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QN 1 19
QN 1 19
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions
of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the
question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the
Examination Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in
the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet.
If your question booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with
same alpha code.
6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not
open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the
question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question
booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the
notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is
most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking
your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using
Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without
handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the
Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator
has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of
malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
.
051/2019
1. Least count of vernier micrometer is __________.
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.02 mm (C) 0.001 mm (D) None of these
2. In a double cut file, one cut is at an angle of 708. What is the angle of the other cut ?
(A) 458 (B) 658 (C) 758 (D) 518
5. In assemblies, the parts are located by using taper pins. What is the taper of such pins ?
(A) 1:100 (B) 1:40 (C) 1:50 (D) 1:20
6. Vernier micrometer have additional equally spaced vernier graduations given above the
datum line. The no. of such vernier graduations are __________.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 50
8. The process of chemical reduction of the iron ore to pig iron is known as __________.
(A) Melting (B) Refining (C) Smelting (D) Purification
9. The furnace used for the manufacturing of steel from pig iron is known as __________.
(A) Puddling furnace (B) Blast furnace
(C) Bessemer furnace (D) None of the above
A 3
{P.T.O.}
10. Wringing is the act of joining __________ together.
(A) Ring gauge (B) Slip gauge
(C) Shaft and bearing (D) None of the above
12. Shaping of a grinding wheel to make it run concentric with the axis is known as __________.
(A) Dressing (B) Truing (C) Shaping (D) Balancing
14. If ‘d’ is the diameter and ‘n’ is the rpm, then cutting speed is __________.
(A) πdn/1000 m/min (B) πdn/1000 cm/min
(C) πdn/100 m/min (D) πdnt
15. Different types of errors may occur when we take measurements. Cosine error is related to
which measuring instruments ?
(A) Sine bar (B) Slip gauge
(C) Dial test indicator (D) Vernier Caliper
051/2019 4 A
20. In Indian Standard system for Limits and Fits, there are __________ grades of Fundamental
tolerances.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25
21. In a plane or simple index head, one complete rotation of the index crank rotates the spindle
by __________.
(A) One revolution (B) 40 revolutions
(C) 1/40 of a revolution (D) 1/4 of a revolution
22. Cast metal bonding to the die casting surface is known as __________.
(A) Slag (B) Welding (C) Soldering (D) Flash
23. The amount of die opening at the time the angled pin contacts the core block in die casting
dies is known as __________.
(A) Clearance (B) Shut height (C) Dwell (D) Day light
24. Which half of the die casting dies is secured to the stationary platen of the machine ?
(A) Cover half (B) Ejector half
(C) Hot chamber (D) None of the above
25. Which grade of grinding wheel is preferred for grinding hard metals ?
(A) Hard grade wheels (B) Soft grade wheels
(C) Open structure wheels (D) None of the above
A 5 051/2019
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28. A 200 mm long cylindrical piece has one end dia. is 100 mm and the second dia. is
80 mm. The amount of Conicity is __________.
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 10
29. The heat treatment process for relieving internal stress after cold working in metals is known
as __________.
(A) Annealing (B) Normalising (C) Tempering (D) Hardening
32. This method of actuation is used when a grater split delay is required __________.
(A) Finger cam actuation (B) Dog leg cam actuation
(C) Cam track actuation (D) Spring actuation
33. The space between two mould halves, when the mould is opened is termed as __________.
(A) Shut height (B) Day light (C) Spacing (D) Opening
34. __________ is the only possible method to encapsulate delicate electronic parts.
(A) Transfer moulding (B) Compression moulding
(C) Injection moulding (D) Insert moulding
36. The defects on a die cast component due to cold metal, slow shot, low die temperature is
known as __________.
(A) Sink marks (B) Cracks (C) Cold shut (D) Wave or lake
051/2019 6 A
37. Lead is produced from its ore __________.
(A) Bauxite (B) Malachite (C) Pirates (D) Galena
40. There are __________ Fundamental deviations in the BIS system of Limits and Fits.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25
42. The fundamental deviation symbol ‘H’ is chosen for the holes, when the hole basis system is
followed. This is because __________.
(A) ‘H’ is the first letter of Hole
(B) The lower deviation of the Hole ‘H’ is zero
(C) The upper deviation of the Hole ’H’ is zero
(D) The lower and upper deviation of the Hole ‘H’ is zero
A 7 051/2019
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45. It is used to make continuous shapes such as tube, rods, pipes etc of thermoplastic
is __________.
(A) Rotational moulding (B) Blow moulding
(C) Compression moulding (D) Extrusion moulding
48. Gate that provided below the parting surface of the mould is __________.
(A) Fan gate (B) Submarine gate (C) Edge gate (D) Overlap gate
51. Which pilot nose profile is stronger in strength and smoother in action ?
(A) Bullet nose (B) 458 conical stub nose
(C) 158 conical stub nose (D) 308 conical stub nose
52. In press tools, the __________ guide the strips in the tool.
(A) Pushers (B) Strip support
(C) Stops (D) Gauges
53. For faster manual feeding, which type of stoppers are preferred ?
(A) Pin stop (B) Finger stop
(C) Solid stop (D) Trigger stop
051/2019 8 A
54. Punches that perform cutting and non-cutting operations are called __________.
(A) Floating punches (B) Hybrid punches
(C) Combination punches (D) Integrated punches
55. Stock materials which are fed individually into the tool for processing are called __________.
(A) Blanks (B) Single stock (C) Component (D) Unit stock
57. If the cutting clearance is optimum, cut band produced is approximately __________ the
thickness of the stock material.
