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Exit Examination For Mechanical

Engineering 2023
1. Dashboard
2. My courses
3. Mech_2023
4. General
5. Re- Model Exit Examination For Mechanical Engineering 2023
Started on Tuesday, 27 June 2023, 12:04 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 27 June 2023, 1:06 PM
Time taken 1 hour 1 min
Overdue 1 min 17 secs
Marks 0.00/592.00
Grade 0.00 out of 500.00 (0%)
Question 1
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Total atoms in face centered cubic (FCC) structure unit cell is
a.
4
b.
6
c.
9
d.
2
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The correct answer is: 4
Question 2
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A _________ is defined as a quantity of matter or a region in space chosen for study.
a.
Surrounding
b.
System
c.
Mass
d.
Boundary
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The correct answer is: System
Question 3
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Any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another is called a
_______________.
a.
Process
b.
Property
c.
State
d.
System
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The correct answer is: Process
Question 4
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Carnot cycle is the most efficient cycle operating between two specified temperature
limits, however, the Carnot cycle is not a suitable model for power cycles. Which of the
following impracticalities are associated with Carnot cycle?
a.
Limiting the maximum temperature in the cycle.
b.
Limits the thermal efficiency.
c.
The quality of the steam decreases during isentropic expansion process.
d.
All
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The correct answer is: All
Question 5
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The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4 degrees Celsius by removing
heat from it at a rate of 360KJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 2kW,
determine the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
a.
1.0
b.
3.0
c.
2.0
d.
4.0
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The correct answer is: 3.0
Question 6
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A liquid that is about to vaporize is called a ______________.
a.
Compressed liquid
b.
Saturated vapor
c.
Saturated liquid
d.
Sub cooled liquid
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The correct answer is: Saturated liquid
Question 7
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Which one of the following is not intensive property of a system?
a.
Temperature
b.
Pressure
c.
Density
d.
Total mass
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The correct answer is: Total mass
Question 8
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Temperature difference is the driving force for heat transfer. The larger the temperature
difference, the higher is the rate of heat transfer.
a.
True
b.
False
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The correct answer is: True
Question 9
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Water boils at 100C.
a.
True
b.
False
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The correct answer is: False
Question 10
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Which one of the following is ideal cycle for spark ignition reciprocating engines?
a.
Diesel cycle
b.
Brayton cycle
c.
Rankine cycle
d.
Otto cycle
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The correct answer is: Otto cycle
Question 11
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Which one of the following is basic dimension?
a.
Energy
b.
Pressure
c.
Temperature
d.
Velocity
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The correct answer is: Temperature
Question 12
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From the following statements, which one is Clausiuss second law of?
a.
As the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system approaches a
constant minimum.
b.
It is impossible for a self-acting machine to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter
one without the aid of an external agency
c.
It is impossible to design an engine that extracts heat and fully utilizes it into work without
producing any other effect.
d.
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change forms. In any process,
the total energy of the universe remains the same
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The correct answer is: It is impossible for a self-acting machine to transfer heat from a
colder body to a hotter one without the aid of an external agency
Question 13
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During a steady-flow process, fluid properties within the control volume may change with
position but not with time.
a.
False
b.
True
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A change in the state of gas during which the pressure of the gas remains constant is
called ____________ change.
a.
Adiabatic
b.
Isobaric
c.
Isochoric
d.
Isothermal
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The correct answer is: Isobaric
Question 15
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Which method increases the thermal efficiency of simple ideal Rankine cycle on which
steam power plant operates?
a.
Lowering the Condenser Pressure.
b.
Superheating the Steam to High Temperatures.
c.
Increasing the Boiler Pressure.
d.
All
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Question 16
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Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 80 MW. If the rate of
waste heat rejection to a nearby river is 20 MW, Determine the thermal efficiency of the
heat engine.
a.
50.0 %
b.
25.0 %
c.
None
d.
75.0 %
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The correct answer is: 75.0 %
Question 17
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Consider a steady-flow Carnot cycle with water as the working fluid. The maximum and
minimum temperatures in the cycle are 327 and 27 degree Celsius. Determine the
thermal efficiency.
a.
0.7
b.
0.4
c.
0.5
d.
0.6
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Question 18
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Which one is not refrigeration cycle?
a.
Brayton cycle
b.
Ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle
c.
Reversed Carnot cycle
d.
Reversed Brayton cycle
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The correct answer is: Brayton cycle
Question 19
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Consider a gas mixture that consists of 3 kg of O2, 5 kg of N2, and 2 kg of CH4.
Determine the mass fraction of O2.
a.
0.5
b.
1.0
c.
0.3
d.
0.2
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Question 20
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A rigid tank contains 10 kg of water at 90 degree Celsius. If 8 kg of the water is in the
liquid form and the rest is in the vapor form, determine the quality of the mixture.
a.
1.25
b.
0.2
c.
0.8
d.
1.0
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Question 21
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At pressures below the triple point value the process of passing from the solid phase
directly into the vapor phase is called________________.
a.
Sublimation
b.
Triple point
c.
Phase change
d.
Melting
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The correct answer is: Sublimation
Question 22
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______the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant
pressure.
a.
Dew point temperature
b.
Adiabatic saturation temperature
c.
Dry bulb temperature
d.
Web bulb temperature
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The correct answer is: Dew point temperature
Question 23
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Which term is related with the transfer of heat from a lower temperature region to a
higher temperature one?
a.
Work engine
b.
Heat engine
c.
Thermal engine
d.
Refrigeration
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The correct answer is: Refrigeration
Question 24
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________the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by
one degree.
a.
Specific volume
b.
Specific enthalpy
c.
Specific work
d.
Specific heat
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The correct answer is: Specific heat
Question 25
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Which one of the following is microscopic forms of energy>
a.
Internal energy
b.
Potential energy
c.
Kinetic energy
d.
Mechanical energy
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The correct answer is: Internal energy
Question 26
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The amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process is
called_________________.
a.
Heat energy
b.
Latent heat
c.
Thermal energy
d.
Work energy
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The correct answer is: Latent heat
Question 27
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Which one of the following is true about the increase of entropy principle?
a.
Sgen = 0, for irreversible process
b.
Sgen = 0, for reversible process
c.
Sgen = 0, for impossible process
d.
None
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The correct answer is: Sgen = 0, for reversible process
Question 28
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__________is the form of energy that is transferred between two systems (or a system
and its surroundings) by virtue of a temperature difference.
a.
Heat
b.
Work
c.
Mass
d.
Temperature
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The correct answer is: Heat
Question 29
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Atmospheric pressure is measured by a device called a_____________.
a.
Thermometer
b.
Manometer
c.
Barometer
d.
U-tube
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The correct answer is: Barometer
Question 30
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Which one of the following quantities is used to describe the amount of moisture the air
holds relative to the maximum amount of moisture the air can hold at the same
temperature?
a.
Specific humidity
b.
Absolute humidity
c.
Humidity ratio
d.
Relative humidity
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The correct answer is: Relative humidity
Question 31
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Energy can cross the boundary of a closed system in the form of ____________.
a.
Work or Mass
b.
Heat or Work or Mass
c.
Heat or Work
d.
Heat or Mass
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The correct answer is: Heat or Work
Question 32
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A process during which there is no heat transfer is called________________.
a.
Isothermal process
b.
Isochoric process
c.
Adiabatic process
d.
Isobaric process
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The correct answer is: Adiabatic process
Question 33
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The buoyant force for a floating body passes through the:
a.
centroid of volume of the body
b.
meta-center of body
c.
centroid of displaced volume
d.
center of gravity of the body
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The correct answer is: centroid of displaced volume
Question 34
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What is hydrostatic pressure distribution?
a.
The distribution of temperature in a fluid in motion.
b.
The distribution of pressure in a fluid in motion.
c.
The distribution of temperature in a fluid at rest.
d.
The distribution of pressure in a fluid at rest.
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The correct answer is: The distribution of pressure in a fluid at rest.
Question 35
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Which of the following is the best definition of density?
a.
The mass of an object per unit volume
b.
The weight of an object per unit volume
c.
The force of an object per unit volume
d.
The volume of an object per unit mass
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The correct answer is: The mass of an object per unit volume
Question 36
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Which of the following is a characteristic of irrotational flow?
a.
The fluid particles do not rotate about their own axis.
b.
The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
c.
The flow is uniform, with the velocity at any point being the same in all directions.
d.
The fluid particles rotate about their own axis.
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The correct answer is: The fluid particles do not rotate about their own axis.
Question 37
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What is the unit of specific volume?
a.
None of the above
Question 38
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Which of the following is a true statement about streamlines?
a.
Streamlines never cross each other
b.
Streamlines are smooth curves that follow the path of fluid particles.
c.
All of the above.
d.
Streamlines are tangent to the velocity vector at every point.
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The correct answer is: All of the above.
Question 39
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What is the Bernoulli principle?
a.
The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases.
b.
The pressure of a fluid is inversely proportional to its velocity.
c.
The pressure of a fluid is constant regardless of its velocity.
d.
The pressure of a fluid increases as its velocity decreases.
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The correct answer is: The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases.
Question 40
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Which of the following is the best definition of vacuum pressure?
a.
None of the above
b.
The pressure of a gas above atmospheric pressure
c.
The pressure of a gas in a vacuum
d.
The pressure of a gas below atmospheric pressure
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The correct answer is: The pressure of a gas below atmospheric pressure
Question 41
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Which of the following is the total acceleration of a fluid particle?
a.
The sum of the convective acceleration and the local acceleration.
b.
The sum of the pressure gradient and the shear stress.
c.
The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure
d.
The sum of the gravity force and the viscous force.
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The correct answer is: The sum of the convective acceleration and the local acceleration.
Question 42
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Which of the following is a vortex flow?
a.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a circular path.
b.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a random manner.
c.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a wavy manner.
d.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a straight line.
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The correct answer is: A flow in which the fluid particles move in a circular path.
Question 43
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Which of the following is a characteristic of steady flow?
a.
The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
b.
The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining
constant over time.
Question 44
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Which of the following is the definition of dynamic viscosity?
a.
The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit
distance apart in a unit time.
b.
The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
c.
The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
d.
The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
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The correct answer is: The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second
unit area of fluid a unit distance apart in a unit time.
Question 45
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Which of the following is the main difference between a simple manometer and a
differential manometer?
a.
A simple manometer uses a single leg, while a differential manometer uses two legs.
b.
A simple manometer is less expensive than a differential manometer.
c.
A simple manometer measures the pressure of a single point, while a differential
manometer measures the pressure difference between two points.
d.
A simple manometer is more accurate than a differential manometer.
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The correct answer is: A simple manometer measures the pressure of a single point,
while a differential manometer measures the pressure difference between two points.
Question 46
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Which of the following is the best definition of dynamic viscosity?
a.
The resistance of a fluid to flow
b.
The ease with which a fluid flow
c.
The velocity of a fluid
d.
The force required to move a fluid
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The correct answer is: The resistance of a fluid to flow
Question 47
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Which of the following is the definition of kinematic viscosity?
a.
The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
b.
The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
c.
The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
d.
The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit
distance apart in a unit time.
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The correct answer is: The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
Question 48
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Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow?
a.
b.
The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
c.
d.
The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
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The correct answer is: The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
Question 49
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Which of the following is the best definition of kinematic viscosity?
a.
The velocity of a fluid
b.
The force required to move a fluid
c.
The ease with which a fluid flow
d.
The resistance of a fluid to flow
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The correct answer is: The ease with which a fluid flow
Question 50
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Which of the following is the stream function?
a.
A function that gives the temperature of a fluid.
b.
A function that gives the velocity of a fluid.
c.
A function that gives the velocity potential of a fluid
d.
A function that gives the pressure of a fluid.
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The correct answer is: A function that gives the velocity of a fluid.
Question 51
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The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called as
________________.
a.
Ionization
b.
Atomization
c.
Carburetion
d.
Injection
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The correct answer is: Atomization
Question 52
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In which is more viscous lubrication oil,________________.
a.
SAE 80
b.
SAE 70
c.
SAE 40
d.
SAE 50
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The correct answer is: SAE 80
Question 53
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Combustion in compression ignition engines is________________.
a.
Homogeneous
b.
Heterogeneous
c.
Laminar
d.
Both A and B
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The correct answer is: Heterogeneous
Question 54
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The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known
as________________.
a.
Pre-ignition
b.
Turbulence
c.
Supercharging
d.
Scavenging
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The correct answer is: Supercharging
Question 55
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The ratio of indicated work done to the energy supplied by the fuel is called as _____.
a.
Mechanical efficiency
b.
Overall efficiency
c.
Volumetric efficiency
d.
Thermal Efficiency
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The correct answer is: Thermal Efficiency
Question 56
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Black smoke appears in the exhaust due to ____________.
a.
Incomplete combustion
b.
High load operation
c.
combustion of lubrication oil
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The correct answer is: High load operation
Question 57
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The three way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following?
________________ .
a.
PM
b.
NOx
c.
CO
d.
HC
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The correct answer is: PM
Question 58
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The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of
________________ revolutions of crankshaft.
a.
2
b.
1/2
c.
4
d.
1
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Question 59
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The presence of nitrogen in the products of combustion ensures that:
________________.
a.
Air is used for the combustion
b.
Complete combustion of fuel takes place
c.
Dry products of combustion are analyzed
d.
Incomplete combustion of fuel occurs
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The correct answer is: Air is used for the combustion
Question 60
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A type of plant layout useful when the production process is in a continuous or repetitive
way.
a.
Product or line layout
b.
Process or functional layout
c.
Cellular layout
d.
Fixed position or location layout
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The correct answer is: Product or line layout
Question 61
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--------- is the time that elapses between issuing replenishment order and receiving the
material in stores.
a.
None of the above
b.
Idle-time
c.
Lead time
d.
Replenishment time
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The correct answer is: Lead time
Question 62
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on lead
time required to obtain the materials.
a.
VED Analysis
b.
FSN Analysis
c.
HML Analysis
d.
SDE Analysis
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The correct answer is: VED Analysis
Question 63
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Which one of the following factors are not internal affect productivity improvement.
a.
Poor maintenance system
b.
Infrastructure supports
c.
Insufficient plant layout
d.
Unhealthy working environment
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The correct answer is: Infrastructure supports
Question 64
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If an activity has multiple immediate predecessors, its earliest start (ES) is ------------.
a.
Minimum latest starting of all immediately following activities
b.
