2023 MOCK FEBRUARY CHEMISTRY 1

OBJECTIVE TEST, FEBRUARY 2023

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY FORM: SHS 3 DURATION: 2 HOURS
Answer all questions. Circle the correct answer.

1. The term ……………… is the process of of 1050 kJ, calculate the activation energy of the
measuring the enthalpy changes of reactions. reaction.
a. heat capacity b. heat a. 410 kJ b. 240 kJ
c. calorimetry d. internal energy c. 160 kJ d. 1210 kJ
2. Which of the processes is not an example of an 10. When 0.05 mol of HCl(aq) reacts with 0.05 mol
endothermic change? of NaOH(aq), 2.9 kJ of heat are produced. What is
a. respiration b. photosynthesis the enthalpy change per mole of acid reacting for
c. melting d. thermal decomposition the acid-base reaction?
a. 58 kJ / mol b. 29 kJ/ mol
3. The highly energetic or unstable species that
c. – 58 kJ / mol d. 116kJ/ mol
exist briefly at the point of maximum potential
energy is known as the ………………… 11. A sample of gas has a volume of 152cm3 when
a. transition state b. product its temperature is 18° C. If its temperature is
c. activation energy d. enthalpy change increased to 32°C, what will its volume become,
4. The difference in energy between the reactants assuming the pressure remains constant
and the activated complex is known as……. throughout?
a. enthalpy change b. activation energy a. 270.2 cm3 b. 100cm3
c. activated complex d. intermediate c. 159cm3 d. 105cm3

5. Which of the following is an example of a 12. The scientific method is a process that
closed system? involves following certain steps. Which of these
a. burning of carbon in steps would come first?
c. hot tea in a sealed thermos flask a. make a hypothesis
d. Mg reacting with an acid in an open beaker b. identify the problem
c. conduct an experiment
6. Which of the following is not an example of an d. do analysis of data gathered
exothermic reaction?
a. combustion b. respiration 13. If the absolute temperature of a sample of gas
c. condensation of steam to water doubles and the pressure does not change, what
d. thermal decomposition happens to the volume?
a. the volume decreases by one-half
7. Heat change measured at constant pressure is b. the volume doubles
termed as ………… c. the volume remains constant
a. molar enthalpy change d. the volume and pressure becomes equal
b. standard enthalpy change
c. enthalpy d. enthalpy change 14. A 4.75L sample gas has a pressure of 1.00
atm. Calculate the volume after its pressure is
8. Breaking of crystals into gaseous ions during increased to 950mmHg at constant temperature.
the dissolution of ionic solids requires energy [ 760 mmHg = 1.00 atm ]
input called………………. a. 2.5 L b. 3.0 L c. 5.0 L d. 3.8 L
a. hydration energy b. ionization energy
c. atomization energy d. lattice energy 15. The atomic masses for hydrogen and oxygen
are 1.0 and 16.0 respectively. According to
9. The energies of reactants and products in a Graham’s law of diffusion, the relative rates of
reaction profile are 810 kJ and 400 kJ diffusion of oxygen and hydrogen is ….
respectively. If the activated complex has energy
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a. the speed of hydrogen is 4 times that of oxygen 24. If a hydrogen gas generator produces 2 x 1020
b. the speed of oxygen is 4 times that of hydrogen molecules per second, how long will it take to
c. oxygen and hydrogen have equal speeds produce one mole of the gas? [ Avogadro’s
d. the speed of hydrogen is twice that of oxygen number = 6.02 x 1023 ]
a. 3.01 x 103 sec b. 3.33 x 104
16. At 28°C and 740mmHg. 1.0 dm3 of an
c. 3.33 x 10-4 sec d. 3.01 x 10-3
unidentified gas has a mass of 5.16 g. What is the
molar mass of the gas? [ R = 0.0821 dm3. 25. What is the percentage of carbon in carbon (
atm.mol-1K-1 ] IV) oxide ? [ C = 12.0, 0 = 16.0 ]
a. 132 g/mol b. 84 g/mol a. 5.45 % b. 60.50 %
c. 130.9 g/mol d. 100 g/mol c. 27.27% d. 10.90%
17. A mixture of oxygen and nitrogen contains 26. Which is the correct order of increasing
oxygen at a pressure of 117 mmHg and nitrogen at boiling point among the following molecules?
a pressure of 645 mmHg. What is the pressure of a. SiH4, CH4, NH3, H2O b. CH4, SiH4, NH3, H2O
the mixture? c. CH4, SiH4, H2O, NH3 d. H2O, NH3, SiH4, CH4
a. 762 mmHg b. 75465 mmHg 27. Hydrogen bonding is present in the following
c. 528 mmHg d. 760mmHg molecules except ……
18. Which of the following gases is used in baking a. proteins b. carbohydrates
bread and also in the preparation of fizzy soft c. alkanols d. hydrocarbons
drinks? 28. All the following are characteristic properties
a. CO2(g) b. SO2(g) c. CO(g) d. O2(g) of transition elements except
19. Which of the following gases forms white a. They form coloured compounds
fumes with conc. HCl(g) b. They have low melting point
a. chlorine b. carbon dioxide c. They form complex compounds
c. ammonia d. sulfur dioxide d. They exhibit variable oxidation states
20. Ammonia gas cannot be collected over water
because ………… 29. Which of the following group of elements on
a. it is insoluble in water the periodic table has the largest atomic size?
b. it does not react with water a. 8 b. 7 c. 1 d. 18
c. it is soluble in water 30……… is not an alkaline earth metal
d. it is slightly soluble in water a. Cs b. Mg c. Ca d. Sr
21. Which of the following compounds has the 31. …….. are very reactive elements and exist as
highest melting point? diatomic molecules
a. ammonia b. methane a. transition elements b. group 8 elements
c. sodium chloride d. water c. alkali metals d. halogens
22. Consider this equation: X+
32. Metallic character increases down the group
X2+ + e-
due to
The energy involved in the process represented in
a. increasing ionization energy and decreasing
the equation is
electron affinity
a. first ionization energy
b. decreasing ionization energy and decreasing
b. second ionization energy
electron affinity
c. electronegativity d. electron affinity
c. decreasing atomic size and increasing
23. An oxide of nitrogen contains 63.6% of electronegativity
nitrogen. What is the empirical formula of the d. increasing atomic size and decreasing ionization
compound? energy
a. NO b. NO2 c. N2O d. N2O3

