PRESTIGIOUS

3RD SELF ASSESSMENT

[ MOCK TEST ]

PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 1 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25

 PRESTIGIOUS PHASE 3 MEGA TEST
Held on 10th Sep 4. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25 the role of calcium in muscle contraction?
A) Calcium is stored in the sarcoplasmic
BIOLOGY reticulum and released after ATP binds t myosin.
B) Calcium directly hydrolyzes ATP to provide
1. Which of the following is a major energy for the contraction.
complication of pancreatic malfunction? C) Calcium binds to troponin, causing
A) Hypothyroidism tropomyosin to move and expose actin-binding
B) Addison’s disease sites.
C) Diabetes mellitus D) Calcium binds to myosin, allowing it to form
D) Cushing's syndrome cross-bridges with actin.

2. Match the following 5. Which of the following best explains why

homologous structures are evidence of
common ancestry?
A) They appear in species that live in the same
geographical area.
B) They result from similar environmental
pressures leading to analogous functions.
C) They have similar structural features due to
shared evolutionary origins.
D) They perform the same function in different
species.
A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d
B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - d 6. The presence of vestigial structures in an
C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d organism suggests that:
D) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c A) These structures are used differently in closely
related species.
3. _________ is a condition characterized by B) Natural selection favors the development of
the buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries, unnecessary structures.
which can lead to restricted blood flow. This C) The structure was functional in ancestors but is
condition can contribute to __________, which no longer useful.
involves chest pain due to reduced blood flow D) These structures have no function in any
to the heart muscle. If this condition is organism.
prolonged, it can result in __________, where a
part of the heart muscle becomes damaged or 7. Which type of mutation involves a change in
dies. Additionally, __________ describes a state a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence?
where the heart is unable to pump blood A) Duplication
effectively, leading to symptoms like swelling in B) Point mutation
the legs and shortness of breath. C) Deletion
A) Myocardial infarction; Heart failure; D) Inversion
Atherosclerosis; Angina pectoris
B) Heart failure; Atherosclerosis; Angina pectoris; 8. Which of the following is a key difference
Myocardial infarction between external and internal
C) Angina pectoris; Atherosclerosis; Heart failure; fertilization?
Myocardial infarction A) Internal fertilization produces eggs, while
D) Atherosclerosis; Angina pectoris; Myocardial external fertilization results in the development of
infarction; Heart failure seeds.
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 2 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
B) External fertilization is typically associated 14. Match the columns
with aquatic environments, while internal
fertilization is common in terrestrial
environments.
C) Internal fertilization requires the fusion of
gametes in the external environment.
D) External fertilization occurs inside the body,
while internal fertilization occurs outside.

9. Which of the following structures forms the

embryo’s first blood vessels and
contributes to the formation of the placenta in
mammals?
A) Allantois
B) Yolk sac
C) Amnion
D) Chorion

10. Which process ensures genetic variation in

offspring produced through sexual A) 1-A,2-C,3-B,4-D
reproduction? B) 1-A,2-D,3-B,4-C
A) Cytokinesis C) 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
B) Crossing over during meiosis D) 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
C) Mitosis
D) Binary fission 15. Archaeopteryx is often described as a
'missing link' because it:
11. Which term describes the genetic makeup A) Had the largest brain relative to body size
of an organism? B) Was the first to use tools
A) Karyotype C) Has both avian and reptilian characteristics
B) Allele D) Shows features of early mammals and reptiles
C) Phenotype
D) Genotype 16. Which of the following structures is formed
first after fertilization in mammals?
12. What is the probability of obtaining a A) Gastrula
homozygous recessive offspring from two B) Zygote
heterozygous parents? C) Morula
A) 100% D) Blastocyst
B) 75%
C) 25% 17. Which type of bacteria is characterized by a
D) 50% thick peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall
A) and stains purple in the Gram stain test?
13. What term is used to describe an organism B) Mycoplasmas
with two identical alleles for a particular C) Gram-positive bacteria
gene? D) Gram-negative bacteria
A) Polygenic Acid-fast bacteria
B) Hemizygous
C) Heterozygous 18. Identify the vessel type that regulates blood
D) Homozygous pressure through constriction and dilation:
A) Capillaries
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 3 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
B) Arterioles C) MHC Class I is found on all nucleated cells,
C) Arteries whereas MHC Class II is found only on
D) Veins professional antigen-presenting cells.
D) MHC Class I presents antigens to CD4+ T
19. Which of the following is characterized by cells, whereas MHC Class II presents to CD8+ T
chronic inflammation and narrowing of the cells.
airways, leading to difficulty in breathing? 23. Which layer of the stomach wall contains
A) Tuberculosis the rugae?
B) Pneumonia A) Muscularis externa
C) Asthma B) Serosa
D) Emphysema C) Mucosa
D) Submucosa
20. Which of the following best describes
Euglena's nutritional mode? 24. In which stage of prophase I does crossing
A) Saprotrophic over occur?
B) Mixotrophic A) Diplotene
C) Strictly autotrophic B) Pachytene
D) Strictly heterotrophic C) Leptotene
D) Zygotene
21. In the diagram showing the structure of the
plasma membrane, which labeled letter (from 25. Which of the following sequences correctly
A to H) represents cholesterol? represents the layers of the stomach
from inner to outer?
A) Submucosa, Muscularis externa, Serosa,
Mucosa
B) Muscularis externa, Mucosa, Serosa,
Submucosa
C) Serosa, Mucosa, Muscularis externa,
Submucosa
D) Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis externa,
Serosa