(A) One half of (B) One third of (C) One fourth of (D) Same as
59. __________ may be considered as a series of shearing operations performed one after the
other by the same tool.
(A) Shearing (B) Broaching (C) Trimming (D) Planishing
60. When any holes require two or more tools to be used __________ bushes are used ?
(A) Slip bushes (B) Liner bushes
(C) Renewable bushes (D) Special bushes
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62. This type of jig allows the part to be machined on every surface without repositioning the
part in the jig.
(A) Sandwitch jig (B) Angle plate jig (C) Box jig (D) Channel jig
63. __________ clamps are not used when there are chances for strong vibration.
(A) Cam action clamps (B) Screw clamps
(C) Strap clamps (D) Power clamps
64. Minimum angle that can be indexed in a direct indexing is 108. What is the maximum
number of divisions that can be indexed ?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 36
65. The ability of the bond to hold abrasive grains in the grinding wheel is termed as __________.
(A) Grit (B) Grade (C) Grain (D) Structure
66. A 12 mm diameter end mill is to be set for a cutting speed of 14 m/min. The rpm to be set on
the machine should be __________.
(A) 271.7 (B) 183.17 (C) 76 (D) 371.21
68. When cutting and non-cutting operations takes place in a single station, it is called __________.
(A) Combination tool (B) Progressive tool
(C) Compound tool (D) Assembly tool
69. A small edge radius in blanked component is the result of cutting clearance is __________.
(A) Sufficient (B) Insufficient (C) Excessive (D) Optimum
051/2019 10 A
71. The cutting clearance for sheet metal with thickness 2 mm and shear strength 360 N/mm2
is __________.
(A) 0.012 mm/side (B) 1.2 mm/side (C) 2 mm/side (D) 0.12 mm/side
72. If the side of a square shaped component is 4 mm and the thickness is 2 mm and the shear
strength is 360 N/mm2. The cutting force is __________.
(A) 11.52 kN (B) 10 kN (C) 15 kN (D) 30.6 kN
73. The operation of separating the stock material along a straight line in a double cut is
called __________.
(A) Cutting off (B) Trimming (C) Notching (D) Parting off
74. Screws and dowel holes drilled should be away from the edge and opening of the die by
__________, if the diameter of the screw and dowel is d.
(A) 1.5d (B) 2.5d (C) 0.5d (D) 0.75d
75. Pantograph die-sinking and engraving machine operates on the principle of __________.
(A) Gang milling (B) Shaping (C) Planing (D) Copy milling
76. Punches located and positioned by punch holders are known as __________.
(A) Integrated punches (B) Segregated punches
(C) Hybrid punches (D) Cutting punches
77. The exact position in which the stock strip must be positioned in order to obtain dimensionally
correct component is __________.
(A) Registry position (B) Stop position
(C) Finger stop position (D) None of the above
78. When it is necessary to clamp the strip in addition to its stopping function __________ is
used ?
(A) Travelling stripper (B) Fixed stripper
(C) Box stripper (D) None of the above
A 11 051/2019
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80. Nesting gauges are used whenever __________.
(A) Progressive tool is used (B) Compound tool is used
(C) Stock strip is fed into the tool (D) Unit stock is fed into the tool
81. While bending, the neutral plane lies approximately at a distance of __________.
(A) 0.3t to 0.5t from the inner surface
(B) 0.3t to 0.5t from the outer surface
(C) 0.5t to 0.6t from the inner surface
(D) 0.4t from the outer surface
82. All bends are distorted like forming. This distortion is called __________.
(A) Elastic deformation (B) Plastic deformation
(C) Shearing (D) Planishing
83. If the blank diameter is ‘D’ and cup or shell diameter is ‘d’, then coefficient of drawing
K = __________.
(A) D−d (B) D−d/2 (C) d/D (D) D/d
84. The clearance between the walls of the drawing punch and the die should be __________.
(A) Same as the thickness of the metal
(B) Less than the thickness of the metal
(C) Greater than the thickness of the metal
(D) Double the thickness of the metal
051/2019 12 A
87. Tool makes buttons are in corporate with :
(A) Accurate locating (B) Precision turning
(C) Precision boring (D) Accurate clamping
88. __________ is basically a method of blanking or piercing parts without die break.
(A) Shaving (B) Broaching (C) Piercing (D) Fine blanking
90. In drawing operation, more than one reduction will be necessary if the ratio of height of cup
‘h’ to the diameter of the cup ‘d’ (h/d) exceeds a value of __________.
(A) 0.75 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.25
91. The maximum number of locating points in one plane should be __________ in order to
prevent rocking.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
92. When the punch does not ‘bottom out’, the bending process are referred to as __________.
(A) V bending (B) U bending (C) Air bending (D) Wiping
95. If the load is heavy and end feeding is required, __________ die set is used.
(A) Diagonal pin type (B) Four pillar type
(C) Center pin type (D) Back pin type
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96. __________ causes the metal to begin flowing plastically.
(A) Die radius (B) Punch radius (C) Pressure pad (D) Draw ring
97. A blanked component weights 450 gms and is made from 1.5 mm thick plate material and
whose weight per sq.cm is 1.7 gms. What is the blank diameter ?
(A) 19.54 cm (B) 18.36 cm (C) 16.46 cm (D) 15 cm
100. The locating system should be such that it would be difficult for the operator to load the
workpiece incorrectly in a fixture. This is known as __________.
(A) Aligning (B) Locating (C) Clamping (D) Fool proofing
-oOo-
051/2019 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 051/2019
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
051/2019 16 A