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33. Which of the following factors does not affect c. mol-3dm9s-1 d. mol-4dm9s-1
ionization energy?
43. The rate law for the decomposition of N2O5 is
a. electronegativity
rate = k [N2O5]. If k = 1.0 × 10-5 s-1, what is the
b. ionic size c. screening effect
d. stability of electronic configuration reaction rate when the N2O5 concentration is
0.0010 mol L-1?
34. In the mass spectrometer, deflection of ions by a. 1.0 x 10-9 b. 1.0 x 10-6
the magnetic field depend upon the
c. 1.0 x 10-5 d. 1.0 x 10-
a. mass of the ion
b. ratio of mass to charge of the ion 44. A ……………….. increases the reaction rate
c. chemical nature of the ion d. size of the ion by providing an alternative pathway or mechanism
35. Copper has two naturally occurring isotopes, for the reaction to follow.
63
Cu and 65Cu. What is the percentage by mass of a. inhibitor b. catalyst
the heavier isotope if the relative atomic mass of c. concentration d. effective collisions
copper is 63.54? [Atomic number of Cu is 29
a. 27% b. 73% c. 30% d. 70% Use the information below to answer questions 9,
10 and 11.
36. The polarization power of a cation is enhanced
In a transesterification reaction, a triglyceride
by its ………
reacts with an alcohol to form an ester and
a. high charge and large size
glycerol. Many students learn about the reaction
b. small charge and small size
c. small charge and large size between methanol (CH3OH) and ethyl acetate
d. high charge and small size (CH3CH2OCOCH3) as a sample reaction before
studying the chemical reactions that produce
37. Which of the following properties is
biodiesel: CH3 OH + CH3 CH2 OCOCH3 ⟶ CH3
responsible for the thermal and electrical
OCOCH3 + CH3 CH2 OH
conductivities of metals?
methanol ethyl acetate
a. delocalized electrons b. ductility
c. high density d. malleability The rate law for the reaction between methanol
and ethyl acetate is, under certain conditions,
38. In metallic solids, the forces of attraction are determined to be: rate = k ⎣CH3 OH⎤
between the mobile valence electrons and the
a. sea of delocalized electrons 45. What is the order of reaction with respect to
b. fixed negative ions methanol? ………………
c. positively charged nuclei a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
d. neutrons 46. What is the order of reaction with respect to
39. Which of the following chemical species has a ethyl acetate? …………………….
different electronic configuration from the others? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 0
a. F- b. Ne c. O2- d. Mg+ 47. What is the overall order of the reaction?
40. What is the geometrical shape of the p-orbital a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 0
of the atom? 48. Two or three drops of methyl orange in an
a. dumb-bell b. oval c. spherical d. planar acidic solution will develop a color change from
41. In a particular chemical reaction it was colorless to ……………………
observed that the rate is equal to the rate constant, a. orange b. pink c. yellow d. green
k. what will be the unit for k? ………
49. Two or three drops of methyl orange in an
a. moldm-3s-1 b. mol-2dm6s-1
alkaline solution will develop a color change from
c. s-1 d. moldm-3
colorless to ……………………
42. The unit of rate constant, k, for a fourth order a. orange b. pink c. yellow d. green
reaction is…………....................
a. mol-2dm6s-1 b. mol-3dm6s-1
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50. Which of the following metals is very 62. One calorie is equivalent to ………………
reactive? a. 4.184 kJ b. 1.0 kJ c. 4.184 kg d. 4.184 J
a. Li b. Mg c. K d. Ca 63. There are …… periods on the periodic table.
51. Which of the following halogens is the least a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 5
reactive 64. Which of the following compounds will not
a. F b. Cl c. Br d. I burn in excess oxygen to give water and
carbon (IV) oxide?
52. Metallic strength is highest in ………………
a. methane b. ammonia
a. Al b. Na c. Ca d. Cs
c. ethene d. alcohol
53. If the concentration of NaCl solution is
65. Which of the following periodic properties
0.0065% W/W NaCl. Express the concentration
decreases across the period on the periodic table?
as ppm of NaCl.
a. ionic radius b. ionization energy
a. 65 ppm b. 3.25 ppm
c. electron affinity d. electronegativity
c. 165 ppm d. 25 ppm
54. 30cm3 of a solution is to be diluted ten times. 66. Select the odd one out
Calculate the volume of distilled water to be a. Mg b. Ca c. Be d. K
needed. 67. 10 cm3 of a 2.0M NaOH solution is diluted to
a. 300 cm3 b. 70 cm3 c. 270 cm3 d. 150 cm3 200 cm3. What is the dilution factor?
55. Calculate the volume of a 5M HCl solution a. 20 b. 10 c. 30 d. 50
needed to prepare 1 dm3 of amount concentration 68. 1 ppm concentration is equivalent to
0.5M. ……………… concentration
a. 25 cm3 b. 50 cm3 c. 100 cm3 d. 200 cm3 a. 1 mg/ ml b. 1 mg/L
56. The number of orbitals in the L-Shell is …. c. 1 mg/g d. 1 g/L
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 69. The unit for molality is…………………..
57. The total number of electrons that can be a. mol/kg b. mol/dm3
accommodated by the N-Shell which has four c. kg/mol d. g/dm3
subshells is ……… 70. An educated guess or prediction in scientific
a. 8 b. 10 c. 16 d. 32 method of enquiry refers to……. ..
58. No two electrons in the same atom can have a. purpose b. problem
exactly the same set of quantum numbers refers c. solution d. hypothesis
to………..
a. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle 71. Scientists learn and study the world around
b. electron affinity c. Aufbau’s rule them by using:
d. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity a. the Big Bang Theory b. characteristics of life
c. scientific method d. technology
59. The region of an orbital where the probability
of finding an electron is zero is known as… 72. The first scientist to develop a model of the
a. nucleus b. node c. orbit d. symmetry atom which he described as looking like “plum
pudding”
60. The unit of equilibrium constant, kc, for this a. John Dalton b. James Chadwick
reaction: N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 is ……… c. J.J. Thompson d. Ernest Rutherford
-2 6
a. mol dm b. mol-1dm3
c. moldm-3 d. moldm-3s-1 73. The scientist whose alpha-particle scattering
experiment led him to conclude that the nucleus of
61. Enthalpy changes are usually measured in …. an atom contains a dense center of positive charge
a. kJ/mol b. J/mol c. mol/kJ d. kg/mol is?