26. Which of the following sequences correctly

A) G
represents the hierarchy of muscle
B) C
structure from higher to lower levels?
C) H
A) Muscle fibers → Fascicles → Myofibrils →
D) A
Myofilaments → Muscle
E) D
B) Fascicles → Muscle fibers → Myofilaments →
Myofibrils → Muscle
22. Which of the following statements correctly
C) Muscle → Fascicles → Muscle fibers →
differentiates MHC Class I from MHC
Myofibrils → Myofilaments
Class II molecules?
D) Myofilaments → Myofibrils → Muscle fibers
A) MHC Class I is involved in antigen processing
→ Fascicles → Muscle
within endosomes, whereas MHC Class II is
involved in processing within the cytoplasm.
27. Which of the following features is unique to
B) MHC Class I binds extracellular antigens,
cyanobacteria compared to other
whereas MHC Class II binds intracellular
bacterial groups?
antigens.
A) Presence of flagella for motility
B) Formation of endospores
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 4 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
C) Presence of a true nucleus B) Endometriosis
D) Ability to perform oxygenic photosynthesis C) Gonorrhea
D) Syphilis
28. What is the primary function of Nissl
granules in neurons? 32. In the reflex arc, which type of neuron
A) To generate action potentials transmits impulses from the sensory neuron to
B) To regulate the flow of ions across the cell the motor neuron?
membrane A) Relay neuron
C) To provide structural support to the neuron B) Inter neuron
D) To synthesize and transport proteins and C) Synaptic neuron
neurotransmitters D) Efferent neuron
Both A&B
29. Which breathing disorder is primarily
caused by the destruction of alveoli, leading 33. What is the primary driver for the
to reduced surface area for gas exchange? regulation of breathing rate under normal
A) Acute bronchitis conditions?
B) Chronic bronchitis A) Air temperature
C) Asthma B) Blood pH levels
D) Emphysema C) Carbon dioxide concentration in the blood
D) Oxygen concentration in the blood
30. Match the following
34. Which family of plants commonly hosts
nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules?
A) Asteraceae
B) Fabaceae
C) Solanaceae
D) Rosaceae

35. Examine the given figures of diploblastic ( i

) and triploblastic ( ii ) organisation in animals
and identify the labelled parts A to D
respectively

A) 1 - e, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b, 5 - a
B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a, 5 - e
C) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - e, 5 - a
D) 1 - d, 2 - e, 3 - b, 4 - a, 5 - c A) ectoderm endoderm mesoglea mesoderm
B) mesoderm mesoglea ectoderm endoderm
31. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) C) endoderm mesoderm mesoglea ectoderm
is caused by the bacterium Treponema D) mesoglea ectoderm endoderm mesoderm
pallidum?
A) Herpes

PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 5 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25

36. Match the biomolecule to its correct
linkage: 41. What is the probability of obtaining an
offspring with the genotype Aabb from a
dihybrid cross between AaBb x AaBb?
A) 9/16
B) 1/4
C) 3/16
D) 1/16

42. Which layer of the skin contains the blood

vessels, nerves, and connective tissue?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Hypodermis
C) Dermis
A) Protein D) Epidermis
B) Carbohydrate
C) Lipid 43. Match the Components with their
D) Nucleic acid Descriptions:

37. If two parents are both heterozygous for

two traits (AaBb x AaBb), what proportion
of their offspring will be homozygous recessive
for both traits?
A) 1/2
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) 1/4