The maximum of all the earliest finishing values of its predecessors
c.
Earliest starting (ES) + activity time
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The correct answer is: The maximum of all the earliest finishing values of its
predecessors
Question 65
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Which range of forecasting time horizon, that used to forecast facility expansion and
relocation.
a.
Long range forecast
b.
Short range forecast
c.
A &B
d.
medium range forecast
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The correct answer is: Long range forecast
Question 66
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Is the process of measuring, evaluating and monitoring the current activities how an
organization has achieved its goals and to take any corrective actions needed to improve
performance.
a.
Organizing
b.
Directing
c.
Controlling
d.
Staffing
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The correct answer is: Controlling
Question 67
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Which one of the following is not true about Economic order quantity and inventory.
a.
Carrying cost are linearly related to order size
b.
Average inventory level and number of orders per year are inversely related.
c.
Ordering cost are non-linearly related to order size
d.
None
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The correct answer is: None
Question 68
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A machine costs of 1,000,000 birr, it produces items that generate a profit of 10 birr each
on a production run of 50,000 units per year. What is the payback periods.
a.
2 years
b.
4 years
c.
1 years
d.
3 years
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The correct answer is: 2 years
Question 69
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Which one of the following statements are not true.
a.
When the project time is reduced, the direct cost increases.
b.
When the project time is reduced, the indirect cost decreases.
c.
None
d.
When the project time is reduced, the direct cost decreases.
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The correct answer is: When the project time is reduced, the direct cost decreases.
Question 70
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Which type of organizational structure are temporary organizational structures formed for
specific projects for a specific period of time and are dismantled, once the required goal
is achieved.
a.
Functional
b.
Line &Staff
c.
Line
d.
Matrix
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The correct answer is: Matrix
Question 71
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Which type of organizational structure is difficult control because, there are no clear lines
of authority and responsibility.
a.
Line
b.
Line & Staff
c.
Functional
d.
Matrix
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The correct answer is: Functional
Question 72
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Which of the following is not investment appraisal techniques.
a.
Accounting Rate of Return
b.
Economy ordering quantity model
c.
Profitability index
d.
Payback period
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The correct answer is: Economy ordering quantity model
Question 73
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-----------is a stock of materials used to facilitate production or to satisfy customer
demands. It includes raw-materials, work-in-progress and finished goods.
a.
purchasing
b.
Inventory
c.
none
d.
Martials
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The correct answer is: Inventory
Question 74
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Which one of the following statements is not true about productivity.
a.
Productivity is the efficient utilization of resources in producing goods/services.
b.
Higher productivity means to produce more with a minimum increase in expense
c.
Increase in production does necessarily by itself indicate increase in productivity.
d.
Higher productivity means to produce more with the same expenditure
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The correct answer is: Increase in production does necessarily by itself indicate increase
in productivity.
Question 75
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Which one of the following are not the principle of good plant layout.
a.
Principle of safety and satisfaction
b.
Principle of integration
c.
Principle of minimum distance
d.
None
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The primary goal of the plant layout is to minimize the profit by the arrangement of all the
industrial facilities to the best advantage of total manufacturing of the product.
a.
True
b.
False
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Question 77
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the source of
supplies.
a.
SO-S Analysis
b.
GOLF Analysis
c.
SDE Analysis
d.
VED Analysis
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The correct answer is: GOLF Analysis
Question 78
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Which one of the are not true about the importance of forecasting.
a.
For finance and accounting
b.
for marketing
c.
None
d.
For long range planning
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Question 79
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---------Is concerned with reducing, controlling, and eliminating hazards from the
organizational unit.
a.
Inventory
b.
Ergonomics
c.
plant layout
d.
Industrial safety
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The correct answer is: Industrial safety
Question 80
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Is the process of motivating, guiding, and supervising subordinates towards company
objectives.
a.
Controlling
b.
Directing
c.
Staffing
d.
Organizing
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The correct answer is: Directing
Question 81
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If an activity has only a single immediate predecessor, its earliest start (ES) equals the
earliest finish (EF) of the predecessor.
a.
False
b.
True
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Question 82
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on
frequently pattern of items.
a.
VED Analysis
b.
ABC Analysis
c.
FSN Analysis
d.
SDE Analysis
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The correct answer is: FSN Analysis
Question 83
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A type of plant layout that is useful when the production process is organized in batches.
a.
Process or functional layout
b.
Fixed position or location layout
c.
Cellular layout
d.
Product or line layout
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The correct answer is: Process or functional layout
Question 84
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Which of the following are the supplier sourcing.
a.
Single sourcing
b.
Sole sourcing
c.
All
d.
Multiple sourcing
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Question 85
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--------- is the task of buying goods of the right quality in the right quantities, at the right
time, and with the right price.
a.
None of the above
b.
Purchasing
c.
Scrutinizing
d.
Supplying
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The correct answer is: Purchasing
Question 86
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Which of the following is false for inventory control?
a.
Inventory carrying costs increases with an increasing quantity per order
b.
Inventory carrying costs decrease with an increasing quantity per order
c.
Economic order quantity has a minimum total cost per order
d.
Ordering cost decreases with an increasing quantity per order
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The correct answer is: Inventory carrying costs decrease with an increasing quantity per
order
Question 87
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on annual
consumption value/items on the basis of their usage.
a.
FSN Analysis
b.
VED Analysis
c.
ABC Analysis
d.
HML Analysis
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The correct answer is: ABC Analysis
Question 88
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One of the following is not the characteristics of management.
a.
Management is goal oriented
b.
Management is individual activity
c.
Management is ongoing processes
d.
Management is universal
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The correct answer is: Management is individual activity
Question 89
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A type of layout that combines the resources necessary to manufacture a good or deliver
a service, in one physical location.
a.
Combined layout
b.
Fixed position/project layout
c.
Process layout
d.
Product layout
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The correct answer is: Fixed position/project layout
Question 90
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-------------- is a type of operation in the network that neither requires any time nor any
resources.
a.
Successor activity
b.
Predecessor activity
c.
Critical activities
d.
Dummy activities
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The correct answer is: Dummy activities
Question 91
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Slack time is ---------------.
a.
LF-ES/ES-LE
b.
LF-EF/LS-ES
c.
LS-EF/ EF-LS
d.
ES-EF/EF-ES
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The correct answer is: LF-EF/LS-ES
Question 92
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A type of forecast they predict the company's products and estimate consumer request.
a.
Demand forecasts
b.
Technological forecasts
c.
Supply forecasts
d.
Economic forecasts
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The correct answer is: Demand forecasts
Question 93
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----------is a method for shortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or
more of the critical project activities to a time that is less than the normal activity time.
a.
Crash cost
b.
Crash time
c.
Project crashing
d.
Project risk
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The correct answer is: Project crashing
Question 94
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One of the following is the function of forecasting.
a.
Forecasting staff needs
b.
All
c.
Forecasting economic trend
d.
Forecasting sales
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Question 95
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Is the arrangement of industrial facilities such as personnel, operating equipment,
storage space, materials handling equipment and all other supporting services.
a.
Plant location
b.
Ergonomics
c.
Organization
d.
Plant layout
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The correct answer is: Plant layout
Question 96
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the nature of
supplies.
a.
SDE Analysis
b.
GOLF Analysis
c.
VED Analysis
d.
SO-S Analysis
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The correct answer is: SO-S Analysis
Question 97
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If you are a mechanical engineer, which one of the following factors to be considered in
design plant Layout.
a.
Hazards
b.
Type of layout
c.
Type of Production
d.
All
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If an activity is an immediate predecessor for just a single activity, the Latest finishing
(LF) equals the latest starting (LS) of the activity that immediately follows it.
a.
False
b.
True
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Which one of the following is true about forecasting.
a.
Forecasts are more accurate for groups
b.
Forecast accuracy increases as time horizon decreases
c.
All
d.
Forecasts are not perfect
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--------- is a methodology for converting a large-scale project into detailed schedules for
its thousands of activities for planning, scheduling and controlling purpose.
a.
Network Scheduling
b.
Milestone Charts
c.
Work Breakdown Structure
d.
Bar Charts
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The correct answer is: Work Breakdown Structure
Question 101
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-----------is the process of which planning, coordinates, supervises, controlling and carry
out the tasks associated with the flow of materials; to, through, and out of an organization
in an integrated manner.
a.
Inventory Management
b.
Materials Management
c.
Project Management
d.
Resource Management
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The correct answer is: Materials Management
Question 102
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Which one of the following is controllable factors of plant location.
a.
Climatic conditions
b.
Supply of raw material
c.
Proximity to markets
d.
B &C
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The correct answer is: B &C
Question 103
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Is concerned with the achievement of optimal relationship between workers and their
work environment.
a.
Organization
b.
Ergonomics
c.
management
d.
staff
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The correct answer is: Ergonomics
Question 104
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Which one of the following statements are not true
a.
The probability of occurrence of risk events is lowest near the end of a project
b.
The cost associated with risk events tends to be lowest near the beginning of a project
c.
The cost associated with risk events tends to be highest near the beginning of a project
d.
The probability of occurrence of risk events is highest near the beginning of a project
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The correct answer is: The cost associated with risk events tends to be highest near the
beginning of a project
Question 105
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Which one of the following is not true about Critical Path Method Technique.
a.
Critical Path Method network is event-oriented
b.
None
c.
Critical Path Method network is activity-oriented
d.
Critical Path Method is mostly used in deterministic situations.
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The correct answer is: Critical Path Method network is event-oriented
Question 106
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The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input
a.
Repeatability
b.
Sensitivity
c.
Accuracy
d.
Readability
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The correct answer is: Sensitivity
Question 107
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RTD and Thermistors are _____ transducers.
a.
Passive and analog
b.
Active and digital
c.
Active and analog
d.
Passive and digital
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The correct answer is: Passive and analog
Question 108
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A pressure indicator showed a reading as 42 bar on a scale range of 0 - 50 bar. If the
true value was 41.4 bar, what is the value of static error?
a.
1.62 bar
b.
1.45
c.
0.6 bar
d.
0.4 bar
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The correct answer is: 0.6 bar
Question 109
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For the above question number 8 what will be the value of percentage of relative error?
a.
0.4
b.
1.62
c.
0.6
d.
1.45
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Question 110
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Which of the following can be measured using a Ring-type load cell?
a.
None of the mentioned
b.
Large weigh
c.
Both large and small weights
d.
Small weight
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The correct answer is: Small weight
Question 111
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_________ Sensors translate movement into a change in the mutual inductance between
magnetically coupled parts.
a.
Capacitive
b.
Inductive
c.
Ultrasonic
d.
Resistive
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The correct answer is: Inductive
Question 112
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Which statement is false about primary standard?
a.
Are not available for use outside the national laboratories.
b.
Have highest accuracy and very expensive to own.
c.
All are false
d.
Are used by the workers and technicians who actually carry out the measurements
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The correct answer is: Are used by the workers and technicians who actually carry out
the measurements
Question 113
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A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a.
Transducer
b.
Filter
c.
Amplifier
d.
Attenuator
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The correct answer is: Amplifier
Question 114
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Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a.
High frequency
b.
No frequency
c.
Mid-Range frequency
d.
Low frequency
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The correct answer is: High frequency
Question 115
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Identify the transducer not used for the measurement of temperature.
a.
Bourdon gage
b.
Thermocouple
c.
Pyrometer
d.
Thermometer
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The correct answer is: Bourdon gage
Question 116
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The following quantities are typically within the scope of mechanical measurements
except
a.
Pressure
b.
Temperature
c.
Flow
d.
Current
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The correct answer is: Current
Question 117
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Which one of the following are not systematic error?
a.
Observational errors
b.
Random errors
c.
Environmental errors
d.
Instrumental errors
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The correct answer is: Random errors
Question 118
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One of the following is not an advantage of digital device
a.
High speed
b.
No need of calibration
c.
Accuracy
d.
Decrease of human error
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The correct answer is: No need of calibration
Question 119
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Which of the following properties a capacitive type transducer measures?
a.
All the above
b.
Pressure
c.
Temperature
d.
Displacement
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The correct answer is: All the above
Question 120
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Which of the following is an analog transducer?
a.
Limit switches
b.
Digital tachometers
c.
Strain gauge
d.
Encoders
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The correct answer is: Strain gauge
Question 121
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Indirect measurement involving one translation is called _______.
a.
Primary measurement
b.
Tertiary measurement
c.
Secondary measurement
d.
None
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The correct answer is: Secondary measurement
Question 122
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Which of the following is the input quantity provided to photoelectric type transducer?
a.
Air
b.
Sound
c.
Pressure
d.
Light
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The correct answer is: Light
Question 123
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Which of the following is fundamental quantity
a.
Velocity
b.
Pressure
c.
All
d.
Time
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The correct answer is: Time
Question 124
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Which of the following device can be used for force measurement?
a.
Bellows
b.
Capsule
c.
Beams
d.
Bourdon tube
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The correct answer is: Beams
Question 125
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The revision applied to the critical value so that the final result obtained improves the
worth of the result is called ________.
a.
Error
b.
Actual value
c.
Correction
d.
Range
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The correct answer is: Correction
Question 126
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All are displacement sensor except
a.
Strain-gauged element
b.
Capacitive element
c.
Piezoelectric
d.
Potentiometer
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The correct answer is: Piezoelectric
Question 127
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Which one is not the function of transducer in mechatronics?
a.
To act as protective mechanism for a system
b.
To make mechanically complex and expensive feeding and sorting devices
c.
To provide identification and indication of the presence of different components
d.
To produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the
Piston.
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The correct answer is: To make mechanically complex and expensive feeding and
sorting devices
Question 128
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___________ is a mechanical actuator that give change of speed in mechatronic system.
a.
Motors
b.
Belt
c.
Valves
d.
Gears
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The correct answer is: Gears
Question 129
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Directional control valve is considered as
a.
A and C
b.
ON/OFF Control
c.
Infinite Position
d.
Finite Position
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The correct answer is: A and C
Question 130
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The extent to which the measured value might be wrong and normally expressed in
percentage is called
a.
Accuracy
b.
Error
c.
Reproducibility
d.
Sensitivity
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The correct answer is: Accuracy
Question 131
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An electronic component which is used as switching device
a.
Transistor
b.
Inductor
c.
Resistor
d.
Capacitor
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The correct answer is: Capacitor
Question 132
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A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a.
Transducer
b.
Attenuator
c.
Filter
d.
