. General outer electronic configuration of d-block hydrogen gas then the mass of ammonia
elements is produced in the reaction will be

(1) (n–1)d1–9ns0–2 (2) (n–1)d1–10ns2 (1) 92 g (2) 86 g

(3) (n–1)d1–10ns0–2 (4) (n–1)d1–10ns0–1 (3) 68 g (4) 72 g
79. Correct order of atomic radii of Be, Mg, B and Al is 88. The mass of one 16O atom in g is
(1) Mg > Al > Be > B (2) Al > Be > Mg > B (1) 1.66 × 10–24 g (2) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(3) Al > Mg > Be > B (4) Mg > Al > B > Be (3) 4.25 × 10–22 g (4) 7.15 × 10–23 g
80. The pair of elements which show diagonal 89. Which quantum number gives the information
relationship is about the spatial orientation of the orbital
(1) Mg and B (2) Be and Al
(1) Subsidiary quantum number
(3) Al and C (4) Be and Na
(2) Principal quantum number
81. What is the lowest value of n that allows f orbitals
(3) Magnetic quantum number
to exist?
(1) 6 (2) 5 (4) Spin quantum number

(3) 4 (4) 3 90. If mass percentage of C, H and O of an organic

compound is 54.54 %, 9.09 % and 36.36 % then
82. Wavenumber for the shortest wavelength the empirical formula of the compound will be
transition in Paschen series of atomic hydrogen is
(1) C2H4O (2) CH2O
(1) 6.5 × 105 cm–1 (2) 4.5 × 106 cm–1
(3) C3H6O (4) CHO
(3) 3.1 × 107 cm–1 (4) 1.2 × 104 cm–1

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Botany

91. Which of the following is correct statement? (2) Species → Order → Family → Phylum
(1) Increase in mass and increase in number of 99. Match column-I with column-II and select the
individuals are twin characters of growth correct option.
(2) In animals, growth by cell division occurs Column-I Column-II
continuously throughout their life-span (A) Herbarium (i) Identification of
(3) In majority of higher plants and animals, plants and animals
growth and reproduction are mutually based on similarities
inclusive events.
and dissimilarities
(4) Growth can be taken as defining property of
(B) Key (ii) Store house of collected
living organisms.
plant specimens that are
92. Which of the given asexual means of reproduction
is seen in Planaria (flat worms)? dried, pressed and
preserved on sheets.
(1) Budding (2) True regeneration
(C) Zoological (iii) Wild animals are kept in
(3) Binary fission (4) Fragmentation
parks protected environments
93. The number and types of organisms present on
the earth is called under human care
(1) Identification (2) Biodiversity (A) (B) ©
(3) Taxonomy (4) Sytematics (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
94. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic
categories of wheat. (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Genus – Triticum (3) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) Division – Angiospermae (4) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) Family – Poaceae
100. The system of binomial nomenclature for scientific
(4) Order – Monocotyledonae naming of organisms was given by
95. At which of the given taxonomic categories, the (1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) E. Mayr
problem of classification becomes more complex
in comparison to other given categories? (3) Aristotle (4) E. Haeckel
(1) Species (2) Class 101. How many kingdoms w.r.t. Whittaker’s
classification system have autotrophis?
(3) Family (4) Order
(1) 3 (2) 4
96. Biological name of mango is Mangifera indica
Linn. What does Linn indicate in the name? (3) 2 (4) 5
(1) Generic name 102. Aristotle classified animals into two groups on the
basis of
(2) Specific epithet
(1) Cell type
(3) Author’s citation
(2) Presence or absence of nuclear membrane
(4) Native place
(3) Body organisation
97. Classes comprising animals, like fishes,
amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals, (4) Presence or absence of RBCs
constitute the next higher category called 103. Bacteria are sole members of which of the given
(1) Phylum (2) Genus kingdom according to five-kingdom classification?
(3) Kingdom (4) Order (1) Monera (2) Protista
98. Select the correct sequence of taxonomic (3) Fungi (4) Animalia
categories showing hierarchial arrangement in 104. Which of the given groups of bacteria live in
ascending order. extremely salty areas?
(1) Division → Phylum → Order → Species (1) Halophiles (2) Eubacteria
(2) Genus → Family → Order→ Class (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Methanogens
(3) Genus → Species → Division → Order
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105. Select the incorrect statements w.r.t.
Mycoplasma. Laminaria, Dictyota, Sphagnum, Equisetum,
(1) Can survive without oxygen Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo, Mustard, Mango,
(2) Are pathogenic in animals only Cedrus, Ectocarpus
(3) Are smallest living cells (1) 3 (2) 5
(4) Lacks cell wall (3) 4 (4) 6
106. Cell walls in which of the given organisms forms 115. Select the correct option w.r.t. ploidy level of
two overlapping shells, which fit together as in a capsule, seta and rhizoids respectively in Funaria.
soap box?
(1) 2n, 2n and n (2) n, n and 2n
(1) Euglena (2) Diatoms
(3) 2n, n and 2n (4) n, 2n and n
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Slime moulds
107. Sea appears red due to the presence of which of 116. Which of the given pteridophytes belongs to
the given organisms? Class-Pteropsida?
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena (1) Psilotum (2) Lycopodium
(3) Entamoeba (4) Desmids (3) Equisetum (4) Adiantum
108. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the organism 117. The three celled egg apparatus in an embryo-sac
which causes ‘sleeping sickness’. of angiosperm, consists of
(1) Have cavity (gullet) that opens to the outside (1) One egg cell and two polar nuclei
the cells surface. (2) Two antipodal cells and one egg cell
(2) Are parasitic and have flagella
(3) One central cell and two polar nuclei
(3) Are malarial parasites
(4) One egg cell and two synergids.
(4) Are ciliated protozoans
118. Syngamy refers to the
109. The major component in cell wall of fungi is
(1) Fusion of male gamete with the egg cell
(1) Cellulose (2) Pectin
(2) Fusion of male gamete with diploid secondary
(3) Chitin (4) D-Galacturonic acid
nucleus
110. The parasitic fungi on mustard is
(3) Formation of endosperm
(1) Albugo (2) Mucor
(4) Triple fusion
(3) Rhizopus (4) Penicillium
119. The ploidy level of PEN produced as a result of
111. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the algal
triple fusion in an angiosperm is
component in lichens.
(1) n (2) 2n
(1) Prepares food for fungi
(2) Is phycobiont (3) 3n (4) 4n
(3) Are always autotrophic in nature 120. Double fertilization is an unique event to which of
the given plant groups?
(4) Absorbs mineral nutrients and water for fungi
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Bryophytes
112. Which of the given algae has stored food which is
very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in (3) Dryoptris (4) Angiosperms
structure? 121. Haplo-diplontic pattern of life-cycle is seen in
(1) Chara (2) Volvox (1) Dryopteris (2) Spirogyra
(3) Fucus (4) Porphyra
(3) Volvox (4) Cycas
113. Vegetative cells of which of the given algae have
122. Which of the given structure is produced as a
a cellulosic wall usually covered on outside by
result of double fertilisation which becomes
gelatinous coating of algin?
specialised to provide nourishment to the
(1) Ulothrix (2) Sargassum developing embryo?
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Chlamydomonas (1) Zygote
114. How many of the given plants have archegonia as (2) Primary endosperm nucleus
well as they produces seeds?
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Nucellar cell

