1. The innermost tunic of the wall of blood vessels that consists of B.

Plane joint
endothelium and sub endothelial connective tissue is: C. Saddle joint
A. Adventitia D. Hinge joint
B. Endocardium E. Ellipsoid joint
C. Internal elastic lamina 11. A small round bone that is imbedded within a tendon, whose purpose
D. Intima is to reinforce and decrease stress on the correspondingtendons.
E. Media Such type of a bonesare classified as:
2. .In Osteo-arthritis, which of the following parts of a synovial joint is A. Pneumatic
damaged B. Short
A. Articualr cartilage C. Irregular
B. Bursae related to the joint D. Flat
C. Capsule E. Sesamoid
D. Ligament 12. An anatomist wanted to count the total number of carpal bones in
E. Synovial membrane right as well as left hand of human skeleton. After counting these
3. Which of the following is a primary cartilaginous joint bones he found that the total number of carpal bones in both hands
A. Costochondral joint were:
B. Elbow joint A. Ten in number
C. Interphalyngeal joint B. Twelve in number
D. Joint between radius and ulna shaft C. Sixteenin number
E. Wrist joint D. Twenty in number
4. After fracture we see callus formation of a large size. But the size of E. Fourteen in number
callus decreases during process of fracture healing with time, which is 13. One of the central lymphoid organ in which blood and immune cells
called remodeling of bone. The cells helping in reducing the size of are produced. This central lymphoid organ also helps in maturation of
bone during the process of complete healing are called the: B cells. An example of such a type of lymphoid organ in the body is
A. Lymphocytes the:-
B. Osteoclasts A. Spleen
C. Macrophages B. Lymph node
D. Osteocytes C. Palatine tonsil
E. Osteoblasts D. Bone marrow
5. A 15 years old child had a road traffic accident. The patient were E. Payer’s patches
brought to casualty. On examination the shoulder joint were found 14. Regarding general histology Which one of the following cells is a
normal. The x-rays showed dislocation of one of the ball and socket Resident/(fixed) connective tissue cell
joint in the body. Which of the following joints is most probably A. Plasma cell
dislocated? B. Mast cell
A. Wrist joint C. Fibroblast
B. Ankle joint D. eosinophil
C. Elbow joint E. microglia
D. Hip joint 15. Regarding general histology of nervous system, Bipolar neurons are
E. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb found in which of the following regions
6. A ten year old patient admitted to thoracic surgical ward. The patient A. Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
was having left sided chest pain. The x-rays showed left side pleural B. Cerebellum
effusion. The cheat tube was passed which showed milky fluid C. Cerebral cortex
(chylothorax). This condition could be related to lesion of which of D. Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves
the following structure? E. Olfactory epithelium
A. Esophagus 16. The most abundant component of the tunica media of medium sized
B. Inferior vena cave arteries is
C. Trachea A. Cardiac muscle fibres
D. Thoracic duct B. Collagen fibres
E. Descending Aorta C. Elastic fibres
7. The central artery occlusion causes complete loss of blood supply to D. Smooth muscle
the retina. It causes sudden loss of eyesight in the related eye. This is E. Subendothelial connective tissue
because the central artery of retina is an example of: 17. There are four basic tissues of the human body, basement membrane
A. Thoroughfare channel is a must for:
B. Arteriole A. Epithelial tissue
C. Elastic artery B. Connective tissue
D. End artery C. Muscular tissue
E. Large artery D. Nervous tissue
8. A patient were having the dislocation of right shoulder joint. Which E. Epithelial and connective tissue
were successfully treated by an orthopedic surgeon. After 12 months 18. A teacher in the histology lab, was showing slides to the students, the
the patient were complaining of decrease in deltoid muscle size. Such students identified the slide as transitional epithelium which
a condition of the deltoid muscle is called the: comprised of 5-6 layers of cells. What is the most probable site:
A. Infarction A. Trachea
B. Hyperplasia B. Skin
C. Atrophy C. Tongue
D. Gangrene D. Empty urinary bladder
E. Hypertrophy E. Filled urinary bladder
9. A pathologist received a biopsy from the skin of a patient. After
staining the pathologist found a very thick stratum corneum. Most 19. In a histology lab the examiner noted the following microscopic
probably the biopsy is taken from skin of the: feature of epithelium, in a microscopic slide. He has noted that the