Amplifier
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The correct answer is: Transducer
Question 133
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_________ is a motor that produces rotation through equal angles for each digital pulse
supplied to its input.
a.
Stepper motor
b.
DC motor
c.
Servo motor
d.
Ac motor
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The correct answer is: Servo motor
Question 134
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_________sensors rely on variation of the resistance of a material when the measured
variable is applied to it.
a.
Ultrasonic
b.
Capacitive
c.
Inductive
d.
Resistive
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The correct answer is: Resistive
Question 135
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An input condition that is open when de-energized describes
a.
Normally closed
b.
Normally open
c.
Output
d.
Negated Output
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The correct answer is: Normally closed
Question 136
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A filter that has a pass band which allows all frequencies from zero up to some frequency
to be transmitted.
a.
Band stop filter
b.
Low pass filter
c.
High pass filter
d.
Band pass filter
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The correct answer is: Low pass filter
Question 137
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One of the following is not the function of sequencing
a.
Timing
b.
Logic
c.
Sequencing
d.
None
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Which of the following elements of control systems is responsible for transforming the
output of a microprocessor/microcontroller into a controlling action on a machine?
a.
System
b.
Actuator
c.
Controller
d.
Sensor
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The correct answer is: Actuator
Question 139
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A combination of components which are coordinated together to perform a specific
objective.
a.
System
b.
Mechatronics
c.
All
d.
Modeling
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The correct answer is: System
Question 140
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The Wheatstone bridge can be used to convert
a.
Current change to a resistance change
b.
Voltage changes to a current change
c.
Voltage changes to a resistance change
d.
Resistance changes to a voltage change
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The correct answer is: Resistance changes to a voltage change
Question 141
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One of the following is different from the others
a.
Brushed DC Motor
b.
Relays
c.
Transistors
d.
Diodes
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The correct answer is: Brushed DC Motor
Question 142
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The ability of transducer to give the same output when used to measure a constant input
over a period of time is called __________
a.
Stability
b.
Sensitivity
c.
Reproducibility
d.
Repeatability
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The correct answer is: Stability
Question 143
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Which of the following is velocity sensor?
a.
Tach generator
b.
Potentiometer
c.
Orifice plate
d.
Strain gage
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The correct answer is: Potentiometer
Question 144
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The term PLC stands for:
a.
Personal logic controller
b.
Personal logic computer
c.
Programmable logic controller.
d.
Programmable local computer.
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The correct answer is: Programmable logic controller.
Question 145
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Produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the piston
a.
Double acting cylinder
b.
Directional control valve
c.
All
d.
Single acting cylinder
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The correct answer is: Single acting cylinder
Question 146
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Which of the following is not true about gears?
a.
Transmit large power
b.
Positive drive
c.
Constant velocity ratio
d.
Bulky construction
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The correct answer is: Bulky construction
Question 147
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The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the
main characteristic of _____ failure.
a.
Fatigue
b.
c.
Fracture
d.
Yielding
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The correct answer is: Fatigue
Question 148
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Which of the following can be used for power transmission in intersecting shafts?
a.
Spur Gear
b.
Bevel Gear
c.
Helical Gear
d.
None of the listed
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The correct answer is: Bevel Gear
Question 149
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The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the
main characteristic of _____ failure.
a.
None
b.
Fracture
c.
Fatigue
d.
Yielding
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The correct answer is: Fatigue
Question 150
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Which of the following is not a type of welding joint?
a.
Tee joint
b.
Butt joint
c.
Single strap joint
d.
Lap joint
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The correct answer is: Single strap joint
Question 151
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If driving gear rotates ACW, driven gear will rotate in which direction?
a.
CW
b.
Both CW and ACW
c.
ACW
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The correct answer is: ACW
Question 152
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In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?
a.
Ductile material under fluctuating load
b.
Brittle material under +static load
c.
Brittle material under fluctuating load
d.
Ductile material under static load
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The correct answer is: Ductile material under static load
Question 153
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Which one are not methods of reducing stress concentration?
a.
None
b.
Use of multiple holes instead of single hole
c.
Providing fillets.
d.
Avoiding sharp corners.
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Question 154
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Find the mean coil diameter of a helical compression sprig if a load of 1200N is applied
on the spring. Spring index is 6, and wire diameter 7mm.
a.
42mm
b.
None of the listed
c.
7/6mm
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The correct answer is: 42mm
Question 155
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Which one of the following are a measure of stiffness?
a.
Toughness
b.
Modulus of plasticity
c.
Resilience
d.
Modulus of elasticity
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The correct answer is: Modulus of elasticity
Question 156
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A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a.
Thrust
b.
Transversal
c.
Radial
d.
Longitudinal
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The correct answer is: Thrust
Question 157
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If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other, the
length of spring is called as?
a.
Solid length
b.
Free length
c.
Compressed length
d.
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The correct answer is: Solid length
Question 158
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An unfired pressure vessel is used to carry stem, gases or fluids at pressure.
a.
Greater than atmospheric pressure
b.
c.
Equal to atmospheric pressure
d.
Less than atmospheric pressure
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The correct answer is: Greater than atmospheric pressure
Question 159
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Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will
a.
Reduce the stress concentration
b.
Cannot be determined
c.
Increase the stress concentration
d.
No effect
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The correct answer is: Reduce the stress concentration
Question 160
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Which of the following is not a type of sunk key?
a.
Hollow saddle key
b.
Gib headed key
c.
Woodruff key
d.
Square key
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The correct answer is: Hollow saddle key
Question 161
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Which of the following is not the function of a spring?
a.
They are used to measure displacement
b.
They are used for the measurement of force and to control motion
c.
They are used to store energy
d.
They are used to absorb shocks and vibrations
Feedback
The correct answer is: They are used to measure displacement
Question 162
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Modulus of resilience is defined as
a.
Strain energy per unit volume
b.
c.
Strain energy per unit area
d.
Independent of strain energy
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Question 163
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Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual meanings].
a.
4PD/t
b.
PD/4t
c.
PD/2t
d.
2PD/t
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The correct answer is: PD/4t
Question 164
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The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and
__________ diameter at the shaft ends.
a.
Minimum, minimum
b.
Zero, infinity
c.
Maximum, minimum
d.
Minimum, maximum
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The correct answer is: Maximum, minimum
Question 165
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Which of the following act on shafts?
a.
Bending Moment
b.
c.
Both torsional and bending
d.
Torsional moment
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The correct answer is: Both torsional and bending
Question 166
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The damage in sliding bearings is the result of:
a.
None
b.
Wear plus Fatigue
c.
Fatigue
d.
Wear
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The correct answer is: Wear plus Fatigue
Question 167
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One of the following reinforcement and anchoring approaches provides relatively a more
rigid support.
a.
Leveling Screws
b.
Anchor Bolts and Shims
c.
All
d.
Leveling Wedges
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The correct answer is: Leveling Wedges
Question 168
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Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a.
Design
b.
All
c.
Transportation
d.
Production
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The correct answer is: Design
Question 169
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Which one of the following are the commonly measure of availability.
a.
Operational Availability
b.
Inherent Availability
c.
Achieved Availability
d.
All
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Which of the following are the general-purpose monitoring techniques?
a.
Vibration/noise monitoring
b.
Thermal monitoring
c.
Lubricant monitoring
d.
All
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Question 171
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Which of the following are the defects rolling bearing?
a.
Miss-alignment
b.
Bearing running dry
c.
All
d.
Bearing inner race loose on shaft
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Question 172
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-------are a type of decisions that have been encountered and made in the past.
a.
Programmed decisions
b.
None
c.
Non programmed decisions
d.
Associative choices
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The correct answer is: Programmed decisions
Question 173
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What is the primary goal of improving availability?
a.
To reduce the number of repairs needed
b.
To reduce maintenance costs
c.
To increase the number of spare parts available
d.
To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
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The correct answer is: To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
Question 174
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-------- Is the process by which jobs are matched with resources and sequenced to be
executed at a certain point in time?
a.
Planning
b.
Scheduling
c.
Staffing
d.
Networking
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The correct answer is: Scheduling
Question 175
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Which one of the following is not the benefit of predictive type of maintenance
a.
Longer machine life
b.
Low maintenance cost
c.
Low production
d.
Less machine failure
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The correct answer is: Low production
Question 176
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-----------is the measuring technique of the state of damage that determines the difference
between the initial state and the state after wear process.
a.
Related measurement
b.
Direct measured
c.
Indirect measured
d.
Absolute measurement
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The correct answer is: Direct measured
Question 177
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Damage is classified as:
a.
Fatigue
b.
Wear
c.
All
d.
Corrosion
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Question 178
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Which of the following is a common metric used to measure maintainability?
a.
Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE)
b.
None of the above
c.
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
d.
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
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The correct answer is: Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
Question 179
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Which of the following is NOT a step in the maintenance planning process?
a.
Conducting maintenance activities
b.
Identifying maintenance needs
c.
Developing a maintenance schedule
d.
Assigning maintenance personnel
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The correct answer is: Developing a maintenance schedule
Question 180
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--------Is the probability that an item/equipment or system will perform its intended
function for a stated period of time under specified operating conditions?
a.
None
b.
Reliability
c.
Maintainability
d.
Availability
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The correct answer is: Reliability
Question 181
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What would happen, if equipment possesses reliability and maintainability to the
maximum extent in accordance to MTTR?
a.
Failure rate is higher and downtime is shorter
b.
Failure rate is lower and downtime is longer
c.
Failure rate is higher and downtime is longer
d.
Failure rate is lower and downtime is shorter
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The correct answer is: Failure rate is lower and downtime is shorter
Question 182
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Which of the following is a common tool used in maintenance engineering?
a.
All of the above
b.
Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
c.
Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA
d.
Pareto Analysis
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The correct answer is: All of the above
Question 183
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Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a.
Production
b.
Design
c.
All
d.
Transportation
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The correct answer is: Design
Question 184
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Which of the following is a common type of vibration sensor?
a.
Thermocouple
b.
Microphone
c.
Pressure transducer
d.
Accelerometer
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The correct answer is: Accelerometer
Question 185
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What is maintenance technology?
a.
The tools and techniques used to support maintenance activities
b.
The process of scheduling maintenance activities
c.
The process of measuring the effectiveness of maintenance activities
d.
The process of performing maintenance on equipment or systems
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The correct answer is: The tools and techniques used to support maintenance activities
Question 186
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Due to damages, bearings will either gets:
a.
Vibration
b.
Heated up
c.
Abnormal noise
d.
All
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Question 187
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As a product has more components, what will be the reliability?
a.
The reliability is increase.
b.
All
c.
The reliability is constant
d.
The reliability is decrease
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The correct answer is: The reliability is decrease
Question 188
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The __________goes on increasing with the increase in degree of maintenance efforts.
a.
Cost of down time
b.
Cost of spares and maintenance
c.
All of the above
d.
Labor and overhead cost
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The correct answer is: Labor and overhead cost
Question 189
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Which of the following is NOT a goal of spares provisioning?
a.
Reducing inventory costs
b.
Minimizing downtime
c.
Ensuring availability of necessary spare parts
d.
Maximizing repair costs
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The correct answer is: Maximizing repair costs
Question 190
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The following are the most commonly used inventory analyses except one.
a.
HML
b.
VED
c.
SDE
d.
FSM
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The correct answer is: FSM
Question 191
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----------is defined as an identifiable physical condition which indicates that a functional
failure is either about to occur or it is in the process of occurring.
a.
Chemical failure
b.
functional failure
c.
Potential failure
d.
Physical failure
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The correct answer is: Potential failure
Question 192
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Which of the following are not true about wear-out phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
hazard rate is increases
b.
End of life failure
c.
Weibull distributions B= 1
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The correct answer is: Weibull distributions B= 1
Question 193
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--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature
exist but lacks sufficient knowledge and insufficient information to know the
consequences of different actions.
a.
Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
b.
Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
c.
None
d.
Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
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The correct answer is: Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
Question 194
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Which of the following are the objectives of spare parts managements?
a.
Maximizing spare parts availability,
b.
Minimizing the economic costs.
c.
All
d.
Minimize environmental costs
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Question 195
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Failures are resulting from:
a.
material or information input
b.
All
c.
within the operation
d.
customer actions
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Question 196
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of rotating machinery?
a.
Acoustic emission testing
b.
Oil analysis
c.
Thermography
d.
Vibration analysis
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The correct answer is: Vibration analysis
Question 197
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Which of the following are the causes of equipment breakdown?
a.
Unsound foundation
b.
Too high or too low voltage supply
c.
Lack of lubrication
d.
All
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Question 198
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MTTR is estimated to:
a.
Determine work maintenance
b.
Determine the actual repair work required
c.
Calculate labor cost
d.
Estimate the time required in marketing
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The correct answer is: Determine the actual repair work required
Question 199
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How much of the annual steel production is lost due to corrosion.
a.
5%
b.
3%
c.
15%
d.
10%
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The correct answer is: 5%
Question 200
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Which of the following are the causes of shaft failure?
a.
Fatigue
b.
Misalignment
c.
Wear
d.
All
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Question 201
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Which of the following are true about P-F interval?
a.
The failure development period.
b.
All
c.
warning period
d.
lead time to failure
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For the successful spare parts management, it is essential to analyze the spare parts
inventory based on:
a.
All
b.
Annual consumption value
c.
Criticality
d.
Frequency of issues
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In which generation, the maintenance was restricted to fixing the components when it
breaks because it was the cheapest alternative.
a.
Third Generation
b.
First generation
c.
Second Generation
d.
Fourth generation
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The correct answer is: First generation
Question 204
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On-condition tasks are carried out at
a.
A and C
b.
greater than the P-F intervals
c.
less than the P-F intervals
d.
at the P-F intervals
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The correct answer is: less than the P-F intervals
Question 205
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of insulation in
electrical equipment?
a.
Thermography
b.
Partial discharge testing
c.
d.
Oil analysis
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The correct answer is: Thermography
Question 206
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Which of the following are the objectives of accurate alignment?
a.
Minimize the amount of wear
b.
Minimize the amount of shaft bending
c.
All
d.
Reduce excessive axial and radial forces
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Question 207
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Which of the following is not a type of preventive maintenance?
a.
Replacing broken parts
b.
Calibration
c.
Inspections
d.
Lubrication
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The correct answer is: Replacing broken parts
Question 208
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The state of damage of equipment is depends on:
a.
condition of damage
b.
All
c.
Kind of damage
d.
Duration of operation of equipment
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Question 209
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Which of the following remedies are true for preventing shaft failures?
a.