38. The main neurotransmitter affected in

Parkinson’s disease is:
A) GABA
B) Dopamine
C) Serotonin
D) Acetylcholine

39. Which major structure passes through the

A) 1-A,2-C,3-B,4-D
foramen magnum?
B) 1-A,2-C,3-D,4-B
A) Trigeminal nerve
C) 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
B) Spinal cord
D) 1-B,2-C,3-A,4-D
C) Vagus nerve
D) Jugular vein
44. What is the primary function of dendritic
cells in the immune system?
40. In which of the following scenarios does an
A) Destruction of infected cells
enzyme change its shape to better fit the
B) Presentation of antigens to T cells
substrate?
C) Production of antibodies
A) Non-competitive inhibition
D) Phagocytosis of pathogens
B) Induced fit model
C) Lock and key model
D) Competitive inhibition
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 6 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
45. Photorespiration reduces the efficiency of D) Cell wall
photosynthesis by:
A) Enhancing the Calvin cycle's output. 52. What type of symmetry is most commonly
B) Fixing carbon dioxide in mesophyll cells. observed in echinoderms, such as starfish, in
C) Increasing ATP production. their adult form?
D) Releasing CO2 and consuming O2. A) Spherical symmetry
B) Asymmetry
46. Which of the following is the immediate C) Radial symmetry
source of energy for ATP synthesis during D) Bilateral symmetry
oxidative phosphorylation?
A) Glucose 53. Which of the following is not a fish?
B) Proton gradient A) Salmon
C) Oxygen B) Great white shark
D) NADH C) Jellyfish
D) Seahorse
47. Which of the following best describes the E) Tuna
structure of DNA?
A) Double helix with parallel strands 54. Which of the following phyla have a true
B) Triple helix with antiparallel strands coelom?
C) Double helix with antiparallel strands A) Cnidaria
D) Single helix with parallel strands B) Annelida
C) Platyhelminthes
48. How many base pairs are there in one D) Nematoda
complete turn of the DNA helix?
A) 10 55. Which of the following is a characteristic
B) 20 feature of animals in the phylum
C) 12 Platyhelminthes that distinguishes them from
D) 15 animals in the phylum Nematoda?
A) Segmented body
49. Which condition is characterized by an B) Presence of a true coelom
enlarged liver and spleen due to a deficiency in C) Presence of a pseudocoelom
lysosomal enzyme D) Flat, dorsoventrally compressed body
A) Gaucher Disease
B) Tay-Sachs Disease 56. Match the bioenergetic process with its
C) Krebs's disease corresponding characteristic:
D) NOT

50. What is the primary target cell for HIV

infection?
A) B lymphocytes
B) CD4+ T lymphocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Neurons

51. Which structure is found in both plant and

animal cells but not in bacteria?
A) Plasma membrane
B) Ribosomes
C) Nucleus
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 7 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
 arteries carry oxygenated blood from the heart to
the lungs, and lymph vessels
transport blood from tissues to the heart.

59. What is the defining feature of phylum

Porifera in the Animalia kingdom that
distinguishes it from other animal phyla?
A) Presence of a coelom
B) Presence of a notochord
C) Bilateral symmetry
D) Sessile lifestyle

60. X is a non-protein molecule that helps with

enzyme activity, Y is the process where an
enzyme changes shape to accommodate the
substrate, and Z is the structural feature that
forms the enzyme’s functional region.
A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D A) X - Peptide bond, Y - Catalytic site theory, Z -
B) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B Quaternary structure
C) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D B) X - Regulatory site, Y - Enzyme-substrate
D) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C complex, Z - Secondary structure
C) X - Cofactor, Y - Induced fit model, Z - Active
57. Which structure of an enzyme is directly site
involved in the catalytic activity? D) - Substrate, Y - Lock and key model, Z -
A) Quaternary structure Tertiary structure
B) Tertiary structure
C) Primary structure 61. What does the PR interval on an ECG
D) Secondary structure indicate?
A) Interval between ventricular depolarization and
58. Which of the following correctly describes repolarization
the function and characteristics of the B) Time taken for atrial repolarization
pulmonary veins, pulmonary arteries, and C) Time between atrial and ventricular
lymph vessels? depolarization
A) Pulmonary veins and arteries both carry D) Duration of ventricular contraction
oxygenated blood, while lymph vessels
carry nutrients from the digestive system. 62. Which of the following statements correctly
B) Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from matches the function of parietal cells, chief
the heart to the lungs, pulmonary cells, and mucoid cells respectively in the
arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the lungs stomach?
to the heart, and lymph vessels A) Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen, chief cells
transport blood under high pressure secrete mucus, and mucoid cells
C) Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from secrete hydrochloric acid to break down food.
the lungs to the heart, pulmonary B) Parietal cells secrete mucus, chief cells secrete
arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart hydrochloric acid, and mucoid cells
to the lungs, and lymph vessels secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion.
transport lymph from tissues to the bloodstream. C) Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid, chief
D) Pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood cells secrete pepsinogen, and mucoid
from the lungs to the heart, pulmonary cells secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining.

PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 8 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25

D) Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen, chief cells 68. If a mutation occurred in the ATP synthase
secrete hydrochloric acid, and mucoid enzyme, which of the following would be
cells secrete mucus to digest food. the most immediate effect on cellular
respiration?
63. Which layer of an artery would you find A) ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation
closest to the blood flow, forming a smooth would decrease.
inner lining? B) ATP production through substrate level
A) Subendothelial layer phosphorylation would decrease
B) Tunica Intima C) The proton gradient in the mitochondria would
C) Tunica Media collapse.
D) Tunica Adventitia D) Glycolysis would stop completely.
E) Oxygen consumption would decrease.
64. Which hormone promotes water
reabsorption in the kidneys, and what is its CHEMISTRY
source?
A) Thyroxine, Thyroid gland 69. The number of molecules in 1dm³ water :
B) Insulin, Pancreas A) 1/22× 6.02×10²³
C) ADH, Pituitary gland B) 18× 6.02×10²³
D) Adrenaline, Adrenal medulla C) 55.6×6.02 ×10²³
D) 2×6.02×10²³
65. Which diagnostic tool is most commonly
used to identify abnormal electrical activity in 70. The mass in grams of one mole of any pure
the brain during epilepsy? substance is known as :
A) EEG A) Molar mass
B) PET scan B) Atomic mass
C) CT scan C) Molecules mass
D) MRI D) Formula mass

66. The "lub" sound of the heart is produced 71. Empirical formula for benzene is :
by the closure of which valves? A) CH3O
A) Mitral and Tricuspid valves B) C3H3
B) Aortic and Pulmonary valves C) CH
C) Both sets of valves D) CHO
D) None of the above
72. The value of R in S.I unit is :
67. In anaerobic conditions, why does A) 0.0821dm³ , atm, k-¹ mole-¹
fermentation occur instead of continuing with B) 62.4 torr k-¹ mole-¹
the electron transport chain and oxidative C) 8.314 dm³,atm,k-¹,mole-¹
phosphorylation? D) 8.314JK-¹mole-¹
Pyruvate acts as the final electron acceptor instead
of oxygen. 73. The mass of electrons is 1836 times ______?
Fermentation produces more ATP than oxidative A) Less than proton
phosphorylation under anaerobic B) Less than neutron
conditions. C) More than proton
Oxygen is required as the final electron acceptor D) Equal to proton
in the electron transport chain.
NAD+ is not required in the absence of oxygen. 74. Principal quantum number explain :
A) Orientation
B) Size
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 9 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
C) Shape B) No of molecules
D) Spin C) gram per dm³
D) mole per dm³
75. Line spectrum is used as a tool for the
identification of : 81. Some reactions are nearly completion in the
A) Colour forward direction and identified by
B) Molecules their :
C) Elements A) Very high value of Kc
D) Electrons B) Very low value of Kc
C) Very low value of ΔH
76. At low temperature, the pressure of real gas D) Very high value of ΔH
is _____ than that of ideal gas due to _____:
A) Less, force of attraction 82. Which of the following has net dipole
B) Larger, force of attraction moment is zero?
C) Less, size of molecule A) NH3 and SO3
D) Larger, size of molecule B) CO2 and SO3
C) CO2 and C2H2
77. At Murree hills water boils at : D) H2O and H2S
A) 98°C
B) 100°C 83. The number of sigma and pi bonds in C2H4
C) 0°C molecule are respectively:
D) 50°C A) 5 and 1
B) 3 and 1
78. In solid the molecules possess : C) 2 and 2
A) Linear motion D) 4 and 2
B) Vibrational motion
C) Rotational motion 84. Lewis acids are:
D) All of these A) Electron deficient
E) None of these B) Electron rich
C) Octet is not complete
79. C-C-C bond angle in graphite and diamond D) No so such acids exist
is respectively:
85. The overall order of reaction to which the
rate law is R=K :
A) First order
B) Zero order
C) Second order
D) Third order

86. Activation energy of the reaction is:

A) the energy released during the reaction
A) 109° , 120° B) the energy evolved when activated complex is
B) 120°, 109° formed
C) 120° ,120° C) Minimum amount of energy needed to
D) 109°,109° overcome the potential barrier
D) the energy needed to form one mole of the
80. The term active mass use in law of mass product
action means:
A) No of moles 87. Oil of vitrol refers to :
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 10 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
A) Borax A) IIIB ,IIB
B) Sulphuric acid B) IIIB, IVB
C) Alum C) IIIB , IB
D) Castic soda D) IB ,IIB

