SCIENCE MOCK TEST FOR GRADE 10 NAT

Directions: Read the questions carefully and choose the letter that corresponds to your answer.

1. All of the following are solutions except _____.

A. Brass B. Coffee C. Seawater D. Milk

2. How many moles of CO2 does 88 grams of Carbon Dioxide contain?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

3. Which chemical bonds are considered the strongest, requiring the most energy to break?
A. ionic bonds B. van der Waals forces C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds

4. Give the mass number for an atom that has 10 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons.
A. 31 B. 20 C. 10 D. 21

5. The graph below shows the change in energy that occurs during a chemical reaction. Which of the
following is most likely to happen as the reaction nears completion?
A. The reaction releases energy to its surroundings.
B. The energy level of the reactants remains constant.
C. The reaction takes in energy from its surroundings
D. The energy level of the reactants increases gradually.

6. During ______, the chromosomes attach to the spindle

and align at the metaphase plate of the spindle.
A. prophase B. prometaphase C. metaphase D. anaphase

7. What mass, in g, of hydrogen gas is formed when 3.0 mol of aluminum react with excess hydrochloric
acid according to the following equation?
2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq)→ 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)
A. 3.0 B. 4.5 C. 6.0 D. 9.0

8. Removing all lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of ClF3 would change the geometry from
A. trigonal pyramidal to trigonal planar. C. from T–shaped to trigonal planar.
B. from square shaped to trigonal pyramidal. D. from trigonal bipyramidal to trigonal planar.

9. What percent of a parent isotopes remains after 2 half-lives?

A. 50% B. 25% C. 6.25% D. 2%

10. What the value does 6.02 x 1023 represent?

A. The number of particles in a mole C. The density of moles per square nanometer.
B. The number of particles per atom in a substance. D. The length of time for a material to decompose

11. Molality, m, is defined as number of moles of solute per kg of solvent. If 230 g of ethanol (C2H5OH) is
added to 500 g of water, what is the molality of the solution?
A. 0.46 m B. 1 m C. 2.17 m D. 10 m

12. What are the coefficients that will balance the formula equation below?
AlCl3 + NaOH Al(OH)3 + NaCl
A. 1, 3, 1, 3 B. 3, 1, 3, 1 C. 1, 1, 1, 3 D. 1, 3, 3, 1

13. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point
A. its temperature increases. C. its particles gain energy.
B. heat is given out. D. its particles become more ordered.

14. A container weighs 90 g when empty and 110 g when fully filled with water. The density of water is 1.0
g/mL. When the container is filled instead with liquid X, it weighs 140 g. What is the density of liquid X?
A. 0.80 g/mL B. 1.4 g/mL C. 2.5 g/mL D. 3.0 g/mL

15. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt batteries in it, arranged in a chain to give a total of 4.5 volts.
Current passes first through battery (a), then through battery (b), then through battery (c), on its way to the
bulb. When you operate the flashlight, the batteries provide power to the current and they gradually use up
their chemical potential energy. Which battery will run out of chemical potential energy first?
A. All three will run out at the same time. C. Battery (b) will run out first.
B. Battery (a) will run out first. D. Battery (c) will run out first.
16. If you balance the equation below, what is the least sum of the coefficients?
MnO2 + HCl → Cl2 + MnCl2 + H2O
A. 26 B. 15 C. 9 D. 7

17. The radioactive half-life of a certain isotope is 2 days. What part of this isotope will remain after 8 days?
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/8 D. 1/16

18. Mixtures can be classified as homogenous or heterogeneous and can be separated by simple means.
Solutions and suspensions
A. are both compounds. C. are both examples of a heterogeneous mixture.
B. are both examples of a homogenous mixture. D. can be separated into components by physical means.

19. The main reason why one can possibly walk barefoot on a red-hot wooden coals without burning the
feet is
A. the low thermal conductivity of coal. C. the low temperature of coal.
B. the high temperature of coal. D. the stepping techniques.

20. Which of the following characterizes water?

A. Water releases only heat quickly. C. Water releases and gains heat slowly.
B. Water releases and gains heat quickly. D. Water gains only heat slowly.

21. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is
removed, the candle continues to burn. In this reaction, the match ______.
A. behaves as a catalyst. C. is part of the rate determining step.
B. supplies activation energy. D. lowers the activation energy barrier

22. 1 atm is equal to ______ Torr.

A. 700 B. 720 C. 273 D. 760

24. Of the first 101 elements, which is the most unstable?

A. Francium B. Plutonium C. Arsenic D. Uranium

25. Which element is the most electronegative?

A. Neon B. Francium C. Sodium D. Fluorine

26. What is the most common isotope of Carbon?

A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon 16 C. Carbon-14 D. Carbon-13

27. What is the molar concentration of NaCl solution that contains 30 grams of salt per 200 mL of solution?
A. 0.15 M B. 0.30 M C. 1.3 M D. 2.6 M

28. What is the limiting reagent for the following chemical reaction if 24 grams of hydrogen and 48 grams of
oxygen react to form water? 2H2 + O2→2H2O
A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. This reaction has no limiting reagent.