A. Arm or forearm mucosa is lined by the stratified squamous non-keratinized
B. Thigh or Leg epithelium. Which of the following organ could have such type of
C. Head or Face epithelium?
D. Palm or sole A. Stomach
E. Thorax or abdomen B. Alveoli
10. One of the joint in upper limb behave like opening and closing the C. Trachea
door, during flexion and extension of the joint. Regarding types of D. Esophagus
joints such a joint is commonly called the: E. Epidermis
A. Pivot joint
1
20. The glands found throughout the skin but are more numerous in process of formation of the trilaminar embryonic disc. During this
soles, palms, armpits and groin. Each gland has a single duct which process of gastrulation, the epiblast gives rise to formation of:
opens onto the skin surface. These glands mainly secrete water and A. Cytotrophoblasts mainly
electrolytes. On the basis of their structure, such glands are classified B. All three germ layers
as: C. Syncytiotrophoblasts mainly
A. Compound tubular gland D. Early development of placenta
B. Coiled simple tubular gland E. Extra embryonic mesoderm
C. Compound alveolar gland 30. The commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is the:
D. Simple alveolar gland A. Internal os of uterus
E. Simple tubulo-alveolar gland B. Ovarian implantation
21. The site where simple squamous epithelium is located is which of the C. Pouch of Douglas
following options: D. Ampullary region
A. Thyroid gland E. Mesentery of gut
B. Stomach fundus 31. During pregnancy with too little amniotic fluid around the baby
C. Esophagus during pregnancy. The amniotic fluid is essential for normal growth of
D. Endothelium baby. When this fluid is less than normal this condition is called the:
E. Ureter A. Oligohydramnios
22. A 50 years old man have a small lump in the scalp which is not B. Polyhydramnios
painful. Though such a cyst is found anywhere on the body but could C. Hydrocephalus
never be found in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Most D. Hydrops fetalis
likely this cyst is related to which of the following structures? E. Fetal ascites
A. Sweat glands 32. Odontoblasts of teeth gives rise to dentin of teeth. It is derived from
B. Sebaceous gland which of the following Germ layers
C. Apocrine gland
D. Endocrine gland A. Surface ectoderm
E. Dermoid cysts B. Neural tube
23. In which one of the following lymphoid tissues, Lymphocytes do not C. Neural crest
form nodules: D. Lateral plate mesoderm
A. Spleen E. Paraxial mesoderm
B. Lymph node 33. Number of Somite’s are used for age estimation. When number of
C. Thymus somites are 13---17, the approximate age of the embryo would be
D. Tonsils A. 20 days
E. Spleen and Tonsils B. 24 days
24. Which one of the following best describes connective tissue proper: C. 26 days
A. The epidermis of the skin D. 28 days
B. The dermis of the skin E. 30 days
C. The tunica media of a medium sized artery 34. Which of the following is the normal site of implantation of late
D. The alveoli of a lung Blastocyst?
E. The duct of an exocrine gland A. Upper most part of fundus of uterus
25. The tissue formed by a single layer of cells that give the appearance B. Posterior surface of body of uterus
of being made from multiple layers. The nuclei of these epithelial C. Lateral surface of body of uterus
cells are at different levels leading to the illusion of stratification. D. Cervix of uterus
Such epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract. It is most likely E. Intramural / intra-uterine part of the uterine tube
the type of epithelium called the: 35. Once fusion o sperm and oocyte occurs. The cortical granules release
A. Stratified columnar epithelium lysosomal enzymes that alter the cell membrane and the zona
B. Simple columnar epithelium pellucida. So the egg undergoes the cortical and zona reactions to
C. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium prevent:
D. Stratified columnar epithelium A. Acrosome reaction
E. Simple squamous epithelium B. Capacitation
26. Regular physical exercise is essential for maintenance of optimal bone C. Fertilization
constituent in many ways. The exercise benefits bones in such a way D. Polyspermy
that it become more denser and stronger which could be mainly due E. Cleavage
to storage of a lot of phosphate and the: 36. A married woman believed that she was having pregnancy. The
A. Potassium investigations revealed high plasma human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Fats concentrations and placental tissues in uterus, but no evidence of an
C. Calcium embryo. This woman is most likely having the:
D. Protein A. Malignancy
E. Sodium B. Ovarian cyst
27. The kidney-shaped organ having a convex surface that is the entrance C. Hydatidiform mole
site of lymphatic vessels. It also has the hilum, through which arteries D. Polyhydramnios
and nerves enter and veins and lymphatics leave the organ. These are E. Sacrococcygeal teratomas
the typical histological features of which of the following organ?
