Information Bulletin Csir December 2024

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NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY
Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic
dividend.
Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by administering research
based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level
assessments. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT
delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gaps in
existing assessment systems are properly identified and bridged.
Core Values
NTA will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers),
learning (by students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA
strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security
of assessments. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with
its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner
institutions.
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TABLE OF CONTENT
CHAPTER NO. CHAPTER NAME PAGE NO.
IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE 05-08
CHAPTER – 1 INTRODUCTION ABOUT NTA AND JOINT CSIR- UGC NET 09-11
CHAPTER – 2 ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 12-14
CHAPTER – 3 DETAILS OF EXAMINATION 15-17
CHAPTER – 4 FACILITY FOR PwD CANDIDATES 18-20
CHAPTER – 5 REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS 21-27
CHAPTER – 6 ADMIT CARD, INSTRUCTION AND PROHIBITED MATERIALS 28-31
CHAPTER – 7 UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES 32-33
CHAPTER – 8 PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT 34-35
CHAPTER – 9 GENERAL / MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS 36
CHAPTER – 10 CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA 37
ANNEXURE-I PAYMENT OF EXAM FEE - PROCEDURE/ MODE / SERVICE PROVIDER(S), SERVICES 38-39
CHARGES AND HELPDESK
ANNEXURE-II JOINT CSIR- UGC NET SUBJECTS 40
ANNEXURE- III LIST OF EXAM CITIES FOR JOINT CSIR- UGC NET 41-46
ANNEXURE -IV CERTIFICATE REGARDING PHYSICAL LIMITATION TO WRITE IN AN EXAMINATION 47
ANNEXURE -V LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE 48
ANNEXURE -VI CERTIFICATE FOR PERSON WITH SPECIFIED DISABILITY COVERED UNDER THE 49
DEFINITION OF SECTION 2 (S) OF THE RPWD ACT, 2016 BUT NOT COVERED UNDER
THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2(R) OF THE SAID ACT, I.E. PERSONS HAVING LESS
THAN 40% DISABILITY AND HAVING DIFFICULTY IN WRITING
ANNEXURE-VII LETTER OF UNDERTAKING BY THE PERSON WITH SPECIFIED DISABILITY COVERED 50
UNDER THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2 (S) OF THE RPWD ACT, 2016 BUT NOT
COVERED UNDER THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2(R) OF THE SAID ACT, I.E.
PERSONS HAVING LESS THAN 40% DISABILITY AND HAVING DIFFICULTY IN
WRITING
ANNEXURE-VIII ATTESTATION FORM (FOR ‘RESULT AWAITED’ OR ‘ENROLLED’ CANDIDATES ONLY) 51
ANNEXURE -IX FORMAT OF OBC CERTIFICATE 52
ANNEXURE -X FORMAT OF SC/ST CERTIFICATE 53
ANNEXURE -XI FORMAT OF EWS CERTIFICATE 54
ANNEXURE -XII PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 55-61
ANNEXURE -XIII REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM 62-81
ANNEXURE -XIV PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES FOR MULTI 82-85
SESSION PAPERS (NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE BASED ON PERCENTILE SCORE)
ANNEXURE-XV PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR CONVERSION OF NTA SCORES INTO 86-94

NORMALIZED MARKS FOR MULTI-SHIFTS PAPERS (NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE
BASED ON PERCENTILE AND EQUI PERCENTILE METHOD)
ANNEXURE -XVI HELPDESK CONTACT DETAILS OF JOINT CSIR- UGC NET 95
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LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS
CBT Computer Based Test
CSIR Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
EWS Economically Weaker Section
GOI Government of India
MCQ Multiple Choice Question
MoE Ministry of Education
NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
NEGP National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
NFOBC National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes
NFSC National Fellowship for Schedule Caste
NFPwD National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities
NTA National Testing Agency
OBC-NCL Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer
PwD Persons with Disabilities
QRS Query Redressal System
RPwD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
SC Scheduled Castes
ST Scheduled Tribes
UGC University Grant Commission
UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
UR Unreserved
UT Union Territory
VLE Village level Entrepreneur
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IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)
Dates, Fee Details and Application Procedure for
Joint CSIR-UGC NET December 2024
Name of the Examination Joint CSIR-UGC NET December, 2024

Online registration and submission of
09 December, 2024 to
Application Form through NTA Website: 30 December, 2024
https://csirnet.nta.ac.in
Last date for successful transaction of
31 December, 2024
Examination fee
Fee Payable for

JOINT CSIR-UGC NET December, 2024
(Debit/Credit Card/UPI or Internet Banking through any of the payment gateway of SBI/ICICI)
Category Application Fee
General INR 1150
General-EWS/OBC(NCL)* INR 600
SC/ST/PwD/Third Gender INR 325
Note:
 An applicant can apply for payment through net-banking/debit/credit card/UPI.
 Service charges of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator, as applicable.
 Applicants are advised to read Payment instructions carefully before paying the application fee.
Name of the Examination JOINT CSIR-UGC NET

December, 2024
Correction in the Particulars of Application Form 01 January 2025 to
online only 02 January, 2025
City Intimation Slip To be announced later through website.
Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate from To be announced later through website.
NTA Website
Mode of Examination Computer Based Test (CBT)
Pattern of Examination Objective Type with MCQ
Duration of Examination 180 minutes (03 hours)
Date(s) of Examination Schedule 16 February, 2025 to 28 February, 2025
Timing of Examination Will be announced on NTA website
Centre, Date and Shift of Joint CSIR-UGC As mentioned on the Admit Card
NET Examination
Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys Will be announced later on website
Declaration of Result on NTA Website Will be announced later on website
Website https://csirnet.nta.ac.in / www.nta.ac.in
*OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other
Backward Classes available on the website of National Commission for Backward Classes. The
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column.
State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) may choose General (EWS)
in case they fulfill the prescribed requirement in this regard.
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1. Candidates can apply for Joint CSIR-UGC NET December 2024 through “Online” mode
only.
2. Candidate must carefully read the Instructions (including how to fill up Application Form
online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates not
complying with the Instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
3. Submission of Online Application Form may be done by accessing NTA website
https://csirnet.nta.ac.in . Application Form in any other mode will not be accepted.
4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.
5. Candidates must ensure that E-mail Address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA
through e-mail on the registered e-mail address or SMS on registered Mobile Number
only.
6. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
 Download Information Bulletin and read the same carefully regarding eligibility
andprocedure / documentation required for filling the Online Application Form.
 Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Register for Online Form submission using unique Email ID and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated
Application No. Upload legible scanned images of: (i) a recent
photograph (in jpg file, size 10Kb – 200Kb) either in colour or black &
white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against white
background; (ii) candidate’s signature (in jpg file size: 4kb - 30kb) (iii)
Duly verified Result Awaited Attestation Form (in PDF format file size:
50KB to 500KB), (iv) Category Certificate, if applicable (SC/ ST/ OBC/
EWS etc.) (in PDF format file size: 50KB to 300KB) & (v) PwD Certificate,
if applicable (in PDF format file size: 50KB to 300KB).
Step-3: Pay prescribed fee through Net Banking / Debit Card / Credit Card
and UPI, keep proof of fee paid for future reference.
 Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance
of feeand keep copies safely for future reference.
 PwD candidates are exempted from payment of fee.
All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate sittings.
7. After the submission of Online Application Form (i.e., successful completion of all the
Steps), Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be downloaded and a printout
of the same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page of the online
Application Form will be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of the prescribed Fee, the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway integrator (at the
helpline number and email given in Annexure-I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring
the successful payment.
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In spite of the above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, it means
transaction is not complete and candidate may pay second time and ensure OK status.
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said
transactions will be refunded (in the same payment mode through which the duplicate
payment is received), after fee reconciliation by NTA.
8. Information such as his/ her name, contact details / address, category, PwD
status, educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam cities, etc.
provided by the candidate in the online Application Form will be treated as final.
Any request for change in such particulars after the closure of correction period will not
be considered by NTA.
9. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidate under
any circumstances. Any request for change in information will not be entertained.
Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct
details in the Application Form. Request for corrections made by any candidates
through Post/Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by hand will not be entertained by NTA.
10. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number registered on their
online Application Form are their own, as relevant/ important information/ communication
will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered e-mail address and/or through SMS
on registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be responsible for any non-
communication/ mis-communication with a candidate in the email address or mobile
numbergiven by him/ her other than his/ her own.
11. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information
provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
12. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for
latest updates.
13. Role of NTA is confined to registration of candidates and conduct of exam. Further,
finalization of answer keys after inviting challenges, processing and declaration of results
and preparation of the list of qualified candidates is being done by NTA in collaboration
with CSIR. NTA has no role to play in the award of fellowships or other downstream
processes.
Notes:
i. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 is not
complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will
be entertained.
ii. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA
under any circumstances.
iii. The entire application process for Joint CSIR-UGC NET December, 2024 is online,
including uploading of scanned images, payment of fees, and printing of Confirmation
Page, Admit Card, etc.
iv. Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided
by the End Users (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s), including training,
research and development, analysis, and other permissible purpose(s). This data can
be shared by the UGC/NTA with Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) for
admission to Ph.D. programmes and with Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) &
other organizations for their recruitment processes.
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Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the examination venue:
i. Admit card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA Website
(a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in
ii. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen
iii. Additional photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) to be pasted on the
attendance sheet in examination Room/ Hall.
iv. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – College
Identity Card with photograph/ PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card
(With photograph)/E-Aadhaar with photograph/ Ration Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook
with Photograph
v. PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
PwBD category
vi. Personal transparent water bottle
vii. Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.
Notes:
1. In case it is found at any time in future that the Candidate has used / uploaded the
photograph and signature of someone else in his/ her Application Form / Admit Card or
he/she has tampered his/her Admit Card / result, these acts of the candidate shall be
treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and he/she shall be proceeded
with action as contemplated under the provisions of Unfair Means Practices covered in
this Information Bulletin.
2. Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag,
Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material),
Eatables (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator,
DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with
facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the
Examination Hall/Room. Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination
Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
3. Possession by a candidate of any of the above-mentioned items will be treated as an

act of Unfair Means and may lead to cancellation of his/her candidature in the
Examination & may also involve debarring the candidate for future Examination(s)
conducted by NTA.
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CHAPTER – 1: INTRODUCTION ABOUT NTA AND JOINT CSIR- UGC NET
1.1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the
National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained
premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting
efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the competency
ofcandidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.
The National Testing Agency (NTA) has been entrusted by the CSIR, with the task of
conducting of Joint CSIR-UGC NET December 2024 which is a test to determine the
eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior Research Fellowship and appointment
as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’
and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and colleges.
1.2. About Joint CSIR-UGC Fellowship
CSIR and UGC provide Research Fellowships for research under expert guidance of
faculty members/scientists working in University Departments/ National Laboratories
and Institutions in various fields of Science and interdisciplinary areas of research. Joint
CSIR-UGC NET Fellowships are tenable in Universities/IITs/Post Graduate
Colleges/Govt. Research Establishments including those of the CSIR, Research &
Development establishments of recognized public or private sector industrial firms and
other recognized institutions. Only bonafide Indian Citizens are eligible for the test. Joint
CSIR-UGC NET Fellowships are tenable in India.
Joint CSIR-UGC NET is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award
of Junior Research Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment
as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian
universities and colleges and R&D Establishment.
Syllabus for enlisted subjects (Annexure-II) are available at www.csirhrdg.res.in
The validity of qualifying certificate of Assistant Professor is forever.
The award of Joint CSIR-UGC NET Fellowship is for a fixed tenure and does not imply
any assurance or guarantee for subsequent employment by CSIR-UGC NET to the
beneficiary.
 The candidates qualifying under the ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and