Wear of can be prevented by using proper lubrication
b.
Misalignment can be eliminated by proper assembly procedures
c.
All
d.
Fatigue can be reduced by proper design of local areas
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------ is the probability that items or system can be retained in, or can be restored to
operating condition in a specified amount of time.
a.
None
b.
Reliability
c.
Availability
d.
Maintainability
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The correct answer is: Maintainability
Question 211
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With the increase in preventive maintenance cost, breakdown maintenance cost
a.
Increases
b.
Decreases
c.
Remains same
d.
Any of the above
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The correct answer is: Decreases
Question 212
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Which of the following are true about maintenance planning?
a.
Reduced maintenance cost
b.
Improved utilization of the maintenance workforce
c.
Improved quality of maintenance work
d.
All
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Question 213
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Which of the following are maintenance schedule techniques?
a.
Modified Gantt chart
b.
PERT
c.
All
d.
CPM
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Several findings show the reason why seals fail. How many percent does improper
installation constitutes to the failure?
a.
22 percent
b.
12 percent
c.
26 percent
d.
15 percent
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The correct answer is: 26 percent
Question 215
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Which of the following are the basic elements of maintenance technology?
a.
Repair.
b.
Servicing
c.
All
d.
Operation
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Question 216
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Which of the following are true about the purpose of planned maintenance
a.
To prevent the occurrence of breakdown
b.
If breakdown has occurred then to restore it to original condition
c.
If breakdown has occurred then discard the items
d.
A and B
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The correct answer is: A and B
Question 217
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of bearings?
a.
Partial discharge testing
b.
c.
Oil analysis
d.
Thermography
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The correct answer is: Oil analysis
Question 218
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All but one is not the way of achieving a more reliability.
a.
To have a series system
b.
To have a parallel system
c.
To have backup component
d.
To have fewer number of components
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The correct answer is: To have a series system
Question 219
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Is a set of activities that detect changes in the physical condition of equipment (signs of
failure) in order to carry out the appropriate maintenance work.
a.
Reactive maintenance
b.
Preventive maintenance
c.
Breakdown maintenance
d.
Predictive maintenance
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The correct answer is: Predictive maintenance
Question 220
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The P-F curve shows all but not one
a.
Where failure in the equipment starts to occur.
b.
Where the equipment has failed indicating functional failure.
c.
Where equipment condition deteriorates to the point at which the failure can be detected;
and finally.
d.
None
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This type of schedule allows 10% to 15% of the workforce to be available for emergency
work.
a.
Long-range
b.
Daily
c.
Medium-range
d.
Weekly
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The correct answer is: Weekly
Question 222
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Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when determining the appropriate level
of spares provisioning?
a.
The lead time required to obtain spare parts
b.
The cost of the spare parts
c.
The age of the equipment
d.
The frequency of equipment failures
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The correct answer is: The age of the equipment
Question 223
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Which of the following are the category of Preventive Maintenance
a.
Shut-down Maintenance
b.
Design-out Maintenance
c.
All
d.
Running Maintenance
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Which of the following are true about the relationship between Weibull analysis and
hazard rate?
a.
When B less than 1, we get a decreasing hazard function
b.
When B greater than 1, we get increasing hazard function.
c.
All
d.
When B = 1, the hazard function is constant
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Which of the following are the reconditioning steps?
a.
All
b.
Repair
c.
Inspection
d.
Overhaul
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Question 226
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Which one of the following is not true about Proper machine installations?
a.
Minimizing maintenance challenge
b.
Maximize life cycle costs of production machinery
c.
Maximize reliability
d.
Maximize capacity utilization
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The correct answer is: Maximize life cycle costs of production machinery
Question 227
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All but one is not the way of achieving a good reliability.
a.
To have backup components
b.
To have a parallel system
c.
To have a series system
d.
To have fewer number of components
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The correct answer is: To have a series system
Question 228
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A systematic approach for maintenance is?
a.
This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 229
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Which of the following are not maintenance objectives.
a.
Minimizing production
b.
Minimizing energy usage.
c.
Reducing downtime.
d.
Improving equipment efficiency
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The correct answer is: Minimizing production
Question 230
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The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a.
50%
b.
45
c.
60%
d.
55%
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What is the life history curve of equipment?
a.
A graph that shows the failure rate of equipment over time
b.
A graph that shows the cost of equipment over time
c.
A graph that shows the maintenance requirements of equipment over time
d.
A graph that shows the performance of equipment over time
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The correct answer is: A graph that shows the maintenance requirements of equipment
over time
Question 232
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Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of standardization?
a.
Improves in reliability
b.
Increases maintenance time and cost
c.
Eliminates the need for special components
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The correct answer is: Increases maintenance time and cost
Question 233
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Which of the following are true about objectives of planning and scheduling
maintenance?
a.
Maintaining the operating equipment at a responsive level in terms of delivery schedule
and quality.
b.
All
c.
Minimizing the idle time of maintenance workers
d.
Maximizing the efficient use of work time, material, and equipment
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In designing the foundation for an alignment-critical machine, all factors are important
except:
a.
Foundation thickness
b.
Different foundation block
c.
Stiffness of a foundation
d.
Local soil conditions
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The correct answer is: Different foundation block
Question 235
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----------Is a system that utilizes to collected data from the machinery in order to predict
and prevent the potential failures?
a.
Typical Maintenance System
b.
Old Maintenance System
c.
Normal Maintenance System
d.
Intelligent Maintenance System
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The correct answer is: Intelligent Maintenance System
Question 236
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--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature
exist but it has sufficient information to know the consequences of different actions.
a.
Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
b.
Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
c.
Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
d.
None
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The correct answer is: Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
Question 237
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What is the primary goal of improving maintainability?
a.
To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
b.
To reduce maintenance costs
c.
To reduce the number of repairs needed
d.
To reduce the time required to perform repairs
Feedback
The correct answer is: To reduce the time required to perform repairs
Question 238
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Which of the following is NOT a factor considered when determining spares provisioning
levels?
a.
Criticality of the equipment
b.
Production capacity
c.
Lead time
d.
Consumption value
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The correct answer is: Production capacity
Question 239
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Which of the following are not true about debugging phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
Infant mortality
b.
Hazard rate is constant
c.
Hazard rate is rapid decrease
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The correct answer is: Hazard rate is constant
Question 240
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Which of the following is an example of preventive maintenance?
a.
Cleaning an air filter
b.
Repairing a malfunctioning machine
c.
Replacing a broken machine part
d.
None of the above
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The correct answer is: Cleaning an air filter
Question 241
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Maintenance schedule can be prepared at:
a.
All
b.
Weekly schedule
c.
Long-range schedule
d.
Daily schedule
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Which of the following is a benefit of preventive maintenance?
a.
Increased repair costs
b.
Increased downtime
c.
Increased equipment life
d.
None of the above
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The correct answer is: Increased equipment life
Question 243
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Damage is influenced by:
a.
conditions of use of equipment
b.
environmental conditions
c.
operational processes
d.
All
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Which of the following is defined as average of the time taken in repair work?
a.
Breakdown maintenance
b.
Predictive maintenance
c.
Preventive maintenance
d.
Total productive maintenance
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The correct answer is: Preventive maintenance
Question 245
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----------are techniques of condition monitoring that mostly carried out without interruption
of operation of the unit.
a.
On-load monitoring techniques
b.
Particle monitoring techniques
c.
Dynamic monitoring techniques
d.
Off-load monitoring techniques
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The correct answer is: On-load monitoring techniques
Question 246
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a maintainable equipment or system?
a.
High complexity
b.
Standardized components and procedures
c.
Diagnostic capabilities
d.
Easy access to components that require maintenance
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The correct answer is: High complexity
Question 247
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---------- is done to keep an equipment or machinery in a satisfactory operating condition
through regular inspection, calibration, lubrication or replacement of certain components.
a.
Corrective Maintenance
b.
Preventive Maintenance
c.
Running Maintenance
d.
Predictive Maintenance
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The correct answer is: Preventive Maintenance
Question 248
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---------is the interval between the occurrence of a potential failure and its deterioration in
to functional failure.
a.
P-F interval
b.
P-S interval
c.
P-D interval
d.
None
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The correct answer is: P-F interval
Question 249
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The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a.
50%
b.
45
c.
55%
d.
60%
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Which of the following are categories of condition monitoring techniques?
a.
Temperature monitoring
b.
Dynamic monitoring
c.
All
d.
Chemical monitoring
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Which of the following are true about maintenance scheduling?
a.
Eliminates chances of sudden breakdown
b.
Facilitates proper sequence in maintenance service
c.
All
d.
Facilitates optimum use of highly paid maintenance staff
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-------Is the determination of the technical state or state of damage of equipment?
a.
None
b.
Sampling techniques
c.
Technical diagnostics
d.
Maintenance technique
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The correct answer is: Technical diagnostics
Question 253
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Which of the following are not true about useful life phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
None
b.
Weibull distributions B = 1
c.
the failures occur randomly manner
d.
hazard rate is constant
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The correct answer is:
None
Question 254
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Which of the following are the symptoms of misalignment?
a.
Excessive amount of oil leakage at the bearing seals
b.
All
c.
High casing temperatures at or near the bearings
d.
Loose foundation bolts
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Most failures give some warning before they occur. This warning is------------
a.
functional failure
b.
Potential failure
c.
Physical failure
d.
Chemical failure
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The correct answer is: Potential failure
Question 256
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The welder uses the ___ flame as the starting point for all other flame adjustments.
a.
Oxidizing
b.
Reducing
c.
Neutral
d.
None
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The correct answer is: Neutral
Question 257
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Which of the following cutting conditions greatly affects the tool wear?
a.
Cutting speed
b.
Feed
c.
None of the above is correct.
d.
Depth of cut
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The correct answer is: Cutting speed
Question 258
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Additive manufacturing uses much less material than other subtractive manufacturing
processes.
a.
true
b.
false
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The correct answer is: true
Question 259
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Which motion is responsible to determine the geometry of jobs to be machined?
a.
Relative motion between tool and work piece
b.
Only Motion of tool
c.
d.
Only motion of work piece
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The correct answer is: Relative motion between tool and work piece
Question 260
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Thermoplastics is an example of
a.
Carbon and Graphic matrix composites
b.
Ceramic matrix composites
c.
Metal matrix composites
d.
Polymer matrix composites
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The correct answer is: Polymer matrix composites
Question 261
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From the following which one falls under the trade name full mold process?
a.
Slush casting
b.
Semi-solid metal casting
c.
Evaporative pattern casting
d.
Squeeze casting
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The correct answer is: Evaporative pattern casting
Question 262
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Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a.
Atomization
b.
Compacting
c.
Electrolysis
d.
Machining and grinding
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The correct answer is: Compacting
Question 263
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Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state
and solidifies the material in a cavity:
a.
pressing
b.
machining
c.
casting
d.
forging
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The correct answer is: casting
Question 264
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Which casting defect occurs due to excess moisture content in molding sand?
a.
Porosity
b.
Inclusion
c.
Blow holes
d.
Shrinkage
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The correct answer is: Blow holes
Question 265
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Which of the following tools are generally manufactured by Powder metallurgy?
a.
Cemented carbides
b.
High carbon steel
c.
Abrasives
d.
Low carbon steel
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The correct answer is: Cemented carbides
Question 266
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Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by
a.
Increasing the depth of cut
b.
Increasing the cutting speed
c.
Decreasing the rake angle
d.
Decreasing the cutting speed
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The correct answer is: Increasing the cutting speed
Question 267
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What is the cause of pinhole defects in casting?
a.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
b.
Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
c.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two
gates at its two sides
d.
Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface.
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The correct answer is: Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting
surface.
Question 268
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Gas hole defect is the result of:
a.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two
gates at its two sides
b.
Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
c.
Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface
d.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
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The correct answer is: Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
Question 269
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Which of the type of centrifugal casting methods is used to produce?
a.
Centrifuge casting
b.
True centrifugal casting
c.
Semi centrifugal casting
d.
None centrifugal casting
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The correct answer is: None centrifugal casting
Question 270
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Fused deposition modeling is a layer AM process that uses a _______________filament
by fused deposition.
a.
Thermoplastic
b.
Polylactic
c.
Thermoelastic
d.
None
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The correct answer is: Thermoplastic
Question 271
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In which one of the following ionized gas are used to cut metal sheet?
a.
Electron beam machining
b.
Ultrasonic machining
c.
Laser beam machining
d.
Plasma arc machining
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The correct answer is: Plasma arc machining
Question 272
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Cold working of a metals increase
a.
yield strength
b.
hardness
c.
tensile strength
d.
all of these
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The correct answer is: all of these
Question 273
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Which one of the following processes does NOT use laser?
a.
SLA
b.
SLS
c.
FDM
d.
LOM
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The correct answer is: FDM
Question 274
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Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?
a.
All of the above
b.
The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends
c.
The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to
the cutting edge
d.
The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
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3D printing technology is expanding and is now able to print metal parts.
a.
True
b.
False
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Question 276
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In the following properties of nozzle, which of them does not influence the MRR in AJM?
a.
Outside temperature
b.
Wear
c.
Distance from work piece
d.
Size
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The correct answer is: Outside temperature
Question 277
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In plasma arc welding the gas is?
a.
Ionized
b.
Vaporized
c.
Magnetized
d.
Heated
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The correct answer is: Ionized
Question 278
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What is the function of flux in submerged arc welding?
a.
To prevent sticking of molten metal
b.
To completely cover the welded zone
c.
To prevent spattering of molten metal
d.
To prevent oxidation of joint
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The correct answer is: To prevent sticking of molten metal
Question 279
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Which type of sand is used in shell molding?
a.
Black sand
b.
Dry and fine sand
c.
Any of the sand
d.
Wet and fine sand
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The correct answer is: Dry and fine sand
Question 280
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Crater wear leads to
a.
Increase in cutting temperature
b.
All of these
c.
Weakening of tool
d.
Friction and cutting forces
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The correct answer is: All of these
Question 281
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In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________
a.
all of the mentioned
b.
the cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut
c.
the cutting forces occur in one direction only
d.
the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
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The correct answer is: the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool
travel
Question 282
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By increasing cutting speed, amount of heat generated
a.
b.
Remains constant
c.
Increases
d.
Decreases
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The correct answer is: Increases
Question 283
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In which of the following gas welding process a non-consumable electrode is used?
a.
Gas metal arc welding
b.
Submerged arc welding
c.
Tungsten inert gas welding
d.