88. Which one of the element has the maximum 94. What is formed when a primary alcohol
electron affinity? undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation?
A) F A) Alkene
B) Cl B) Aldehyde
C) Br C) Ketone
D) I D) Acid

89. In group V-A elements the most 95. Resonance structures of a molecule have :
electronegative element is ? A) Same arrangement of atoms
A) N B) Different arrangement of atoms
B) P C) Same number of paired electrons
C) As D) Different number of paired electrons
D) Sb
96. The first organic compound was
90. ______ process is used for preparation of synthesized in laboratory was :
caustic soda: A) Urea
B) Ethyl alcohol
C) Ammonia
D) Methanol

97. C5H12 has the number of isomers ____

A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
A) Castner kellner process D) 1
B) Ostwald's process
C) Contact process 98. IUPAC name of divinyl acetylene:
D) Haber's process A) 3 - hexyne - 1,5- diene
B) 1,5 - Hexadiene - 4 - yne
91. The complexes of ______ ligands are known C) 1,5 Hexene - 3- yne
as Chelates : D) 1,5 - Hexadiene - 3 - yne
A) Multi dentate
B) Bidentate 99. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by :
C) Tridentate A) HCHO
D) Hexadentate B) CH3COCH3
C) CH3CHO
92. 5d series of outer transition elements is : D) (CH2OH)2
A) Sc to Zn
B) Y to Cd 100. Which of the following is not an
C) La to Hg Electrophile?
D) Ac to Cn A) Br+
B) NH3
93. Which groups of d- block are called as non- C) AlCl3
typical transition elements ? D) NO2+
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 11 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
 A) C15H31COOH
101. RMgBr on reaction with CO2 followed by B) C13H27COOH
Hydrolysis gives : C) C17H33COOH
D) C17H35COOH

108. Acetic acid exist as dimer in benzene due

to :
A) Condensation reaction
B) Hydrogen bonding
A) RH C) Presence of carboxyl group
B) RCOOR D) Presence of hydrogen atom at alpha carbon
C) RCOOH
D) ROH 109. The General formula of carboxylic acid
and ester :
102. Carbocation is intermediate in the A) CnH2nO2
mechanism of : B) CnH2nO
A) SN1 and SN2 C) CnH2n+1O
B) E1 and E2 D) CnH2nO
C) SN2 and E2
D) E1 and SN1 110. The Common thing in pthalic acid and
oxalic acid is that both are:
103. The carbonyl Carbon of Aldehyde and A) Aromatic
ketone is : B) Dicarboxylic
A) Sp hybridized C) Hydrocarbons
B) Sp2 hybridized D) Strong acids
C) Sp3 hybridized
D) dsp3 hybridized 111. Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 to
produce:
104. Which compound is used in processing of A) O- Nitro phenol
anti-polio vaccine? B) p - Nitro phenol
A) Acetone C) Picric acid
B) Ethyl alcohol D) Both a and c
C) Formaldehyde
D) Methanol 112. Which enzyme is used to convert glucose
into ethanol :
105. Lucas reagent is used to distinguish : A) Zymase
A) Alcohol and Alkene B) Invertase
B) 1°,2° and 3° alcohol C) Diastase
C) Ketone and Alkane D) Maltase
D) Aldehyde and ketone
113. Collagen is fibrous protein present most
106. 50% retention of molecule configuration is abundantly in :
observed in : A) Arteries
A) SN1 B) Hair
B) SN2 C) Tendons
C) E2 D) Nail
D) E1
114. Williamson's synthesis is used for the
107. The formula of Palmitic acid: preparation of :
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 12 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
A) Ether
B) Ester 122. CsF bond is _______ % ionic:
C) Alcohol A) 100
D) Aldehyde B) 82
C) 92
115. Which one of the following compound is D) 72
additional polymer ?
A) Nylon
B) Carbohydrates
C) Polyester PHYSICS
D) Polyvinyl chloride
123. Which of following radioactive element is
116. The smallest unit of heat energy is : an important constituent of the body
A) Calorie fluids, and used to check the rate of flow of the
B) Erg blood ?
C) Joule A) Ca
D) Kilojoule B) Na
C) I
117. Hydrolysis of salts may be the reverse of : D) NOT
A) Hydration
B) Neutralization 124. Radiation used in radiotherapy but it
C) Ionization causes............... Which is characterized by
D) None of these nausea , fatigue and loss of body hair .
A) Sleep Sickness
118. The solution that doesn't change it's pH on B) Radiation Sickness
small quantity of acid is called: C) Sunburn
A) Acidic solution D) NOT
B) Neutral solution
C) Buffer solution 125. Positrons are created in a process of
D) Basic solution A) Annihilation
B) pair production
119. Reduction occurs when _____ : C) Fusion
A) Atom gain electron D) A and B
B) Proton removes From atom
C) Addition of oxygen atom 126. An electron has a rest mass of 9.1 x 10-31
D) Electron removed from atom kg when it is at rest relative to an observer.
What will be its mass when it is moving at
120. Oxidation number of Cr in Na2Cr2O7 is : speed one half the speed of light c?
A) +4 A) 10.5×10-31kg
B) +6 B) 8×10 -31 kg
C) +8 C) 10.5 ×10 - 31 mg
D) +12 D) NOT