admission to Ph.D.’ category will be eligible for appointment as Assistant Professor
and admission to Ph.D. but not for the award of JRF.
 The candidates qualifying under the ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ category will be
eligible for admission to Ph.D. only but not for the award of JRF and/or appointment
as Assistant Professor.
 The eligibility will be determined in the following manner:
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Eligible for
Qualified for
JRF Assistant Professor Ph.D. admission
Category-1
Award of JRF and Yes Yes Yes
appointment as Assistant
Professor
Category-2
Appointment as Assistant No Yes Yes
Professor and admission
to Ph.D.
Category-3
No No Yes
Admission to Ph.D. only
 The JRF-qualified candidates are admitted into the Ph.D. programme based on an
interview as per the UGC (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D.
Degree) Regulations, 2022.
 Joint CSIR-UGC NET under category-2 and category-3 can be used as an entrance test
for Ph.D. admission in place of entrance tests conducted by the different
universities/HEIs for admission to Ph.D.
 For candidates qualified under the category-2 and category-3, the marks obtained in the
NET will have 70% weightage and 30% weightage will be based on the performance in
the interview/viva voce conducted by the University/HEI concerned. The Ph.D.
admission will be based on the combined merit of NET marks and the marks obtained in
the interview/viva voce.
 For admission to Ph.D., the marks obtained in the NET by the candidates in category-2
and category-3 will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration of the
result of Joint CSIR-UGC NET.
 The result of NET will be declared in percentile along with the marks/normalized
marks (in case of multiple shifts) obtained by a candidate to utilize the marks for
admission to Ph.D. In case the test for a subject(s) is conducted in two or multiple
shifts, the marks will be normalized by using the Equi-percentile method, and the
result will be declared in percentile along with normalised marks.
 The number of candidates who will be qualified for JRF-NET, Assistant Professor and
‘admission to the Ph.D. only’ will be decided by the results committee.
1.3. About Junior Research Fellow11.3 about J1.3 Junior Research Fellowship Stipend
The stipend of a JRF selected through CSIR- National Eligibility Test (NET) will be
Rs. 37,000/- per month for the first two years. In addition, annual contingent grant of
Rs. 20,000/- is reimbursed directly to the fellow. The Fellowship will be governed by
terms and conditions of CSIR, UGC or Research Scheme, as applicable.
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On Completion of two years as JRF and if the Fellow is registered for Ph.D., the
Fellowship will be upgraded to SRF (NET) and the stipend will be increased to Rs.
42,000/- per month for the 3rd and subsequent years, on the basis of assessment of
Fellows’ research progress/ achievements through interview by an Expert Committee
consisting of the Guide, Head of the Department and External Member from outside the
University/ Institution who is an expert in the relevant field, not below the rank of
Professor/ Associate Professor. As far as possible, the External Member should be the
chairman of three members Committee. Where the guide happens to be the Head of the
Department, the Dean, Faculty of Science or any senior member of the Department may
be associated as the third member of the Committee. In the event of the Committee not
recommending up-gradation or the fellow has not registered for Ph.D., the candidate will
continue as JRF with a stipend of Rs. 37,000/- per month for the 3rd year or his/her
fellowship may be terminated depending upon the recommendation of the Committee and
the decision of CSIR in this regard shall be final. The progress of research work of JRF
will be assessed by duly constituted three member assessment committee again at the
end of 3rd year for such up-gradation.
The number of fellowship for each subject is limited.
1.4. Joint CSIR-UGC NET Examination December, 2024

National Fellowships/Schemes (NFOBC, NFSC and NFPwD)
Candidates aspiring for the NFOBC, NFSC or NFPwD shall also have to apply for Joint
CSIR UGC NET December, 2024. However, the result of NFOBC, NFSC and NFPwD will
be compiled/declared by the respective nodal agency on their websites. Candidates must
provide correct information in online application form (wherever asked for) to be eligible
for these fellowships. These fellowships/schemes are governed by the guidelines
available on official websites of implementing agencies/ministries.
1.5. The data of UGC-NET candidates can be shared by the UGC/NTA with Higher
Educational Institutions (HEIs) for admission to Ph.D. programmes and with Public
Sector Undertakings (PSUs) & other organizations for their recruitment processes.
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CHAPTER – 2: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
2.1 Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 Eligibility Criteria

2.1.1.
a) General/ Unreserved/ General-EWS candidates who have secured at least 55% marks
(without rounding off) in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from recognized
universities/ institutions are eligible for this Test. The Other Backward Classes (OBC)
belonging to Non-Creamy Layer/Scheduled Caste (SC)/ Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Persons
with Disability (PwD)/ Third gender category candidates who have secured at least 50%
marks (without rounding off) in Master’s degree or equivalent examination are eligible for
this Test.
b) Candidates who are pursuing their Master’s degree or equivalent course or candidates
who have appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year) examination and
whose result is still awaited or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been
delayed may also apply for this test. However, such candidates will be admitted
provisionally and shall be considered eligible for NET, only after they have passed their
Master’s Degree or equivalent examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case
of OBC-NCL/ SC/ ST/ PwD/ Third gender category candidates). Such candidates must
complete their Master’s degree or equivalent examination within two years from the date
of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as
disqualified.
However, those candidates who qualify for ‘Admission to Ph.D. Only’ must complete their
Master’s degree or equivalent examination within one year from the date of NET result
with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
c) Candidates belonging to the Third gender category are eligible to draw the same
relaxation in fee, age and Eligibility Criteria for NET as are available to SC/ST/PwD
categories. The subject-wise qualifying cut-offs for this category would be the lowest
among those for SC/ ST/ PwD/ OBC–NCL/ General-EWS categories in the corresponding
subject.
d) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master’s level examination have been completed by 19
September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a
relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET.
e) Candidates are neither required to send any certificates/documents in support of their
eligibility nor printout of their Application Form or Confirmation Page to NTA. However, the
candidates, in their own interest, must ensure themselves about their eligibility for the test.
In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the CSIR/UGC/NTA at any stage, their
candidature will be cancelled, and they shall be liable for legal action. NTA does not verify
the information provided by the candidates during online registration and hence
candidature will be purely provisional subject to the fulfillment of eligibility criteria.
f) Candidates with post-graduate diploma/ certificate awarded by Indian University/ Institute
or foreign degree/ diploma/ certificate awarded by the foreign University/ institute should in
their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma/degree/ certificate with
Master’s degree of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities
(AIU), New Delhi (www.aiu.ac.in).
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g) The candidates having passed a 4-year/8-semester bachelor’s degree programme should
have a minimum of 75% marks in aggregate or its equivalent grade on a point scale
wherever the grading system is followed. A relaxation of 5% marks or its equivalent grade
may be allowed for those belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC (non-creamy layer)/ Differently-Abled,
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) and other categories of candidates as per the
decision of the Commission from time to time (refer to University Grants Commission
(Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations, 2022
https://www.ugc.gov.in/pdfnews/0909572_Minimum-Standards-and-Procedure-for-Award-
of-PhD-Degree.pdf)
The candidates qualifying in the NET, based on a four-year undergraduate degree, will be
eligible for the award of the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and for admission to the
Ph.D. The candidates qualifying in the NET, based on a four-year undergraduate degree,
will not be eligible for appointment as Assistant Professor.
h) The candidates who are pursuing Four Year/8 Semester Bachelor’s Degree Programme
and are in their last semester/year may also apply for the test. However, such candidates
will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for the award of
JRF/admission to Ph.D. only after fulfilling the requirements contained in the University
Grants Commission (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree)
Regulations, 2022 within two years (if qualified for award of JRF)/within one year (if
qualified for admission to Ph.D. only) from the date of declaration of the NET result, failing
which they shall be treated as disqualified.
i) The candidates with a Four-Year Bachelor’s Degree Programme are allowed to appear in
a subject (the List of Subjects and their Codes for Joint CSIR-UGC NET December 2024
are given at (Annexure-II) in which they want to pursue a Ph.D. irrespective of the
discipline in which they have obtained the four-year bachelor’s degree.
2.1.2 Upper Age limit:
a) JRF: Not more than 30 years as on the 1st day of the month in which the examination is
concluded i.e. February, 2025. A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates
belonging to OBC-NCL (as per the Central list of OBC available on website:
www.ncbc.nic.in) /SC/ST/PwD/Third gender categories and to women applicants.
Relaxation will also be provided to the candidates with research experience, limited to the
period spent on research in the relevant / related subject of post-graduation degree,
subject to a maximum of 5 years, on production of a certificate from appropriate authority,
which should be a recognized Indian university / Institute of National Importance / foreign
university which is duly approved / recognized / accredited in its own Country / Public
Sector Undertaking of Government of India / State Government in India. The research
should not have been carried out towards completion of graduation or post-graduation
degree(s). A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates who have served in
the armed forces subject to the length of service in the armed forces upto the first day of
the month in which the concerned Joint CSIR-UGC-NET is, conducted, i.e., December,
2024 Total age relaxation on the above ground(s) shall not exceed five years under any
circumstances.
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b) Assistant Professor: There is no upper age limit in applying for Joint CSIR UGC-NET
for Assistant Professor.
c) Admission to PhD: There is no upper age limit in applying for Joint CSIR-UGC-NET for
Admission to PhD.
2.1.3 Declaration
In the event of any ineligibility being detected by CSIR / UGC / NTA at any stage, their
candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action. NTA does not verify
the information provided by the candidates during online registration and hence
candidature will be purely provisional subject to the fulfillment of eligibility criteria.
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CHAPTER – 3: Details of Examinations
3.1 Mode of Examinations
The Examinations will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode.
3.2 Pattern of Question Papers

The Test will consist of three parts. All the parts will consist of objective type, multiple
choice questions. There will be no break between papers. The subject-wise scheme of
examination is as per details below:
CHEMICAL SCIENCES (701) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
Total questions 20 40 60 120
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 35 25 75
Marks for each correct answer 2 2 4 200
Marks for each incorrect answer 0.5 0.5 1 -
(Negative marking for part A, B & C is @ 25%)
EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

PLANETARY SCIENCES (702)
Marks for each incorrect answer 0.5 0.5 1.32 -
(Negative marking for part A & B is @ 25%
and part C is @ 33%)
LIFE SCIENCES (703) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

Marks for each incorrect answer (Negative 0.5 0.5 1 -
marking for part A, B & C is @ 25%)
MATHEMATICAL SCIENCES (704) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

Marks for each correct answer 2 3 4.75 200
Marks for each incorrect answer 0.5 0.75 0 -
(Negative marking in Part A & B is @ 25%;
no negative marking in Part C)
PHYSICAL SCIENCES (705) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

Marks for each correct answer 2 3.5 5 200
Marks for each incorrect answer (Negative 0.5 0.875 1.25 -
marking for part A, B & C is @ 25%)
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Chemical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25
questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of
questions are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part
C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B
and Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the
"correct" option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the correct or
the best answer.
Earth Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25

questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of
questions are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part
C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B
the best answer.
Life Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25questions
from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of questions
are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part C
respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B
the best answer.
Mathematical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 25 and

20 questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required
number of questions are answered, only first 15, 25 and 20 questions in Part A, Part
B and Part C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part
A, Part B, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the
"correct" option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the
correct or the best answer. In Part C each question may have "ONE" or "MORE"
correct options. Credit in a question shall be given only on identification of "ALL"
the correct options in Part C.
Physical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 20 and 20

questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number
of questions are answered, only first 15, 20 and 20 questions in Part A, Part B and
Part C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A,
Part B and Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives
is the "correct" option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the
correct or the best answer.
Part 'A' shall be common to all subjects. This part shall contain questions pertaining
to General Aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning, graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparison, series formation,
puzzles etc.
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Part 'B' shall contain subject-related conventional Multiple-Choice questions
(MCQs), generally covering the topics given in the syllabus.
Part 'C' shall contain higher order questions that may test the candidate's
knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific
concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is
expected to apply scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given
scientific problem.
3.3 Medium of Examination
The Paper will be in bilingual i.e. Hindi and English. Candidates are required to answer in
the medium as per option exercised in the Application Form. In case of any ambiguity
between Hindi and English version due to translation, English version would be treated as
final.
3.4 Marking Scheme of Examinations
Please refer to point no. 3.2.
3.5 Subjects of the Test
The Test will be held in the subjects mentioned below:
Subject Code Subjects of the Test