Stud welding
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The correct answer is: Tungsten inert gas welding
Question 284
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Which one of the following is a machine used to perform extrusion:
a.
rolling mill
b.
forge hammer
c.
press
d.
milling machine
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The correct answer is: press
Question 285
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From the following printers which one can print multiple materials at one time?
a.
FDM
b.
None
c.
SLA
d.
SLM
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Question 286
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Green sand is a mixture of
a.
30% sand and 70% clay
b.
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: 70% sand and 30% clay
Question 287
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In which one of the following casting process oil bonded sand and gray iron are used as
a typical core material?
a.
Semisolid metal casting
b.
Permanent mold casting
c.
Slush casting
d.
Squeeze casting
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The correct answer is: Permanent mold casting
Question 288
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The cold working of metals is carried out by
a.
the any temperature
b.
at a recrystallization temperature
c.
above the recrystallization temperature
d.
below the recrystallization temperature
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The correct answer is: below the recrystallization temperature
Question 289
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Gas welding is also known as
a.
oxy welding
b.
oxy-fuel welding
c.
all of the above
d.
oxyacetylene welding
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The correct answer is: all of the above
Question 290
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After debarring is done, which of the following is formed?
a.
All
b.
Flat surfaces
c.
Controlled radius
d.
Sharp edges
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The correct answer is: Controlled radius
Question 291
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In forging, specifically warm working, the working temperature is _________.
a.
0.3 Tm
b.
0.5 Tm
c.
0.1 Tm
d.
0.75 Tm
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The correct answer is: 0.3 Tm
Question 292
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Which of the following is (are) property(ies) of ceramic?
a.
All
b.
Brittle
c.
Corrosion resistant
d.
Heat resistant
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Question 293
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Pattern used in shell moldings is normally made up of?
a.
Plastic
b.
Wax
c.
Metal
d.
Wood
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The correct answer is: Metal
Question 294
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An acetylene/oxygen flame burns at ___ degree Celsius.
a.
2526
b.
2250
c.
3073
d.
3773
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Which technology requires a filling pattern to be produced within the enclosed boundary?
a.
Vat polymerization
b.
Binder jetting
c.
None of the above
d.
Material extrusion
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The correct answer is: Material extrusion
Question 296
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Composites are used in
a.
power generating wind mills
b.
earthquake proof highway supports
c.
long span bridges
d.
all of the above
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Question 297
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Which of the following will give better chip flow?
a.
Negative back rake angle tool
b.
Positive back rake angle tool
c.
d.
Zero back rake angle tool
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The correct answer is: Positive back rake angle tool
Question 298
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The defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity is:
a.
Gas holes
b.
Cold shut
c.
Mis run
d.
Pin hole
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The correct answer is: Mis run
Question 299
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Sintering increases
a.
Porosity, electrical conductivity and brittleness
b.
Porosity, density and ductility
c.
Electrical conductivity, density and ductility
d.
Electrical conductivity, density and brittleness
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The correct answer is: Electrical conductivity, density and ductility
Question 300
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In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the
moving chip and the tool face, is called
a.
Shear zone
b.
Friction zone
c.
None of these
d.
Work-tool contact zone
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The correct answer is: Friction zone
Question 301
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Cast iron during machining produces
a.
Continuous chips
b.
Discontinuous chips
c.
Continuous chips with built-up edge
d.
B and C are correct
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The correct answer is: Discontinuous chips
Question 302
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Tool life is measured by the
a.
Time the tool is in contact with the job
b.
All of the above
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In machining metals, surface roughness is due to
a.
Fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
b.
All of these
c.
Cutting tool vibrations
d.
Feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
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The correct answer is: All of these
Question 304
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Which of the following is typically the most expensive type of 3D printer?
a.
SLA
b.
SLM
c.
FDM
d.
None
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The correct answer is: SLM
Question 305
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Thermal cracking of tools occurs at
a.
Low temperature
b.
High temperature
c.
d.
Low cutting speed
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The correct answer is: High temperature
Question 306
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Which one of the following secondary operations is used to improve the self-lubricating
capacity of the sintered part in powder metallurgy?
a.
Impregnation
b.
Coining
c.
Infiltration
d.
Repressing
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The correct answer is: Impregnation
Question 307
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The first step in each product design process is to________and conceptualize the
function and appearance of the product.
a.
Imagine
b.
None
c.
Summarize
d.
Visualize
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The correct answer is: Visualize
Question 308
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In the Taylor tool life equation, VT^n = C, the value of n=0.5. The tool.
a.
18 m/min
b.
9 m/min
c.
72 m/min
d.
36 m/min
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The correct answer is: 36 m/min
Question 309
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Which of the following components influence the material removal rate in Abrasive jet
machining?
a.
Carrier gas
b.
All of the mentioned
c.
Abrasive grain
d.
Nozzle
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The correct answer is: All of the mentioned
Question 310
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From the following which printer melts metal?
a.
SLA
b.
SLS
c.
SLM
d.
FDM
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The correct answer is: SLM
Question 311
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From the following which one is not independent variable in cutting process?
a.
cutting fluids
b.
tool material and coatings
c.
temperature rise in the workpiece, the tool, and the chip,
d.
cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut
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The correct answer is: temperature rise in the workpiece, the tool, and the chip,
Question 312
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The main drawback to the use of FDM technology is___________.
a.
All
b.
Surface finish
c.
Speed of construction
d.
Quality
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The correct answer is: Speed of construction
Question 313
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Following is the earliest known fibers used to reinforce materials
a.
Wood fibers
b.
Plant fibers
c.
Carbon fibers
d.
Glass fibers
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The correct answer is: Glass fibers
Question 314
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The process in which molten metal is forced to pass through a nozzle in to a steam of
water or air is called__________
a.
Reduction
b.
Electrolysis
c.
Atomization
d.
Shotting
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The property by virtue of which a sand mold is capable of with standing a high
temperature of the molten metal with out fusing is known as_______
a.
Adhesiveness
b.
Refractoriness
c.
Cohesiveness
d.
Porosity
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The correct answer is: Refractoriness
Question 316
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Casting defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for
a casting with two gates at its two sides is called_________
a.
Pin hole
b.
Mis run
c.
Cold shut
d.
Gas holes
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The correct answer is: Cold shut
Question 317
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Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
a.
b.
Gas tungsten arc welding
c.
d.
Flux coated arc welding
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The correct answer is: Gas tungsten arc welding
Question 318
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In order to generate a casting with an internal surface, which part is typically used in a
casting operation?
a.
Core
b.
Pattern
c.
Riser
d.
Chaplets
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The correct answer is: Core
Question 319
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From the following which one is the advantage of shell molding?
a.
Mold collapsibility usually avoids cracks in casting
b.
Capability to make thin cross sections in casting
c.
Pattern need not be removed from the mold
d.
The casting requires minimal finishing and cleaning operations
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mold collapsibility usually avoids cracks in casting
Question 320
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The heat generated in resistance welding is expressed by
a.
I2RT
b.
4I2RT
c.
2I2RT
d.
IRT2
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The correct answer is: I2RT
Question 321
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Which of the following materials can be machined using ECM?
a.
All of the above
b.
Hard conductive materials
c.
All conductive materials
d.
Hard nonconductive materials
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The correct answer is: Hard conductive materials
Question 322
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Drilling is an example of
a.
Uniform cutting
b.
Orthogonal cutting
c.
Oblique cutting
d.
Simple cutting
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The correct answer is: Oblique cutting
Question 323
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In manufacturing self-lubricating bearings by powder metallurgy an important secondary
operation that is carried out after sintering is
a.
Hot isostatic pressing
b.
Impregnation
c.
Cold isostatic pressing
d.
Infiltration
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The correct answer is: Impregnation
Question 324
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This is a bulk forming process in which the workpiece or billet is shaped into finished part
by the application of compressive and tensile forces with the help of a pair of rods.
a.
Extrusion
b.
Rolling
c.
Wire drawing
d.
Forging
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The correct answer is: Forging
Question 325
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Which of the following process includes heating of green compact at high temperature in
the powder metallurgy process?
a.
Atomization
b.
Sintering
c.
Compacting
d.
Scaling
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sintering
Question 326
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What is the major problem in hot extrusion?
a.
Design of punch
b.
Design of die
c.
Wear and tear of die
d.
Wear of punch
Feedback
The correct answer is: Design of die
Question 327
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Which of the following gas welding process uses constant voltage?
a.
Stud welding
b.
c.
d.
Tungsten inert gas welding
Feedback
The correct answer is: Gas metal arc welding
Question 328
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Ultra-Sonic Machining removes materials using the ____________ tool.
a.
Axially oscillating
b.
Perpendicularly oscillating
c.
Perpendicularly rotating
d.
Inclined oscillating
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The correct answer is: Axially oscillating
Question 329
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A property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gasses is
called
a.
permeability
b.
cohesiveness
c.
adhesiveness
d.
none
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The correct answer is: permeability
Question 330
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For machining to take place, tool should be penetrated into work piece to a certain _____
a.
Depth
b.
Width
c.
Height
d.
Length
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The correct answer is: Depth
Question 331
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What must be the velocity of the carrier gas that carries the abrasive particles in AJM?
a.
200-400 m/sec
b.
300-500 m/sec
c.
100-200 m/sec
d.
none
Feedback
The correct answer is: 300-500 m/sec
Question 332
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The tool life increases with the
a.
Decrease in back rake angle
b.
Increase in side cutting edge angle
c.
Decrease in side rake angle
d.
Decrease in nose radius
Feedback
The correct answer is: Increase in side cutting edge angle
Question 333
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Which of the following method is used to make powder for brittle metals?
a.
Electrolytic process
b.
Chemical reduction
c.
Atomization
d.
Mechanical pulverization
Feedback
Chemical reduction
The correct answer is: Mechanical pulverization
Question 334
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What type of electrodes are used in resistance seam welding
a.
Pointed
b.
Domed
c.
Flat
d.
Disk
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The correct answer is: Pointed
Question 335
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The process of cutting hole of various shapes and sizes in to a work piece
a.
trimming
b.
die
c.
slitting
d.
punching
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The correct answer is: punching
Question 336
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One of the following casting processes uses polystyrene pattern:
a.
Investment casting
b.
All
c.
Lost wax process
d.
Lost foam
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What does SLS stands for?
a.
None of the above
b.
Separated light sintering
c.
Selective lithographic solution
d.
Selective laser sintering
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The correct answer is: Selective laser sintering
Question 338
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Hollow casting is the other name of which of the following special casting process?
a.
Vacuum die casting
b.
Squeeze casting
c.
Slush casting
d.
Precision investment casting
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The correct answer is: Slush casting
Question 339
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which one is the function of a matrix?
a.
All of the above
b.
Protects the fibers from environment
c.
Holds the fibers together
d.
Enhances transverse properties of a laminate
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Question 340
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For large positive back rake angle, tool will be
a.
Smoother
b.
Harder
c.
Weaker
d.
Stronger
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The correct answer is: Weaker
Question 341
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In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface
increases, the material removal rate
a.
Increases continuously
b.
Decreases becomes stable and then increases
c.
Increases, becomes stable and then decreases
d.
Decreases continuously
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The correct answer is: Increases, becomes stable and then decreases
Question 342
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Advanced machining process by which small portion of the worksurface to be removed
by fusion or vaporization is:
a.
Chemical machining
b.
Mechanical machining
c.
Electro chemical machining
d.
Thermal machining
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The correct answer is: Thermal machining
Question 343
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--------------SLA printing uses a plastic strand that's pushed through a heated nozzle.
a.
False
b.
True
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From the following which one is the sequence of operations in conventional powder
metallurgy process?
a.
Atomization__Blending and mixing__Compacting__Sintering
b.
Blending and mixing__Atomization__Compacting__Sintering
c.
Atomization__Blending and mixing__Sintering__Compacting
d.
Blending and mixing__Compacting__Atomization__Sintering
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The correct answer is: Atomization__Blending and mixing__Compacting__Sintering
Question 345
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Which file type is most commonly exported from CAD software?
a.
JPG
b.
SLDRT
c.
STL
d.
All
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The correct answer is: STL
Question 346
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Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as
a.
Side cutting edge angle
b.
Back rake angle
c.
Side rake angle
d.
Side relief angle
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The correct answer is: Side cutting edge angle
Question 347
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Spherical metal powders are produced by:
a.
Reduction
b.
Electrolytic process
c.
Atomization
d.
Oxidation
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Types of machining used to remove round sharp corners on holes in metal parts
produced by conventional through-hole drilling is called:
a.
Electro chemical drilling
b.
None of the above
c.
Electro chemical grinding
d.
Electro chemical debarring
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The correct answer is: Electro chemical debarring
Question 349
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Which of the following process would produce strongest components?
a.
Forging
b.
Hot rolling
c.
Cold rolling
d.
Extrusion
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The correct answer is: Cold rolling
Question 350
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In oxidizing flame, the color of inner cone is
a.
dark blue
b.
light blue
c.
red
d.
purplish tinge
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The correct answer is: purplish tinge
Question 351
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In heading, the maximum length that can be upset in a single blow is _________ the
diameter of the initial wire stock.
a.
Four times
b.
None
c.
Two times
d.
One times
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LOM machines are primarily used for rapid prototyping of_______________
a.
Wooden parts
b.
Ceramic parts
c.
Metallic parts
d.
Plastic parts
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The correct answer is: Plastic parts
Question 353
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Which of the following is typically the cheapest type of 3D printer?
a.
SLA
b.
SLM
c.
Powder based
d.
FDM
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Question 354
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In traditional machining, which component is made of a relatively harder material?
a.
Tool
b.
Holding device
c.
d.
Workpiece
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The correct answer is: Tool
Question 355
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Density in sintering product is improved by
a.
Coining
b.
hot pressing
c.
cold pressing
d.