[Page 9]
NBTS-01 CoE-XII
123. In which of the given plants, fibrous roots originate
Guava, Cucumber, Plum, Rose,
from base of the stem?
Peach, Brinjal, China rose
(1) Wheat (2) Banyan tree
(3) Monstera (4) Mustard (1) 2 (2) 4
124. Which of the given regions of root-tip protect the (3) 3 (4) 5
tender apex of the root as it makes its way through 130. When a flower can be divided into two equal radial
the soil? halves in any radial plane passing through the
(1) Root cap centre, then the flower is said to be
(2) Region of meristematic activity (1) Zygomorphic (2) Actinomorphic
(3) Region of elongation (3) Asymmetric (4) Irregular
(4) Region of maturation 131. Roots are modified for storage in all the given,
except
125. In which of the given plants, the root grows
vertically upwards and helps to get oxygen for (1) Turnip (2) carrot
respiration? (3) Sweet potato (4) Maize
(1) Maize (2) Sugarcane 132. Cells are found to be very small among which of
(3) Rhizophora (4) Carrot the given region of root-tip?
126. Alternate type of phyllotaxy is seen in (1) Region of maturation
(1) Alstonia (2) Calotropis (2) Region of elongation
(3) Guava (4) Sunflower (3) Region of meristematic activity
127. Select the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t. ‘racemose (4) Region of root hair
inflorescence’ and mark the correct option
133. Tendrils are modified part of
(A) Main axis continues to grow
(A) Root (B) Stem
(B) Main axis has limited growth
(c) Leaf
(C) Flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal
succession The correct one(s) is/are
(D) Flower are borne in basipetal order. (1) Only (A) (2) Both (B) and (C)
(1) Both A and C (2) Both B and D (2) Only (B) (4) Both (A) and (C)
(3) Only D (4) Only C 134. After fertilization, ovule in an angiosperm
128. Ovary is said to be inferior in which of the given develops into
plants? (1) Seed (2) Fruit
(1) Brinjal (3) Embryo (4) Perisperm
(2) Ray floret of sunflower 135. In gymnosperms, pollen grains are carried to the
(3) Rose ovules with the help of
(4) Mustard (1) Air Currents (2) Water currents
129. How many of the given plants in the given box (3) Insects (4) Animals
have perigynous flower?

Zoology
136. In which of the following organisms, all functions (3) Epidermis of skin (4) Stomach
of the life are performed by a single cell?
138. The tissue which is present as lining for body
(1) Paramecium cavities, ducts and tubes is
(2) Hydra (1) Simple epithelium
(3) Sycon (2) Compound epithelium
(4) Pleurobrachia
(3) Muscular tissue
137. All the four basic types of tissues are found in
(4) Connective tissue
(1) Blood (2) Cornea

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NBTS-01 CoE-XII
139. Select the mismatch w.r.t. various cells and their (b) Osteocytes (ii) Skin
finding in animal body
(c) Ciliated (iii) Bones
(1) Chondrocytes – Cartilage in limbs and hands Epithelium
(2) Neurons – Brain and spinal cord
(d) Fibroblasts (iv) Fallopian tube
(3) Ciliated cells – Alveoli of lungs (1) a (i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Mast cells – Connective tissue beneath
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
the skin (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
140. Long slender cells with basal nuclei are found in
(4) a (iv), b(ii), c(iii),d(i)
(1) Cuboidal epithelium 146. On the basis of comparison of elements present in
(2) Columnar epithelium living organisms and earth’s crust, which of the
following element is more abundant in living
(3) Squamous epithelium
organisms than in earth’s crust.
(4) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(1) Carbon
141. Choose the odd one w.r.t. secretion of exocrine
(2) Sodium
glands
(3) Calcium
(1) Hormones (2) Mucus
(4) Magnesium
(3) Saliva (4) Milk
147. Elemental analysis gives an idea about presence
142. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. connective
of
tissue.
(1) Connective tissues are widely distributed (1) Chlorine
avascular tissue in the body of complex (2) Aldehydes
animals
(3) Ketones
(2) They are responsible for linking and
(4) Benzene
supporting various organs of the body.
148. In a solution, the structure of amino acids changes
(3) The fibres provide strength, elasticity and at different pHs which of the following structures
flexibility to tissue represents zwitterionic form
(4) Modified polysaccharides accumulate
between cells and fibres
143. All of the following are properties of cardiac
muscle fibres except
(1) Present only in the heart
(2) Fibres are branched and fusiform (1) A and B
(3) Communication junctions at some fusion (2) B and C
points
(3) Only A
(4) Fibres contract as a unit
(4) Only B
144. Fluid connective tissue does not contain
149. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly
(1) Plasma to complete the analogy
(2) White blood cells Adenine:Purine::Uracil: __________
(3) Platelets (1) Guanine (2) Thymine
(4) Collagen fibres (3) Pyrimidine (4) Uridine
145. Match the items in Column-I with those in 150. Select the mismatch
Column-II and choose the option with all correct
match. (1) Alkaloids – Codeine

Column-I Column-II (2) Toxins – Ricin

(a) Compound (i) Connective tissue (3) Lectins – Abrin

epithelium (4) Drugs – Curcumin

[Page 11]
NBTS-01 CoE-XII
151. All the molecules present in retentate are (2) Equilibrium steady–state
polymeric substances except
(3) Non-Equilibrium steady-state unable to perform
(1) Lipids work
(2) Proteins (4) Non-equilibrium steady-state to be able to
(3) Nucleic acids perform work

(4) Polysaccharides 158. Rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed as