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Lymph node 37. During development of neural tube. The embryos develop a fold on
D. Tonsils the neural plate where the neural and epidermal ectoderms meet,
E. Appendix called the neural crest. The neural crest cells contribute to
28. It has been observed in human embryos that the cranial neuropore development of many tissues. One of the derivatives of such cells
closes approximately on day 25 and the caudal neuropore on day 27. include the:
Normal close of these neuropore is the requirement for normal A. Adrenal cortex
development of CNS. Failure of the caudal neuropore closure could B. Epidermis of skin
results in the condition called: C. The spinal cord
A. Hydrocephalus D. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Anencephaly E. Retina of eye
C. Spina bifida 38. A doctor detected a large mass near the sacrum of a 28-week female
D. Gastroschisis fetus with help of ultrasound scan. The doctor’s opinion about such a
E. Omphalocele mass was sacrococcygeal teratoma? The tissue it may contain, are
29. During the development of the baby, the bilaminar embryonic disc is derived from?
formed. The gastrulation is initiated during third week which is the A. Hypoblast layer mainly
2
 B. Extra embryonic mesoderm B. Enhancing cellular communication
C. Notochord mainly C. Providing structural support
D. All three germ layers D. Regulating membrane fluidity
E. Ectoderm layer mainly E. Preventing membrane fusion
39. Which of the following medication would you advise the pregnant 50. Although the equilibrium potential of Na+ is + 61 mV, the membrane
women to take which could help in preventing neural tube related potential does not reach this value during the overshoot because of
congenital abnormalities? which of the following?
A. Estrogen A. K+ efflux commences immediately after the upstroke
B. Vitamin A B. Na+ channels undergo rapid inactivation
C. Folic Acid C. The concentration gradient of Na+ is reversed
D. Vitamin B D. The membrane is impermeable to Na+
E. scorbic acid E. K+ channels undergo rapid activation
40. The restoration of the diploid number of chromosomes and initiation 51. Fluid exudation into the tissue in an acute inflammatory reaction is
of cleavage in fertilized ovum, are the important results of most likely due to which of the following?
fertilization. What other result of fertilization do you know? A. decreased blood pressure
A. Degeneration of corpus luteum B. decreased protein in the interstitium
B. Initiation of menstrual phase C. increased clotting factors
C. Initiation of reduction division D. increased vascular permeability
D. Formation of 1st polar body E. obstruction of the lymph vessels
E. Determination of sex of baby 52. Which of the following structure in cell is known as the ultimate unit
41. Primordial germ cells are derived from of heredity?
A. Wall of yolk sac A. centorosome
B. Epiblast cells B. histones
C. Hypoblast C. genes
D. Mesoderm D. nucleoside
E. Endoderm E. telomers
42. Notochord formation is one of the important events during 53. A patient presents to your clinic complaining of extreme fatigue and
development. Its fate is which of the following option: shortness of breath on exertion that has gradually worsened during
A. Whole of the vertebral column the past 2 weeks. Physical examination reveals a well-nourished
B. Thoracic and lumber region of vertebral column woman who appears comfortable but somewhat short of breath. Her
C. Lumbo-sacral region of vertebral column vital signs include a pulse of 120, a respiratory rate of 20, and blood
D. Peripheral part of the intervertebral disc pressure of 120/70. When she stands up, her pulse increases to 150
E. Nucleus pulpous of intervertebral disc and her blood pressure falls to 80/50. Her hematologic values are as
43. Which of the following cell organelles is called a suicidal bag? follows: Hb, 7 g/dl; Hct, 20%; RBC count, 2 × 106/μl; and platelet
A. Cell membrane count, 400,000/μl. On a peripheral smear, her RBCs are microcytic
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum and hypochromic. What is your diagnosis?