701 Chemical Sciences
702 Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
703 Life Sciences
704 Mathematical Sciences
705 Physical Sciences
3.6 Syllabus of the Test

Syllabus & Scheme of Examination of the MCQ Paper may be seen at CSIR HRDG
website: www.csirhrdg.res.in .
Page 17 of 95
CHAPTER – 4: FACILITY FOR PWD CANDIDATES
4.1 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):
 As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a
person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which,
in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society
equally with others.
 According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark
disabilities” means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a
specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable
terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been
defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
 The “specified disabilities”, which are included in the Schedule of the RPwD Act,
are as follows:
S. No. Category Type of Disability Specified Disability
1. Physical Locomotor Disability a. Leprosy cured person, b. cerebral palsy,

Disability and c. dwarfism, d. muscular dystrophy, e.
acid attack victims.
Visual Impairment a. blindness, b. low vision
Hearing Impairment a. deaf, b. hard of hearing

Speech & Language Permanent disability arising out of conditions
Disability such as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one
or more components of speech and language
due to organic or neurological causes.
2. Intellectual a. specific learning disabilities/perceptual
Disability disabilities: Dyslexia, Dysgraphia,
Dyscalculia, Dyspraxia & Developmental
Aphasia)
b. autism spectrum disorder
3. Mental a. mental illness
Behaviour
4. Disability i. Chronic Neurological a. multiple sclerosis
caused due Conditions b. Parkinson’s disease
to
ii. Blood disorder a. Haemophilia, b. Thalassemia, c. Sickle cell
disease
5. Multiple More than one of the above specified

Disabilities disabilities including deaf blindness
(https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3e58aea67b01fa747687f038dfde066f6/uploads/2023/10/20231016 1053958942.pdf)
Page 18 of 95
4.1.1 Facilities for PwD Candidates to Appear in the Exam:
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with

Disabilities (Divyangjan) under Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment issued from
time to time on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities”, A candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r)
of RPwD Act, 2016], holding a Disability Certificate in the format prescribed in Annexure-
IV, is entitled to the following facilities:
 Scribe shall be given, if so desired by a person with benchmark disabilities in the

category of blindness, locomotor disability (Both Arms affected-BA) and cerebral
palsy.
 The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential
to write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by
a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care
Institution, will be provided.
 Compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes per hour of examination will be
provided. If the examination is of 03 hours duration, the compensatory time shall be
01 hour. In case the duration of the examination is less or more than 03 hours, the
compensatory time shall be on pro rata basis.
 The compensatory time will be given to a candidate with benchmark disabilities,

whether such candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not. Services of a Scribe As per
the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(Reference: F. No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates
who are visually impaired OR dyslexic (severe) OR have a disability in the upper limbs
OR have lost fingers/hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the
Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis).
 The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the
answers as per the directions of the Candidate.
 A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solutions. PwBD
candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the
online registration.
 A copy of the PwBD certificate must be uploaded at the time of online registration. The
formats for the PwBD certificate are given in Annexure-IV.
 It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency.
However, the candidate is also permitted to bring his/her own scribe (Annexure-
V), if he/she so chooses.
 If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or
availed the compensatory time, but does not possess the extent of disability that
warrants the use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be
Page 19 of 95
excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking, counseling, and admission. In case
such a candidate has already been admitted to any Institution, the admission of the
candidate will be cancelled. Candidates are advised to go through the Public Notice
No. NTA/Exam/PwD/Scribe/2022 dated 11.09.2022 on the NTA website
www.nta.ac.in in this regard.
4.1.2 Facilities for PwD candidates who have less than 40% disability and have a limitation
in writing and a scribe is essential to write the exam on his/her behalf:
 A PwD candidate with less than 40% disability and has a limitation in writing and a
scribe is essential to write the exam on his/her behalf, being so certified in the
prescribed format (Annexure-VI) by a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of
a Govt. Health Care Institution will be provided a scribe by NTA. He is required to
state his requirements in his application form. He/she is also permitted to bring
his/her own Scribe along with an undertaking in the format given at Annexure-VII.
The Candidate cannot change the category or sub-category (PwD status) after the
submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA scores. Therefore, the candidates
are advised to fill the category / sub-category column very carefully.
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CHAPTER – 5: Registration and Application Process
5.1. Ready Reckoner:
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, read
Information Bulletin carefully, keep ready required documents and follow the following
instructions:
 Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name,
Father’sName and Date of Birth
 Type of Identification – Bank A/c passbook with photograph/ Passport Number/
RationCard/ Aadhaar Card Number/Voter ID Card Number/ Other Govt ID
 Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marks sheet
 Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code
 Four cities for Centres of your choice
 Code of Joint CSIR-UGC NET Subject
 Category Certificate, if applicable
 Result Awaited Certificate, if applicable
 Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
 Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
 e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidate
 Scanned images in JPG format only
Candidate’s Photograph File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
Candidate’s Signature in running hand File size must be between 04 kb to 30 kb.
5.2. Instructions for filling Online Application Form
5.2.1. Candidates have to apply “Online” only for JOINT CSIR- UGC NET December 2024
by accessing the website: https://csirnet.nta.ac.in/. (The Application other than
online mode would not be accepted in any case).
5.2.2. If a candidate submits more than one Application Form for the same course, all
his/her Application Forms shall summarily be rejected.
5.2.3. Replica of Application Form is given at Annexure-XIII.
5.2.4. Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form given therein may be
downloaded and read carefully by the candidate to be sure about his/her eligibility
and acquaint with requirements for submission of Online Application Form.
5.2.5. Whether they fulfil the eligibility conditions for the Exam as prescribed.
5.2.6. In order to avoid correction in the particulars at a later stage, the candidate
should exercise utmost caution while filling up the details in the Application Form.
5.2.7. Following Steps may be followed to Apply Online:
Step-1: Register for Online Form submission using your own Email ID and Mobile No. and note
down system generated Application Number.
Step-2: Complete the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application
Number. Upload scanned images of (i) Candidate’s Photograph (in JPG file size: 10 kb -
200 kb), (ii) Candidate’s Signature (in JPG file size: 4kb - 30kb), (iii) Duly verified Result
Awaited Attestation Form (in PDF file size: 50kb - 500kb), (iv) Category Certificate, if
applicable (SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS etc.) (in PDF file size: 50kb - 300kb) & (v) PwD Certificate,
if applicable (in PDF file size:50kb - 300kb).
Step-3: Pay prescribed fee through Net Banking / Debit Card / Credit Card / UPI and keep
proof of fee paid for future reference.
Page 21 of 95
All the 3 Steps can be completed at one go or each step completed at a time, saved,
and the next completed later.
After the submission of Online Application Form (i.e. successful completion of Step-3),
Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be downloaded and a printout of the same
may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form
could be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of Prescribed Fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator (in the helpline
number and email given in Annexure-I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the successful
payment.
In spite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, it means transaction is
not complete and candidate may pay second time and ensure OK status. However, any
duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said transactions will be
refunded (in the same payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received), after
fee reconciliation by NTA.
transactions will be refunded (in the same payment mode through which the duplicate
paymentis received), after fee reconciliation by NTA.
Notes:
i. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step - 2 and Step–
3 are not completed, such Application Forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on
this account will be entertained.
ii. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained.
iii. The entire application process of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 is online,
including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees and Printing of Confirmation page.
Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including
Confirmation page to NTA through Post/Fax/By Hand/E-mail.
iv. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA’s website regularly for latest updates and to
check their e-mails.
v. The NTA can make use of the data generated for the purpose of research and analysis.
vi. All the candidates who have submitted the online Application and paid the Examination fee till
last date will be allowed to appear in JOINT CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 and their
admit cardswill be uploaded on the website.
vii. NTA does not verify the information filled by the candidates in the Application Form or any
certificate of Category/Educational Qualification for deciding the eligibility of candidates.
viii. The certificates of educational qualification and category (if applied under reserved category)
will be verified by the concerned institution. The candidates are, therefore, advised to ensure
their eligibility and the category (if applying under reserved category).
ix. NTA will, in no way, be responsible for any wrong/incorrect information furnished by the
candidate(s) in his/her Online Application Form. The letter/e-mails/WhatsApp Message/Public
Grievance in this regard will not be entertained by the NTA.
x. Candidates are advised to retain their Admit & Score Cards for future reference.
Page 22 of 95
5.3. Choice of Cities for Examination Centre
5.3.1 List of Cities for Examination Centres for JOINT CSIR- UGC NET December
2024 are given at Annexure-III. It is mandatory for candidates to select four
cities of their choice while filling Online Application Form. {Annexure III}
5.3.2 Effort will be made to allot a Centre of Examination to a candidate in a City of
his/her Choice. However, due to logistic & administrative reasons, exam centre
may be allotted to him/her in a different city of nearby area.
5.3.3 The City for Examination Centre once chosen and allotted cannot be changed
(after the closing of the correction window) and any request in this regard will not
be entertained.
5.4. Procedure for Filling Application Form

PART I: REGISTRATION PAGE
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name:
Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, and Father’s Name as given in the
Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board / University Certificate in
capital letters. No prefix in the name of the candidate is allowed
(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in
Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/University Certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address:
Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address.
Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one
application
PART II: FILL IN THE COMPLETE APPLICATION FORM
Fill in the complete Application
1. The application particulars entered can be edited before final submission of
the Application Form.
2. Once finally submitted, particulars in certain specific fields may be changed only
during correction window. After that no communication in this regard would be
entertained.
3. All the steps for submission of Online Application Form, Uploading of
Candidate’s photograph, Candidate’s signature, Documents (if applicable),
Payment of fee and Printing of Confirmation Page can also be done
separately.
4. Facility of submission of Online Application Form, uploading of photograph,
signatures, payment of fee and printing of the Confirmation Page will be
deactivated as per schedule for submission of Application Form. Hence,
candidates are required to complete the process within the prescribed schedule.
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5. Candidates are not required to send/ submit hard copy of Confirmation page to
NTA office. However, the candidates are advised to retain the hard copy of the
Confirmation Page, and a proof of fee submitted for future need.
6. Registration will be treated as complete only if the fee has been transacted
successfully, else the form will be cancelled.
7. Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non Creamy Layer is as per the central
list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website
(www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC
in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-
NCL (Central List) may choose General (EWS) in case they fulfill the
prescribed requirements in this regard.
8. Gender- Provide Candidate’s gender as recorded in the Type of
Identification viz. Bank A/c Number/ Passport Number/ Ration Card/ Other
Govt. ID.
9. Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well
as Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of
Correspondence Address should be given in the space provided for this
purpose.
10. Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select
any four cities of their choice for examination of Joint CSIR-UGC NET
December 2024 given at Annexure-III. Choice of cities will be limited to
the State of Permanent & Present Address of the Candidate.
11. Joint CSIR-UGC NET Subject: The candidate should select the CSIR-UGC
NET subject to appear from the list of Joint CSIR-UGC NET December
2024 Subjects given at Annexure-II.
Notes:
a. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an
incorrect Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application
Form. Therefore, the candidate has to ensure that he/she mentions his/her
complete correspondence address, including pin code, in his/her Online
Application Form.
b. The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in
the Online Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later) as
communication may be sent by NTA through e-mail or SMS.
c. The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of
Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.
d. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and NET subject
filled in the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA
Page 24 of 95
PART III: Uploading of scanned images
(i) Candidate’s Photograph: to be uploaded

 Photograph should not be with cap or goggles. Photograph should cover 80%
face (without mask) visible including ears against white background.
 Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
 Polaroid and Computer generated photos are not acceptable.
 Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear
photographs are liable to be rejected.
 Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is
fabricated i.e. de- shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made,
the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be
considered as using unfair means and the candidate would be dealt with
accordingly.
 Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be
attested. Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size colored
photographs with white background.
Note: Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form
and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the Examination Centre.
 The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading.
Filesize must be between 10 kb to 200 kb (in JPG Format only).
(ii) Candidate’s Signature: to be uploaded