152. On the basis of compound analysis of living tissue, δP

Rate =
which of the following organic compound δt
constitutes maximum percentage of total cellular
Where δP represents
mass?
(1) Product formed per unit time
(1) Water (2) Proteins
(2) Product formed in total time δt
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Lipids
(3) Reactants present at the beginning of reaction
153. Read the following statements and Choose the
option correct. (4) Amount of reactants which changes into
products in unit time
(A) Antibody fights infectious agents
159. Zinc is a cofactor for an enzyme which breaks
(B) GLUT-4 enables insulin transport into cells
peptide bonds present at C-terminal of peptides.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct The enzyme is
(2) Both statement A and B are incorrect (1) Carboxypeptidase
(3) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Aminopeptidase
(4) Only Statement B is incorrect (3) Carbonic anhydrase
154. Read the following statements and choose the (4) Peroxidase
option containing all incorrect statements
160. Food is one of the basic requirement for all living
(a) Collagen is the most abundant protein in organisms because
whole of the biosphere
(1) It provides energy for degrowth and repair of
(b) Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose tissues
(c) In glycogen, right end is non-reducing end. (2) It is essential for degrowth of the body
(d) Starch forms helices and can hold I2, like (3) It provides energy and organic material for
cellulose growth and repair of tissues
(1) a and b (2) b and c (4) It activates loss of water causing dehydration
(3) a, c and d (4) Only c and d 161. Oral cavity leads into a common passage for food
155. Positional information about amino acids in a and air called
polypeptide chain is represented by its (1) Pharynx
(1) Primary structure (2) Larynx
(2) Secondary structure (3) Nasal chamber
(3) Tertiary structure (4) Oesophagus
(4) Quaternary structure 162. Which of the following layer of gut wall is formed
156. In a B-DNA, one full turn of helical strand involve by mesothelium and some connective tissue
ten steps of ascent. The pitch of the above (1) Serosa (2) Muscularis
mentioned DNA would be
(3) Submucosa (4) Mucosa
(1) 34 A°
163. Brush border epithelium is present at innermost
(2) 34 nm lining of
(3) 3.4 A° (1) Intestinal wall
(4) 0.34 mm (2) DCT
157. The living state is (3) Trachea
(1) Non-equilibrium unsteady–state (4) Stomach
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NBTS-01 CoE-XII
164. The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together (d) Kwashiorkor is found in a child less than one
into the duodenum as the year of age
(1) Common bile duct (1) a and b
(2) Common hepato-Pancreatic duct (2) b and c
(3) Common hepatic duct (3) c and d
(4) Cystic duct (4) a and d
165. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 171. Which of the following products of digestion are
(1) 30 per cent of starch is hydrolysed at pH 6.8. absorbed by intestinal mucosa by simple diffusion,
facilitated transport as well as by active transport?
(2) Intrinsic factor secreted by peptic cells help in
absorption of Vit B12. (1) Glucose and amino acids
(3) Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin by HCl (2) Glucose and glycerol
(3) Chylomicron and Na+
(4) Mucus and bicarbonates present in gastric (4) Fructose and fatty acids
juice protect mucosal epithelium from
excoriation by HCl. 172. Select the correct match w.r.t. animals and their
respiratory structures
166. All of the following enzymes are present in
pancreatic juice except (1) Aquatic arthropods – Trachea
(1) Amylase (2) Earthworm – Nephridia
(2) Lipases (3) Fishes – Moist cuticle
(3) Carboxypeptidase (4) Frogs – Lungs
(4) Nucleotidases 173. Which of the following structure is commonly
167. Ileo-cecal valve prevents the backflow of faecal known as sound box?
matter from
(1) Pharynx
(1) Large intestine to small intestine
(2) Larynx
(2) Ileum to colon
(3) Trachea
(3) Duodenum to stomach
(4) Wind pipe
(4) Colon to rectum
174. Co ntr ac ti o n o f d i ap hr ag m an d ex te r n a l
168. Gross calorific value of carbohydrates is slightly inter-costal muscles
(1) Less than its physiological value
(1) Decreases intrapulmonary pressure
(2) More than proteins
(2) Increase intrapulmonary pressure
(3) More than its physiological value
(3) Decreases volume of Thoracic cavity
(4) Equal to gross calorific value of proteins
(4) Causes alveolar pressure more than
169. The condition in which faeces are retained within atmospheric pressure
the colon as the bowel movements occur
irregularly, is called 175. Read the following statements A and B and
choose the correct option
(1) Indigestion (2) Constipation
(A) Relaxation of diaphragm and inter-costal
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Vomiting
muscles reduces pulmonary volume to
170. Read the following statements carefully w.r.t. decrease intra pulmonary pressure
PEM. Choose the option with all correct
(B) During a normal respiration, a healthy man
statements
can inspire or expire 500 ml of air per minute
(a) Causes wasting of muscles in infants and
children (1) Both A and B are correct
(b) Causes failure of growth and brain (2) Both A and B are incorrect
development (3) Only A is correct
(c) Some fat is left under the skin in marasmus
(4) Only B is correct
[Page 13]
NBTS-01 CoE-XII
176. Select the incorrect match 179. All of the following factors are favourable for
(1) Inspiratory capacity – (TLC – FRC) formation of oxyhaemoglobin within alveoli except

(2) Expiratory capacity – [(FRC – RV) + TV] (1) High PO2

(2) High H+
(3) Vital capacity – (IRV + EC)
(4) Total lung capacity – (VC – RV) (3) Low PCO2
(4) Low temperature
177. Which of the following epithelium is present in
diffusion membrane? 180. Read the following statements carefully and
(1) Simple squamous epithelium choose the option with correct statements only
(a) Respiratory rhythm centre is situtated in
(2) Compound epithelium
medulla oblongata
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(b) Pnumotaxic centre in medulla can moderate
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium the functions of respiratory rhythm centre
178. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver (c) Receptors associated with aortic arch can
around ____ of oxygen to the tissues under recognise changes in pCO2 and H+ and send
normal physiological conditions. Choose the necessary signals to pnumotaxic centre
option which fills the blank correctly
(1) a and b
(1) 4 ml
(2) b and c
(2) 10 ml
(3) a and c
(3) 5 ml
(4) only a
(4) 15 ml



[Page 14]
NBTS-01 CoE-XII

24.10.2020

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 01
Answer Key
1. (1) 38. (4) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (2) 39. (2) 74. (3) 110. (1) 146. (1)
3. (3) 40. (3) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (3) 41. (1) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (1) 42. (4) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (2) 43. (2) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (4) 44. (1) 79. (1) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (4) 45. (2) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (2)
9. (3) 46. (3) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (1) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (3) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (1) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (3) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (1) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (1) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (4)
37. (4)
[Page 15]
31/10/2020 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 02

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : Laws of Motion,Work,energy and Power
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, Thermodynamics

Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plant : Parts of Flower, The Fruit, The Seed - Structure of Dicot seed,
Structure of Monocot seed, Semi- Technical Description of a Typical Flowering Plant, Description
of Some Important Families - Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae, Anatomy of Flowering Plant, Cell:
The Unit of Life
Zoology : Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement

