FINAL COACHING

MICROBIOLOGY
1. Which of the following possesses 6. 25 – year -old female complained of
cytotoxic activity with the ability to kill vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus and
infected cells? burning. Further investigation revealed
a. Cytokines that her sex partner has watery whitish
b. CD8-T lymphocytes urethral discharge. The consequent clinical
c. B lymphocytes course did not seem to progress beyond
d. CD4-lymphocytes the initial sites of infection. Which is the
2. Hemorrhagic pericarditis is a consequence most probable causative agent of the
of ________. patient’s complaint?
A. Autoimmune disease; SLE; A. Streptococcus pyogenes
rheumatoid arthritis B. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Coxsackie A infection C. Neisseria gonorrhea
C. Prolonged inflammation due to TB or D. Trichomonas vaginalis
fungal infection 7. Which is the SMALLEST tape worm
D. Malignant progression infection man?
3. Select the MOST pathogenic of the A. Taenia saginata
following species of Plasmodium blood B. Taenia solium
protozoan that can cause malaria. C. Hymenolopsis nana
A. P. ovale D. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. P. vivax 8. Which disease listed is NOT an STD?
C. P. malariae A. Chancroid
D. P. falciparum B. Hand-foot-mouth disease
4. 10- year – old girl developed involuntary C. Urethritis
movements of her extremities D. Ectoparasitic infection
uncoordinated facial tics strongly 9. Which would be the MOST helpful
suggestive of rheumatic fever. She has no diagnostic laboratory test to confirm the
carditis, subcutaneous nodules, skin rash diagnosis of gonococcal arthritis?
but has family history of her sister brother A. Serologic detection of the antibody
and mother with history of sore throat B. Culture of the aspirate
few months ago. Which test can be C. Nucleic acid amplification test
requested which if (+) will indicated D. Smear of the aspirate
streptococcal pyogenes infection? 10. Which of the following statements
A. Anti- DNase antibody titer regarding mumps virus is TRUE?
B. Polymerase chain reaction A. The virus infects human and other
C. ASO antibody titer animal hosts
D. Antihyaluronidase acid antibody titer. B. Involvement of the parotid gland is an
5. Which agent is NOT common recognized obligatory step in the infections
cause of diarrhea? process.
A. Escherichia coli C. Immunity to the virus is permanent
B. Vibrio cholera after a single infection
C. Enterococcus fecalis D. Infection is always followed by clinical
D. Clostridium perfringens manifestation
11. Which of the ff distinguishes adaptive A. Serum antibody testing can be used to
immunity from innate immunity? determine result of treatment of
a. Proinflammatory cytokines neurosyphilis
b. Antigen specific antibody B. After an effective treatment patient is
c. Phagocytosis no longer susceptible to syphilitic
d. Microbial sensors infection
12. Gas gangrene is MOST likely associated C. Spontaneous healing of an untreated
with infection of _____. primary lesion indicated cure from the
A. Staphylococcus aureus disease
B. Clostridium perfringens D. Penicillin remains to be the treatment
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa of choice for syphilis
D. Neisseria gonorrhea 17. Which is the ONLY common infection of
13. A previously apparently healthy young the reproductive tract caused by a
man was brought to the emergency room protozoan?
because of progressive general weakening A. Gonorrhea
with symmetrical involvement of both B. Trichomoniasis
upper and lower extremities. This was C. Chlamydia
preceded by sudden onset of doubling of D. Candidiasis
vision difficulty of swallowing and slurring 18. Which of the following disorders would
of speech. He was afebrile. In the have the human T lymphocyte virus
emergency room he suddenly went into (HTLV) as the causative organism?
respiratory difficulty and went into A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
irreversible cardiac arrest. Upon interview B. Adult T-cell leukemia lymphoma
with a relative it was revealed that he had C. Multiple sclerosis
leftover of canned sardines for lunch D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
several hours ago. What is the most 19. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
probable diagnosis? _________.
A. Tetanus A. Streptococcus pyogenes from
B. Nisseria meningtidis staphylococcus aureus
C. Botulism B. Streptococcus pyogenes from
D. Listeriosis Enterococcus faecalis
14. Which is TRUE regarding antigenic drift? C. Staphylococcus epidermidis from
A. An outbreak of influenza A virus Naisseria meningitidis
