THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER III – MICROBIOLOGY – I

Q.P. Code: 526065

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Phase contrast microscopy is useful for studying

a. Microbial motility b. Determining the shape of living cells
c. Detecting bacterial components such as endospores and inclusion bodies
d. All of the above

2. Bacterial capsule can be demonstrated by

a. Gram staining b. Acid fast staining
c. Negative staining d. Albert staining

3. All of the following antimicrobial agents act on cell membrane, except:

a. Gramicidin b. Daptomycin c. Polymyxins d. Vancomycin

4. Fungi which do not have sexual stage:

a. Zygomycota b. Ascomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Fungi imperfecti

5. Weil-felix reaction is a serological test based on

a. Heterophile antigen b. Sheep brain antigen
c. Superantigen d. T-cell dependant antigen

6. A positive tuberculin test is an example of

a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity

7. Lens antigens of the eye are a type of

a. Sequestered antigens b. Neoantigens
c. Cross reacting antigens d. None of the above

8. Grafts between two genetically non-identical member of the same species

are known as
a. autografts b. Isografts c. Allograft d. Xenograft
9. All of the following vaccines are given at birth, except
a. BCG b. Hepatitis B c. DPT d. OPV

10. Which is not an ESKAPE pathogen?

a. Enterococcus faecium b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Klebsiella pneumonia d. Proteus mirabilis

11. All the following are device-associated infections except

a. CAUTI (Catheter-Related Urinary Tract Infections)
b. CLABSI (Central line associated blood stream infections)
c. VAP (Ventilator associated pneumonia)
d. SSI (Surgical site infections)

12. Endoscope is sterilized by:

a. Glutaraldehyde b. Formaldehyde
c. Autoclaving d. Hot air oven

13. Which of the following is used for disinfection of blood spillage area?
a. Phenol b. Hypochlorite c. Lysol d. Formaldehyde

14. All are potentially highly infectious specimen for occupational injury except
a. Blood b. Semen c. CSF d. Saliva

15. Staphylococcus aureus is differentiated from CoNS by all except

a. Coagulase test b. DNase test c. Catalase test d. Protein A detection

16. CAMP test is useful in identification of

a. S. pyogenes b. S. agalactiae c. S. pneumoniae d. Viridans streptococci

17. “Malignant pustule” is a term used for

a. An infected malignant melanoma b. A carbuncle
c. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer d. Anthrax of the skin

18. Bipolar staining is characteristic of

a. Yersinia pestis b. Shigella c. Klebsiella d. Proteus

19. Epstein- Barr virus is associated with the following malignancies except
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Carcinoma of cervix d. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

20. Otomycosis is caused by all except

a. Aspergillus niger b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Candida albicans d. Fusarium
*****
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR- SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER III – MICROBIOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526065
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The following scientist was awarded Nobel prize for Polymerase chain Reaction
technique
a) Karry B Mullis b) Barbara Mc Clintock c) Ernst Ruska d) Robert Koch

2. Testing methods of Antimicrobial sensitivity for bacteria are the following except
a) Disk diffusion method b) Broth dilution method
c) Chemical method d) Molecular method

3. Example for Thermophilic bacteria (550C-800C)

a) Escherichia coli b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Geobacillus stearothermophilus d) Clostridium species

4. In VITEK 2 automated system, Anti microbial Susceptibility Test

can be performed for
a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) a&b d) Parasite

5. Which of the following is correct statement regarding the shape of the virus
a) Rota virus- wheel shape b) Tobacco mosaic virus- Filamentous shape
c) Ebola virus- Rod shape d) Adeno virus- Brick shape

6. All of the following diseases are transmitted by droplet particles except

a) Mycoplasma pneumionae b) Rubella
c) Hemophillus influenza d) Chlamydia trachomatis

7. The number of amino acids in variable region of Antibody is

a) 110 b) 50 c) 200 d)170

8. Heriditary angioneurotic edema is due to the deficiency of

a) Complement C1&C2 b) Complement C5-C9
c) C1 esterase inhibitor d) Properdin
… 2 …
 … 2 …

9. Mature Helper T cells is

a) CD4- CD8+ b) CD4+ CD8+ c) CD4- CD- d) CD4+ CD8-

10. The Mcfarland standard of 0.5 is equalent to

a) 1.5 x 105 CFU/ml of bacteria b) 1.25 x 107 CFU /ml of bacteria
c) 1.5 x 103 CFU /ml of bacteria d) 1.5 x 108 CFU /ml of bacteria