C. Golgi bodies A. Aplastic anemia
D. Lysosomes B. Renal failure
E. Mitochondria C. Iron deficiency anemia
44. A 5 years old boy presented with muscular weakness and paralysis D. Sickle cell anemia
and was diagnosed as case of poliomyelitis. Which of the following E. Megaloblastic anemia
serve as pathway for movement of infectious agent? 54. What RBC enzyme facilitates transport of carbon dioxide (CO2)?
A. Axonal transportc. A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Symport B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Passive transport C. Superoxide dismutase
D. Reverse axonal transport D. Globin reductase
E. Antiport E. Catalase
45. The most important characteristic of a water insoluble substances 55. How many oxygen atoms can be transported by each hemoglobin
governing its diffusivity across cell membrane is molecule?
its: A. 2
A. Electrical charge B. 4
B. Hydrated diameter C. 8
C. Lipid solubility D. 16
D. Molecular weight E. 32
E. Three dimensional shape 56. During the second trimester of pregnancy, where is the predominant
46. Which of the following cytochrome enzyme is involved in intrinsic site of RBC production?
pathway of apoptosis? A. Yolk sac
A. a B. Bone marrow
B. b C. Lymph nodes
C. c D. Liver
D. d E. Kidney
E. e
47. In excitable cells, repolarization is most closely associated with which 57. What function do vitamin B12 and folic acid perform that is critical to
of the following events? hematopoiesis?
A. Na+ efflux A. Support porphyrin production
B. Na+ influx B. Serve as cofactors for iron uptake
C. K+ efflux C. Support terminal differentiation of erythroid and myeloid cells
D. K+ influx D. Support production of thymidine triphosphate
E. Ca++ efflux E. Suppress hematopoiesis
48. 9. The net driving force is greatest for which of the following ions
when the resting membrane potential of the large nerve fiber is −90 58. A 58-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and
millivolts? chest pains. Physical examination reveals a red complexion and a
A. K+ leak channels large spleen. His complete blood cell count (CBC) is as follows: Hct,
B. L type Ca++ channels 58%; WBC, 13,300/μl; and platelets, 600,000/μl. His arterial oxygen
C. Na+ leak channels saturation is 97% on room air. Which treatment would you
D. Slow Na+-Ca++channels recommend?
E. Voltage gated K+ channels A. Chemotherapy
49. What is the main function of cholesterol in the cell membrane? B. Phlebotomy
A. Facilitating cell division C. Iron supplement
3
 D. Inhaled oxygen therapy E. Sclerosis
E. He is fine, does not need any treatment 68. A 38 year old woman reports to opd with complaints of headache and
vertigo. A blood complete picture reveals raised RBC count and
59. After a person is placed in an atmosphere with low oxygen, how long hematocrit of 55%. She is diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which
does it take for increased numbers of reticulocytes to develop? of the following will be raised in this patient?
A. 6 hours A. Mean blood pressure
B. 12 hours B. Central venous pressure
C. 3 days C. Capillary blood flow
D. 5 days D. Radius of capacitance vessels
E. 2 weeks E. diameter of left ventricle
69. Platelet aggregation is stimulated by which of the following?
60. What immunologic signal causes mast cells to release their granular A. thromboxane A2
contents (e.g., heparin, histamine, bradykinin, serotonin, and B. fibrinogen
leukotrienes)? C. ADP
A. Release of interleukin-1 (IL-1) by macrophages D. Thrombin
B. Cross-linking of cell surface–bound immunoglobulin E (IgE) by E. PDRF
antigen 70. A 20-year-old boy reported in opd with complaints of runny nose and
C. Binding of antigen-antibody complexes to immunoglobulin G congestion, itchy and wheezing. He has history of similar symptoms
(IgG) receptors occurring in spring season each year. Serum levels of which of the