B. 2+ strains of a virus or strains of 2+ D. Staphylococcus aureus from
viruses combine into 1 virus staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Relatively major changes in pathogen 20. Two fishermen went drinking with a raw
D. An accumulation of mutations in a mackerel soaked in salted vinegar as their
single virus “pulutan”. After 3 hours of drinking both
15. Each ofstr the following statements almost simultaneously experienced
concerning strongyloides stercoralis is severe-pain in both legs. In the ER
correct EXCEPT; attending doctors noted bullous eruption
A. S.stercoralis is acquired by ingestion on their legs which progressed into
of eggs necrosis of the surrounding skin. The
B. S. stercoralis undergoes free living life clinical impression was acute necrotizing
cycle in soil fasciitis and patients were treated for
C. S. stercoralis produces filariform septic shock as well. Laboratory data
larvas showed normal WBC but elevated SGOT
D. Migrating larvas of S. stercoralis SGPT and creatinine phosphokinase.
induce marked eosinophilia Which is the MOST probable cause of the
16. Which of the following statement is TRUE patient’s condition?
regarding treatment of syphilis? A. Salmonella typhi
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Vibrio vulnificus
 D. Clostridium perfringens C. Dementia complex
21. Children born with HIV infection on D. Psychomotor retardation
antiviral treatment and had reached 28. Which is the causative agent of relapsing
adolescent stage are at high risk for fever?
psychiatric disorders. Which of the A. Spirillum
following disorders is the MOST common? B. Treponema
A. Suicidal tendency C. Leptospira
B. Paranoia D. Borrelia
C. Obsessive compulsive 29. Select the PREFERRED test for detecting
D. Anxiety disorders T. varginalis because of its high sensitivity.
22. Which of the antigenic structure in A. Gram staining
Streptococcus Pyogenes has an important B. NAAT
role in the pathogenesis of rheumatic C. Pap smear
fever? D. Wet mounts
A. M protein 30. Which statement is TRUE regarding
B. Pyogenic axotoxin Trichomoras vaginalis?
C. Hemolysin A. T. vaginalis is a flagellate protozoa
D. Streptokinase causing inflammation at vulva, vagina,
23. Which genetic material is found in and cervix in female while the
pathogenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae prostate and urethra in males.
but not in non-pathogenic normal flora B. Up to 50% of nongonococcal or
diptheroids? postgonococcal urethritis or the
A. Highly repetitive bacterial DNA urethral syndrome is attributed to
B. An episome trichomonas and produces dysuria
C. Integrated temperate phage with nonpurulent discharge
D. Diphthamide C. Infection with T. vaginalis may confer
24. Which of the following is the MOST apparent immunity
common cause of urinary tract infection? D. About 20% of infected males have a
A. Escherichia coli thin white urethral discharge.
B. Proteus mirabilis 31. What is an appropriate statement about
C. Citrobacter Herpes Zoster?
D. Providencia rettgeri A. It is a reactivation of latent
25. Which parasite can produce stools chickenpox virus in sensory ganglia
described as steatorrheic or gruelly? B. It is clinically and pathologically
A. Balantidium coli distinct from chickenpox
B. Entamoeba histolytica C. It is a second episode of infection with
C. Giardia lamblia chickenpox virus
D. Chilomastix mesnili D. It is a mutated form of chickenpox
26. How long in weeks does the clinical illness 32. The incubation period in days of
of primary HSV1 infection manifesting with Salmonelia infections is ______.
fever sore throat vesicular and ulcerative A. 24-28
lesions involving buccal and gingival B. 10-14
mucosa as gingivitis, pharyngitis, tonsillitis C. 15-21
and localized lymphadenopathy? D. 5-7
A. 6-8 33. Which statement may NOT be true of
B. 2-3 neonatal herpes?
C. Less than 1 A. There is no difference in the severity
D. 4-5 of disease whether acquired during
27. Select the MOST common neurologic delivery or post-partum
disorder which occurs in AIDS patient as a B. There is no difference in the nature
late manifestation of the disease. and severity of disease whether
A. Behavioral changes acquired by a premature infant or a
B. Inability to concentrate full term infant
 C. Other sources of infection include although hearing and visual testing has
family members and hospital been within normal limits. The physician
personnel finds the child thin with the “potbelly” of
D. Infection caused by the HSV type 1 malnutrition and orders fecalysis and CBC.
carries a worse prognosis than that CBC reveals microcytic hypochromic
caused by HSV type 2 anemia and the fecal exam detects brown