Choose the correct answer Statement (B): If the net external force on the
1. To keep a body in uniform motion body is zero then body must
(1) An external force must act move with constant velocity
(2) An external force may act (1) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) External force should not act (2) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct
2. According to Galileo motion of an object moving
(4) Neither statement (A) is correct nor statement
on frictionless horizontal plane
(B) is correct
(1) Must have acceleration
5. An astronaut accidentally gets separated out of his
(2) Must have retardation
small spaceship accelerating in inter stellar space
(3) It should move with constant velocity
of constant rate 50 m/s2. The acceleration of the
(4) All of these
astronaut at the instant after he is outside the
3. Statement (A): The law of inertia was inferred by
spaceship will be
Galileo from observation of motion of ball on a
double inclined plane (1) 50 m/s2 (2) 100 m/s2
Statement (B): The law of inertia was inferred by (3) zero (4) Insufficient date
kepler from observation of motion of ball on a 6. In which of the following cases the net forces
double inclined plane acting on a body is not zero
(1) Only statement (A) is correct (1) A drop of rain falling down with constant speed
(2) Only statement (B) is correct (2) A crock of mass 10g floating on the surface of
(3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct water
(4) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) are (3) A car moving with constant speed of 20 km/h
correct on rough road
4. Statement (A): If the net external force on the
(4) A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically
body is zero, its acceleration is
upward
zero.
[Page 1]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
7. Suppose we are standing in a stationery bus and 12. For translational equilibrium of a particle in
the driver starts the bus suddenly. We get thrown mechanics refers to the situation
backward with a jerk is example of
(1) Net external force on the particle must be zero
(1) Inertia of rest
(2) Inertia of motion (2) Net external force on the particle must be non
zero
(3) Inertia of direction
(4) Both 1 and 2 (3) Net external force on the particle may be zero
8. A large force acting for short time to produce a (4) Net external force on the particle may be non-
finite change in momentum is called zero
(1) Impulse (2) Work
13. A mass 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2m
(3) Acceleration (4) Power from the ceiling. A force 100 N in horizontal
9. A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction direction is applied at the mid point of rope as
of the bowler without changing its initial speed of shown in figure. The angle subtended by rope with
10 m / s. If the mass of the ball is 0.10 kg then the the vertical in equilibrium will be (g = 10 m/s2 and
impulse imparted on the ball will be (assume linear neglect the mass of rope)
motion of the ball)
(1) 1 Ns (2) 4 Ns
(3) 2 Ns (4) Zero
10. Statement (A): Force always occur in pairs.
Force on a body A by B is equal
and opposite to the force on the
body B by A.
Statement (B): There is no cause effect relation
implied in the third law. The
force on body B by A and force (1) 30° (2) 60°
on body A by B act at the same
instant (3) 53° (4) 45°
(1) Only statement (A) is connect 14. The magnitude and direction of the net force
(2) Only statement (B) is correct acting on a stone of mass 0.2 kg just after it is
(3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct dropped from the window of the stationary train is
(g = 10m/s2)
(4) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) are
correct (1) 2 N downward (2) 2N upward
11. Two identical balls strike a rigid wall with the same
speed but at the different angles, and get reflected (3) 4N downward (4) 4N upward
without any change in speed as shown in figure 15. The maximum acceleration of the train in which a
(a) & (b). The ratio of magnitudes of impulse box lying on its floor will remains stationary is
imparted to the balls by wall in situation (a) to the (given that the co-efficient of static friction
situation (b) will be between the box and the train floor is 0.5 and g =
10 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
16. A mass of 10kg rest on a horizontal plane. The
plane is gradually inclined until an angle  = 30°
with the horizontal. If the mass is just begins to
slide. The coefficient of static friction between the
block and the surface will be

(1) 1 (2) 1:2 1

(1) (2) 3
3
(3) 2 (4) 2:3
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.2
[Page 2]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
17. A block of mass 40 kg and a trolley of mass 20kg 22. A monkey of mass 30 kg climbs up on a light rope
is connected by a ideal string which is passing as shown in figure. If breaking strength of the rope
over an ideal pully as shown in the figure. If the is 400 N, then maximum acceleration of the
system is released from rest then tension in the monkey will be
string will be (coefficient a friction between the
trolly and surface is 0.05 and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 180 N (2) 280 N

(3) 140 N (4) 240 N
18. A car is moving on the banked rough road inclined
10
at an angle  with the speed v0 = R g tan  (1) 5m/s2 (2) m/s2
3
(where R is the radius of curvature of the road). If
speed of the car becomes v  v o . Then friction (3) 20 m/s2 (4) Zero
force on the car will
23. If P = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ – 4kˆ and Q = 5iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4kˆ . Then
(1) Act down to the slope
(2) Act up to the slope angle between P and Q will be

(3) Not act (1) 30° (2) 60°

(4) Act down to the slope or up to the slope (3) 45° (4) 90°
depends on the mass of the car
19. A circular racetrack of radius 300 m is banked at 24. If A = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ and B = 2 jˆ + 3kˆ , then projection of
an angle of 45°. If the coefficient of friction B along A will be
between the wheels of the race-car and race track
is 0.5. Then maximum permissible speed of the 6
car to avoid the slipping will be (1) 6 (2)
13
(1) 30 m/s (2) 30 10 m/s
1 6
(3) (4)
(3) 20 m/s (4) 20 2 m/s 6 13

20. One end of the string of length l is connected to a 25. Dot product of two vectors is a
particle of mass m and other to a small Peg on a
smooth horizontal table. If particle move in a circle (1) vector (2) tensor
with speed v. Then tension in the string will be
(3) scalar (4) none of these
mv 2
(1) Zero (2) 26. Statement (A): scalar product obey a
l
commutative law
2mv 2 mv 2
(3) (4) Statement (B): scalar product obey distributive
l 2l
law
21. A bob of mass 0.2 kg hung from the celling of a
room by string 2m long is set into oscillation. The (1) Only statement is (A) correct
speed of the bob at its mean position is 2 m/s. If
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
the string is cut when the bob is at one of its
extreme position. Then path of the bob will be (3) Both statement A and B are correct
(1) Parabolic (2) Circular
(4) Neither statement a statement are correct
(3) Straight line (4) Elliptical

[Page 3]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
27. The area under 'force displacement' curve gives that friction and rotational motion are not important
(1) Momentum (2) work then value of 1 will be

(3) Power (4) Impulse

28. A weightlifter holding 100 kg mass steadily on his
shoulder for 10 seconds. The work done by the
weight lifter during this time interval will be
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) May be positive or negative
29. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 2 m. During
this process the force on the cycle due to the road (1) 30° (2) 45°
is 100N and directly opposed the motion. The (3) 60° (4) 90°
work done by the road on the cycle will be
35. 1 kilowatt hour (kWh) of energy is equal to
(1) + 100 J (ii) – 100 J
(1) 3.6 × 106 J (2) 3.6 × 104 J
(3) – 200 J (4) Zero
(3) 7.2 × 106 J (4) 7.2 × 104 J
30. In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fire A
bullet of mass 50.0 g with speed 200 m/s. on a soft 36. Annual solar energy incident on the earth is
plywood of thickness 2.0 cm. the bullet emerges (1) 1068 J (2) 1044 J
with 50% of its kinetic energy. The emergent
speed of the bullet will be (3) 3 × 1010J (4) 5 × 1024 J
(1) 63.2 m/s (2) 141.4 m/s 37. Statement (A): If total energy of the reactant is
more than total energy of the
(3) 100 m/s (4) 120 m/s product of the reaction. Then the
31. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity reaction said to be exothermic
alone in vacuum. Which of the following quantity Statement (B): If total energy of the reactant is
remains constant during the fall? less than total energy of the
(1) Kinetic energy product then reaction said to
endothermic
(2) Protentional energy
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) Total linear momentum
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Total mechanical energy
(3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct
32. During head on elastic collision two bodies of
mass m1 and m2 completely exchange their (4) Neither statement A nor statement B are
velocities when correct
(1) m1 << m2 (2) m1 >> m2 38. The work done by all the forces (external and
internal) on the system equals the change in
(3) m1 = m2 (4) m1  m2
(1) Total energy
33. During head on elastic collision two bodies of
mass m1 and m2. If just after the collision direction (2) Kinetic energy
of velocity of m1 reverse and magnitude of velocity (3) Potential energy
remains same when
(4) None of these
(1) m1 << m2 (2) m1 >> m2
39. Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well
(3) m1 = m2 (4) m1  m2 by means of a rope tied to the bucket, will be
34. Consider the collision as shown in the figure to be (1) Positive
between to billiard balls with equal masses m1 =
m2 to the first ball called the cue while second ball (2) Negative
is called target. The billiard players wants to 'sink' (3) Zero
the target ball in corner pocket, which is at angle
(4) May be positive or negative
2 = 30° assume that the collision is elastic and
[Page 4]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
40. A body of mass 4 kg initially at rest moves under
the action of an applied horizontal force of 10N on
the table with coefficient of fraction ( = 0.2). The
net work done on the body in first 2 seconds will
be ( g = 10 m/s2)
(1) + 2J (2) – 2J (4)
(3) + 4J (4) + 6J
41. A body constrained to moved from point ‘A(1,0,2)
m to point B (2,3,5) m by action of a constant force 44. A block of mass m moving with velocity V0 on a
F = (– ˆi + 2jˆ + 3k)N
ˆ . The work done by the force smooth horizontal surface collide with an ideal
spring having spring constant k attached with a
on the body will be wall as shown in figure. The maximum
(1) 9 J (2) 15 J compression in the spring will be
(3) 14 J (4) 13 J
42. A body is moving unidirectionally under influence
of a source of constant power. Its velocity in time
t proportional to
1