 The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running hand writing in
the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the
Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application
Form would be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be
rejected.
 The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Blue/Black Ink
pen and scan for uploading.
 File size must be between 04 kb to 30 kb (in JPG Format only).
(iii) Result Awaited Attestation Form: to be uploaded (if applicable)

 File size must be between 50 kb to 500 kb (in PDF Format only).
(iv) Category Certificate: to be uploaded (if applicable)

(v) PwD Certificate: to be uploaded (if applicable)

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.
Page 25 of 95
PART IV: Payment of Examination Fee
Pay prescribed fee through Net Banking / Debit Card / Credit Card / UPI and keep
proof of fee paid for future reference. Please see Annexure–I for details.
PART V: Check List for filling the Online Application Form
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before submitting the
Online Application Forms:
(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the
heading ‘Conditions of Eligibility’ and ‘Age Limit’.
(ii) That they have selected their category viz General/ General-EWS/ OBC (Non-
Creamy Layer)/ SC/ ST/ PwD/ Third gender and Minority option, in the relevant
column correctly.
(iii) That they have filled their Subject and City of examination and code in the
relevant column correctly.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has filled the relevant column in
the Online Application Form. Only PwD candidates have to fill this column and
the others have to leave it blank.
(v) Whether they have kept a Printout of Application Form (Confirmation Page) for
their own record.
5.5. Important Points to Note:
5.5.1. The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence.
5.5.2 The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number
provided in the Online Application Form is his/her own (which cannot be
changed later) as communication would be sent by NTA through e-mail or
SMS.
5.5.3 The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID
of Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form. In order to appear in Joint
CSIR-UGC NET December 2024, the candidates are required to apply ‘online’.
The Application Form other than online mode shall not be accepted. No change
will be accepted through offline mode i.e. through fax/application including e-mail
etc.
5.5.4 Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted
successfully.
5.5.5 Application Form of candidates who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria shall be
rejected.
5.5.6 In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is
proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action
as per the law.
5.5.7 The Candidates are not required to send/submit the confirmation page of Online
Application Form to the NTA. However, he/she is advised to retain the following
documents with them as reference for future correspondence:
Page 26 of 95
 Printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
 Proof of fee paid
 Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) – 6
to 8 passport size photographs need to be kept aside.
5.5.7.1. The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on
the Admit Card. If the name has been changed due to events such as
marriage & others, candidate must show the relevant document at the time of
exam. The relevant documents are: Marriage Certificate / Divorce / Decree /
Legal Name Change Document / Gaztte Notification.
5.5.8 In case any exam is held in multiple shifts, NTA may follow the process of
normalization of the two test forms as per policy (Annexure-XIV).
5.5.9 Provision of Reservation for candidates belonging to EWS/ OBC/ SC/ ST/ PwD will
be as per GoI instructions issued from time to time.
5.5.10 The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not
mandatory. Candidates may also enter Passport number, Ration Card
number, Bank Account number or any other valid Government identity
number.
5.5.11 A candidate can fill only one application. Multiple application by the same candidate
are liable to be rejected.
Page 27 of 95
CHAPTER – 6: Admit Card, Instructions and Prohibited Materials
6.1. Admit Card for the Examinations
6.1.1. The Admit Card will be issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their
satisfying the eligibility conditions.
6.1.2. The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and
appear for the Examination at the given Centre on Date, timing and Examination
as indicated in their Admit Card.
6.1.3. No candidate will be allowed to appear at the Examination Centre, on Date

and timing other than that allotted to them in their Admit Card.
6.1.4. In case candidates are unable to download Admit Cards from the website, they
may approach the Help Line between 09:30 am and 5:30 pm or write to NTA at
csirnet@nta.ac.in.
6.1.5. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card
carefully and follow them during the conduct of the Examination.
6.1.6. In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her

photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation
Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Helpline between 09:30
am and 5:30 pm. In such cases, candidates would appear in the
Examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will
take necessary action to make correction in the record later.
Notes:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. Under no circumstance, a duplicate Admit Card for Joint CSIR-UGC NET
December 2024 will be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made
therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for
future reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are
found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful
photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria
for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of
eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission
process.
Page 28 of 95
6.2. Important Instructions for Candidates
Candidates are advised to go through instruction printed on Admit Card carefully beforegoing
for the Examination and follow them strictly
6.2.1. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully
and follow them strictly.
6.2.2. Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of Examination at
thetest centre. Candidates who do not bring these will not be allowed to appear in
theExamination.
i. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.
ii. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application
Form) for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet at the Centre
during the Examination.
iii. Any one of the authorized Govt. photo IDs (must be original, valid and non-
expired), viz. School Identity Card/ PAN card/ Driving Licence/ Voter ID/
Passport/ Aadhar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhar Enrolment No/ Ration Card
iv. PwD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation
under PwD category.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate
must show the relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate/
Divorce/ Decree / Legal Name Change Document.
6.2.3 Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of
prohibited material.
6.2.4 Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre.
NTA will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.
6.2.5 The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre at the time mentioned on
the Admit Card so as to avoid crowding at the Examination Centre.
6.2.6 Candidates must reach the test centres on or before the reporting time. Entry of
the candidates into centre shall be stopped 30 mins before the start of the
Examination.
6.2.7 Candidates may note that late entry to the Examination premises is not permitted
under any circumstances. NTA shall not be responsible for any delayed arrival of
the candidate in reaching the centre due to any reason. Candidates are advised
to familiarize themselves with the location of test centre and plan travel time
accordingly.
6.2.8 Biometric information of all the candidates shall be captured. Identity checks will
be made upon arrival at the test centre to ensure that there are no unauthorized
candidates appearing for the test. Candidates are required to cooperate with the
security personnel for security checks.
Page 29 of 95
6.2.9 The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for entry in the
Examination room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card
shall not be allowed to enter the Examination Centre.
6.2.10 Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the Examination
hall on their allotted seat. If not they are likely to miss some of the general
instructions to be announced in the Examination Rooms/ Halls. NTA shall not be
responsible for any delay.
6.2.11 Any candidate found to have changed room/ hall or the seat on his/her own other
than allotted would be considered as a case of unfair means and the candidature
shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted.
6.2.12 The candidate must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at
the appropriate place.
6.2.13 The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer
is as per the opted Examination indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject
of question paper is other than the opted Examination, the same may be brought
to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
6.2.14 All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at
the centre in the Examination Room/ Hall and on completion of the test
candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/ Hall.
6.2.15 No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the
Invigilator concerned, will leave his/ her seat or Examination Room/ Hall until the
full duration of the paper is over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly
asinstructed by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators.
6.2.16 Please note that only registered candidates will be allowed at the Examination
Centre. Friends or relatives accompanying the candidates shall not be
allowed entry in the test centre under any circumstances and will not be allowed
to contact the candidate while the Examination process is going on.
6.2.17 Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on Date and time as
indicated on their Admit Card issued by the NTA. No TA, DA or any
accommodation facility will be admissible for appearing in JOINT CSIR- UGC
NET December 2024 examination.
6.2.18 The candidates are to be governed by the Rules and Regulations/Instruction of

the NTA with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair
means will be dealt with as per rules.
6.2.19 Applications of candidates submitting false and fabricated information will be

rejected and such candidates will be further debarred from appearing in
Examinations conducted by NTA.
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6.2.20 NTA reserves the right to withdraw permission, granted inadvertently if any, to
any candidate who is not eligible to appear in the JOINT CSIR-UGC NET
December 2024 even though the Admit Card had been issued by the NTA.
6.2.21 In case of any ambiguity in interpretation of any of the instructions/ terms/ rules/
criteria regarding determination of Eligibility/ Conduct of Examination/
Registration of Candidates/ Information contained therein, the interpretation of
the CSIR/ NTA shall be final and binding.
6.3. Prohibited Materials
Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, DocuPen, Slide
Rules, Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written
material, bits of papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic
gadget/ device etc.
 The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the
Examination room/hall.
 If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/ her candidature will be
treated as unfair means and lead to cancellation of the current Examination and also
debar the candidate for future Examination(s) & the material will be seized.
 Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly
prohibited.
 Instrument / Geometry / Pencil box, Handbag, Purse or Any kind of Paper/
Stationery, Eatables / Snacks and Tea / Coffee / Cold drinks / Water (loose or
packed), Mobile Phone / Ear Phone / Microphone / Pager / Calculator/ Camera /
Tape Recorder, any metallic item or electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the
Examination Room / Hall.
Note: Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets / fruits
(like banana / apple / orange) and transparent water bottle to the Examination hall.
However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate / candy /
sandwich etc.
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CHAPTER – 7: Unfair Means Practices
7.1. Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules
7.1.1. Definition: Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain
anunfair advantage over other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a. Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be
used for unfair practices including any stationery item, communication device,
accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any other material or information
relevant or not relevant to the Examination in the paper concerned;
b. Using someone to write Examination on his / her behalf (physical or virtual
impersonation) orpreparing material for copying;
c. Writing the Exam at an Exam Centre other than the one allotted to him / her;
d. Violating Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with
Joint CSIR – UGC NET Examination;
e. Assisting other candidate to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving
assistance directly or indirectly of any kind or attempting to do so;
f. Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than
theExamination Staff, during the Examination time in the Examination Centre;
g. Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination
orthreatening any of the candidates;
h. Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in
connection with the Examination;
i. Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Rank
Letter,Self-Declaration, etc.;
j. Forceful entry/exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
k. Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the
Examination Centre;
l. Affixing/ uploading of wrong/ morphed photographs/signatures on the
ApplicationForm/ Admit Card/ Proforma;
m. Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of Examination;
n. Availing of the service of a scribe and/ or compensatory time without
processing the extent of disability that warrants the use of service and/ or
grant of compensatory time;
o. Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA;
Disclaimer- The decision of NTA shall be final and binding for declaration of
any person / candidate guilty of foregoing or such offence as shall be
classified as Unfair Means Case (UMC).
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7.1.2. Punishment for using Unfair means practices
During the course of or before or after the Examination, if a candidate is found
indulging in any of the practices as defined above, he/she shall be deemed to
have used Unfair means practice(s) and booked under UNFAIRMEANS (U.F.M.)
Case. The candidate could be debarred for 3 years in future and shall also be
liable for criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.
Page 33 of 95
CHAPTER – 8: Procedure of Declaration of Result
8.1. Display of Recorded Responses

The NTA will display the Recorded Responses and Question Paper attempted by the
candidates on the NTA website https://csirnet.nta.ac.in/ prior to declaration of result. The
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
A Public Notice in this regard informing the date/s when the window will open will be
hosted on the NTA website.
8.2. Display of Provisional Answer Key for Challenges

The NTA will display Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website
https://csirnet.nta.ac.in/ to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the
Provisional Answer Key. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the
Provisional Answer Key, on payment of Rs. 200/- per challenged question, as a non-
refundable processing fee.
The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared on
the basis of final answer keys.
8.3. Procedure and Criteria for Declaration of Result

Negative marking for wrong answers, wherever required, shall be applicable as per
subject wise scheme of Exam.
If a question for any reason is found to be wrong, the benefit of marks will be given to only
those candidates who attempted the question. On examining the challenges by the
subject experts, if it is found that along with the original answer key one more option(s) is
correct, then marks will be awarded to all those candidates who have attempted any one
of the correct options. (Except in Part C of Mathematical sciences where rules as
prescribed in Chapter 3.2 shall apply)
No grievances/representation with regard to Answer Key(s) after declaration of result will

be entertained.
Key Challenge procedure- Only paid challenges made during stipulated time through key
challenge link will be considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed
on any other medium other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
The merit lists decided by Result Committee will be made on the basis of performance of
candidates in the above test.
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There will be no separate cut-off for Part A, B & C. The cumulative marks of all
parts are taken into consideration for drawing of merit list. There is a minimum
bench mark of 33% for General, EWS & OBC category and 25 % in respect of SC/
ST and PwD categories for both fellowship and Assistant Professor.
8.4. Percentile and Normalization Procedure
a. For multiple shifts papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts
will be converted to NTA Scores (Percentile)
b. The detailed procedure of NTA Score to be adopted is available at Appendix-XIV in