34. Which statement about rheumatic fever is oval nematode eggs approximately 65
NOT true? microns in size too numerous to count.
A. Rheumatic fever has tendency to be What was the MOST likely means by which
reactivated by recurrent streptococcal the child was infected?
Infections A. Ingestion of larvae
B. Rheumatic fever maybe associated B. Skin penetration by larvae
with cutaneous streptococcal C. Mosquito transmission of sporozoites
infections D. Ingestion of cysts in muscle.
C. Rheumatic fever is the most Situation 1- A 2 year old unimmunized girl
important cause of heart disease in developed high to moderate fever hoarseness and
young people in developing country. a thick gray membrane covering her throat and
D. The more severe streptococcal sore tonsil was noted. There were enlarged cervical
throat is the greater chance of lymph nodes. Diagnosis was diphtheria.
developing rheumatic fever. 41. Which statement is NOT correct regarding
35. Which one of the following parasites is a C. diphtheria?
nematode? A. It is Gram-positive club-shaped rods
A. Enterobius vermicularis with metachromatic granules with
B. Taenia Solium aniline dyes.
C. Echinostoma ilocanum B. One type of colony var gravis of C.
D. Metagonimus yokogawa diphtheria is described as
36. Streptokinase is produced by ______. nonhemolytic and large
A. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Corynebacterium diphtheria are
B. Streptococcus pneumonia spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli
C. Streptococcus faecalis D. It is spread by droplets or by contact
D. Staphylococcus aureus to susceptible individuals
37. The ova that do not float in the saturated 42. Diphtheria is an example of _____.
salt solution is _____. A. Septicemia
A. Hymenolepsis nana B. Toxemia
B. Fertilized A. lumbricoides C. Pyemia
C. Taenia solium D. Bacteremia
D. Ancylostoma duodenale 43. Which statement is TRUE about diphtheria
A. vaccine?
38. Which bacteria has the LOWEST 50 A. The first booster dose of diphtheria
percent infective dose (ID50) vaccine should be given at least 24
A. Campylobacter jejuni months after the last in the primary
B. Shigella sonnel course.
C. Salmonella typhi B. If it has been given as part of a
D. Vibrio-cholerae vaccination following a tetanus prone
39. Genital herpes is MOST commonly caused wound the routine booster is always
by ____. necessary
A. Cytomegalovirus C. There should be 3 years between the
B. Varicella-zoster virus first and second booster doses.
C. Herpes simplex virus 1 D. It is only available in combination with
D. Herpes simplex virus 2 other vaccines
40. At a school nurse’s request a clinic in rural Situation 2 -James 16 year old student was jogging
south South Cotabato sees a 9-year-old around their subdivision when he accidentally
girl who appears listless and inattentive stepped his right foot on a rusted nail along a
construction site. A few days afterwards he developed HIV/AIDS. He had chronic cough and
developed spasticity of his muscles initially starting confirmed to have pulmonary tuberculosis.
on his right foot leg jaw muscles developing into a 47. What is the CARDINAL pathogenic feature
locked jaw. of HIV infection?
44. What is your diagnosis? A. Inactivation of macrophage
A. Myonecrosis B. Depletion of T-lymphocytes
B. Botulism C. Cytolysis of monocytes
C. Tetanus D. Loss of production of neutrophils
D. Strychnine poisoning 48. Which of the following is the BEST
45. The following are the effects of the predictor of the long term clinical
neurotoxin produced by the organism of outcome of HIV infection?
this case. However one of the statements A. Timing of antiviral therapy
below in NOT true. Which one? B. Plasma viral load
A. Toxin causes the release of inhibitory C. CD4 lymphocyte coun
glycine D. Level of antibody
B. Toxin causes blocking of alpha 49. Which is the PREDOMINANT cause of
aminobutyric acid morbidity and mortality among patients
C. Toxin causes blocking of the motor with late-stage HIV infections?
neurons A. Neurologic diseases
D. Toxin digests protein required by B. Opportunistic infections
neurotransmitters C. AIDS-associated cancer
46. Besides the clinical picture and history of D. Pulmonary complications
injury. What diagnostic test can be done? 50. Discover the eggs of Trichuris trichuria in
A. Toxin production and neutralization feces by all of the following EXCEPT _____.
test A. Graham Scotch tape technique
B. Blood culture B. Direct fecal smear
C. Anaerobic culture of contaminated C. Saturated brine flotation method
tissue D. Kato Katz technique
Situation36- A 24 year old male homosexual who
has frequent sex activities with other males