121. Work may be defined in terms of pressure 127. The phenomenon of radioactivity is due to
- volume as : disintegration of
A) P V A) Proton
B) F× d B) Neutron
C) H+V C) Electron
D) H+PV D) Nucleus
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 13 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
 B) The magnitude of the current flowing through
128. An Anhililation of gamma rays photon it
takes place when the energy of gamma rays is C) The nature
greater than D) The nature, dimension and physical state of the
A) 2.02MeV conductor
B) 1.02MeV
C) 10.2Mev 135. The resistance of a conductor through
D) NOT which a current of one ampere is flowing when
the potential difference across its ends is one
129. The energy of the 4th orbit of hydrogen volt, is called
atom is A) One volt
A) -2.51ev B) One coulomb
B) -3.5ev C) One Ohm
C) -13.60ev D) One ampere
D) – 0.85ev
136. The S.I unit of electric field intensity is
130. A system absorbs 1000 Joules of heat and A) N/C
delivers 600 joules of work while losing 100 B) V/m
Joules of heat-by conduction to the C) J/C
atmosphere. Calculate the change in the D) A and B
internal energy of the system
A) 300 137. The amount of heat energy produced in a
B) 400 resistor is directly proportional to.
C) 500 A) The resistance of the conductor only
D) -300 B) The square of current, resistance and time of
flow
131. The value of specific heat of water is ......... C) The time of current flow only
A) 4200 J /Kg.K D) The square of current only
B) 4200 J.Kg.K
C) 4200 W .K 138. The electromotive force battery is the
D) 2100 J/ Kg.K voltage between its terminals when
A) The circuit is open
132. The quantity of heat required to raise the B) The circuit is closed
temp one mole of substance through 1 C) Its internal resistance is minimum
A) Kelvin that's is called.. D) Its internal resistance is maximum
B) Heat Capacity
C) Molar Specific heat 139. Terminal potential difference of a battery
D) Specific Heat Capacity is greater than its emf when.
E) AOT A) The internal resistance of battery is infinite
B) The internal resistance of battery is zero
133. The resistance of a meter cube of the C) The battery is charged
substance is called D) The battery is discharged
A) Conductivity
B) Permittivity 140. An electron is situated midway between
C) Resistivity two parallel plates 0.5 cm apart. One of the
D) Susceptibility plates is maintained at a potential of 60 Volts
above the other. What is the force on the
134. Resistance of a conductor depends upon electron
A) The potential difference between its ends A) 1.92×10-15 N
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 14 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
B) 2.92×10-16N D) Neutron
C) 0.92×10 -15 N
D) NOT 147. The change in the resistance of a metallic
conductor with the change in thetemperature
141. The drift velocity in order of ........ of the conductor is nearly, ............over a wide
A) 0.01 m/s range of temperature above and below 0°C
B) 1 m/s A) Exponential
C) 1000 m/s B) Non linear
D) 0.1 m/s C) Linear
D) NOT
142. The magnetic force experienced by a
charged particle moving in a magnetic field will 148. The efficiency of commercial transformers
be maximum if it moves in range of.............
A) At an angle of 60° to the field A) 95 to 99%
B) Parallel to the field B) 80 to 90%
C) Anti parallel to the field C) 10 to 90%
D) Perpendicular to the field D) NOT

143. If a charge of one coulomb moving at right 149. The magnitude of the induced emf in a
angle to the magnetic field with a velocity of circuit depends upon
one meter per second experiences a force of one A) Change of flux through the circuit
Newton, the magnetic induction is said to be B) Rate of change of flux through the circuit
A) One henry C) Maximum flux through the circuit
B) One weber D) Minimum flux through the circuit
C) One Tesla
D) One Gauss 150. The statement "the direction of an induced
current is such as to oppose the cause which
144. The SI unit of magnetic flux is produces it" is known as
A) NmA-1 A) Faraday's law
B) NAm-1 B) Lenz's law
C) NmA-2 C) Gauss's law
D) Nm2A-1 D) Biot's law