Information Bulletin.
c. In case the test of a subject is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated
corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate, as per Appendix-XIV. The
calculated NTA Score for the Raw Marks for all the shifts will be merged for further
processing for deciding the allocation.
In case where it is necessary, the normalized score shall be calculated based on

equi-percentile method – (Appendix-XV)
d. In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the
lowest will be the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In the Examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to
a Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above
78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in
General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to
determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the Examination is held in greater number of
shifts the same principle shall apply.
e. The result of Joint CSIR-UGC NET will be declared in percentile along with the
marks obtained by a candidate to utilize the marks for admission to Ph.D.
8.5. Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result
a. There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this

regard shall be entertained.
Page 35 of 95
CHAPTER – 9: General / Miscellaneous Provisions
9.1. Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT)

Please read the detailed procedures for Computer Based Test (CBT) provided at
Annexure-XII.
9.2. Caution Notice and Non-Disclosure Agreement

9.2.1. Caution Notice
a. Candidates are advised to refer to Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024
website https://csirnet.nta.ac.in/ for authentic information and periodic updates
about Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024.
b. Candidates are advised not to be allured by various claims of any party or

person or institute for qualifying Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 securing
seat.
c. Candidates are advised to bring any such information to the notice to NTA by e-
mail on csirnet@nta.ac.in.
9.2.2. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

a. Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 is a proprietary Examination and is
conducted by NTA. The contents of this exam are confidential, proprietary and
are owned by NTA/CSIR and explicitly prohibits the candidate from publishing,
reproducing or transmitting any or some contents of this test, in whole or in part,
in any form or by any means, verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or
through Hangouts, Blogs etc. using either one’s own account or proxy
account(s), for any purpose.
b. By registering for the Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024, candidates are
covered by Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA). As per NDA, candidates cannot
disclose any question or contents of question paper in part orotherwise with any
person or party or website or such other media/publication. Any act in breach
of the NDA shall be liable for penal action as per law. Kindly note that this is
a punishable offence and shalllead to cancellation of candidature.
c. Violation of any act or breach of the same shall be liable for penal action and
cancellation of the candidature at the bare threshold.
9.3. Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres

Candidates, who are not well conversant with the processes of submitting the online
application due to various constraints, can use the services of Common Services Centre,
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital
India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a
part of the ambitious National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is
managed at each village panchayat level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).
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CHAPTER – 10: Correspondence with NTA
10.1. Correspondence with NTA

All the correspondence should be addressed by e-mail to NTA on csirnet@nta.ac.in. The
email query shall be addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name,
Registration/ Application No, postal address and contact number of the sender. An email
containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information
Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from person claiming to
be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following
information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.
10.2. NTA Weeding Out Rules

The record of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 will be preserved up-to 90 days
from the date of declaration of result.
10.3. Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET Examinations including
results shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi / New Delhi only. Further, any legal
question arising out of the Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30
days from the declaration of result.
The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may
sue or be sued.
10.4. RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other
person under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for
a specific period only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded
information and keep with them for future. In due course of examination or in midway of
process, neither any application under Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained
nor information will be provided.
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ANNEXURE-I
PAYMENT OF EXAM FEE - PROCEDURE/ MODE / SERVICE PROVIDER(S),
SERVICES CHARGES AND HELPDESK
After completing Step-2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee
(Step-3) by choosing the following options:
Online Mode i.e. Debit/Credit Card/UPI or internet banking through any of the
payment gateway of SBI or ICICI:
 Check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on
to website for submitting application form. Candidate should enter the information
asked for and make payment through Debit/ Credit Card.
 Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials
ready with you while logging on to website for submitting application form. Candidate
should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net
Banking.
Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider (Service & other charges as
applicable per transaction to be paid by the candidate to the concerned Bank/ Payment
Gateway Integrator): -
S. Mode of
ICICI BANK STATE BANK OF INDIA
No. Payment
ICICI NIL Charge SBI

1 Net Banking Rs 5.00 + GST
Other Banks 4.00 + GST Other Banks
Transaction upto Rs 2000/- 0%

2 Debit Card Nil
Transaction above Rs 2000/- 0.5% + GST
Domestic 0.40% of Transaction value Domestic 0.80% + GST

3 Credit Card
3.50% of Fee+ GST
International 2.35% of Transaction value International
(Minimum Rs 11/-)
Unified Transaction upto Rs 2000/- 0%

4 Payment Nil
Interface (UPI) Transaction above Rs 2000/- 5.0 % + GST
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:-
(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is
cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK
fee status.
(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned
Bank to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of
Application Form.
Page 38 of 95
2. Helplines:
(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk3 sbi.05222@sbi.co.in 08026599990
2 Customer Care agmcustomer.Ihodel@sbi.co.in 1800112211
3 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020
(b) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpline Number pgsupport.ind@worldline.com 1800222884
(c) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment related issues are not resolved
through the above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway
Integrator):
Email: csirnet@nta.ac.in
Phone No.: 011-40759000, 011-69227700
2. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:
After (successful completion of Step-3, Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should
be downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The
Confirmation Page of the online Application Form could be generated only after successful
payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the
helpline number and email given in Annexure-I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the
successful payment.
Inspite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may
contact NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay
second time.
transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate
payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA.
Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related

query/grievance through QRS/email/Helplines: -
a. Name of the Bank and / or payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure).
Page 39 of 95
ANNEXURE-II
JOINT CSIR- UGC NET SUBJECTS
The Syllabus & Scheme of Examination may be seen at CSIR HRDG website:
www.csirhrdg.res.in.
National Testing Agency will not provide the copy of syllabus to individual candidates.
The Test will be held in the subjects mentioned below:
Subject Code Subjects of the Test

701 Chemical Sciences
702 Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
703 Life Sciences
704 Mathematical Sciences
705 Physical Sciences
Page 40 of 95
ANNEXURE-III
LIST OF EXAM CITIES FOR JOINT CSIR- UGC NET DECEMBER 2024
S.NO. STATE CITY CITY CODE