A and C
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A and C
Question 356
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Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a.
needle bearing
b.
jewel bearing
c.
ball bearing
d.
bush bearing
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The correct answer is: jewel bearing
Question 357
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Flight conveyors are mainly used for conveying
a.
grains
b.
coal
c.
bauxite
d.
iron ore
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The correct answer is: coal
Question 358
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Which of the following characteristic can be assigned to soda ash?
a.
caustic
b.
fragile
c.
explosive
d.
free flowing
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The correct answer is: caustic
Question 359
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In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a.
split bush bearings
b.
cast iron bearings
c.
bush bearings
d.
anti-friction bearings
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The correct answer is: anti-friction bearings
Question 360
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Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a.
castings of cast iron
b.
scarp iron
c.
high manganese steel
d.
mild steel plates
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The correct answer is: high manganese steel
Question 361
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Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a.
mild steel
b.
carbon steel
c.
wrought iron
d.
cast iron
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The correct answer is: carbon steel
Question 362
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Which one of the following is not a excavating and moving type machine?
a.
scarper
b.
dragline
c.
dump truck
d.
clam shell
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The correct answer is: dump truck
Question 363
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Escalators have the advantage of
a.
greater capacity
b.
all of the above
c.
continuity of motion
d.
small space requirement
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Which of the following materials is corrosive?
a.
soap flakes
b.
zinc oxide
c.
sulphur
d.
starch
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The correct answer is: sulphur
Question 365
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Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a.
needle bearing
b.
bush bearing
c.
jewel bearing
d.
ball bearing
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The correct answer is: jewel bearing
Question 366
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Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a.
mild steel plates
b.
Scarp iron
c.
castings of cast iron
d.
high manganese steel
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The correct answer is: high manganese steel
Question 367
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Which of the following item can be conveyed using pneumatic conveyors?
a.
carbon black
b.
soda ash
c.
salt cake
d.
all of the above
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Question 368
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Flight conveyors are used for the transportation of
a.
granular materials
b.
all of the above
c.
pulverized materials
d.
lumpy materials
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Question 369
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Lifting magnets cannot be used for
a.
handling materials above dull red heat
b.
handling dust of magnetic materials
c.
handling ferrous castings
d.
under water handling
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The correct answer is: handling materials above dull red heat
Question 370
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Which one of the following does not fall under the category of hoisting equipment?
a.
dragline
b.
pull lift
c.
jack
d.
chain hoist
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The correct answer is: dragline
Question 371
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A four wheel drive has
a.
differential on front side only
b.
differential on rear side only
c.
both front as well as rear differentials
d.
no differential
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The correct answer is: both front as well as rear differentials
Question 372
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Which braking system is not used in case of earth moving machinery?
a.
hydraulic braking system
b.
vacuum braking system
c.
pneumatic braking system
d.
mechanical braking system
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The correct answer is: vacuum braking system
Question 373
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The number of cylinders in case of steam locomotive is
a.
One
b.
four
c.
two
d.
eight
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The correct answer is: two
Question 374
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Discoloration should be avoided while handling
a.
starch
b.
tobacco
c.
silica flour
d.
zinc oxide
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The correct answer is: zinc oxide
Question 375
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Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a.
mild steel
b.
carbon steel
c.
cast iron
d.
wrought iron
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The correct answer is: carbon steel
Question 376
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Lift trucks are used in industries generally for the transportation of
a.
nonferrous materials
b.
heavy equipment
c.
batches of material
d.
castings only
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The correct answer is: batches of material
Question 377
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In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a.
anti friction bearings
b.
split bush bearings
c.
bush bearings
d.
cast iron bearings
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The correct answer is: anti friction bearings
Question 378
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Braking system in invariably incorporated in case of
a.
magnetic hoists
b.
electric hoists
c.
hand chain hoists
d.
all of the above
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The correct answer is: electric hoists
Question 379
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Pneumatic conveyors are generally used for conveying
a.
heavy goods
b.
granular material
c.
package goods
d.
mineral ores
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The correct answer is: granular material
Question 380
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Rails for railway track are made of
a.
high speed steel
b.
mild steel
c.
chrome steel
d.
cast iron
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The correct answer is: chrome steel
Question 381
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When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which are
arrested is
a.
8
b.
4
c.
7
d.
2
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Which of the following is an advantage of worm gear?
a.
Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
b.
Has high power losses and low transmission efficiency
c.
Produce a lot of heat
d.
It is expensive
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The correct answer is: Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
Question 383
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Bevel gears are equivalent to rolling ________
a.
Spheres
b.
Cuboids
c.
Cones
d.
Cubes
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The correct answer is: Cones
Question 384
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The smaller and generally the driving gear of a pair of mated gears is called _________
a.
Pitch
b.
Pinion
c.
Module
d.
Rack
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The correct answer is: Pinion
Question 385
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The quick return mechanism which is an inversion of 4-bar linkage is
a.
Whitworth quick return mechanism
b.
c.
Drag link mechanism
d.
Crank and slotted lever mechanism
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The correct answer is: Drag link mechanism
Question 386
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When large gear reductions are needed _________ gears are used.
a.
Spur
b.
Helical
c.
Bevel
d.
Worm
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The correct answer is: Worm
Question 387
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__________ Mechanism is a crossed four bar chain mechanism in early steam engines
to guide the piston rod in a cylinder to have an approximate straight line motion.
a.
Watt
b.
Peaucellier
c.
Chebychev
d.
Grasshoppe
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Watt
Question 388
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The angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of engagement of a pair of
teeth is called ______________
a.
angle of action
b.
angle of approach
c.
angle of recess
d.
angle of contact
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The correct answer is: angle of contact
Question 389
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The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is directly proportional to the
distances from the points to the instantaneous center.
a.
False
b.
True
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In which of the following mechanism the relative motions of the rigid bodies are in one
plane or in parallel planes?
a.
spatial mechanism
b.
flexure mechanism
c.
spherical mechanism
d.
planar mechanism
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The correct answer is: planar mechanism
Question 391
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The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work done per cycle is called
a.
none of the mentioned
b.
coefficient of fluctuation of speed
c.
maximum fluctuation of energy
d.
fluctuation of energy
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The correct answer is: coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Question 392
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The contact ratio is the ratio of arc of contact to the ____________
a.
dedendum
b.
Module
c.
circular pitch
d.
circular pitch
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The correct answer is: circular pitch
Question 393
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The distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turnaround is
called _____________
a.
joint line
b.
Lead
c.
normal link
d.
axial pitch
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The correct answer is: Lead
Question 394
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In a dynamically equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided into
a.
Infinite point masses
b.
Four point masses
c.
Two point masses
d.
Three point masses
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The correct answer is: Two point masses
Question 395
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When the pin connects one sliding member and the other turning member, the angular
velocity of the sliding member is __________
a.
2
b.
0
c.
3
d.
1
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In a multi plate clutch, number of discs on the driving shaft is given by n1. True or false?
a.
False
b.
True
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Which of these is not a type of clutch?
a.
Single disc
b.
Centrifugal
c.
Conical
d.
Cylindrical
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The correct answer is: Cylindrical
Question 398
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Which of the following clutches include shoes and spider inside the rim of the pulley?
a.
Cone clutch
b.
Centrifugal clutch
c.
Multi plate clutch
d.
Single plate clutch
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The correct answer is: Centrifugal clutch
Question 399
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The distance traveled by a point on either pitch circle of the two wheels during the period
of contact of a pair of teeth is called _______
a.
angle of action
b.
arc of contact
c.
path of contact
d.
contact ratio
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The correct answer is: arc of contact
Question 400
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The ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle is called ___________
a.
angle of recess
b.
angle of approach
c.
contact ratio
d.
space width
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The correct answer is: contact ratio
Question 401
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The number of degree of freedom of a planer linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute
joints is
a.
2
b.
4
c.
3
d.
1
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The velocity of the instantaneous center relative to any third rigid link will be different.
a.
True
b.
False
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In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
a.
positive throughout
b.
negative throughout
c.
positive during major portion of the stroke
d.
negative during major portion of the stroke
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The correct answer is: negative throughout
Question 404
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If there are redundant constraints in the chain and it forms a statically indeterminate
structure, what is the degree of freedom or the mobility of this structure?
a.
More than 0
b.
Less than 0
c.
1
d.
2
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The correct answer is: Less than 0
Question 405
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The distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a point on one
tooth to the same point on the adjacent tooth is called ________________
a.
pitch point
b.
circular pitch
c.
line of centers
d.
pitch diameter
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The correct answer is: circular pitch
Question 406
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Which of the gears has the highest contact ratio?
a.
Helical
b.
Bevel
c.
Spur
d.
Worm
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The correct answer is: Bevel
Question 407
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The condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to maintain a constant
angular velocity ratio between them is called __________________
a.
interference
b.
law of gearing
c.
path of contact
d.
arc of contact
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The correct answer is: law of gearing
Question 408
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If the shortest link is fixed, what type of mechanism is obtained?
a.
Linkage is not planar
b.
Double rocker mechanism
c.
Double crank mechanism
d.
Crank rocker mechanism
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The correct answer is: Double crank mechanism
Question 409
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In a cone clutch, the mean radius of the bearing surface is 300 mm, whereas the breadth
is 20 mm. Find the inner and outer radii. The semi cone angle is 30 degrees.
a.
145 mm, 155 mm
b.
155 mm, 145 mm
c.
140 mm, 160 mm
d.
160 mm, 140 mm
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The correct answer is: 155 mm, 145 mm
Question 410
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The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
a.
variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque to the
b.
sum of the maximum and minimum energies
c.
difference between the maximum and minimum energies
d.
ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
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The correct answer is: difference between the maximum and minimum energies
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The co-efficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum energy to the minimum
energy.
a.
False
b.
True
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The locus of a point on the pitch circle from the beginning to end of engagement of two
mating gears is called as ___________
a.
Path of contact
b.
Arc of contact
c.
Path of approach
d.
Arc of approach
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The correct answer is: Arc of contact
Question 413
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Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in the healthcare
industry?
a.
Sterilization
b.
Patient comfort
c.
All of the above
d.
Equipment cooling
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What is the main purpose of air conditioning ducts?
a.
To cool air before it enters a space
b.
To heat air before it enters a space
c.
To distribute air throughout a space
d.
To filter air before it enters a space
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The correct answer is: To distribute air throughout a space
Question 415
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Which of the following air conditioning systems is most suitable for large commercial
spaces?
a.
Window air conditioning units
b.
Portable air conditioning units
c.
Split air conditioning systems
d.
Central air conditioning systems
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The correct answer is: Central air conditioning systems
Question 416
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What is a refrigerated container?
a.
A container used to transport electronics at low temperatures
b.
A container used to store medical equipment at low temperatures
c.
A container used to store liquid nitrogen at low temperatures
d.
A container used to transport perishable items at low temperatures
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The correct answer is: A container used to transport perishable items at low
temperatures
Question 417
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the state of the gas at the end of the isothermal
expansion process?
a.
Superheated vapor
b.
Saturated liquid
c.
Saturated vapor
d.
Sub cooled liquid
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The correct answer is: Superheated vapor
Question 418
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What is the formula for calculating the total cooling load of a space?
a.
Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load - Latent cooling load
b.
Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load + Latent cooling load
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The correct answer is: Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load + Latent cooling load
Question 419
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What is the primary disadvantage of air cycle refrigeration systems compared to vapor
compression refrigeration systems?
a.
They require more maintenance
b.
They are more expensive
c.
They are less reliable
d.
They are less efficient
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The correct answer is: They are less efficient
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or
remain constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface
b.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
c.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
d.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
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The correct answer is: During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may
increase, decrease or remain constant depending upon the temperature of the wet
surface
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Which of the following is an example of a cryogenic application?
a.
Refrigeration of food products
b.
Air conditioning in a residential home
c.
Cooling of computer processors
d.
Cooling of medical equipment during surgeries
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The correct answer is: Cooling of medical equipment during surgeries
Question 422
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What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a.
The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
b.
The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
c.
The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
d.
The ratio of the power input to the heat added
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The correct answer is: The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
Question 423
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the
purpose of the evaporator?
a.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is absorbed by the absorbent.
b.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is condensed.
c.
The evaporator is where the cooling effect is produced.
d.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is compressed.
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The correct answer is: The evaporator is where the cooling effect is produced.
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Which of the following is not an advantage of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
They are easy to maintain
b.
They use a non-toxic working fluid
c.
They are highly efficient
d.
They have low environmental impact
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The correct answer is: They are highly efficient
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The function of a compressor in a vapor compression refrigeration system is to:
a.
To maintain the required high-side pressure in the condenser
b.
To circulate required amount of refrigerant through the system
c.
all of the above
d.
To maintain the required low-side pressure in the evaporator
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Which of the following is not a limitation of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
They are not effective at very low temperatures
b.
They have a low coefficient of performance (COP)
c.
They are not effective at very high temperatures
d.
They require a large amount of space to operate
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The correct answer is: They require a large amount of space to operate
Question 427
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Which of the following processes involves adding moisture to air without changing its
temperature?
a.
Sensible cooling
b.
Humidification
c.
Sensible heating
d.
Adiabatic cooling
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The correct answer is: Humidification
Question 428
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What is a desiccant dehumidification system?
a.
A system that uses a refrigerant to cool and dehumidify the air
b.
A system that uses a chemical process to remove moisture from the air
c.
A system that uses a desiccant material to absorb moisture from the air
d.
A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to remove moisture
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The correct answer is: A system that uses a desiccant material to absorb moisture from
the air
Question 429
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What is a clean room?
a.
A room that has a high level of negative pressure to prevent the spread of contaminants
b.
A room designed to maintain a specific level of cleanliness and control of environmental
factors
c.
A room that has been cleaned with special cleaning agents
d.
A room that has been treated with ultraviolet light to reduce bacteria and viruses
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The correct answer is: A room designed to maintain a specific level of cleanliness and
control of environmental factors
Question 430
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Which of the following is not an application of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a.
Transportation
b.
Comfort cooling
c.
Medical procedures
d.
Food preservation
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The correct answer is: Transportation
Question 431
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What is a ram air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
d.
A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
Feedback
The correct answer is: A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide
cooling
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, which process is reversible adiabatic compression or
expansion?
a.
Neither is a reversible adiabatic process
b.
Both are reversible adiabatic processes
c.
Expansion
d.
Compression
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The correct answer is: Both are reversible adiabatic processes
Question 433
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What is a bleed air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
d.
A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
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The correct answer is: A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
Question 434
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Which of the following duct shapes has the lowest pressure drop?
a.
Round ducts
b.
Oval ducts
c.
Rectangular ducts
d.
Triangular ducts
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The correct answer is: Round ducts
Question 435
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Which of the following air conditioning systems is a type of rooftop system?
a.
Window air conditioning units
b.
Packaged air conditioning systems
c.
Portable air conditioning units
d.
Split air conditioning systems
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The correct answer is: Packaged air conditioning systems
Question 436
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In an air cycle refrigeration system, low temperatures are produced due to:
a.
Throttling of air
b.
Evaporation of liquid air
c.