D. Binding of tissue factor to surface glycoproteins following antibodies is expected to be raised in this patient?
E. Release of interleukin-18 (IL-18) by macrophages A. IgG
61. Babies fed on breast milk have less chances of infection because it B. IgA
provides them which of the following? C. IgM
A. Active immunity D. IgE
B. Immune tolerance E. IgD
C. Innate immunity 71. Periodic phlebotomy (reduction in hematocrit) is advised to patient of
D. Passive immunity polycythemia vera to achieve which of the following?
E. Cell mediated immunity A. Decrease in cardiac output
62. On repeated exposure to poison ivy, the affected part of the dermis is B. Decrease in venous return
invaded by which of the following? C. Increased arterial oxygen saturation
A. Helper T cells D. Reduction in blood velocity
B. Histiocytes E. Reduction in blood viscosity
C. Macrophages
D. Suppressor T cells 72. A 67-year-old woman with a history of venous thromboembolism is
E. Plasma cells placed on warfarin(Coumadin) [prophylactically. The blood
concentration of Coumadin becomes high and bleeding occurs. The
63. A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2- bleeding can be treated by administration of which of the following?
week history of diarrhea that has gotten progressively worse during A. Fibrinogen
the past several days. He has minimal urine output and is admitted to B. Protein C
the hospital for dehydration. His stool specimen is positive for C. Vitamin K
parasitic eggs. Which type of WBC would have an elevated number? D. Platelets
A. B lymphocytes E. Protein S
B. Eosinophil 73. 21. A 52-year-old man is brought to emergency department with
C. Monocytes severe left sided chest pain. Angiography revealed severe coronary
D. Neutrophils occlusion. A thrombolytic agent is administered to establish
E. T lymphocytes reperfusion by activating which of the following?
64. Synthesis of hemoglobin begins in which stage of Erythropoiesis? A. Heparin
A. Basophil erythroblast B. Plasminogen
B. Orthochromatic erythroblast. C. Thrombin
C. Polychromatophil erythroblast. D. Kininogen
D. Proerythroblast. E. Nitrates
E. Reticulocytes 74. Bleeding time will be prolonged in a person who has which of the
following?
65. A 26 year old man comes to the emergency department of JTH after A. Anemia
the onset of severe back and chest pain which started when he was B. Vitamin K deficiency
climbing up a mountain. He had an episode of same symptoms five C. Thrombocytopenia
years ago. His values are D. Hemophilia A
Hb: 11g/dL, TLC: 12,000/mm3, Reticulocyte count: 25%. E. Hemophilia B
What is the diagnosis of this patient? 75. Which of the following cell organelles does not contain DNA?
A. Nucleus
A. Acute blood loss B. Lysosomes
B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Chloroplast
C. Chronic blood loss D. Mitochondria
D. Nutritional anemia E. All are correct
E. Sickle cell anemia 76. Which of the following statements is true about cell theory?
A. The Cell theory does not apply to fungi
66. Serum differs from blood because it lacks which of the following? B. The Cell theory does not apply to virus
A. Antibodies C. The Cell theory does not apply to algae
B. Albumins D. The Cell theory does not apply to microbes
C. Clotting factors E. None is correct
D. Globulin 77. Inside the cell, which structure is a jellylike substance found floating
E. Electrolytes inside the plasma membrane.
67. An abnormally high number of red blood cells in the blood, as a A. Cell sap
primary disease or secondary condition (usually associated with lung B. Cytoplasm
or heart disease or living at high altitude) is known as the C. Karyoplasm
A. Polycythemia D. Mitochondria
B. Thrombocytopenia E. b and c are correct
C. Anemia 78. Which of the following cell organelles is called a suicidal bag?
D. Carcinoma A. Lysosomes
4
 B. Golgi bodies A. Basophils
C. Cell membrane B. Neutrophils
D. Mitochondria C. Monocytes
E. All are correct D. Eosinophils
79. Which of the following cell organelles is involved in the storage of E. All are correct
food, and other nutrients, required for a cell to survive? 92. Which of the following is not required for clot formation?