(1) t 2 (2) t m m
3 (1) V0 (2) V0
(3) t 2
(4) t2 2K K

43. Variation of kinetic energy of a block attached with V0 m 2m

(3) (4) V0
an ideal spring best represented by which among 2 K K
the following graph?
45. A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of
length l. It is imparted a horizontal Vo at the lowest
point A. Such that it just complete the vertical
circle. The kinetic energy of the bob at position B
as shown in the figure will be
(1)

(2)

5
(1) mgl (2) mgl
2
3
(3) mgl (4) 2mgl
(3) 2

Chemistry
46. Correct lewis representation of HNO3 is (a) Formal charges help in the selection of the
lowest energy structure from a number of
possible Lewis structures.
(1) (2) (b) The formal charge is factor based on a pure
covalent view of bonding in which electron pairs
are shared equally by neighbouring atoms.
(c) Lewis dot structures, represent the actual
(3) (4) shapes of the molecules.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are :
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (c) only
47. Consider the following statements :
(3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (b) & (c) only
[Page 5]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII

48. Decreasing order of bond length of given 55. The unhybridised orbitals of carbon atom in C2H2.
molecules, C = O, N = O, C = C, C = N is are
(1) C = C > N = O > C = O > C = N (1) s and px (2) px and py
(2) C = C > C = O > N = O > C = N (3) s and pz (4) s and py
(3) C = N > C = C > N = O > C = O 56. Hybridisation of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2– is
(4) C = C > C = N > N = O > C = O (1) sp3 (2) dsp2
49. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in
(3) sp (4) sp3d
(1) Phenol (2) p-nitrophenol
57. The electronic configuration of O2 molecule is
(3) o-nitrophenol (4) m-nitrophenol
(1) (1s)2(*1s)2 (2s)2 (*2s)2 ( 2p2x  2p2y )
50. Which among the following statement is correct
regarding resonance? (  *2p2x   * 2p2y )

(1) The canonical forms have real existence. (2) (1s)2(*1s)2(2s)2(*2s)2(2pz)2 ( 2p2x  2p2y )
(2) There is an equilibrium between the canonical
forms. (  * 2p1x   * 2p1y )
(3) Resonance averages the bond characteristics (3) (1s)2(*1s)2(2s)2(*2s)2(2pz)2( 2p1x  2p1y )
as a whole.
(4) The energy of canonical structure is less than
(  * 2p2x   * 2p2y ) .
the energy of resonance hybrid. 2
( 2
(4) (1s)2(*1s)2(2s)2(*2s)2 2p X  2pY )
51. For given molecule, the decreasing order of dipole
moment is (  * 2p2X   * 2pY2 )
(1) NH3 > H2O > H2S > NF3
58. Bond order of C2 molecule is
(2) NH3 > NF3 > H2S > H2O
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) H2O > NF3 > NH3 > H2S
(3) 2 (4) 3
(4) H2O > NH3 > H2S > NF3
59. The hybrid orbitals used by carbon atoms in
52. Shape of SF4 molecule is
CH3–CHO are
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) T-Shape
(1) sp2 and sp2 (2) sp3 and sp3
(3) See-saw (4) Square planar
(3) sp3 and sp2 (4) sp and sp2
53. Which arrangement of electrons is most stable?
60. The change in the hybridisation of B as result of
the following reaction is
BF3 + NH3 → F3B.NH3
(1) (2)
(1) sp2 to sp3 (2) sp2 to sp
(3) sp to sp3 (4) sp3 to sp2
(3) (4) All are equally stable 61. I, II and III are three isotherms respectively at T 1,
T2 and T3 as shown in the graph.

54. Which among the following features of

hybridisation is correct?
(1) The pure atomic orbitals are more effective in
forming stable bonds than the hybrid orbitals.
(2) The number of hybrid orbitals is not always
equal to the number of the atomic orbitals that
get hybridised
Correct order of temperature is
(3) The hybridised orbitals are always equivalent
in energy and shape (1) T3 > T2 > T1 (2) T2 > T3 > T1
(4) These hybrid orbital are non-directional in (3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T3 > T1 > T2
nature.
[Page 6]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII

62. A balloon is filled with hydrogen at room (3) Surface energy (4) Surface tension
temperature. It will burst if pressure exceeds 0.5 70. The lowest imaginary temperature at which gases
bar. If at 1 bar pressure the gas occupies 2.24 L
are supposed to occupy zero volume is
volume, then at which volume can balloon be
expanded? (1) Absolute zero (2) 273 K
(1) 4.48 L (2) 0.223 L (3) 273° C (4) 298° C
(3) 2.24 L (4) 1.12 L 71. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding assumptions of kinetic molecular
63. A mixture of neon-dioxygen mixture contains 3.2 g theory?
dioxygen and 10 g Neon. If the total pressure of
the mixture of the gases in the container is 50 bar, (1) Collisions of gas molecules are inelastic
the partial pressure of O2 is (2) Particles of a gas are always in constant
(1) 10 bar (2) 8.33 bar random motion
(3) 50 bar (4) 4.15 bar (3) There is no force of attraction between the
particles of a gas at ordinary temperature
64. The ratio among ump, uav, urms is given by
(4) At any particular time, different particles in the
(1) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 (2) 1.224 : 1.28 : 1
gas have different kinetic energies
(3) 1.224 : 1 : 1.28 (4) 1.28 : 1.224 : 1 72. In van der Waals equation of gas, the constant ‘a’
65. van der Waals equation is is a measure of

 (1) Magnitude of intermolecular attractive forces

an2 
(1)  P + 2  ( V – nb ) = nRT within the gas molecule
 V 
(2) Magnitude of intermolecular repulsive forces
 an 2 within the gas molecule
(2)  P + 2  ( V + nb ) = nRT
 V  (3) Volume occupied by the molecules
(4) Speed of gaseous molecules
 an2 
(3)  P – 2  ( V – nb ) = nRT 73. At 0°C, when the density of a certain oxide of a
 V  gas at 3 bar is same as that of dioxygen at 5 bar
the molecular mass of the oxide is
 an2 
(4)  P – 2  ( V + nb ) = nRT (1) 53.3 (2) 45.5
 V 
(3) 19.2 (4) 20.7
66. Gas is more difficult to compress when Z is
74. The SI unit for the quantity PV2T2/n is
1 (1) Nm3K2 mol–1 (2) Nm3K3 mol2
(1) 0 (2)
2
(3) Nm4K–2 mol–1 (4) Nm4K2 mol–1
(3) 1 (4) 2
75. Volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at 0°C and 1 bar
67. Maximum critical temperature among the following pressure is
is of
(1) 2.2 L (2) 1.4 L
(1) H2 (2) O2
(3) 4.8 L (4) 7.2 L
(3) CO2 (4) NH3
76. Critical temperatures of four gases A, B C & D are 33.2
68. The temperature at which a gas obeys ideal gas K, 154.3 K, 126 K and 405.5 K respectively. Which of
law over an appreciable range of pressure is these gases has stronger intermolecular forces?
called (1) A (2) B
(1) Critical temperature (3) C (4) D
(2) Boyle temperature 77. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(3) Inversion temperature (1) Wad = +ve, when work is done on the system
(4) Boiling temperature (2) Wad = –ve, when work is done by the system
69. The energy required to increase the surface area (3) U = Wad
of the liquid by one unit is defined as
(4) All of these
(1) Potential energy (2) Threshold energy
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NBTS-02 CoE-XII