29. Which among the following is correctly paired?

A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous C. sugar : element
B. liquid soap : homogeneous D. orange juice : compound

30. An analysis of a compound used in the production of aluminum is 32.79% sodium, 13.02 % aluminum
and 54.19% fluorine. The empirical formula of the compound is
A. Na3AlF6 B. Na5AlF8 C. NaAlF D. Na3AlF3

31. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury barometer is dependent on the following EXCEPT on
the
A. diameter of the tube. C. density of mercury and weather condition.
B. atmospheric pressure. D. altitude at which the measurement is made.

32. What process can be used on a liquid to separate its components without losing either component in
the process?
A. Distillation B. Evaporation C. Sieving D. Paper Chromatography

33. What component of hard water makes it “hard”?

A. sodium and nitrogen C. large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions
B. oxygen and hydrogen D. large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide
34. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity. Which statement
explains the enzyme activity at the point shown?

A. At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.

B. At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest.
C. At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break.
D. At S, the substrate is completely denatured.

35. If an object allows most light to pass through, it is said to be a/an _______ object.
A. opaque B. transparent C. translucent D. luminous

36. Which of the following statements about the eagle and corn plant is true?
A. Both organisms are producers C. One is a consumer and the other is a producer
B. Both organisms are consumers D. One is a consumer and the other is a saprophyte

37. Study the table below. The animals have been grouped according to their ability to protect themselves
from predators.
GROUP A GROUP B
Moth Lion
Butterfly Tiger
Caterpillar Wolf
Walking stick X

Which of the following can X be?

A. eagle B. grasshopper C. stonefish D. chameleon

38. What is the method of heat transfer through liquid or moist air?
A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Evaporation

39. Which of the following statements is an example of contact force?

A. magnetic B. gravitational C. electrical D. frictional

40. Which of the following statements below about energy from the sun are true?
A: It has the largest supply of energy.
B: It is the most available source of energy.
C: The energy from the sun is a major requirement for photosynthesis

A. A and B only B. A and C only C. B and C only D. A, B and C

41. Water flowing down from the dam spins the turbines inside the hydroelectric power plant which
activates a generator and produce electricity. Which of the following shows the correct transformation of
energy?
A. kinetic energy  sound energy electrical energy  mechanical energy
B. kinetic energy mechanical energy  potential energy sound energy
C. potential energy  sound energy  mechanical energy  electrical energy
D. potential energy  kinetic energy  mechanical energy electrical energy
.
42. Which statement is true when a ball is projected into the air?
A. The velocity is constant.
B. The ball will continuously move horizontally.
C. There is more kinetic energy as the ball goes higher.
D. The velocity of the ball is zero as it reaches its maximum height.

43. A magnet is used to remove four different objects on top of a piece of paper. Which of the following
materials will not move?
A: needle B: gold ring C: silver coin D: paper clip

A. D only B. A and B only C. A and C only D. B and C only

44. Which of the following is not a method to demagnetize a magnetic object?
A. stroking B. heating C. hammering D. passing an alternating current

45. What will happen when a large piece of a bar magnet is cut into four parts?
A. all have north and south poles
B. one piece has north pole only, three piece has south pole only
C. three pieces have north pole only, one piece has south pole only.
D. two pieces have north pole only, the remaining pieces have north and south poles

46. Which of the following factors does not affect the amount of kinetic and potential energy?
A. mass B. speed C. height D. vibration

47. When objects P and M are placed near the S pole of the suspended magnet, repulsion occurs with P
while attraction occurs with M. We can conclude that
A. Both P and M are magnets C. P is not a magnet while M is a magnet
B. Neither P nor M is a magnet D. M is not a magnet while P is a magnet

48. Which of the following correctly describes “weight”?

A. Weight and mass are the same
B. Weight is lesser than the mass
C. Weight depends on the gravity applied by earth
D. Weight depends on the position of the earth with respect to the sun

49. Which of the following describes what a force can do?

A: It can change the motion of an object
B: It is push or pull that is exerted on a body
C: It can pull all thrown objects towards the ground

A. A and B only B. B and C only C. A and C only D. A, B and C

50. The mass of a 25 N lead on the moon is

A. greater than 25N
B. equal to its mass on earth
C. less than its mass on earth
D. greater than its mass on the moon

51. Which of the following food chain is correct?

A. chick  rabbit  snake  eagle C. fox  frog  grasshopper  grass
B. rice plant  chick  snake  fox D. mushroom  pigs  humans  bacteria

52. Which organism would you not find in a forest community?

A. Ant B. Crab C. Frog D. Snake

53. Which statements about a poinsettia plant are true?

A. It attracts pollinators C. It has specialized leaves called stipules
B. It has brightly colored leaves

A. A and B only B. B and C only C. A and C only D. All of the above

54. Which of the following human activities does not positively impact the environment?
A. Conservation of water
B. Conservation of electricity
C. Preservation of historic buildings
D. Improper disposal of waste materials