1 ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR PORT BLAIR AN01
2 ANDHRA PRADESH ANANTAPUR AP01
3 ANDHRA PRADESH BHIMAVARAM AP03
4 ANDHRA PRADESH CHIRALA AP04
5 ANDHRA PRADESH CHITTOOR AP05
6 ANDHRA PRADESH ELURU AP06
7 ANDHRA PRADESH GUNTUR AP07
8 ANDHRA PRADESH KADAPA AP08
9 ANDHRA PRADESH KAKINADA AP09
10 ANDHRA PRADESH KURNOOL AP10
11 ANDHRA PRADESH NARASARAOPETA AP20
12 ANDHRA PRADESH NELLORE AP11
13 ANDHRA PRADESH ONGOLE AP12
14 ANDHRA PRADESH PRODDATUR AP21
15 ANDHRA PRADESH RAJAHMUNDRY AP13
16 ANDHRA PRADESH SRIKAKULAM AP14
17 ANDHRA PRADESH SURAMPALLEM AP23
18 ANDHRA PRADESH TIRUPATHI AP16
19 ANDHRA PRADESH VIJAYAWADA AP17
20 ANDHRA PRADESH VISAKHAPATNAM AP18
21 ANDHRA PRADESH VIZIANAGARAM AP19
22 ARUNACHAL PRADESH ITANAGAR/NAHARLAGUN AL01
23 ASSAM DIBRUGARH AM01
24 ASSAM GUWAHATI AM02
25 ASSAM JORHAT AM03
26 ASSAM SILCHAR (ASSAM) AM04
27 ASSAM TEZPUR AM05
28 BIHAR ARRAH BR09
29 BIHAR BHAGALPUR BR02
30 BIHAR DARBHANGA BR04
31 BIHAR GAYA BR05
32 BIHAR MUZZAFARPUR BR06
33 BIHAR PATNA BR07
34 BIHAR PURNEA BR08
35 CHANDIGARH CHANDIGARH/MOHALI/ PANCHKULA CH01
36 CHHATTISGARH BHILAI NAGAR/DURG CG01
37 CHHATTISGARH BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH) CG02
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38 CHHATTISGARH RAIPUR CG03
39 DADRA & NAGAR HAVELI DADRA & NAGAR HAVELI DN01
40 DAMAN & DIU DAMAN DD01
41 DAMAN & DIU DIU DD02
42 DELHI NEW DELHI DL01
43 GOA PANAJI/MADGAON GO01
44 GUJARAT AHMEDABAD / GANDHINAGAR GJ01
45 GUJARAT ANAND GJ02
46 GUJARAT BHAVNAGAR GJ03
47 GUJARAT HIMATNAGAR GJ14
48 GUJARAT JAMNAGAR GJ06
49 GUJARAT JUNAGADH GJ07
50 GUJARAT MEHSANA GJ08
51 GUJARAT RAJKOT GJ10
52 GUJARAT SURAT GJ11
53 GUJARAT VADODARA GJ12
54 GUJARAT VAPI GJ13
55 HARYANA AMBALA HR01
56 HARYANA FARIDABAD HR03
57 HARYANA GURUGRAM HR04
58 HARYANA HISAR HR05
59 HARYANA KARNAL HR06
60 HARYANA KURUKSHETRA HR07
61 HARYANA PANIPAT HR08
62 HARYANA SONIPAT HR09
63 HARYANA YAMUNA NAGAR HR10
64 HIMACHAL PRADESH BILASPUR HP01
65 HIMACHAL PRADESH HAMIRPUR HP03
66 HIMACHAL PRADESH KANGRA HP04
67 HIMACHAL PRADESH KULLU HP10
68 HIMACHAL PRADESH MANDI HP08
69 HIMACHAL PRADESH SHIMLA HP06
70 HIMACHAL PRADESH SOLAN HP07
71 HIMACHAL PRADESH UNA HP09
72 JAMMU AND KASHMIR BARAMULLA JK01
73 JAMMU AND KASHMIR JAMMU JK02
74 JAMMU AND KASHMIR SAMBA JK03
75 JAMMU AND KASHMIR SRINAGAR JK04
76 JHARKHAND BOKARO STEEL CITY JH01
77 JHARKHAND DHANBAD JH02
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78 JHARKHAND HAZARIBAGH JH05
79 JHARKHAND JAMSHEDPUR JH03
80 JHARKHAND RANCHI JH04
81 KARNATAKA BELAGAVI(BELGAUM) KK02
82 KARNATAKA BELLARY KK03
83 KARNATAKA BENGALURU KK04
84 KARNATAKA BIDAR KK05
85 KARNATAKA DAVANAGERE KK06
86 KARNATAKA DHARWAD/HUBBALLI(HUBLI) KK10
87 KARNATAKA GULBARGA KK08
88 KARNATAKA HASSAN KK09
89 KARNATAKA MANDYA KK18
90 KARNATAKA MANGALURU(MANGALORE) KK12
91 KARNATAKA MYSURU(MYSORE) KK14
92 KARNATAKA SHIVAMOGA(SHIMOGA) KK15
93 KARNATAKA TUMAKURU KK16
94 KARNATAKA UDUPI/MANIPAL KK17
95 KERALA ALAPPUZHA KL01
96 KERALA ERNAKULAM KL04
97 KERALA IDUKKI KL05
98 KERALA KANNUR KL07
99 KERALA KASARAGOD KL08
100 KERALA KOLLAM KL09
101 KERALA KOTTAYAM KL11
102 KERALA KOZHIKODE KL12
103 KERALA MALAPPURAM KL13
104 KERALA PALAKKAD KL15
105 KERALA PATHANAMTHITTA KL16
106 KERALA THIRUVANANTHAPURAM KL17
107 KERALA THRISSUR KL18
108 LADAKH LEH LL01
109 LAKSHADWEEP KAVARATTI LD01
110 MADHYA PRADESH BALAGHAT MP01
111 MADHYA PRADESH BETUL MP02
112 MADHYA PRADESH BHOPAL MP03
113 MADHYA PRADESH CHHINDWARA MP05
114 MADHYA PRADESH GWALIOR MP06
115 MADHYA PRADESH INDORE MP07
116 MADHYA PRADESH JABALPUR MP08
117 MADHYA PRADESH REWA MP11
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118 MADHYA PRADESH SAGAR MP12
119 MADHYA PRADESH SATNA MP13
120 MADHYA PRADESH UJJAIN MP15
121 MAHARASHTRA AHMEDNAGAR MR01
122 MAHARASHTRA AKOLA MR02
123 MAHARASHTRA AMRAVATI MR03
124 MAHARASHTRA AURANGABAD MR04
125 MAHARASHTRA CHANDRAPUR MR09
126 MAHARASHTRA DHULE MR10
127 MAHARASHTRA JALGAON MR13
128 MAHARASHTRA KOLHAPUR MR14
129 MAHARASHTRA LATUR MR15
130 MAHARASHTRA MUMBAI/NAVI MUMBAI MR16
131 MAHARASHTRA NAGPUR MR17
132 MAHARASHTRA NANDED MR18
133 MAHARASHTRA NASHIK MR19
134 MAHARASHTRA PUNE MR22
135 MAHARASHTRA RAIGAD MR23
136 MAHARASHTRA RATNAGIRI MR24
137 MAHARASHTRA SANGLI MR25
138 MAHARASHTRA SATARA MR26
139 MAHARASHTRA SOLAPUR MR27
140 MAHARASHTRA THANE MR28
141 MAHARASHTRA WARDHA MR29
142 MANIPUR CHURACHANDPUR MN02
143 MANIPUR IMPHAL MN01
144 MEGHALAYA SHILLONG MG01
145 MIZORAM AIZAWL MZ01
146 NAGALAND DIMAPUR NL01
147 NAGALAND KOHIMA NL02
148 ODISHA BALASORE OR02
149 ODISHA BERHAMPUR-GANJAM OR03
150 ODISHA BHUBANESWAR OR04
151 ODISHA CUTTACK OR05
152 ODISHA DHENKANAL OR06
153 ODISHA ROURKELA OR08
154 ODISHA SAMBALPUR OR09
155 PUDUCHERRY PUDUCHERRY PO01
156 PUNJAB AMRITSAR PB01
157 PUNJAB BHATINDA PB02
Page 44 of 95
158 PUNJAB JALANDHAR PB04
159 PUNJAB LUDHIANA PB05
160 PUNJAB PATHANKOT PB07
161 PUNJAB PATIALA/FATEHGARH SAHIB PB08
162 PUNJAB SANGRUR PB11
163 RAJASTHAN AJMER RJ01
164 RAJASTHAN ALWAR RJ02
165 RAJASTHAN BIKANER RJ05
166 RAJASTHAN JAIPUR RJ06
167 RAJASTHAN JODHPUR RJ07
168 RAJASTHAN KOTA RJ08
169 RAJASTHAN SIKAR RJ09
170 RAJASTHAN SRIGANGANAGAR RJ10
171 RAJASTHAN UDAIPUR RJ11
172 SIKKIM GANGTOK SM01
173 TAMIL NADU CHENNAI TN01
174 TAMIL NADU COIMBATORE TN02
175 TAMIL NADU CUDDALORE TN03
176 TAMIL NADU KANCHIPURAM TN05
177 TAMIL NADU KANYAKUMARI/NAGERCOIL TN06
178 TAMIL NADU MADURAI TN08
179 TAMIL NADU NAMAKKAL TN10
180 TAMIL NADU SALEM TN11
181 TAMIL NADU THANJAVUR TN12
182 TAMIL NADU THOOTHUKUDI TN13
183 TAMIL NADU TIRUCHIRAPPALLI TN14
184 TAMIL NADU TIRUNELVELI TN15
185 TAMIL NADU TIRUVALLUR TN16
186 TAMIL NADU VELLORE TN18
187 TAMIL NADU VIRUDHUNAGAR TN20
188 TELANGANA HYDERABAD TL01
189 TELANGANA KARIMNAGAR TL02
190 TELANGANA KHAMMAM TL03
191 TELANGANA MAHBUBNAGAR TL04
192 TELANGANA NALGONDA TL05
193 TELANGANA WARANGAL TL07
194 TRIPURA AGARTALA TA01
195 UTTAR PRADESH AGRA UP01
196 UTTAR PRADESH ALIGARH UP02
197 UTTAR PRADESH AYODHYA UP06
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198 UTTAR PRADESH BAREILLY UP04
199 UTTAR PRADESH GHAZIABAD UP07
200 UTTAR PRADESH GORAKHPUR UP08
201 UTTAR PRADESH JHANSI UP10
202 UTTAR PRADESH KANPUR UP11
203 UTTAR PRADESH LUCKNOW UP12
204 UTTAR PRADESH MATHURA UP13
205 UTTAR PRADESH MEERUT UP14
206 UTTAR PRADESH MORADABAD UP15
207 UTTAR PRADESH MUZAFFARNAGAR UP16
208 UTTAR PRADESH NOIDA / GREATER NOIDA UP09
209 UTTAR PRADESH PRAYAGRAJ UP03
210 UTTAR PRADESH SITAPUR UP17
211 UTTAR PRADESH VARANASI UP18
212 UTTARAKHAND DEHRADUN UK01
213 UTTARAKHAND HALDWANI UK02
214 UTTARAKHAND HARIDWAR UK03
215 UTTARAKHAND NAINITAL UK04
216 UTTARAKHAND PANTNAGAR UK05
217 UTTARAKHAND ROORKEE UK06
218 WEST BENGAL ASANSOL WB01
219 WEST BENGAL BURDWAN WB02
220 WEST BENGAL DURGAPUR WB04
221 WEST BENGAL HOOGHLY WB06
222 WEST BENGAL HOWRAH WB07
223 WEST BENGAL KALYANI WB08
224 WEST BENGAL KOLKATA WB10
225 WEST BENGAL SILIGURI WB11
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ANNEXURE-IV
CERTIFICATE REGARDING PHYSICAL LIMITATION TO WRITE IN AN EXAMINATION
Affix Passport size

Certificate No. ______________________________ Dated_____________________ Photograph of the
candidate (same
This is to certify that Mr./Ms.________________________ Aged__________ Years, as uploaded on
Son/ Daughter of Mr. / Ms. _________________________ the Online
Application Form)
R/o_______________________________________________________________, duly attested by
with Application No.______________________ and Roll No. __________________, the issuing
authority
has the following Disability (name of the Specified Disability)
___________________ in (percentage) of _________________________________________ (in
words) __________________ in figures.
 Please tick on the “Specified Disability”

(Assessment may be done on the basis of Gazette of India. Extraordinary, Part-II, Section 3
Sub- section (ii), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment)
S. No. Category Type of Disability Specified Disability

1. Physical Disability Locomotor Disability a. Leprosy cured person, b. cerebral palsy, c. dwarfism,
d. muscular dystrophy, e. acid attack victims.
Visual Impairment a. blindness, b. low vision
Hearing Impairment a. deaf, b. hard of hearing
Speech & Language Permanent disability arising out of conditions such as
Disability laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more
components of speech and language due to organic
or neurological causes.
2. Intellectual Disability a. specific learning disabilities/perceptual disabilities:
Dyslexia, Dysgraphia, Dyscalculia, Dyspraxia &
Developmental Aphasia)
b. autism spectrum disorder
3. Mental Behaviour a. mental illness
4. Disability caused i. Chronic Neurological a. multiple sclerosis

due to Conditions b. Parkinson’s disease
ii. Blood disorder a. Haemophilia, b. Thalassemia, c. Sickle cell disease
5. Multiple Disabilities More than one of the above specified disabilities
including
deaf blindness
This is to further certify that he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing
capabilities to write the Examination owing to his/her disability.
Signature Name: ________________________
Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical

Superintendent Government Health
Care Institution with Seal
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ANNEXURE-V
Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe
I ____________________________, a candidate with __________________ (name of
the disability) appearing for the _______________________ (name of the examination)
bearing Roll No. ____________________ at ________________ (name of the centre)
in the District _____________________________, _______________________ (name
of the State). My qualification is ________________________.
I do hereby state that __________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the
service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid
examination.
I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _______________.
I further certify that the scribe whose photograph and particulars are mentioned below, is not
COVID-19 + and a certificate to this effect from Competent Authority is enclosed to this letter.
(Signature of the candidate with Disability)
Place:
Date:
Photograph of
Scribe
(Self- Attested Photograph)
Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number
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ANNEXURE-VI
Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2
(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing
1. This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ………………………………(name of the

candidate), S/o of /D/o ……………………… a resident of …………………….
(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged………………….yrs, a person with………………………………
(nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has limitation which hampers his/her
writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/ she requires support of scribe for
writing the examination.
2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing
aid (name to be specified) which is/are essential for the candidate to appear at the
examination with the assistance of scribe.
3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted
by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto ………………. (it is
valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)
Signature of Medical Authority
(Signature & (Signature & Name) (Signature & (Signature & (Signature &
Name) Name) Name) Name)
Orthopaedic/ Clinical Neurologist Occupational Other Expert as
Psychologist/Rehabilitation (if available) Therapist (if nominated By the
PMR
Psychologist/Psychiatrist/ available) Chairperson (if
specialist
Special Educator any)
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………………………..Chairperson
Name of Government Hospital/Health _______________________________
Care Centre with Seal _______________________________
Place:
Date:
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ANNEXURE-VII
Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the
definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of
Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having
difficulty in writing
1. I __________________, a candidate with _____________ (nature of disability/condition)

appearing for the _____________ (name of the examination) bearing Roll No.
____________________at ________________________________ (name of the centre) in
the District_________________, ______________ (name of the State). My educational
qualification is_______________________.
2. I do hereby state that ______________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the
service of the scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.
3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is __________________. In case, subsequently

it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my
qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree and claims
relating thereto.
(Signature of the candidate)
(Counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:
Date:
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ANNEXURE-VIII
ATTESTATION FORM (For ‘Result Awaited’ Candidates only)

OR
(For ‘Enrolled’ Candidates only)
I certify that the information given by the candidate Shri/ Smt./

Kum__________________________ has been verified by me with
reference to records of the University/Institute.
It is further certified that the said candidate is enrolled for M.Sc. (mention the degree/course if
M.Sc. equivalent) ______________________ on (mention date/month/year) ___/___/_____;
OR,
after completing 10+2, the said candidate is enrolled for (mention the degree/ course)
_______________________________ on this date/ month/ year _____/____/______ and is
presently pursuing (mention year/semester, e.g 4th year/7th semester) ______/______ since
(mention date/ month/ year) ____/____/______, and is eligible to appear under Result Awaited
category as laid down in the eligibility criteria.
Illustrative List of degrees/ courses:
(i) BS-4 year program