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 a. John Dalton b. James Chadwick 80. The valence electrons of a germanium atom in the
c. J.J. Thompson d. Ernest Rutherford ground state are located in the
74. Which statement best describes electrons? a. first shell b. third shell
a. They are positive subatomic particles and are c. second shell d. fourth shell
found in the nucleus.
81. In the “ground state” the electron in a hydrogen
b. They are positive subatomic particles and are
atom is
found surrounding the nucleus.
a. in the highest possible energy
c. They are negative subatomic particles and are
b. in the lowest possible energy
found in the nucleus.
c. not moving d. in the nucleus
d. They are negative subatomic particles and are
found surrounding the nucleus. 82. In all samples of the element potassium, each
atom has
75. Which statement matches a subatomic particle
a. 19 protons b. 20 neutrons
with its charge?
c. 39 protons and neutrons d. 39 nucleons
a. A neutron has a negative charge.
b. A proton has a negative charge. 83. An ion that consists of 7 protons, 6 neutrons, and
c. A neutron has no charge. 10 electrons has a net charge of
d. A proton has no charge. a. 4- b. 3+
76. An orbital is a region of space where there is a c. 3- d. 4+
high probability of finding 84. The major portion of an atom’s mass consists of
a. a proton b. a neutron a. electrons and protons b. electrons and neutrons
c. a positron d. an electron c. neutrons and positrons d. neutrons and protons
77. An atom of any element must contain 85. In a calcium atom in the ground state, the
a. an equal number of protons and neutrons electrons that possess the least amount of energy
b. an equal number of protons and electrons are located in the
c. more electrons than neutrons a. first electron shell b. second electron shell
d. more electrons than protons c. third electron shell d. fourth electron shell
78. Which statement compares the masses of two 86. Which sequence represents a correct order of
subatomic particles? historical developments leading to the modern
a. The mass of an electron is greater than the model of the atom?
mass of a proton.
a. the atom is a hard sphere most of the atom is
b. The mass of an electron is greater than the
empty space electrons exist in orbitals outside the
mass of a neutron.
nucleus
c. The mass of a proton is greater than the mass of
b. the atom is a hard sphere electrons exist in
an electron.
orbitals outside the nucleus  most of the atom is
d. The mass of a proton is greater than the mass
empty space
of a neutron
c. most of the atom is empty space  electrons
79. According to the wave-mechanical model of the exist in orbitals outside the nucleus the atom is a
atom, electrons in an atom hard sphere
a. travel in defined circles d. most of the atom is empty space the atom is a
b. are most likely found in an excited state hard sphere electrons exist in orbitals outside the
c. have a positive charge nucleus
d. are located in orbitals outside the nucleus