11. In Transplanation,Acute Graft Rejection occur with in

a) Minutes to hours b) Days to week
c) After 1 month d) None of the above

12. Sterlization control for Ethylene Oxide (ETO) Sterlizer

a) Geobacillus stearothermophillus b) Bacillus stearothermophilus
c) Brevundimonas diminuta d) Bacillus atrophaeus

13. Majocchi granuloma is produced by

a) Tinea versicolor b) Tinea capitis c) Candida albicans d) Fusarium

14. Nagler’s reaction in Clostridium perfringens infection is to demonstrate

a) Alpha toxin b) Beta toxin c) Gamma toxin d) Neuraminidase

15. Guinea worm disease is caused by

a) Schistosoma haemotobium b) Ancylostoma duodenale
c) Trichinella spiralis d) Drancunculus medinensis

16. River blindness is caused by

a) Taenia solium b)Onchocerca volvulus
c) Loa Loa d) Toxocara canis

17. Owl’s eye inclusions are seen in the following viral infection
a) Measles b) Rubella c) Herpes simplex d) Cytomegalo virus

18. Non immune Hydrops fetalis is caused by

a) Cytomegalo virus b) Parvo virus
c) Congenital syphilis d) Zika virus

19. The culture media used for the isolation of Leishmania is

a) Non nutrient Agar b) Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle
c) Diamonds Medium d) Boeck and drbohlav egg serum medium

20. Vaccines can be prepared from

a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin c) Both a&b d) Cytotoxin.

*****
[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER III – MICROBIOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526065
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Who discovered the acid fast nature of tubercle bacilli

A) Robert Koch B) Edward Jenner C) Joseph Lister D) Paul Ehrlich

2. The Endotoxic activity of Gram Negative Bacteria is due to

A) Lipid A B) O side chain C) Core polysaccharide D) Teichoic acid

3. Example for obligate aerobes

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Lactobacillus D) Helicobacter pylori

4. Testing methods of Antimicrobial sensitivity for bacteria are the following except
A) Disk diffusion method B) Broth dilution method
C) Chemical method D) Molecular method

5. Endemic syphilis is caused by

A)Treponema pallidum B) Treponema endemicum
C)Treponema carateum D) Treponema pertenue

6. Epidemiological indicator for the infectious disease are the following except
A) Vector indicator B) Morbidity indicator
C) Mortality indicator D) Overall attack rate

7. For potent immunogen, the molecular weight of the antigen must be

A) >100 dalton B) >500 dalton C) > 1000 dalton D) >10,000 dalton

8. The First step in alternative pathway of complement start from

A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C4

9. The T cell rich area in spleen is

A) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) B) Red Pulp
C) Marginal zone D) Germinal centre
… 2 …
 … 2 …

10. Arthus Reaction is due to

A) Immune complex formation B) Complement Deficiency
C) Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity D) Auto antibody mediated

11. Nezelof Syndrome is due to the deficiency of

A) T Cells B) B Cells C) Combined T and B cells D) Phagocytosis

12. Early onset Ventilator Associated Pneumonia occurs

A) 2 days after mechanical ventilation B) 4 days after mechanical ventilation
C) one week after mechanical ventilation D) > 1week after mechanical ventilation

13. Post Exposure Prophylaxis is not needed for Needle Stick Injury in the following
cases except
A) Source unknown, if HIV prevalence is low
B) If exposure with Exposure code-1 and HIV status code-1
C) Exposure with Intact skin
D) Splashes to mucus membrane for 10 minutes

14. Flesh eating bacteria

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Group A streptococcus D) Bacteroids

15. Diffuse cutanaeous leishmaniasis (DCL) is caused by

A) Leishmania donovani B) Leishmania tropica
C) Leishmania braziliensis D) Leishmania aethiopica

16. Microconidia is abundant in the following dermotophytes

A) Trichophyton B) Microspores C) Epidermophyton D) all of the above

17. Otitis Externa Hemorrhagica is caused by

A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Parasites D) Fungus

18. The following microorganism are associated with malignancy except

A) Fasciola buski B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Aspergillus flavus D) Schistosoma haematobium

19. The following viruses causes zoonotic infection except

A) Japanese encephalitis B) Yellow fever
C) Chikungunya D) Hepatitis B virus

20. Congenital Toxoplasmosis is common (about 65%) in the following trimester of

pregnancy
A) First Trimester B) Second Trimester
C) Third Trimester D) All of the above
*****
[MBBS 0223]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR - (CBME)
PAPER V – MICROBIOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526065
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Which is used in digestion and decontamination of sputum in smear preparation