(ii) B.E (iii) B. Tech
(iii) B. Pharma
(iv) MBBS
(v) Integrated BS-MS/ Masters M.Sc.
(vi) (vi) M.Sc. or equivalent
Signature of the Head of Dept./Institute
Rubber stamp/ seal
Name:__________________________
Designation:______________________
Rubber Stamp/Seal:_______________
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ANNEXURE-IX
FORMAT OF OBC CERTIFICATE
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES APPLYING FOR
APPOINTMENT TO POSTS / ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, UNDER
THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
This is to certify that Shri/ Smt./ Km. ____________________ Son/ Daughter of Shri/
Smt.___________________ of Village/ Town ____________________________________
District/Division____________________________ in the State/ Union Territory
________________________________ belongs to the _________________ Community which is recognized as
a backward class under:
(i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCCI dated 10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 186 dated
13/09/93.
(ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC dated 19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 163 dated
20/10/94.
(iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated 24/05/95 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 88 dated25/05/95.
(iv) Resolution No. 12011/96/94-BCC dated 9/03/96.
(v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC dated 6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
11/12/96.
(vi) Resolution No. 12011/13/97-BCC dated 03/12/97.
(vii) Resolution No. 12011/99/94-BCC dated 11/12/97.
(viii) Resolution No. 12011/68/98-BCC dated 27/10/99.
(ix) Resolution No. 12011/88/98-BCC dated 6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 270 dated
06/12/99.
(x) Resolution No. 12011/36/99-BCC dated 04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 71 dated
04/04/2000.
(xi) Resolution No. 12011/44/99-BCC dated 21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
21/09/2000.
(xii) Resolution No. 12015/9/2000-BCC dated 06/09/2001.
(xiii) Resolution No. 12011/1/2001-BCC dated 19/06/2003.
(xiv) Resolution No. 12011/4/2002-BCC dated 13/01/2004.
(xv) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
16/01/2006.
(xvi) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/2007 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 67 dated
12/03/2007.
(xvii) Resolution No. 12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010.
(xviii) Resolution No. 12015/13/2010-BCC dated 08/12/2011.
Shri/Smt./Km. and/ or his/her family ordinarily

reside(s) in the District/Division of the
State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does
not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the
Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) dated
08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004 Estt.(Res.) dated 09/03/2004, further modified
vide OM No.36033/3/2004-Estt.(Res.)dated 14/10/2008, again further modified vide OM No.
36036/2/2013-Estt (Res) dated 30/5/2014 or the latest notification of the Government of India.
Dated:_____________ District Magistrate / Deputy Commissioner /

Any other Competent Authority Seal:
NOTE:
(a) The term ‘Ordinarily resides’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the
People Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate/ Additional Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy
Collector/ 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra
Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
1. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and
2. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his family resides.
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ANNEXURE- X
FORMAT OF SC/ST CERTIFICATE
1. This is to certify that Shri/ Smt.*/ Kum*……………………..Son/ daughter of………………………Of village/

town* ………………….. in District/ Division*………………………of the State/ Union
Territory*……………………….Belong to the…………………………………………Caste/ Tribe* which is
recognized as a Scheduled
Caste/Scheduled Tribe* under:

*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
{As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960, the
Punjab Reorganization Act 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 and the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976}
*The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;
*The Constitution (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 1976;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964;
*The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;
*The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968;
*The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 1990
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 1991
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Second Amendment Act, 1991
2. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued
to Shri/ Smt*………………………father/ mother* of Shri/ Smt/ Kumari …………………….Of
……………………….Village/ town*…………………… in District/ Division*……………………… of the State/
Union Territory*……………………………….. Who belongs to the Caste/ Tribe* which is recognized as a
Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in the State/ Union Territory*………………………..issued by
the………………………………Dated ……………………
3. Shri/Smt*/ Kumari* ………………………………………… and/ or* his/ her family ordinarily reside(s) in
village/town*………………………………………….. Of District/ Division* of the State/Union Territory of
…………………………………
Signature …………………… ……
Designation………………………
(With seal of Office)
Place: … ………………… State
Date: ……………….…. Union Territory
NOTE: The term “Ordinarily resides” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the
Representation of the Peoples Act, 1950.
*Please delete the words which are not applicable.
AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE SCHEDULED CASTE/ SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATES
{G.I. Dept. of Per. & Trg. O.M. No. 3012//88-Estt. (SCT), (SRD III) dated 24.04.1990}
The under mentioned authorities have been empowered to issue Caste Certificates of verification:
1. District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional
Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ First class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub Divisional
Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner.
2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.
3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar
4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides
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ANNEXURE-XI
FORMAT OF EWS CERTIFICATE
Government of India
(Name & Address of the authority issuing the certificate)
INCOME & ASSET CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY ECONOMICALLY WEAKER

SECTIONS
Certificate No. ___________________________ Date ________________________

VALID FOR THE YEAR_
1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari son / daughter /

wife of______________ permanent resident of, Village / Street____________ Post
Office District ________________________ in the State/ Union
Territory Pin Code ___________________________Whose photograph is
attested below belongs to Economically Weaker Sections, since the gross annual income* of
his/ her ‘family’** is below Rs. 8 Lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh only) for the financial year His/ her
family does not own or possess any of the following assets ***:
I. 5 acres of agricultural land and above;
II. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;
III Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
IV Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.
2. Shri/Smt./Kumari belongs to the caste
which is not recognized as a Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Other Backward Classes
(Central List).
Signature with seal of Office ________________________ Name ___________________________
Designation__________________________
Recent
Passport size
attested
photograph of
the applicant
*Note 1: Income covered all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc.
** Note 2: The term “Family” for this purpose include the person, who seeks benefit of reservation, his/ her
parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.
***Note 3: The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities have been clubbed
while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.
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ANNEXURE-XII
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
The major examinations being conducted by NTA are Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number
and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the
designated time of start of examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the
questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change / modify/ edit / answers already entered any time during the examination.
Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):
(Sample/mock test will be available on NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands on practice)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have
changed room/hall or the computer on their own other than the one allotted would lead to
cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password. The computer terminal
allotted to the candidate will display WELCOME login screen, Candidate’s photograph and
NET subject opted by the candidate.
Candidate Login Page
Candidate Welcome Screen
(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions
and marking scheme. At the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will
be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.
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General Instruction Page
Please read the instructions
carefully General Instructions:

1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will
display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer
reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your
examination.
3. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
The question(s) "Answered and Marked for Review" will be considered for
evaluation.
4. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the
question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again,
you can click on "<" which appears on the right side of question window.
5. You can click on your "Profile" image on top right corner of your screen to change the
language during the exam for entire question paper. On clicking of Profile image you will get a
drop-down to change the question content to the desired language.
6. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to top of the question
are, without scrolling.
Navigating to a Question:
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer
to the current question.
b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for
Review, and then go to the next question.
Answering a Question:
8. Procedure for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:
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a. To select you answer, click on the button of one of the options.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on
the Clear Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button.
9. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that
question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
Navigating through sections:

10. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a
Section can be viewed by click on the section name. The Section you are currently viewing is
highlighted.
11. After click the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically
be taken to the first question of the next section.
12. You can shuffle between sections and questions anything during the examination as per
your convenience only during the time stipulated.
13. Candidate can view the corresponding section summery as part of the legend that appears in
every section above the question palette.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by
clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by
clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she
will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in
the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown
timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available
for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will
end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.
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(d) The Question Palette displayed on the screen will show the status of each question using one
of the following symbols:

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that
candidate would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of
answering a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers will be
considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a
question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer
will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any
“Marked for Review” question any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding
question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(e) Candidate can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse
the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question
palette again, candidate can click on “<” which appears on the right side of question window.
(f) Candidate can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question
area, without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the
question viewing area for viewing the entire question.
(g) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of
the screen.
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(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough Work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The
Blanks Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and
Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at
the centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand
over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(i) Navigating to a Question to navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs
to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to
the currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will
save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the
candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it)
and proceed to the next question.
(j) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following: Procedure
for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click
on the“Clear Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
(k) Navigating through sections:
(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which
candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate
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will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
(iii) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime
during the examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
(iv) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.
Question
Respective
Navigation
Question on Screen
(l) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from virtual key board (numeric
or otherwise):
(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just
below the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer
mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.
On Screen Virtual Keyboard
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(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer,
the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question,
anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that
has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question
Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and
subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
(m) ROUGH WORK:
All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough
sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
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ANNEXURE-XIII
REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM

Joint CSIR-UGC NET December, 2024
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ANNEXURE-XIV
PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES FOR MULTI
SESSION PAPERS (NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE BASED ON PERCENTILE SCORE)
NTA will be conducting examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will
be given different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining
equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in
different sessions may not be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively
tougher set of questions when comparedto other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher
examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to
overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring
that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the
objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created in the
above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for
multi session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi
session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests
conducted in India. For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear
for the examination. Basically, the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each
session of examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW
(same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore, the topper (highest
score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in
between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the raw marks of the
candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce
ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:
100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ’Session’
Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual
subject. Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:-
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1,
Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2,
Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and
Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2
Page 82 of 95
Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest

Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be
the 100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest scorer/
topper for that session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile Score
of 100 for their respective session.
Session Total Highest Candidates whoscored Percentile Score Remarks

EQUAL OR LESS THAN
Candidates Raw
Highest Raw
Appeared Score Score
100.0000000 i.e. all the
Session -1 28012 335 28012
[(28012/28012)*100] Highest raw
100.0000000 scores would be
Session -2 32541 346 32541
[(32541/32541)*100] normalized
100.0000000 to100 Percentile
Session -3 41326 331 41326
[(41326/41326)*100] Score for their
100.0000000 respective
Session -4 40603 332 40603
[(40603/40603)*100] session.
Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on
the total number of candidates who have taken the examination for their respective session.
Session Total Lowest Candidates who scored Percentile Score Remarks

EQUAL OR
Candidates Raw
LESS THAN
Appeared Score Lowest RawScore
Session-1 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile
[(1/28012)*100] Score of all the
Session-2 32541 -38 1 0.0030730 lowest raw
[(1/32541)*100] scores are
Session-3 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 different i.e.
[(1/41326)*100] Percentile Score
Session-4 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 depend on the
[(1/40603)*100] total number of
candidates who
have taken the
examination for
their respective
Session.
The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile
Page 83 of 95
Score in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.
Candidate Percentile Score No of Raw Remark
Candidates Score
A 100.0000000 1 331 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(41326/41326)*100] 100% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
LESS THAN the candidate A (331 raw
score).
It also indicates that no candidate has
scored more than the candidate A (331 raw
score).
B 90.1224411 77 121 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(37244/41326)*100] 90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate B (121
raw score).
It also indicates that remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate B (121
raw score).
C 50.4549194 381 41 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate C (41
raw score).
It also indicates that remaining those
appeared have scored more than
candidate C (41 rawscore).
D 31.7040120 789 25 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25
raw score)
have scored more than candidate D (25
raw score).
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those
[(456/41326)*100] appeared, 1.1034216% have scored either
EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate
E (-15 raw score)
have scored more than candidate E (-15
raw score)
STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:
Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately
equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2
In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates willbe divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination.
Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias
becomes remote.
Page 84 of 95
Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
 Raw Scores
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows: Let TP1
be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.
No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score

Total Percentile (TP1): 100 X EQUAL TO OR LESS than T1 score
Total No. of candidates appeared in the session
Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:
The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2:
Day-1 Shift-2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores
which will then be used for compilation of resultand further processing for deciding the allocation.
In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the
eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score
of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100
to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other
categories to determine eligibility cut-offs.
In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.
Page 85 of 95
ANNEXURE-XV
PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR CONVERSION OF NTA SCORES INTO
NORMALIZED MARKS FOR MULTI-SHIFTS PAPERS
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi percentile method)
Need for Normalization