78. Heat is absorbed by the system at constant (3) rG° = –RT lnK
pressure is equal to
(4) rG° = rH° + TrS°
(1) U (2) H
85. For the reaction,
(3) w (4) 0
2P + Q → R
79. In bomb calorimeter
H = 300 kJ mol–1 and S = 0.5 kJ K–1 mol–1. The
(1) T = 0 (2) V = 0 temperature at which the reaction become
(3) P = 0 (4) All of these spontaneous is
(1) Below 600 K (2) Above 60 K
80 If vap H° for water at 298 K is 44 kJmol–1 then how
much heat is required to evaporate 9g of water at (3) Above 600 K (4) Above 300 K
298 K?
86. U° of combustion of methane is –300 kJ mol–1.
(1) 11 kJ (2) 22 kJ The value of H° is
(3 99 kJ (4) 396 kJ (1) –300 kJ mol–1
81. For which of the following molecule, standard (2) Greater than –300 kJ mol–1
molar enthalpies of formation at 298 K is zero
(3) 0 kJ mol–1
(1) Cl2 (l) (2) CO2 (g)
(4) Less than –300 kJmol–1
(3) Br2 (l) (4) HCl (g)
87. Intensive property among the following is
82. Correct expression regarding a monoatomic gas
(1) Internal energy (2) Heat capacity
M is/are
(3) Volume (4) Temperature
(1) rH0 (ionisation enthalpy) = Eo(ionisation
5 88. For isothermal irreversible change work done is
energy) + RT
2 Vi
(1) – 2.303 nRT log
(2) r H0 (electron gain enthalpy) = –A(electron affinity) Vf
5
– RT Vf
2 (2) – 2.303 nRT ln
Vi
(3) rH0(ionization enthalpy) = –Eo(ionisation energy) +
5 (3) –Pex ( Vf – Vi )
RT
2 (4) 0
(4) Both (1) and (2) 89 The entropy of any pure crystalline substance
83. Select the correct statement approaches zero as the temperature approaches
(1) S does not discriminate between reversible (1) 0°C
and irreversible process, whereas U does (2)  
(2) U does not discriminate between reversible (3) 100°C
and irreversible process, whereas S does
(4) 273°C
(3) U and S both discriminate between
90. For one mole of NaCl(s)
reversible and irreversible process
latticeH° = +788 kJmol–1
(4) U and S both do not discriminate between
reversible and irreversible process hydH° = –784 kJmol–1
84. The correct relation of rG° is The enthalpy of solution is
(1) rG° = +RT lnK (1) –8 kJ mol–1 (2) –4 kJ mol–1
(2) rG° = + 2.303 RT logK (3) –10 kJ mol–1 (4) + 4 kJ mol–1

[Page 8]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII

Botany
91. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the 97. In which of the given plants, the placenta develops
outermost whorl of a typical flower. at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached
to it?
(1) Is composed of petals
(2) Their members protect the flower in the bud stage (1) Marigold (2) Primrose
(3) Argemone (4) Mustard
(3) Is calyx
(4) Their members are green and leaf like 98. Fruit is matured or ripened X , develops after
fertilisation.
92. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in
Select the option which correctly fills ‘X’.
floral bud w.r.t. other members of same whorl is
known as (1) Ovule (2) Ovary
(1) Aestivation (2) Inflorescence (3) Radicle (4) Nucellus
(3) Placentation (4) Phyllotaxy 99. Refer the given diagram and select the correct
statement w.r.t. labelled parts A, B and C.
93. Match the Column I with Column II and select the
correct option. A
Column I Column II B
A Staminode (i) Petals united
B Syncarpous (ii) Sterile stamen
C Gamopetalous (iii) Sepals free
D Polysepalous (iv) Fused carpels
C
A B C D
(1) ‘B’ is radicle
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) ‘C’ represents plumule
(3) ‘B’ develops into root system on germination
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) of seed
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (4) ‘A’ is often fleshy and full of reserve food
materials
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 100. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family Liliaceae?
(1) Ashwagandha (2) Belladonna
94. In the flowers of which of the given plants, margins (3) Aloe (4) Muliathi
of petals overlap one another but not in particular 101. Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells as the former
direction? (1) Have cell wall
(1) Calotropis (2) Cassia (2) Have cell membrane
(3) Pea (4) China rose (3) Contain ribosomes
(4) Lack nuclear membrane
95. Which of the given is receptive surface for pollen
grains? 102. Which one of the following cell organelles has its own
DNA?
(1) Anther (2) Stigma (1) Lysosome (2) ER
(3) Style (4) Ovary (3) Chloroplast (4) Lysosome
96. How many of the plants listed in box exhibit axile 103. Which of the given statements is incorrect w.r.t. the
placentation in their ovary? organelles of endomembrane system?
(1) Is the major site of synthesis of lipid
Pea, China rose, Tomato, Lemon, Primrose,
(2) Produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
Dianthus
(3) Is the important site of formation of
(1) 2 (2) 3 glycoproteins and glycolipids
(4) Is membrane bound vesicular structure
(3) 4 (4) 5
formed by the process of packaging in Golgi
apparatus

[Page 9]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
104. Live cells were first observed and described by 114. In monocotyledonous seed, the plumule and
(1) M. Schleiden radicle are enclosed in sheath which are called A
and B respectively.
(2) Robert Hooke
Select the correct option for A and B.
(3) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(4) Robert Brown A B