A. Vacuoles A. Vitamin K
B. Lysosome B. Calcium
C. Mitochondria C. Plasmin
D. Cell membrane D. Fibrinogen
E. Only d E. Both a and d
80. Animal cells are interconnected by: 93. What happens to the iron (Fe) that is released during the breakdown
A. Desmosomes. of damaged RBCs?
B. Cell wall. A. It is used to synthesize proteins
C. Plasmodesmata. B. It is transported to the liver where it becomes part of the bile
D. Plasma membrane. C. It is converted into urobilin and excreted in urine
E. Options a and b are the correct answers D. It attaches to transferrin and is transported to bone marrow for
81. The rRNA is synthesized by: use in hemoglobin synthesis
A. Golgi body E. Only option a
B. Nucleus 94. Which of the following would not cause an increase in
C. Nucleolus erythropoietin?
D. Cytoplasm A. Anaemia
E. All are correct B. High altitude
82. Which of the following is known as mitoplast? C. Polycythaemia
A. Mitochondria without outer membrane D. Haemorrhage
B. Another name for mitochondria E. None is correct
C. Mitochondria without membranes 95. Which of the following immunity is obtained during a lifetime?
D. Mitochondria without inner membrane A. Acquired immunity
E. None is correct B. Active immunity
83. Sodium and potassium pumps are examples of: C. Passive immunity
A. Plasmolysis D. None of the above.
B. Active transport E. Only b
C. Passive transport 96. Which of the following cells is involved in cell-mediated immunity?
D. Osmosis A. Leukaemia
E. c and d only B. T cells
84. The histone octamer contains: C. Mast cells
A. 5 types of histones D. Thrombocytes
B. 6 types of histones E. All are correct except (b)
C. 8 types of histones 97. Which of the following statements is true about the IgM of humans?
D. 8 histones of four different types A. IgM can cross the placenta
E. a only B. IgM can protect the mucosal surface
85. An organelle that mainly serves as a packaging area for molecules C. IgM is produced by high-affinity plasma cells
that are distributed across the cell and are called ____? D. IgM is primarily restricted in the circulation