QUESTION ANSWER

Which growth phase are Antibiotics most effective?

Part of cell where genetic material is found

Site of protein synthesis

Part of cell for conjugation/attachment

Part of cell for motility

Stage of bacterial life cycle where it is resistant to heat and harsh

environment

Genes for antibiotic resistance

Extrachromosomal DNA fragments that can replicate independently

DNA transfer from bacterium to bacterium

DNA transfer from virus to another cell

Purified DNA taken up by a cell

Enzyme for Penicillin’s antibiotic resistance?

Beta lactams are antibiotics using what mechanism?

Inhibiting transalation by binding to 30s subunit is MOA of what kind

of antibiotics?

Inhibiting translation by binding to 50s subunit is MOA of what kind of

antibiotics?

Trimetophrim and Sulfa drugs are what kind of antibiotics?

Completely dependent in OXYGEN are

May utilize oxygen if present but can survive in its absence and
majority are

First step in Gram staining method

Which method differentiates gram positives to gram negatives?

Counterstain used in gram staining?

Which component is only present in Gram positive bacteria?

Which component is only present in Gram negative bacteria?

Toxin SECRETED by gram positive bacteria?

Toxin LIBERATED by gram negative bacteria?

Rod-shaped bacteria are called?

Sphere-shaped bacteria are called?

What test differentiates Staphylococcus to Streptococcus?

Streptococcus genus are further classified based on?

Which Staphylococcus species is both Catalase and Coagulase +?

S. Saprophyticus and s. Epidermidis are differentiated by

Optochin sensitive streptococcus

Enterococci belong to streptococcus genus that hemolyse

Bacitracin sensitive Beta hemolytic strep

Cause of strep throat?

MC cause of neonatal meningitis

Rods that are boxcar-shaped, nonmotile, cause of bioterrorism

Rods that are motile and mostly found on reheated fried rice

Spore former gram positive that causes gas-forming disease

Nonspore-former gram positive bacteria that form Chinese characters

under the microscope

What motility does the Listeria possess?

What virulence factor of Staph aureus is associated with white blood

cells?

Exfolaitin toxin of S. aureus is associated with what disease?

Colonies are grape like cluster under the microscope andt golden
colonies on culture?

MCC of prosthetic endocarditis?

S. saprophyticus is mostly associated with what disease?

Bacitracin sensitive Streptococcus?

Virulence factor of Strep that can be used as management of Acute MI

Toxin that causes beta hemolysis, found in Pharyngitis

Drug of choice for Streptococcus infections

Drug of choice for Staph ifections

2 post-pharyngitic diseases

Other name for Group B strep

Strep group that causes Marantic endocarditis

Causes CAP with rust-colored sputum

Strep. pneumoniae capsule is unique due to

Enters bloodstream through dental procedures

Woolsorter’s disease is due to what infectious agent?

Morpholgy of B. anthracis is known as?

B. anthracis capsule has a unique protein called

Anthrax most common cause of death is due to

B. cereus is reistant to Beta lactams

What toxin is taken up the Neuromucular junction to the CNS and
inhibits the inhibitory hormone GABA

What happens when there is inhibition of the inhibitory

neurotransmitters?

What is the etiologic agent?

DOC for tetanus

Mode of transmission of Tetanus

Morphology of C. tetani

Floppy baby syndrome is known as

This toxin inhibits the stimulatory hormone Ach from peripheral nerve

What is the etiologic agent?

What happens when there is inhibition of the stimulatory hormone?

C. botulinum is nonmotile

What scenario will you suspect botulism?

Patient with pain, edema, cellulitis and crepitation is infected with?

What is the disease?

What is the process of the disease?

Enteric pseudomembrane formation is due to what process?

The etiologic agent of this disease is?

Mode of transmission is due to?

Pharynx pseudomembrane formation is due to what etiologic agent?

What other sign would you suspect diphtheria?

The only gram positive with Lipopolysaccharide

Listeria monocytogenes type of motility

Acid fast positive but patient is PPD negative.What etiologic agent will
you suspect?

Actinomyces israelli is commonly associated with what process?

Morphology of Neisseria
What differentiates the two species of Neisseria?

Gram negative rods are further classifed as?

Urease producing, oxidase positive, comma shaped gram negative is?

Causes whooping cough

Helicobacter and Campylobacter grow in what culture media?

What is the virulence factor of Neisseria Meningitides

Neisseria is diagnosed using what selective media?

What structure allows attachment for Neisseria which prevents immune

attack by the host

Prophylaxis for close contacts of patients with meningococcemia

Types of rash seen in patients with meningococcemia

What are the components of Modified Thayer Martin Agar?