105. Which of the given plastids contain chlorophyll and (1) Aleurone layer Scutellum
carotenoid pigments which are responsible for
trapping most of the light energy, essential for (2) Endosperm Coleoptile
photosynthesis?
(3) Coleoptile Coleorrhiza
(1) Chloroplast (2) Leucoplast
(3) Elaioplast (4) Aleuroplast (4) Fruit Wall Seed Coat
106. Which of the given plastids stores carbohydrate 115. In coconut, the fruit is known as drupe in which
(starch) as in potato?
mesocarp is
(1) Elaioplast (2) Amyloplast (1) Fleshy (2) Stony
(3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
(3) Edible (4) Fibrous
107. Which of the given cell organelles is common to 116. Read the statements (A-C), stating them true (T)
both prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells? and false (F).
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) Ribosome
A. In eukaryotes, the ribosoms of chloroplasts
(3) Plastid (4) Mitochondrion are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes.
108. Which of the given chromosomes has a terminal B. Ribosomes are composed of RNA and
centromere? proteins and are not surrounded by any
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric membrane.
C. Cisternae are the infoldings in mitochondria.
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
109. How many centriole usually a centrosome A. B. C.
contains?
(1) T T F
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) T F F
110. Golgi apparatus was first observed by
(3) F T T
(1) Camilo Golgi (2) George Palade
(4) T T T
(3) T. Schwann (4) Rudolf Virchow
111. The scar on the seed coat through which the 117. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cells and their
developing seeds were attached to the fruit is different shapes
called (1) Red blood cells – Round and biconcave
(1) Hilum (2) Micropyle (2) White blood cells - Elongated
(3) Nerve cells – Branched and long
(3) Testa (4) Tegmen
(4) Mesophyll cells – Round and oval
112. In maize seed, the outer covering of endosperm 118. Which of the given group of bacteria are Comma-
separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer, shaped?
called
(1) Bacillus (2) Coccus
(1) Scutellum (2) Aleurone layer (3) Vibrio (4) Spirillum
(3) Plumule (4) Radicle 119. The A of a polysome translate the B into proteins.
113. % ⚥ K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 is the floral formula of
Select the correct option for A and B.
(1) A – Ribosomes, B – RNA
which of the given plants?
(2) A – RNA, B - Ribosome
(1) Trifolium (2) Mustard (3) A – ER, B - DNA
(3) Petunia (4) Asparagus (4) A – DNA, B - ER

[Page 10]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
120. Ribosomes of mitochondria in animal cells are (4) Found in the form of fibres or sclereids
consist of 127. Bast fibres
(1) 60 S and 40 S subunits (1) Are also known as phloem fibres
(2) 50 S and 30 S subunits (2) Are made up of collenchymatous cells
(3) 60 S and 30 S subunits (3) Are absent in primary as well as secondary
(4) 30 S and 40 S subunits phloem
(4) Are multinucleated
121. Which of the given tissues in grass helps to
regenerate their parts removed by grazing 128. Cork cambium is also known as
herbivores? (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellem
(1) Lateral meristem (2) Intercalary meristem (3) Phellogen (4) Pith
(3) Secondary meristem (4) Apical meritstem 129. The tissue involved in secondary growth are
122. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Dicot leaf. (1) Vascular cambium (2) Cork cambium
(3) Apical meristem (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Is dorsiventral
130. The tissues collectively known as periderm are:
(2) Stomata is usually more in number on lower
epidermis A – Phellogen, B – Phellem, C – Phelloderm
(3) Mesophyll cell is differentiated into two types The correct ones are:
of tissues palisade and spongy parenchyma (1) Only A and C (2) Only A and B
(4) Vascular bundles are nearly similar in size due (3) Only B and C (4) All A, B and C
to presence of parallel venation 131. All tissues on the inner side of endodermis of dicot
123. Which of the following is also referred to as ‘starch root such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith
sheath’? constitute the
(1) Stele (2) Conjunctive tissue
(1) Pericycle of stem
(3) Casparian strips (4) Periderm
(2) Epiblema of root
132. Statement A: Both apical and intercalary
(3) Endodermis of stem meristem are primary meristem.
(4) Hypodermis of stem Statement B: Secondary meristem occurs in
124. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. features of mature region of roots and shoots of many plants.
collenchyma. Select the option which is true for the given
statements.
(1) Occurs in layer below the epidermis in
dicotyledonous plants. (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) They do not provide any mechanical support (2) Only statement B is correct
to the plant parts (3) Both A and B are correct
(3) Is found either as homogeneous layer or in (4) Both A and B are incorrect
patches
(4) Consist of cells which are much thickened at 133. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is
the corners due to deposition of cellulose, known as
hemicellulose and pectin. (1) Inflorescence (2) Placentation
125. Conjoint closed vascular bundles are found in (3) Aestivation (4) Parthenogenesis
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root 134. In plants, the middle lamella present between the
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem adjacent cells mainly contains
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. (1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose
sclerenchyma. (3) Calcium Carbonate (4) Calcium Pectate
(1) Consists of long, narrow cells with thick and 135. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. heartwood.
lignified cell walls. (1) Comprises dead elements
(2) Cells are usually living and contain protoplast (2) Has highly lignified cell walls
(3) Is simple tissue (3) Conducts water
(4) Gives mechanical support to stem

[Page 11]
NBTS-02 CoE-XII
Zoology
136. Most abundant blood corpuscles are (2) A; anti-A; nil; A, B
(1) Neutrophils (2) Erythrocytes (3) Anti A; anti-B; nil; A, B
(3) Platelets (4) Lymphocytes (4) A; anti B; nil; anti-A, B
137. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. 142. Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive
circulatory fluids? fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme
(1) Blood is a specialised connective tissue (1) Prothrombin (2) Thrombokinase
(2) Sponges and coelenterates circulate water (3) Thrombin (4) Thrombocyte
from their surroundings through their body
143. Lymph can be best described as
cavities
(1) Plasma without clotting factors
(3) Lymph also helps in transport of certain
substances (2) Blood without RBCs, WBCs and platelets
(4) Blood clotting factors are present in the (3) Blood minus RBCs and proteins
plasma in an active from (4) Lymph is blood without RBCs, larger plasma
138. Select the plasma proteins which are primarily proteins and most of the formed elements.
involved in defense mechanisms. 144. Fats are absorbed in the
(1) Albumins (1) Lacteals present in the intestinal villi
(2) Globulins (2) Blood capillaries present in the intestinal villi
(3) Fibrinogen (3) Arteriole
(4) Haemoglobin (4) Venule
139. Choose the correct match 145. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. circulatory pathways
(1) RBC – 6000–8000/mm3 of blood (1) Molluscs – Open circulatory system
(2) Thrombocytes – 1,500,00-3,500,00/mm3 of (2) Annelids – Closed circulatory system
blood (3) All vertebrates – Possess a muscular
(3) Haemoglobin – 12–16 mg/100 ml of blood Chambered heart
(4) WBC – 120 days life span (4) Amphibians – Ventricle pumps
140. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. Oxygenated blood only
Rh grouping?
146. Right atrio-ventricular opening is guarded by
(1) Nearly 80% of humans are Rh positive
(1) Bicuspid value (2) Mitral valve
(2) Rh antibodies from the Rh positive mother can
leak into the blood of the Rh negative foetus (3) Tricuspid valve (4) Semilunar valve
and destroy the foetal RBCs. 147. Read the following statements and choose the
(3) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by option with incorrect statements only
administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother (a) Nodal tissue has ability to generate action
immediately after the delivery potentials without any external stimuli
(4) Rh antigen is similar to one present in Rhesus (b) Nodal tissue is a specialised cardiac
monkeys musculature
141. Given below is the table for the ABO grouping. (c) The number of action potentials that could be
Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks generated in a minute is same at different
I, II, III and IV respectively parts of the nodal system
Blood Antigens Antibodies Donor’s (d) The nodal tissue present in the upper right
group on RBCs in plasma group corner of the right atrium is also called
pacemaker of the heart
A I II A,O
(1) a,b and d (2) c only
O III IV O
(3) a and c only (4) b, c and d
(1) Anti-A; B; A,B; anti A, B