Expansion of air in turbine
d.
None of the above
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The correct answer is: Expansion of air in turbine
Question 437
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An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30oC mixes adiabatically with another
air stream flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and at a DBT of 15oC. Assuming no
condensation to take place, the temperature of the mixture is approximately equal to:
a.
Cannot be found
b.
22.5oC
c.
20oC
d.
25oC
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The correct answer is: 20oC
Question 438
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What is the working fluid used in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
Air
b.
Carbon dioxide
c.
Ammonia
d.
Water
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The correct answer is: Air
Question 439
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role of water?
a.
Water is used as the refrigerant.
b.
Water is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
c.
Water is used as the working fluid in the generator.
d.
Water is used as the absorbent.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Water is used as the absorbent.
Question 440
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Which of the following factors is important to consider when selecting an air conditioning
system for a residential space?
a.
Cost of the system
b.
Capacity of the system
c.
Noise level of the system
d.
Type of refrigerant used
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The correct answer is: Noise level of the system
Question 441
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What is a cool room?
a.
A room used to simulate low temperature environments for research purposes
b.
A room used for storing electronics at low temperatures
c.
A room used for storing perishable items at low temperatures
d.
A room designed to maintain a cool temperature for comfort
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The correct answer is: A room used for storing perishable items at low temperatures
Question 442
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What is the purpose of the expansion valve in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
To increase the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
b.
To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
c.
To regulate the flow of the working fluid
d.
To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
Feedback
The correct answer is: To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
Question 443
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What is the primary application of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
Comfort cooling in residential homes
b.
Cooling of electronic equipment
c.
Cooling of aircraft cabins
d.
Cooling of food products
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The correct answer is: Cooling of aircraft cabins
Question 444
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What safety precautions should be taken when working with cryogenic fluids?
a.
Post appropriate warning signs
b.
All of the above
c.
Wear appropriate personal protective equipment, such as goggles and gloves
d.
Store and handle cryogenic fluids in a well-ventilated area
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In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, which component is responsible for changing
the refrigerant from a high-pressure vapor to a low-pressure vapor?
a.
Expansion valve
b.
Evaporator
c.
Compressor
d.
Condenser
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The correct answer is: Expansion valve
Question 446
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What is the main assumption made in air standard analysis?
a.
The working fluid is a perfect gas
b.
The working fluid is a solid
c.
The working fluid is a liquid
d.
The working fluid is a mixture of gases
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The correct answer is: The working fluid is a perfect gas
Question 447
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Which of the following factors is NOT a consideration when selecting a refrigerant for a
system?
a.
Compressor power input
b.
Cost
c.
Environmental impact
d.
Compatibility with materials
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The correct answer is: Compressor power input
Question 448
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Which of the following is an example of a commercial application of refrigeration?
a.
Home refrigerators
b.
Ice cream freezers
c.
Window air conditioners
d.
Car air conditioning
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The correct answer is: Ice cream freezers
Question 449
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What is the term used to describe the resistance of air flow in ductwork?
a.
Dynamic pressure
b.
Velocity pressure
c.
Total pressure
d.
Static pressure
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The correct answer is: Static pressure
Question 450
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What is a heat exchanger in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the surrounding environment
b.
A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
c.
A device used to transfer heat from the evaporated working fluid to the compressed air
d.
A device used to transfer heat from the condenser to the evaporator
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The correct answer is: A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the
evaporated working fluid
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What is a liquefied natural gas (LNG) carrier?
a.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid oxygen at low temperatures
b.
A refrigeration system used to transport natural gas at low temperatures
c.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid helium at low temperatures
d.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid nitrogen at low temperatures
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The correct answer is: A refrigeration system used to transport natural gas at low
temperatures
Question 452
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Which law of thermodynamics describes the basic principle behind the operation of a
vapor compression refrigeration system?
a.
Zeros law of thermodynamics
b.
Third law of thermodynamics
c.
First law of thermodynamics
d.
Second law of thermodynamics
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The correct answer is: Second law of thermodynamics
Question 453
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Which component of a vapor compression refrigeration system is responsible for
metering the flow of refrigerant into the evaporator?
a.
Compressor
b.
Evaporator
c.
Condenser
d.
Expansion valve
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The correct answer is: Expansion valve
Question 454
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Which of the following refrigerants is not considered an ozone-depleting substance?
a.
R-22
b.
R-134a
c.
Ammonia
d.
R-410A
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The correct answer is: Ammonia
Question 455
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In a standard vapor compression refrigeration system, which component is responsible
for removing heat from the cooled space?
a.
Condenser
b.
Evaporator
c.
Expansion valve
d.
Compressor
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The correct answer is: Evaporator
Question 456
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Which type of air-conditioning system is commonly used in residential homes?
a.
All of the above
b.
Central system
c.
Split system
d.
Packaged system
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The correct answer is: Split system
Question 457
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What is the effect of increasing the condenser temperature in a standard vapor
compression refrigeration system?
a.
It increases the COP of the system
b.
It decreases the COP of the system
c.
It has no effect on the COP of the system
d.
It increases the power input of the system
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The correct answer is: It decreases the COP of the system
Question 458
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a.
During sensible cooling of air, dry bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb temperature
remains constant
b.
During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures decrease
c.
During sensible cooling of air, dry and wet bulb temperatures decrease but dew point
temperature remains constant
d.
A and C
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The correct answer is: A and C
Question 459
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What is the refrigerant in a typical vapor compression refrigeration system?
a.
CO2
b.
A refrigerant such as R-134a or R-22
c.
Water
d.
Air
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The correct answer is: A refrigerant such as R-134a or R-22
Question 460
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What is the purpose of cryopreservation?
a.
To freeze and store biological materials at very low temperatures to preserve them for
future use
b.
To generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
c.
To liquefy cryogenic fluids for transportation
d.
To measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids
Feedback
The correct answer is: To freeze and store biological materials at very low temperatures
to preserve them for future use
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What is the required wattage of an electrical heater that heats 0.1 m3/s of air from 15oC
and 80% RH to 55oC? The barometric pressure is 101.325 kPa. Given that average
specific heat of air(Cpm=1.021kJ/kg.k), vapor pressure (Pv=1.364kPa) and gas constant
of air(0.287kJ/kg.k).
a.
5.8kW
b.
13kW
c.
4.938kW
d.
6.3kW
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The correct answer is: 4.938kW
Question 462
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What is the main purpose of air ducts in an air conditioning system?
a.
To transport the air
b.
To cool the air
c.
To humidify the air
d.
To filter the air
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The correct answer is: To transport the air
Question 463
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What is the purpose of the compressor in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
To regulate the flow of the working fluid
b.
To compress the working fluid and increase its pressure and temperature
c.
To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
d.
To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
Feedback
The correct answer is: To compress the working fluid and increase its pressure and
temperature
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Which of the following factors is important in determining the efficiency of an air
conditioning system?
a.
Color of the walls in the space
b.
Size of the space to be cooled
c.
Type of refrigerant used
d.
Number of windows in the space
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The correct answer is: Type of refrigerant used
Question 465
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What is a chilled beam system?
a.
A system that uses an evaporative cooling process to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses a combination of air and water to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to provide cooling
d.
A system that uses a refrigerant to provide cooling directly to the air stream
Feedback
The correct answer is: A system that uses a combination of air and water to provide
cooling
Question 466
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Which of the following parameters is a measure of the moisture content of air?
a.
Relative humidity
b.
Wet bulb temperature
c.
Enthalpy
d.
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The correct answer is: Relative humidity
Question 467
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Which type of air conditioning system is commonly used in large commercial buildings?
a.
Central system
b.
Window unit
c.
Packaged system
d.
Split system
Feedback
The correct answer is: Central system
Question 468
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What is a cry cooler?
a.
A device used to generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
b.
A device used to heat objects to very high temperatures
c.
A device used to cool objects to very low temperatures
d.
A device used to measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids
Feedback
The correct answer is: A device used to cool objects to very low temperatures
Question 469
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role of ammonia?
a.
Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
b.
Ammonia is used as the absorbent.
c.
Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the generator.
d.
Ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
Question 470
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Absorption of the refrigerant by the absorbent in vapor absorption refrigeration System is
accompanied by:
a.
Reduction in volume
b.
Absorption of heat
c.
No thermal effects
d.
Release of heat
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The correct answer is: Release of heat
Question 471
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system, which component is responsible for absorbing
the refrigerant vapor and returning it to a liquid state?
a.
Evaporator
b.
Condenser
c.
Absorber
d.
Generator
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The correct answer is: Absorber
Question 472
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What is the function of the generator in a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a.
To evaporate the refrigerant
b.
To separate the refrigerant from the absorbent and raise its pressure
c.
To regulate the flow of refrigerant
d.
To cool the refrigerant vapor and condense it into a liquid
Feedback
The correct answer is: To separate the refrigerant from the absorbent and raise its
pressure
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Which of the following factors can affect the transmission of air in air conditioning ducts?
a.
Air velocity
b.
Type of duct material
c.
Duct size and shape
d.
All of the above
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Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in data centers?
a.
Cooling of computer processors
b.
All of the above
c.
Comfort cooling for employees
d.
Humidity control to prevent equipment damage
Feedback
The correct answer is: Cooling of computer processors
Question 475
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What is the inside design condition for a typical air conditioning system in a commercial
building?
a.
This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 476
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Which of the following processes involves cooling air without changing its moisture
content?
a.
Humidification
b.
Sensible cooling
c.
Dehumidification
d.
Latent cooling
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The correct answer is: Sensible cooling
Question 477
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What is a variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system?
a.
A system that uses a variable speed compressor to adjust the cooling capacity
b.
A system that uses a variable moisture control mechanism to regulate humidity
c.
A system that uses a variable speed fan to adjust the airflow
d.
A system that can vary the amount of refrigerant flow to different indoor units based on
their cooling load
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The correct answer is: A system that can vary the amount of refrigerant flow to different
indoor units based on their cooling load
Question 478
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What is the primary purpose of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a.
To regulate the temperature and humidity of a space
b.
To remove moisture from the air
c.
To cool the air
d.
To heat the air
Feedback
The correct answer is: To regulate the temperature and humidity of a space
Question 479
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What is the term for the temperature at which the air becomes saturated with water vapor
and condensation begins to form?
a.
Humidity ratio
b.
Relative humidity
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: Dew point temperature
Question 480
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Which of the following types of fans is commonly used in air conditioning ducts?
a.
Centrifugal fans
b.
Pedestal fans
c.
Axial fans
d.
Ceiling fans
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The correct answer is: Centrifugal fans
Question 481
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What is the term for the temperature at which the air would need to be cooled in order for
it to become saturated with water vapor?
a.
Enthalpy
b.
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: Wet bulb temperature
Question 482
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What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor compression refrigeration
system?
a.
The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
b.
The ratio of the power input to the heat added
c.
The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
d.
The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
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The correct answer is: The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
Question 483
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in the evaporator of a vapor compression refrigeration system:
a.
A low pressure is maintained so that the compressor can run
b.
All except c
c.
A low temperature is maintained so that heat can flow from the external fluid
d.
Refrigeration effect is produced as the refrigerant liquid vaporizes
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The correct answer is: All except c
Question 484
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What is the primary use of cryogenics?
a.
Food preservation
b.
All of the above
c.
Medical research
d.
Space exploration
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What is the most common material used for air conditioning ducts?
a.
PVC
b.
Copper
c.
Aluminum
d.
Steel
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The correct answer is: Aluminum
Question 486
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Which of the following is not a component of an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
Evaporator
b.
Condenser
c.
Compressor
d.
Expansion valve
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The correct answer is: Condenser
Question 487
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the purpose of the isothermal expansion process?
a.
To decrease the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
b.
To maintain the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
c.
To remove heat from the working fluid
d.
To increase the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
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The correct answer is: To remove heat from the working fluid
Question 488
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What is the definition of relative humidity?
a.
The ratio of dry air to water vapor in a mixture
b.
The temperature at which water vapor begins to condense out of the air
c.
The ratio of actual vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure at a given
temperature
d.
The amount of moisture in the air
Feedback
The correct answer is: The ratio of actual vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure
at a given temperature
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What is the term for the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a given volume of air to the
total mass of the air?
a.
b.
c.
Relative humidity
d.
Humidity ratio
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The correct answer is: Humidity ratio
Question 490
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Which of the following is a key difference between gas cycles and vapor cycles?
a.
Vapor cycles operate at higher pressures than gas cycles.
b.
Gas cycles use a working fluid that is in a gaseous state throughout the cycle, while
vapor cycles use a working fluid that undergoes a phase change during the cycle.
c.
Gas cycles are more efficient than vapor cycles.
d.
Gas cycles are used primarily for heating applications, while vapor cycles are used
primarily for cooling applications.
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The correct answer is: Gas cycles use a working fluid that is in a gaseous state
throughout the cycle, while vapor cycles use a working fluid that undergoes a phase
change during the cycle.
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What is the most commonly used cryogenic fluid?
a.
Liquid nitrogen
b.
Liquid helium
c.
Liquid carbon dioxide
d.
Liquid oxygen
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The correct answer is: Liquid nitrogen
Question 492
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How does an air cycle refrigeration system work?
a.
It compresses refrigerant, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
b.
It evaporates water, cools the air, and condenses the water to produce cooling
c.
It compresses air, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
d.
It boils a liquid, cools the vapor, and condenses it to produce cooling
Feedback
The correct answer is: It compresses air, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
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What is the purpose of insulation in air conditioning ducts?
a.
All of the above
b.
To reduce noise transmission
c.
To improve energy efficiency
d.
To prevent air leakage
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What is the efficiency of the reversed Carnot cycle?
a.
Equal to the efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating between the same temperature limits
b.
Less than the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature
limits
c.
Greater than or equal to the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same
temperature limits
d.
Equal to the efficiency of a Carnot cycle operating between the same temperature limits
Feedback
The correct answer is: Greater than or equal to the efficiency of any other cycle operating
between the same temperature limits
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What is the purpose of an evaporator in a refrigeration system?
a.
To remove heat from the system
b.
To regulate the flow of refrigerant
c.
To compress the refrigerant
d.
To expand the refrigerant
Feedback
The correct answer is: To remove heat from the system
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What is the purpose of a damper in an air conditioning duct?
a.
To regulate the flow of air
b.
To insulate the ducts
c.
To humidify the air
d.