145. When a particle of charge q and mass m 151. The process in which a change of current
enters into a uniform magnetic field B moving in one coil induced emf in another coil nearby
with a velocity v perpendicular to the direction it is called causes an
of the field, it describes a circular path of the A) Self induction
following radius B) Mutual induction
A) R = qB/mv C) Self inductance
B) R = mv/qB D) The Henry effect
C) qmv/B
D) qmB/v 152. Mutual inductance has a practical role in
the performance of the
146. Which one of the following particles A) Radio choke
moving in the magnetic field cannot be B) A.C. generator
deflected C) D.C. generator
A) a-particle D) Transformer
B) B-particle
C) Electron 153. One henry can be defined as
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 15 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
A) 1 henry = Amp-sec/volt 160. The path followed by a projectile is called
B) 1 henry = volt-sec/Amp. A) Trajectory
C) henry = voltxAmp/sec B) Straight
D) 1 henry = volt/Amp-sec C) Both A and B
D) NOT
154. A generator is a device which converts
A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy 161. The maximum height of the projectile
B) Chemical energy into mechanical energy occurs when the vertical component of the
C) Kinetic energy into potential energy velocity to ......
D) Electrical energy into mechanical energy A) Zero
B) Maximum
155. Device used for converting A.C. into D.C. C) Half of horizontal velocity
is called D) 1/√1
A) An amplifier
B) An oscillator 162. Maximum range obtained when object
C) A voltmeter through........
D) A rectifier A) 45°
B) 90°
156. The current which keeps on reversing its C) 15°
direction (or polarity) with time is called D) NOT
A) Direct current
B) Induced current 163. In projectile motion, small angle produces
C) Alternating current ...........and large angle produces.............
D) NOT A) low trajectory, high trajectory
B) High trajectory,low trajectory
157. A coil of 600 turns is threaded by a flux of C) remain same for both cases
8 x 10-5 webers. If this flux is reduced to 3 x D) NOT
105 webers in 0.015s. what is the average
induced emf? 164. In UCM 1° equal to
A) -2.0 Volts A) 2π /360
B) 2 Volts B) 0.01745
C) 4Volts C) 22/7
D) NOT D) A And B

158. Holes can exit in 165. A car traveling at a constant speed of 72

A) Conductors km/h rounds a curve of radius 100 m. What is
B) Semi - conductor its acceleration?
C) Insulators A) 4 m/s²
D) All of the above B) 8 m/s²
C) 6 m/ s²
159. In half - wave rectification, the output DC D) 6.3m/s2
voltage is obtained across the load for
A) The positive half - cycle of input AC 166. A 100 grams bullet is fired from a 10 kg
B) The negative half - cycle of input AC gun with a speed of 1000 m/s. What is the speed
C) The positive and negative half - cycles of input of recoill of the gun?
AC A) 10m/s
D) Either positive half - cycle or negative half - B) 12 m/s
cycle of input AC C) 5 m/s
D) 8m/s
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 16 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
 A) Music
167. 1 Horse power is equal to ..... B) Noise
A) 746 watts C) Thunder
B) 1055 watts D) NOT
C) 476 watts
D) 676 watts 174. The unit of intensity of sound
A) watt/m²
168. A 2000 kg car travelling at 20 m/s comes to B) Joule /m²
rest on a level ground in a distance of 100 C) N/m²
m. How large is the average frictional force D) J.Sec
tending to stop it?
A) 4000 N 175. The maximum beat frequency that the
B) 2000N human ear can detect about ........... per second.
C) 8000N A) 700
D) NOT B) 17
C) 7
169. Find the time period of a simple pendulum D) NOT
whose length is 88.2 cm. The value of
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8m / (s ^ 2) at 176. Calculate the speed of sound in air at
the place where experiment is performed. atmospheric pressure p = 1.01x10-4 N/m²,
A) 1.885 sec taking y = 1.40 and p = 1.2 kg/m².
B) 2.885 sec A) 280 m/s
C) 0.885 sec B) 332 m/s
D) NOT C) 343 m/s
D) 380 m/c
170. The time required to complete one cycle is
called ENGLISH
A) time period
B) frequently 177-179. A poor MDCAT student, despite
C) Angular velocity struggling with financial constraints, achieved
D) Inverse of time period the
remarkable feat of securing admission to medical
171. What is the adjacent distance between a college. His hard work paid off,
node & an antinode in a standing wave? and his family was overjoyed at the news. Tears of
A) λ happiness filled their eyes as
B) λ/2 they celebrated his success together. His parents,
C) 2λ who had supported him through
D) λ/4 every challenge, were especially proud of their
son’s determination. The entire
172. In simple pendulum Which of following is community gathered to congratulate the family,
responsible for oscillatory motion of the bob? acknowledging the student's
A) Restoring Force perseverance and unwavering commitment to his
B) Stretching force dreams.
C) Gravitational force
D) NOT Which phrase in the paragraph indicates the
student's achievement despite
173. Regular, symmetric and periodic challenges?
fluctuations which produce a smooth pleasant A) His family was overjoyed.
sensation is called...... B) Despite struggling with financial constraints.
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 17 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
C) The entire community gathered to congratulate. 184. Select the noun that functions as a gerund
D) His hard work paid off. in the sentence: "Running every day has
improved her stamina."
178. What type of sentence is: "Tears of A) Running
happiness filled their eyes as they celebrated B) Day
his success together"? C) Improved
A) Compound D) Stamina
B) Simple
C) Complex 185. Choose the correct plural form of the noun
D) Fragment in the sentence: "The research on the
various ______ is ongoing."
179. Identify the correct use of an adjective in A) Phenomena
the paragraph: B) Phenomenons
A) Remarkable feat C) Phenomenas
B) Celebrated his success D) Phenomenas
C) Overjoyed at the news
D) Supported him through 186. Choose the correct punctuation mark to
complete the sentence: “Before starting the
180. Synonym: experiment the students reviewed the safety
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to procedures _____ They discussed the
"Perseverance": steps with their teacher.”
A) Success A) ;
B) Persistence B) :
C) Failure C) ,
D) Hesitation D) .