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148. Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in a (2) Vertebrates – Kidneys
cardiac cycle is called
(3) Prawn – Antennal glands
(1) Stroke volume (4) Amphioxus – Nephridia
(2) Cardiac output
153. Kidneys are situated between level of _____ and
(3) End systolic volume _____ vertebra, close to the dorsal inner wall of
the ____ cavity. Choose the option which
(4) End diastolic volume
correctly fill the blanks respectively
149. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
(1) Third lumbar, last thoracic, pelvic
correct option
(2) Last thoracic, third lumbar, pelvic
Column-I Column-II
(3) Last thoracic, third lumbar, abdominal
(a) Atherosclerosis (i) Heart stops beating
(4) Last lumbar, third thoracic, abdominal
(b) Cardiac arrest (ii) Heart muscle is
154. How many nephrons are present in both the
Suddenly damaged
kidneys?
(c) Heart failure (iii) Ineffective pumping
(1) 1 million (2) 2 million
of blood
(3) 300 million (4) 100 million
(d) Heart attack (iv) Coronary artery
155. Which type of nephron is involved in urine
disease concentration?
(1) a(ii),b(iv),c(i),d(iii) (1) Cortical nephron
(2) a(iv),b(ii),c(iii),d(i) (2) Nephrons in which vasa recta is absent or
(3) a(iii),b(i),c(ii),d(iv) highly reduced

(4) a(iv),b(i),c(iii),d(ii) (3) Nephrons having short loop of henle

150. Which of the following is not the effect of (4) Nephrons having long loop of henle
sympathetic nervous system on heart? 156. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. amount of blood
(1) Increases heart rate filtered by the kidneys

(2) Decreases speed of conduction of action (1) 1100-1200 ml of blood per minute
potential (2) 1/5th of the blood pumped by each ventricle of
(3) Increases strength of ventricular contraction the heart in a cardiac cycle

(4) Cardiac output increases (3) 20% of the cardiac output

151. Read the following statements and choose the (4) 1/5 × (Stroke volume × heart rate)
correct option 157. Read the following statements and choose the
(a) Ammonia diffuses across gill surfaces as correct option
ammonium ions Statement A : All constituents of plasma pass
(b) Kidneys play a significant role in the excretion into the lumen of the Bowman’s
of ammonia capsule.

(c) Land snails are uricotelic Statement B : Glomerular capillary blood

pressure causes filtration of blood
(d) Ammonia can be removed with minimum loss through 3 layers.
of water
(1) Both A and B statement are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Only statement A is correct
(1) F F T T
(3) Only statement B is correct
(2) F T T F
(4) Both A and B statement are incorrect
(3) T T F F
158. The amount of filtrate formed by both the kidneys
(4) T F T F per minute is
152. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. excretory structures (1) 125 ml (2) 180 litre
(1) Rotifers – Protonephridia (3) 1100–1200 ml (4) 18 litre

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NBTS-02 CoE-XII
159. Which of the following is the part of JGA (juxta 165. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. elimination of
glomerular apparatus) excretory wastes
(1) All cells of DCT (1) Liver – Bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol,
(2) All cells of afferent arteriole
degraded steroid hormones,
(3) Cellular modifications in DCT and afferent
arteriole at the location of their contact vitamins and drugs
(4) Collecting duct (2) Saliva – Small amount of nitrogenous
160. Select the correct statement for the part of renal
wastes
tubule which is lined by simple cuboidal brush
border epithelium (3) Sweat – Sterols, hydrocarbons and
(1) Passive reabsorption of glucose and amino waxes
acids
(4) Lungs – Remove large amounts of CO2
(2) Active reabsorption of nitrogenous wastes like
urea 166. Locomotion and movement of food through
(3) Minimum reabsorption cytopharynx in paramecium occurs with the help of
(4) 70–80% of electrolytes and water are (1) Cilia
reabsorbed.
(2) Flagella
161. Identify the labelled part where maximum
osmolarity of interstitial fluid is present (3) Pseudopodia
(4) Streaming of protoplasm
167. Which type of muscle is involved in the transportation
of gametes through the genital tract?
(1) Striated muscle
(2) Visceral muscle
(3) Voluntary muscle
(4) Muscle having branched muscle fibres

(1) A (2) B 168. The portion of the myofibril between two

successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as the functional
(3) C (4) D
unit of contraction and is called
162. Osmoreceptors are present in
(1) Hypothalamus (1) Sarcolemma
(2) Medulla oblongata (2) Sarcoplasm
(3) Cerebrum (3) Sarcomere
(4) Pons
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
163. ANF is released in response to
(1) Low blood pressure 169. Read the following statements and choose the
option with correct statements only
(2) High blood pressure
(3) High osmolarity (a) Anisotropic band contains only myosin
(4) Low GFR filaments
164. Read the following statements and choose the (b) Actin and myosin filaments are arranged
correct option parallel to each other also to the longitudinal
Statement A : Urine is released from the urinary axis of the myofibrils
bladder when voluntary signal is (c) In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an inelastic
given by the CNS fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it
Statement B : Micturition involves contraction of
(d) Thick filaments are held together by a thin
smooth muscles of the urinary
fibrous membrane called ‘M’ line
bladder and simultaneous
relaxation of the urethral sphincter (1) a, b,c, d
(1) Both A and B statements are correct (2) b,c and d only
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) a and c only
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both A and B statements are incorrect (4) b and d only

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NBTS-02 CoE-XII
170. A subunit of which protein masks the active (4) At the dorsal part of skull
binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments?
176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
(1) Troponin skeleton
(2) Tropomyosin (1) First vertebra is atlas
(3) ‘F’ actin (2) All mammals have 7 cervical vertebrae
(4) ‘G’ actin (3) Ribs are bicephalic
171. Cross-bridges break when____binds to myosin (4) 11th and 12th pair of ribs are floating ribs
head
177. Choose the correct match
Choose the option which correctly fills the blank
(1) Clavicle – One curvature
(1) ATP (2) ADP
(2) Scapula – At the level of 3rd to
(3) Ca2 (4) Mg2
7th rib
172. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres
connected to it constitute a (3) Pectoral girdle – Acetabulum
(1) Neuromuscular junction (4) Collar bone – Articulates with
(2) Motor-end plate acromion process
(3) Motor unit 178. Cartilaginous joint is present in
(4) Synapse (1) Skull bones
173. Matrix of cartilage is slightly pliable due to (2) Between vertebrae
(1) Calcium salts (3) Between carpals
(2) Chondroitin salts (4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) More blood supply 179. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
mostly due to genetic disorder is
(4) Hydroxyapatite
(1) Myasthenia gravis
174. W ha t is th e to t al n u m ber o f c r an i a l an d
fac i a l bo n es i n a n a du l t hu m an ? (2) Muscular dystrophy
(1) 29 (2) 22 (3) Tetany
(3) 80 (4) 126 (4) Arthritis
175. A single U-shaped bone which is also included in 180. Common cause for osteoporosis is
the skull, is present (1) Low Ca+2 in body fluids
(1) At the base of buccal cavity (2) Decreased levels of estrogen
(2) At the base of nasal cavity (3) Accumulation of uric acid crystals
(3) At the posterior part of skull (4) Auto-immunity

❑❑❑

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NBTS-02 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 02
Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (1) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (2) 115. (4) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80 (2) 116. (1) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (4) 122. (4) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (1) 89 (2) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (3) 64. (1) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (4) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (2)

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