Most common cause of Urethritis

Cervical gonorrhea can lead to what major complication?

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome is caused by what sexually transmitted

infectious agent?

Most camnon cause of septic arthiritis in sexually active individuals

What do you call the purulent conjunctivitis in newborns?

What predispose to Neisseria due to inability to form membrane attack

complexes?

What are the requirements of HiB for metabolism?

Test wherein HiB grows where S. aureus colonies grow

Most serious manifestation of HiB infection

X-ray sign in Epiglotitis

Whooping cough is caused by what toxin

Erythromycin is effective in what stage of Pertussis

What is the etiologic agent?

Prevention for this disease

Stage where this disease is very contagious

Bacterium not visible on gram stain but is visualized only with Silver
stain

What do you call the symptomatology of Legionella infection

Lactose fermenter, grows in MacConkey agar, shows green metallic

sheen

What portion of endotoxin causes diarrhea

Flagella is also K antigen

ETEC is also known as

Toxin of E.coli that causes hemorrhagic colitis

Species that has low infective rate therefore highly infectious

Toxin of this infection

DOC of Shigella

What do you call the symptomatology of Shigellosis?

Immunoglulin found in the mucosa

Medium used to detect Shigella and Salmonella

Gold standard to detect Salmonella is Blood culture

Difference between diarrhea of Salmonella and Shigella

What do you call the clinical syndrome of Salmonellosis

Chronic state of typhoid fever has predilection of invasion to

Vibrio cholerae type of diarrhea

Rice-water stool is seen on patients infected with

What species of Vibrio is common to shellfish handlers

Which gastrointestinal infection is associated with Guillain Barre

syndrome?

Triad of reactive arthritis

Urease positive, comma shaped, gram neg bacteria

Therapy for thus disease

Most common in alcoholics, produces currant jelly sputum

Proteus mirabilis is motile

Antiphagocytic mucopolysaccharide formation of pseudomonas

Infection of this agent may produce grape-like odor

Most common ear infection of Pseudomonas

Hemorrhagic skin lesions of pseudomonas

Necrotizing oneumonia of Pseudomonas may have what kind of pattern

Chlamydia trachomatis A-C causes

What types of Chlamydia cause of genital infections?

Buboes from Chlamydia types L1-L3

Pathology of M. tubesrculosis infection

Most important virulent factor of TB

Prevention of this disease

Mode of transmission of TB

Extra-pulmonary TB (not in CNS joints) new case is categorized as

Pukmonary TB lost to follw up is categorized as

Which of the Anti-TB drugs needs to pair with pyridoxine?

You can get M. leprae infection if you have direct contact with
patientn’s skin

Tuberculoid Leprosy treatment

Clinical syndrome of this infection

Only bacterium with no cell wall

Penicillin is the drug of choice

Direct contact of infected urine or animal tissue is the mode of

transmission of this Spirochetes

Dark field microscopy diagnoses the disease

DOC for mild cases

Francisella tularensis causes

Most virulent bacteria and the cause of bubonic plague

Most common bacterial infection from cat or dog’s bite

Causes painful genital ulcer / Chancroid

DOC of rickettsial infections

What is the study of fungi

Dominant fungal membrane sterol

Difference between fungi and bacteria regarding their nucleus

Antifungal that forms leaky pores

Blocks ergosterol synthesis

Tricophyton, epidermophyton, and microsporum are types of

These fungi only affect which part of the body

Body ringworm is caused by

Jock itch is caused by what fungi

Athlete’s foot is also known as

In KOH, you see spaghetti and meatballs appearance what is the

etiologic agent?

Skin hypo/hyperpigmentation is caused by what fungi

Trasmission is dueto rose thorn prick

Most fungi can be cultured in what media

Spherules filled with endospores

Fungal infection that closely mimics PTB

Fungi with broad based bud

Morphology is Mariner’s wheel

Pseudohyphae

Thick cheese curd-like discharge is caused by

Fungi that exists in yeast form only. Opportunistic infection in patients

with AIDS

Sign on brain MRI

Exists only as molds. Septated hyphae in acute angles

Fungus ball in lungs

Nonseptated branching hyphae at right angles fungi are

Unicellular fungi affects AIDS patients

DOC of PCP/PJP

Fungi that penetrates the cribriform plate

How to diagnose Pneumocystis carinii

MC AIDS defining illness

CD4 level that is susceptible with PCP

Mode of transmission