181. Synonym: 187. Choose the correct preposition to complete

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the sentence: "The effectiveness of the
"Accomplishment": methodologies proposed _____ Ram Lal in his
A) Achievement latest book is evaluated _____ a series
B) Struggle of rigorous practice tests."
C) Challenge A) by / through
D) Setback B) in / with
C) of / in
182. Antonym: D) from / with
Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to
"Optimistic": 188. "Students must differentiate _____ the
A) Cheerful fundamental concepts and minor details to
B) Hopeful fully grasp the content presented _____ Ram
C) Pessimistic Lal’s comprehensive study guides One
D) Positive Solution Of MDCAT."
A) between / in
183. Spelling: B) from / of
Identify the correct spelling: C) on / from
A) Recommend D) with / by
B) Recomend
C) Reccommend 189. Choose the correct article to complete the
D) Recommed sentence: "___ problem with ___ current

PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 18 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25

approach is that it fails to address all A) True
variables." B) False
A) The / the C) Uncertain
B) A / a
C) The / a 196. Statements:
D) An / the I. Rural and semi-urban areas in the country
have been suffering due to load
190. She likes______ fast food with his boy shedding for quite some time.
friend. II. If the Government is not able to overcome
A) the the power crisis, load shedding will be
B) an extended even to the urban areas.
C) a A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
D) no article effect
B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
191. Measles ___________ a common disease effect
among children. C) Both the statements I and II are independent
A) are D) Both the statements I and II are effects of
B) is independent causes
C) were E) Both the statements I and II are effects of some
D) has common cause

192. She shall __________ soon. 197. Statements: Some pastries are toffees. All
A) come toffees are chocolates.
B) comes Conclusions:
C) coming I. Some chocolates are toffees.
D) came II.Some toffees are not pastries.
A) Only conclusion I follows
193. Choose the sentence with correct subject- B) Neither I nor II follows
verb agreement : C) Only conclusion II follows
A) Some of the cake are missing . D) Either I or II follows
B) Some of the cake were missing. E) Both I and II follow
C) Some of the cake is missing . 198. Statement: Financial stringency prevented
D) Some of the cake has been missing . the State Government from paying
salaries to its employees since April this year.
194. Identify the sentence with correct subject- Courses of Action:
verb agreement : The State Government should immediately
A) Neither of the answers is correct. curtail the staff strength at least by 30%.
B) Neither of the answers are correct. The State Government should reduce wasteful
C) Neither of the answers were correct. expenditure and arrange to pay the
D) Neither of the answers have been correct. salaries of its employees.
A) Only I follows
LOGICAL REASONING B) Only II follows
C) Either I or II follows
195. Class A has a higher enrollment than Class D) Neither I nor II follows
B. E) Both I and II follow
Class C has a lower enrollment than Class B.
Class A has a lower enrollment than Class C. 199. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, ____ :
If the first two statements are true, the third A) UAV
statement is : B) UAT
PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 19 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25
C) TAS
D) TAT

200. Statement: It is desirable to put the child

in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
At that age the child reaches appropriate level
of development and is ready to
learn.
The schools do not admit children after six
years of age.
A) Neither I nor II is implicit
B) Either I or II is implicit
C) Only assumption II is implicit
D) Both I and II are implicit
E) Only assumption I is implicit

PRESTIGIOUS 3RD SELF ASSESSMENT TEST 20 FOR MDCAT ASPIRANTS 2024-25