To filter the air
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The correct answer is: To regulate the flow of air
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The shear stress required to cause plastic deformation of solid metal is called
a.
flow stress
b.
rupture stress
c.
proof stress
d.
Ultimate stress.
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The correct answer is: flow stress
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If a member, whose tensile strength is more than two times the shear strength, is
subjected to an axial load upto failure, the failure of the member will occur by
a.
none of the above.
b.
maximum normal stress
c.
maximum shear stress
d.
normal stress or shear stress
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The correct answer is: maximum shear stress
Question 499
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The stress which will cause a specified permanent deformation in a material (usually
0.01% or less) is called
a.
proof stress
b.
rupture stress
c.
flow stress
d.
Ultimate stress.
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The correct answer is: proof stress
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The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is known as
a.
modulus of elasticity.
b.
bulk modulus
c.
modulus of rigidity
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The correct answer is: modulus of elasticity.
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The torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as the torque required to produce
a.
A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft.
b.
minimum twist in the shaft
c.
maximum shear stress in the shaft
d.
maximum twist in the shaft
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The correct answer is: A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft.
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The type of mechanical component that has a circular cross section and is subjected to a
torque, on both ends is called:
a.
column
b.
shaft
c.
bar
d.
beam
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The correct answer is: shaft
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In a tensile test of a specimen, the ratio of maximum load to the original cross-sectional
area of the test piece is called
a.
ultimate stress
b.
breaking stress.
c.
safe stress
d.
yield stress
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The correct answer is: ultimate stress
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Every cross-section of a shaft, which is subjected to a twisting moment, is under
a.
shear stress
b.
Bending stress.
c.
tensile stress
d.
compressive stress
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The correct answer is: shear stress
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The planes, which have no shear stress, are known as
a.
inclined plane
b.
oblique plane
c.
principal plane
d.
slanted plane
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The correct answer is: principal plane
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A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other end, is known as
a.
Overhanging beam
b.
Simply supported beam
c.
Fixed beams
d.
Cantilever beam
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The correct answer is: Cantilever beam
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A cantilever of length (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole length. The
bending moment diagram will be
a.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the center
b.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
c.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
d.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
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The correct answer is: parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
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The point of contraflexure occurs only in
a.
continuous beams
b.
cantilever beams
c.
overhanging beams
d.
simply supported beams
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The correct answer is: overhanging beams
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The ratio of change of dimension of the body to the original dimension is known as
………...
a.
elongation
b.
strain
c.
deflection
d.
stress
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The correct answer is: strain
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The property by virtue of which a metal can be beaten into plates is called
a.
malleability
b.
resilience
c.
ductility
d.
plasticity.
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The correct answer is: malleability
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A beam which is provided more than two supports is known as
a.
Overhanging beam
b.
Continuous Beam
c.
Fixed beams
d.
Simply supported beam
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The correct answer is: Continuous Beam
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The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever, if it carries
a
a.
uniformly distributed load over the whole length
b.
point load in the middle of its length
c.
point load at the free end
d.
none of the above.
Feedback
The correct answer is: uniformly distributed load over the whole length
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The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, is
known as
a.
compressive stress
b.
tensile strain
c.
bearing stress
d.
tensile stress
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The correct answer is: compressive stress
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A fixed beam is a beam whose end supports are such that the end slopes
a.
are zero
b.
are maximum
c.
are minimum
d.
none of the above.
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The correct answer is: are zero
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Maximum shear stress by the Mohrs circle method is equal to-----------
a.
maximum normal stress
b.
resultant stress
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The correct answer is: maximum normal stress
Question 516
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Column is defined as a
a.
member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
b.
member of a structure which carries a tensile load
c.
vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d.
Vertical member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Vertical member of a structure which carries an axial compressive
load.
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Which one is not correct?
a.
If longitudinal strain is tensile, the lateral strains will be compressive.
b.
lateral strain is opposite in sign to longitudinal strain
c.
poisons ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
d.
lateral strain is always the same in sign to longitudinal strain
Feedback
The correct answer is: lateral strain is always the same in sign to longitudinal strain
Question 518
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The ratio of normal stress of each face of a solid cube to volumetric strain is called
a.
modulus of elasticity.
b.
bulk modulus
c.
modulus of rigidity
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The correct answer is: bulk modulus
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A rod is 3 m long at a temperature of 15C. Find the expansion of the rod.
a.
0.288m
b.
1.35cm
c.
0.288cm
d.
1.35m
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The correct answer is: 0.288cm
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is the property by virtue of which certain materials return back to their original position
after the removal of the external force.
a.
plasticity
b.
elasticity
c.
machinability
d.
ductility
Feedback
The correct answer is: elasticity
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The ratio of tensile or compressive stress to the corresponding strain is known as
a.
modulus of toughness
b.
shear modulus
c.
Young modulus
d.
modulus of rigidity
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Young modulus
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a.
84.24 N/mm2
b.
45 * 109 N/mm2
c.
56.6 * 106 N/mm2
d.
63.6 * 109 N/mm2
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The correct answer is: 63.6 * 109 N/mm2
Question 523
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If a beam is fixed at both its ends, it is called a
a.
encastered beam
b.
built-in beam
c.
any one of the above
d.
fixed beam
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The correct answer is: any one of the above
Question 524
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The stress obtained by dividing the load at the moment of incipient fracture, by the area
supporting that load is called
a.
Ultimate stress.
b.
rupture stress
c.
proof stress
d.
flow stress
Feedback
The correct answer is: rupture stress
Question 525
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A short column of circular section carries a point load acting with an eccentricity. The
shape of Kernel area would be.
a.
circle
b.
square
c.
rectangle
d.
Rhombus.
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The correct answer is: circle
Question 526
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The bending moment at a section, where shear force is zero, will be
a.
minimum
b.
maximum
c.
either minimum or maximum
d.
zero
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The correct answer is: either minimum or maximum
Question 527
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The resistance per unit area, offered by a body against deformation is known as .
a.
strain
b.
stress
c.
deflection
d.
elongation
Feedback
The correct answer is: stress
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The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after
removal of the load is known as
a.
elasticity
b.
ductility
c.
plasticity
d.
resilience.
Feedback
The correct answer is: elasticity
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Which one of the following is wrong about Hooke's law?
a.
it does work within the plastic region
b.
the stress is proportional to the strain.
c.
the shear stress is proportional to the shear strain.
d.
it is applicable only within elastic limit
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The correct answer is: it does work within the plastic region
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A rod 200 cm long and of diameter 3 cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30 kN. If the
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is 2 × 105 N/mm2, determine: the stress?
a.
64.24 N/mm2
b.
56.04 N/mm2
c.
49.21 N/mm2
d.
42.44 N/mm2
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The correct answer is: 42.44 N/mm2
Question 531
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Within elastic limit in a loaded material, stress is
a.
none of the above.
b.
equal to strain
c.
inversely proportional to strain
d.
Adirectly proportional to strain
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The correct answer is: Adirectly proportional to strain
Question 532
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Which one of the following is wrong about the assumptions made in the theory of simple
bending?
a.
The transverse sections which were plane before bending, remain plane after bending
also.
b.
The radius of curvature is small when compared with the dimensions of the cross-
section.
c.
The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
Feedback
The correct answer is: The radius of curvature is small when compared with the
dimensions of the cross-section.
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A loaded column is having the tendency to deflect. On account of this tendency, the
critical load
a.
decreases with the decrease in length
b.
first decreases then increases with the decrease in length
c.
decreases with the increase in length
d.
First increases then decreases with the decrease in length.
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The correct answer is: decreases with the increase in length
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Slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of
a.
equivalent length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
b.
Minimum radius of gyration to the area of cross-section of the column.
c.
length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
d.
length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
Feedback
The correct answer is: length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
Question 535
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Fletched beam means a
a.
beam of composite section consisting of a wooden beam strengthened by mild steel
plates
b.
None of the above.
c.
fixed beam
d.
continuous beam
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The correct answer is: beam of composite section consisting of a wooden beam
strengthened by mild steel plates
Question 536
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if a section of a beam is subjected to a transversal load applied to the beam from above,
and Couse pure bending in the beam and the longitudinal beam concaves upward, then
the stress variation will be:
a.
the stresses will be tensile below the neutral axis.
b.
all
c.
the stresses will be compressive at any point above the neutral axis
d.
The stress at the neutral axis is zero.
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The correct answer is: all
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A simply supported beam of span (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole
span. The shear force diagram will be
a.
a rectangle
b.
a triangle
c.
two equal and opposite triangles.
d.
two equal and opposite rectangles
Feedback
The correct answer is: two equal and opposite triangles.
Question 538
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When an element is subjected to a set of shear stresses
a.
All
b.
The planes of maximum normal stresses are perpendicular to each other.
c.
The planes of maximum normal stresses are inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the
planes
of pure shear.
d.
One of the maximum normal stress is tensile while the other maximum normal stress is
compressive.
Feedback
The planes of maximum normal stresses are inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the
planes
Of pure shear.
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A laminated spring 1 m long carries a central point load of 2000 N. The spring is made up
of plates each 5 cm wide and 1 cm thick. The bending stress in the plates is limited to 10
N/mm2. The number of plates required, will be
a.
6
b.
8.
c.
5
d.
3
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A short column of rectangular section carries a point load (W) acting with an eccentricity
(e). The shape of Kernel area would be
a.
rectangle
b.
square
c.
circle
d.
Rhombus.
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The correct answer is: Rhombus.
Question 541
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The shear stress at any point of a shaft, subjected to twisting moment, is
a.
None of the above.
b.
proportional to the square of its distance from the central axis of the shaft
c.
inversely proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
d.
proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
Feedback
The correct answer is: proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
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A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load (W) at the free end. The bending moment
diagram will be a
a.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the center of the beam
b.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
c.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
d.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
Feedback
The correct answer is: triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
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When a body is subjected to an axial tensile load
a.
no change in dimension at all
b.
there is an increase in the width of the body
c.
there is an increase in other dimensions of the body at right angles to the axis of the
body
d.
there is an increase in the length of the body
Feedback
The correct answer is: there is an increase in the length of the body
Question 544
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The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, is
known as
a.
tensile strain
b.
bearing stresses
c.
tensile stress
d.
compressive stress
Feedback
The correct answer is: tensile stress
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The maximum axial compressive load which a column can take without failure by lateral
deflection is called
a.
Any one of the above.
b.
buckling load
c.
critical load
d.
crippling load
Feedback
The correct answer is: Any one of the above.
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Hooke’s law holds good too.
a.
yield point
b.
plastic limit.
c.
proportional limit
d.
elastic limit
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The correct answer is: proportional limit
Question 547
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A loaded column fails due to
a.
A and B
b.
stress due to direct load
c.
stress due to bending
d.
None of the above.
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The correct answer is: A and B
Question 548
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The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared to the stress due to the same load
gradually applied to the same rod is
a.
same
b.
double
c.
half
d.
three times.
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The correct answer is: double
Question 549
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Buckling factor is defined as the ratio of
a.
equivalent length of a column to the minimum radius of gyration
b.
length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
c.
length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
d.
None of the above.
Feedback
The correct answer is: equivalent length of a column to the minimum radius of gyration
Question 550
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The angle made by the resultant stress with the normal of the oblique plane, is known as
a.
obliquity
b.
angle of twist
c.
straight line angle
d.
none
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The correct answer is: obliquity
Question 551
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The extension in a rectangular steel bar of length 800 mm and of thickness 20 is-------
a.
84.7KN
b.
96KN
c.
60.6KN
d.
45 KN
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The correct answer is: 60.6KN
Question 552
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The work done in producing strain on a material per unit volume is called
a.
resilience
b.
elasticity
c.
ductility
d.
plasticity
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The correct answer is: resilience
Question 553
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If a beam is supported on more than two supports, it is called a
a.
continuous beam
b.
simply supported beam
c.
encastered beam.
d.
built-in beam
Feedback
The correct answer is: continuous beam
Question 554
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Torsional rigidity of a shaft is equal to
a.
Ratio of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia.
b.
product of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
c.
sum of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
d.
difference of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
Feedback
The correct answer is: product of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
Question 555
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The ratio of moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance of the most distance
point of the section from the neutral axis is called
a.
moment of inertia
b.
Modulus of rigidity.
c.
polar moment of inertia
d.
section modulus
Feedback
The correct answer is: section modulus
Question 556
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The maximum energy stored in the body without permanent deformation (i.e., upto
elastic limit) is known as
a.
strain energy
b.
Modulus of resilience
c.
Resilience
d.
Proof Resilience.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Proof Resilience.
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Polar modulus of a shaft section is equal to
a.
ratio of polar moment of inertia to maximum radius of the shaft
b.
product of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
c.
sum of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
d.
Difference of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft.
Feedback
The correct answer is: ratio of polar moment of inertia to maximum radius of the shaft
Question 558
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when a mechanical component is subjected to a series of external axial loads that pass
through the centroid of the cross section, and result in change in length in the material
then the type of the element would be:
a.
beam
b.
bar
c.
column
d.
shaft
Feedback
The correct answer is: bar
Question 559
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When the external load is applied in the transverse direction to the longitudinal axis of the
component and causes the element to flex/bend due to the applied load, then the type of
the element can be identified as:
a.
column
b.
beam
c.
bar
d.
shaft
Feedback
The correct answer is: beam
Question 560
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Which one of the following units of measurements cannot express stress?
a.
N/m2
b.
106 N/mm2
c.
10-4 N/cm2
d.
10-6 N/mm2
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The correct answer is: 106 N/mm2
Question 561
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Strut is defined as a
a.
None of the above.
b.
member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
c.
member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d.
vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
Feedback
The correct answer is: member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
Question 562
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The diameter of a mild steel round bar, on which tensile test is performed, at fracture will
a.
increase
b.
decrease
c.
be same
d.
none of the above.
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The correct answer is: decrease
Question 563
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The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is
a.
changing sign
b.
zero
c.
minimum
d.
maximum
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The correct answer is: changing sign
Question 564
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A solid circular shaft of diameter D carries an axial load W. If the same load is applied
axially on a hollow circular shaft of inner diameter as D 2, the ratio of stresses in a solid
shaft to that of hollow shaft would be
a.
1 /2
b.
4 /3
c.
1 /4
d.
3 /4
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3 /4
Question 565
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The stresses induced in a body due to change in temperature are known as
a.
thermal stress
b.
bearing stresses
c.
tensile strain
d.
shear stress
Feedback
The correct answer is: thermal stress
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