A) NaOH B) KOH C) NaCl D) N-acetyl-cysteine

2. The process of destroying all microbes including spores is called

A) Disinfection B) Antisepsis C) Disinfestation D) Sterilization

3. All are true about bacteriophage except

A) Can transmit toxin to bacteria
B) Bacteria which transmits DNA to another bacteria
C) Causes transformation of bacteria
D) Is a virus which invades bacteria

4. Jumping genes is
A) Transposon B) Episome C) Cosmid D) Plasmid

5. Toxic shock syndrome is due to

A) Septic abortion B) Forgotton tampons
C) IUCD D) Pelvic examination
6. The commonest organism causing cellulitis is
A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus faecalis
C) Streptococcus viridans D) Treponema pallidum

7. Boxcar appearance is seen in

A) Clostridium perfringens B) Streptococci
C) Toxoplasma D) Treponema pallidum

8. Which of the following is the most predominant constituent of sulphur granules of

Actinomycosis
A) Organisms B) Neutrophils and monocytes
C) Monocytes and lymphocytes D) Eosinophil

9. A person 6 hour after consuming rice pudding in restaurant develops vomiting.

True statement regarding food poisoning
A) Caused by Staphylococcus aureus B) Preformed toxin
C) Caused by Vibrio parahaemolyticus D) Heat labile toxin
… 2 …
 … 2 …
10. The causative agent of Favus is
A) Microsporum audonii B) Microsporum canis
C) Trichophyton mentagrophyte D) Trichophyton schoenleinii

11. Which complement component is involved in both classical and alternate pathway?
A) C1 B) C2 c) C3 d) All

12. DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by all except

A) Congenital thymic hypoplasia
B) Abnormal development of third and fourth pouches
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Hypocalcemic tetany

13. Which is not a heterophile agglutination test?

A) Weil-Felix test B) Widal test C) Paul-Bunnel test D) Streptococcus MG

14. Disorders of Phagocytosis are all, except

A) Job’s syndrome B) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C) Myeloperoxidase deficiency D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

15. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright Geimsa stain tiny
organisms of 2 microns within macrophages seen. What is the causative organisms?
A) LGV B) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C) Neisseria D) Staphylococcus aureus

16. A patient with history of discharge from right ear for past 1 year presented with severe
ear ache. The discharge was cultured and the organism was found to be gram positive
cocci. The least likely cause is
A) Pseudomonas B) Streptococcus pneumonia
C) Staphylococcus D) Haemophilus influenza

17. With reference to antibiotic resistance, all the following statements are true except
A) The most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by bacteria
B) Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transferred vertically
C) Complete elimination of target is the mechanism by which enterococci develop
resistance to vancomycin
D) Alteration of target lesions leads to development of resistance in pneumococci

18. Real time PCR is used for

A) Multiplication of RNA B) Multiplication of specific segment of DNA
C) Multiplication of Proteins D) To know how much amplification of DNA has occured

19. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram-negative organism

A) Clostridium Welchii B) Clostridium tetani
C) Bacillus cereus D) Proteus mirabilis

20. True about Madura foot?

A) Can erode bones B) Spread to lymph nodes
C) Most commonly occur in hand D) Antibiotic has no role.
*********
[MBBS 0723]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR- (CBME)
PAPER I – MICROBIOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526065
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Role of bacterial capsule.

A) Support B) Transport C) Antiphagocytic D) Adhesion

2. Reflected light is used in

A) Light microscope B) Electron Microscope
C) Phase Contrast Microscope D) Dark field Microscope

3. Savlon contains
A) Cetrimide plus chlorhexidine B) Cetrimide plus Butyl alcohol
C) Cetrimide plus Chlorhexidine and Butyl alcohol D) Cetrimide plus cetavlon

4. Popper and Landsteiner are associated with

A) Polio virus B) Hepatitis B virus C) Corona virus D) Monkey pox virus

5. Thermus acquaticus plant is used to prepare

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase
C) Restriction endonuclease D) Primers

6. Highly sensitive CRP (HSCRP) is useful in assessing

A) Risk of cardiovascular diseases B) Sepsis
C) Renal threshold D) Liver failure

7. Innate immunity is active against which viral cells

A) Cytotoxin cells B) Memory cells C) NK cells D) B cell

8. Heat labile antibody is

A) IgM B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG

9. Best diagnostic marker for Rheumatird arthritis is

A) C-Reactive protein B) Anticitrullinated antibody
C) Anti reptolysin D) Rapid Plasma Reagin

10. Obligate intracellular organism

A) Chlamydia B) Mycoplasma C) Cryptococcus D) Helicobacteria
… 2 …
 … 2 …

11. Vaccination is based on the principle of

A) Clonal reduction B) Antigen diversity
C) Clonal detection D) Immunological memory