A. Golgi apparatus E. Both a and d
B. Mitochondria 98. Which of the following cells of the immune system do not perform
C. Plastids phagocytosis?
D. Vacuole A. Macrophage
E. All are wrong B. Neutrophil
86. Which of the following is used by cells to interact with other cells? C. Eosinophil
A. Cell tubules D. Basophil
B. Cell junctions E. All are correct except (d)
C. Cell adhesions
D. Cell detectors 99. The basic Ig unit is composed of:
E. a, b, c are correct A. 2 identical heavy and 2 identical light chains.
87. Erythrocyte glucose transporter is an example of: B. 2 identical heavy and 2 different light chains.
A. Ion driven active transport C. 2 different heavy and 2 identical light chains.
B. Facilitated diffusion D. 2 different heavy and 2 different light chains.
C. Active transport E. Non-covalently bound polypeptide chains.
D. Simple diffusion 100. The specificity of an antibody is due to:
E. None is incorrect A. Its valence
88. Na+ glucose transporter is an example of ____________ B. The heavy chains
A. Symport C. The Fc portion of the molecule
B. Antiport D. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
C. Facilitated diffusion E. All are correct are wrong options
D. ATP driven active transport 101. . What is the first response of arterioles to injury;
E. Both a and c A. Vasoconstriction
89. Serum differs from blood as it lacks B. Vasodilation
A. antibodies C. Redness
B. clotting factors D. Edema
C. albumins E. Hyperemia
D. globulins 102. Macrophages are derived from;
E. None is correct, A. T-Cell
90. This plasma protein is responsible for blood coagulation B. B-Cell
A. Fibrinogen C. Monocyte
B. Globulin D. Plasma cell
C. Serum amylase E. Eosinophil
D. Albumin 103. Predominant cells in acutely inflamed tissue are;
E. Both a and d A. Lymphocytes
91. Which WBCs release heparin and histamine B. Macrophages
5
 C. Neutrophils 115. An HIV-AIDS patient has visited his general physician in his clinic. The
D. Giant cells maximum risk of doctor to be infected with HIV/AIDS is during
E. Fibroblasts A. Examining the patient
104. Redness & warmth is seen in inflammation is caused by: B. Giving the injection
A. Increased filtration of fluid (transudate) C. Giving the intravenous fluid
B. excessive extra vascular fluid accumulation D. Handling the biopsy material
C. increased vascular blood flow E. Recapping the used needle on syringe
D. Leukocytic migration & rolling 116. In year 2018, tenth vaccine was added in expanded program of
E. Leukocytic adhesion & transmigration. immunization for the children of Pakistan. This particular vaccine is:
105. A ten year old boy presented with high grade fever & generalized A. Chicken pox vaccine
body aches & pain. Blood complete examination shows, Hb 12.2 B. Cholera vaccine
gms/L, WBC 2.6 x109/L with predominant lymphocytes& platelet C. Influenza vaccine
count 250x109/L. D. Pneumococcal vaccine
The most probable explanation for these findings is; E. Rota virus vaccine
A. Leukopenia 117. Research objectives are concrete statements describing what the
B. Leukocytosis research study is trying to achieve. Which among the following is not
C. Thrombocytopenia a characteristic of a research objective?
D. Thrombocytosis A. Achievable
E. Leukemia B. Correlational Research
106. A 20 years old female presented with high grade fever & chest C. Rationale
infection. CBC shows Hb 12.8 g/L, WBC 19.5x109/Lwith predominant D. Specific
neutrophil & platelet count 320 x 109/L.. the most probable E. Time-bound
explanation for these findings is; 118. Research can be classified into two broad types. One of which deals
A. Leukemia with the collection of data using conversational methods, usually
B. Leukocytosis open-ended questions. The responses collected are essentially non-
C. Leukopenia numerical. This method helps a researcher understand what
D. Thrombocytosis participants think and why they think in a particular way. Which
E. Thrombocytopenia among the following best describes this type of research?
107. Determination of blood group is important aspect in medico legal A. Analytical Research
cases. What are the main aspect of determing blood group in a B. Correlational Research
medicolegal case. C. Experimental Research
A. Inheritant claims D. Qualitative Research
B. Disputed paternity and maternity E. Quantitative Research
C. Maintance of illegal child 119. A doctor advised a 40 year old woman to have mammography each
D. Blackmailing when child is born out in unlawful mean year. this advice refers to:
108. An 18 years college girl is diagnosed as a case of microcytic A. Primordial prevention
hypochromic anaemia. Which of the following drugs should be B. Primary prevention
included in her prescription. C. Secondary prevention
A. Vit.D D. Tertiary prevention
B. Vit.C E. Health protection
C. Vit.B12 120. A literature review is an important constituent of the research. Why
D. Vit.B6 do you need to review the existing literature in the first place?
E. Iron A. To help reach a conclusion
109. . The receptor for the Corticosteroids is situated in which part of the B. To help in your general studying
cell C. To make sure you have a long list of references
A. Cell membrane D. To find out what is already known about your area of interest
B. Cytoplasm E. Because without it, you could never reach the required word-
C. Nucleus count
D. Trans-cellular
E. Mitochondria
110. The declaration of Helsinki is primarily addressed to
A. Patients
B. Physicians
C. Para medics
D. Nurses
111. Emotional intelligence is characterized by
A. Proficient problem solving
B. Better interpersonal relationship
C. High abstract thinking ability
D. Good sense of humour
112. FINER criteria used for developing good research question can be
best described as
A. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant
B. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Reliable
C. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Efficient, Relevant
D. Feasible, Impressive, Novel, Ethical, Relevant
113. Boolean operators includes all the following except
A. And
B. Or
C. Not
D. The
114. What is a PDP?
A. Personal development plan
B. People development plan
C. Personal development payment
D. Personnel development plan
E. In behavioral science the Bio-psycho-social and social issues of
patients