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87. The Heisenberg Principle states that _______. 93. I am poisonous and can kill. This means I am
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the ……….
same set of four quantum numbers. a. highly flammable b. toxic
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the c. corrosive d. irritant
same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both 94. I attack and destroy living tissues, including
the position and momentum of an electron the skin and eyes. This means I am
simultaneously. a. corrosive b. toxic
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter c. irritant d. oxidizing
energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly
before they pair up in any orbital of the set. 95. Which of the following substances is NOT an
example of a class A fire?
88. An object of mass 40g and volume 100mL. a. wood b. cloth
Find the density of the object in g/L. c. methane d. paper products
a. 400g/L b. 4000g/L
c. 40g/L d. 4.0g/L 96. Do not use water to put out this kind of fire
because you could get electrocuted. Who am I?
89. Calculate the volume of an object that has its a. class A fire b. class B fire
length, breath and height as 5.5m, 2m and 7m c. class C fire d. class K fire
respectively.
a. 77.0m b. 77.0m2 97. Which of the following type(s) of Personal
c. 77.0m3 d. 77.0cm3 Safety Equipment sis frequently used?
a. lab coats b. safety glasses
90. Which of the following characteristics c. gloves d. all of the above
describes a substance that provides oxygen and
also other materials will burn more fiercely in its 98. When a chemical splashes into the eye rinse
presence? for ……?
a. irritant b. corrosive a. 10 seconds b. 5 minutes
c. oxidizing d. highly flammable c. 30 seconds d. 15 minutes

91. The substance will catch fire easily. This 99. Good work practices include:
means the substance is……. a. smelling and tasting of chemicals
a. corrosive b. toxic b. not washing of hands before and after lab
c. harmful d. highly flammable c. confining long hair and loose clothing
d. using damaged equipment and glassware
92. The substance is not corrosive but may cause
reddening, irritation or blistering of the skin. This 100. The desire to maintain a safe laboratory
means the substance is …………… environment for all begins with…..
a. irritant b. harmful a. prevention b. accidents
c. oxidizing d. highly flammable c. hazards d. violation