12. Which is false about Spaulding classification

A) Non critical items also included in classification
B) Semi critical items contact with mucous membrane
C) Semi critical items needs low disinfectant
D) Cardiac catheter is an example of critical items

13. Complement formed in the liver

A) C2C4 B) C3C6C9 C) C5C8 D) C1

14. Skin transplant done from sister to brother was successful. After a few years skin
transplant done from brother to sister was rejected. What is this phenomenon
A) Schwartzman Reaction B) Theobald smith Phenomenon
C) Eichwald Silmser effect D) Schultz dale phenomenon

15. Boiling of milk is an example for

A) Concurrent disinfection B) Precurrent disinfection
C) Terminal disinfection D) Disinfection policy

16. Which of the following acts as opsonin

A) C5a B) C3a C) C3b D) LTb4

17. Disorders of phagocytosis are all except

A) Jobs syndrome B) Chediak Hegashi syndrome
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D) Myeloperoxidase deficiency

18. Which of the following is disposed in Red-bag

A) Sharps B) Cytotoxic waste
C) Plastic soiled waste D) Non-Plastic soiled waste

19. In postoperative intensive care unit five patients developed post operative wound
infection. The best method to prevent cross infection is
A) Give antibiotics to the other patients in the ward
B) Fumigate the ward
C) Disinfect the ward
D) Practice proper hand washing

20. Role played by MHC-I & II

A) Stimulates interferons production
B) Immunoglobulin class switch over
C) Presenting the antigen for recognition by T-cell receptor
D) Activation of complement
*********
[MBBS 0224]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6065
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER I – MICROBIOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526065
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Sex Pili is a type of

A) Exoflagellam B) Fimbriae C) Endoflagellum D) All the above

2. The following bacteria is example for microaerophilic bacteria

A) Campylobacter species B) Pseudomonas species
C) Haemophilus species D) Clostridium species

3. Which of the following is the example for enrichment media

A) Blood Agar B) Tetrathionate broth
C) Loeffler’s serum slope D) Potassium tellurite medium

4. The following are the typing method of bacteria except

A) Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis (PFGE) B) Ribotyping
C) Bacteriocin typing D) Fimbrial typing

5. Usage of combination antibiotic will overcome the following antibiotic resistance

A) Intrinsic antibiotic resistant B) Mutational Drug Resistance
C) Transferable Drug Resistance D) Both B and C

6. The following are intranuclear inclusion bodies except

A) Rabies virus B) Adeno virus C) Herpes simplex virus D) Polio virus

7. The cercarial larval form is seen in the life cycle of

A) Protozoa B) Trematode C) Nematode D) Cestode

8. The following are the example for direct hemagglutination test except
A) Paul bunnell test B) Coagglutination
C) Cold agglutination test D) Antiglobulin test

… 2 …
 … 2 …
9. The following is not the types of Healthcare Associated infection
A) PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)
B) SSI (Surgical Site Infection)
C) CLABSI (Central line-Associated Blood Stream Infection)
D) VAP (Ventilator Associated Pneumonia)

10. The biological indicator used in Autoclave is the spores of

A) Geobacillus stearothermophillus B) Clostridium difficile
C) Bacillus cereus D) Bacillus atrophaeus

11. The following agents are causing bacterial arthritis except

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus
C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Bacteroides

12. Hand foot and mouth disease (HFM) is caused by

A) Herpes simplex virus B) Measles virus C) Rubella virus D) Coxsackie virus

13. The following opportunistic fungus causes skin and soft tissue infection
A) Penicillium marneffei B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Aspergillus species D) Histoplasma capsulatum

14. Occular Fungal infection is caused by

A) Zygomycetes B) Coccidiodoses C) Fusarium D) A and C

15. The manifestation of Congenital Rubella syndrome include the following except
A) Retionopathy B) Tremor C) Patent ducuts arteriosus D) Deafness

16. Malignancies associated with Epstein-Barr virus are the following:

A) Hodgkin’s lymphoma B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C) Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma D) All of the above

17. The following parasite causes Zoonotic infection

A) Leishmania B) Trypanosoma C) Schistosoma D) Dracunculus

18. Tularaemia is caused by

A) Borrelia vincentii B) Coxiella burnetti
C) Burkholderia cepacia D) Franscisella tularensis

19. The following is the example for Low-level disinfectant

A) Chlorohexidine gluconate (CHG) B) Alcohol
C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Phenolic disinfectant

20. In Transplantation, Chronic graft rejection occurs at

A) Within minutes to hours B) After one week
C) After two week D) After one month

*********
[MBBS 0524]