For several subjects, the Joint CSIR-UGC NET may planned in multiple shifts. Since the question papers for any
subject in different shifts are different and it is quite possible that despite all the best possible efforts of
maintaining equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered
in different Shifts may not be the same or similar. Some of the candidates might have ended up attempting a
relatively tougher set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempted the comparatively
tougher examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempted the easier one; the scores
of the students across shifts are not directly comparable. There is a need for normalizing the marks across shifts to
make them amenable to such comparisons.
A Committee headed by a Senior Professor from the Indian Statistical Institution Delhi and comprising of Senior
Professors from the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi and the University of Delhi had detailed deliberations to
arrive at the methodology.
As already intimated in the Information Bulletin of Joint CSIR-UGC NET December 2024 the raw score of each
candidate in each subject will be normalized using the Equi-percentile method. This is done separately for each
subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts.
For each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts, the raw score for each candidate appearing
for the subject will be converted into NTA Score (Percentile Score & Normalized Score) in the following three
steps.
Step 1: Convert Raw Scores into Percentile Scores.
The percentiles are calculated separately for each shift.
Record the number of candidates who have appeared in a shift. Denote this number by N.
Sort all the candidates in one shift in decreasing order of their marks.
Note the raw marks for each candidate. Suppose this is denoted by T. Count the number of
candidates in that shift whose raw scores are less than or equal to T. Denote this number by m.
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
𝑚
P= ∗ 100
𝑁
Illustration:
Suppose that the examination in a certain subject is held in two different shifts, S1 and S2, say.
Consider six candidates A, B, C, D, E, and F out of which A, B, and C are from shift S1 and
the other three are from shift S2.
Let the raw marks of the six candidates be 𝑥𝐴, 𝑥𝐵, 𝑥𝐶 (shift S1 marks) and 𝑦𝐷, , 𝑦𝐹 (shift S2
marks).
For candidates A, B, and C, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks obtained by
candidates appearing in shift S1 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Similarly, for candidates D, E, and F, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks
obtained by candidates appearing in shift S2 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Page 86 of 95
Let the respective percentiles be denoted by PA, PB, PC, PD, PE, and PF.
The above data is summarized in the following table. The terms in red colour indicate that these
are the output of this step.
Shift S1 Shift S2
Candidate Raw score Percentile Candidate Raw score Percentile
A XA PA D YD PD
B XB PB E YE PE
C XC PC F YF PF
Since the calculation for percentiles in any shift depends only on the data from that shift alone,
there is a separate table for each shift.
Step 2: Pull the percentiles to the marks scale for each session to get aNormalized Score.
The data across all sessions tabulated at the end of step 1 is collated into a single
table.
The columns for the shift-wise raw score should be kept separate.
All the records are then sorted in decreasing order of the percentiles.
Illustration (Continued):
In the illustrative example given above, suppose that the percentiles of the six
candidates satisfy
PE>PA>PC =PF>PB>PD
Then the collated table would look as given below:

Candidate Percentile RawscoreS1 RawScoreS2
E PE – YD
A PA XA –
C&F PC=PF XB YE
B PB XC –
D PD – YF
Candidate C from shift S1 and candidate F from shift S2 have the same percentile. The
relevant entries under “Raw Score S1” and “Raw Score S2” are the actual raw scores 𝑥𝐶 and
𝑦F respectively. This has the obvious interpretation that marks 𝑥𝐶 of shift S1 are equivalent
to marks 𝑦𝐹 of shift S2.
Candidates A and B, appearing in shift S1, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S2”, as
there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S2.
Similarly, Candidates D and E, appearing in shift S2, have a blank entry in column “Raw
Score S1”, as there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from
shift S1.
 In the remaining part of this Step 2, the blank entries in the two “Raw Score” columns are
filled up using linear interpolation.
Page 87 of 95
 Consider a record (row) whose entry in the column “Raw Score S1” is blank. The blank
will be replaced by the interpolated score X which is calculated as:
Where:
P is the corresponding entry in t h e “Percentile” column
x1 is the first non-blank entry BELOW X. i.e., x1<X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x1 and X.
x2 is the first non-blank entry ABOVE X. i.e., x2> X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x2 and X.
p1 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x1 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
p2 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x2 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
Note that there may be several blank entries between x1 and x2.
All the blank entries in column “Raw Score S1” can now be replaced by the interpolated values.
The blank entries in column “Raw Score S2” are also replaced using a similar procedure.
The table in the illustrative example would look like the following, where the entries in red
indicate the additional output at the end of this step.
Candidate Percentile Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸
A PA XA YA
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹
B PB XB YB
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷
Step3: Calculation of the Normalized Score

Now for each subject, there is a score assigned to each percentile value for each session.
The Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is calculated as:
Where 𝑢𝐴, , … … 𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of t he different
sessions
Page 88 of 95
The final table in the illustrative example would be as follows:
Candidate Percentile Raw ScoreS1 Raw ScoreS2 Normalized Score
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸 (XE + 𝑦𝐸)/2
A PA XA YA (𝑥𝐴 +YA)/2
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹 (𝑥𝐶 + 𝑦𝐹)/2
B PB XB YB (𝑥𝐵 +YB)/2
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷 (XD + 𝑦𝐷)/2
Step-by-Step Procedure for Converting from Raw Score to Normalized Score: -

Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 phases of examinees as per details given below:
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
No of Candidates Raw Score

Session Day Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 200 -40
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: -
Total Highest Candidates who scored
Session Candidates Raw Equal or Less Than Percentile Score Remarks
Appeared Score Highest Raw Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 200 28012 i.e., All the
[(28012/28012) *100] highest raw
100.0000000 scores would be
Session-2 32541 194 32541
[(32541/32541) *100] normalized to
100.0000000 100 Percentile
Session-3 41326 188 41326 Score for their
[(41326/41326) *100]
100.0000000 respective
Session-4 40603 200 40603 session.
[(40603/40603) *100]
Lowest Score and Percentile Score: -

Total Candidates Who Scored
LowestRaw
Session Candidates Equal or Less Than PercentileScore Remarks
Score
Appeared Highest RawScore
0.0035699 i.e., the Percentile
Session-1 28012 -40 1 Score of all the lowest
[(1/28012) *100]
raw scores are different
0.0030730 i.e., Percentile Score
Session-2 32541 -36 1
[(1/32541) *100] depends on the total
0.0024198 number of candidates
Session-3 41326 -36 1 who have taken the
[(1/41326) *100]
examination for their
0.0024629 respective session.
Session-4 40603 -40 1
[(1/40603) *100]
Page 89 of 95
Step1: Convert Raw Score into Percentile Score
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
Candidate Raw Score S1 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S2 Percentile Score
A20020720 200 100 B20123935 194 100
A20411664 192 99.969144 B20012622 192 99.9990405
A20018569 190 99.831255 B20656224 100 96.9671093
A20339879 184 99.732901 B20410215 42 69.2904047
A20074407 180 99.432054 B20236444 26 67.7672549
A20751862 88 88.654575 B20128586 14 46.3751151
A20922992 48 74.137715 B20001667 4 27.0887703
A21004667 40 69.290405 B20042147 2 23.9100399
A21141123 22 52.135343 B20051256 0 12.225608
A25465232 8 30.675846 B20481968 -2 11.6211621
A26545946 6 27.584445 B20091701 -12 10.4982563
A25656543 2 24.886459 B20549576 -14 10.3947421
A26625216 1 22.351432 B20098269 -30 10.2430506
A26174451 0 19.997686 B20071356 -36 0.053034
A25463225 -1 15.23523
A26598636 -6 11.104361
A26596462 -40 0.053034
Candidate Raw Score S3 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S4 Percentile Score
C20150694 188 100 D20479616 200 100
C20087997 186 99.969144 D20040337 194 99.9990405
C20121991 184 99.831255 D20467385 98 88.6545749
C20058572 180 99.732901 D20398094 44 68.9660903
C20060310 172 99.432054 D20428934 40 49.5097099
C20008597 56 78.338974 D20032939 32 46.3751151
C20430859 36 69.00182 D20690279 30 27.0887703
C20518247 20 52.135343 D20840699 28 23.9100399
C20045510 14 38.091932 D20084751 26 20.8800276
C20860609 9 30.675846 D21237483 24 12.1887008
C20861476 5 27.584445 D21077463 1 11.5349248
C20512680 3 24.886459 D20348188 -2 11.0243302
C20069270 2 22.351432 D25463225 -40 0.053034
C20355550 0 12.188701
C20549576 -3 11.23523
C26598636 -22 0.0539983
C26596462 -36 0.053034
Page 90 of 95
Step 2: Pull Back the percentiles to the scale of the marks for each session to get Normalized
marks.
Candidate Percentile Raw Raw Raw Raw

Score Score S1 Score S2 Score S3 Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D20 100 200 194 188 200
479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.99904053 - 192 - 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 - 186 -
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 - 184 -
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 - 180 -
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 - 172 -
B20656224 96.9671093 - 100 - -
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 - - 98
C20008597 78.3389742 - - 56 -
A20922992 74.1377149 48 - - -
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 -
C20430859 69.0018201 - - 36 -
D20398094 68.9660903 - - - 44
B20236444 67.7672549 - 26 - -
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 - 20 -
D20428934 49.50970986 - - - 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.37511514 - 14 - 32
C20045510 38.0919321 - - 14 -
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 - 9 -
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 - 5 -
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877034 - 4 - 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 - 3 -
B20042147=D20840699 23.91003991 - 2 - 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 - 2 -
D20084751 20.88002763 - - - 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 - - -
A25463225 15.23523 -1 - - -
B20051256 12.225608 - 0 - -
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 - - 0 24
B20481968 11.62116211 - -2 - -
D21077463 11.53492478 - - - 1
C20549576 11.23523 - - -3 -
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 - - -
D20348188 11.0243302 - - - -2
B20091701 10.49825625 - -12 - -
B20549576 10.39474209 - -14 - -
B20098269 10.2430506 - -30 - -
C26598636 0.0539983 - - -22 -
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D25 0.053034 40 -36 -36 -40
463225
Page 91 of 95
In the remaining part of Step 2, the blank entries in the Raw Score Columns are filled up.
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 RawScore S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C2015069 100 200 194 188 200
4=D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.9990405 199.7512409 192 187.93781 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 171.96504 186 171.96504
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 167.63275 184 167.63275
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 164.54257 180 164.54257
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 155.09028 172 155.09028
B20656224 96.9671093 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.91063
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 82.580043 112.72997 98
C20008597 78.3389742 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.707196
A20922992 74.1377149 48 52.158146 47.207694 58.184318
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 36.629757 44.889504
C20430859 69.0018201 39.6972017 38.968549 36 44.097997
D20398094 68.9660903 39.6597121 38.593224 35.966106 44
B20236444 67.7672549 38.4018305 26 34.828858 43.753534
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 17.231221 20 40.539799
D20428934 49.5097099 20.1081761 15.758363 18.878207 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.3751151 17.8496346 14 17.538962 32
C20045510 38.0919321 11.8814266 9.7051566 14 31.141031
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 5.8599046 9 30.371981
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 4.2570079 5 30.051402
B20001667=D20690279 27.0887703 5.2651195 4 4.6325597 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.6143453 3 28.614345
B20042147=D20840699 23.9100399 1.6148289 2 2.6148289 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 1.7332164 2 26.97122
D20084751 20.8800276 0.374867 1.4813591 1.7104312 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 1.3303305 1.5367886 25.79696
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.5151508 0.5995493 24.70105
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.0072632 24.008493
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 -4.6875164 -0.122119 0 24
B20481968 11.6211621 -5.3744647 -2 -1.785703 4.0338503
D21077463 11.5349248 -5.4788463 -2.767984 -2.057041 1
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.436905 -3 -0.760858
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 -6.602352 -3.222382 -1.529777
D20348188 11.0243302 -6.24622 -7.315066 -3.358377 -2
B20091701 10.4982563 -7.8647146 -12 -4.252322 -3.822101
B20549576 10.3947421 -8.1831815 -14 -4.428221 -4.180631
B20098269 10.2430506 -8.6498685 -30 -4.685987 -4.706027
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.99943 -22 -39.99666
A26596462=B20071356=C2659646 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40
2=D25463225
Page 92 of 95
Step 3: Calculation of Normalized Score: Now for each subject there is a score assigned to
each percentile value for each session. The Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile
value P, is calculated as Z= Average of (𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡)= 𝑢𝐴 + 𝑢𝐵 + 𝑢𝐶 +,…..+ 𝑢𝑡/ t
Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of the different
sessions
Percentile Raw Score Raw Score Raw Score Raw Score Normalized
Candidate
Score S1 S2 S3 S4 Marks
A20020720=B20123935=C 100 200 194 188 200 195.5
20150694=D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.999041 199.7512409 192 187.9378 194 193.4223
A20411664=C20087997 99.969144 192 171.965 186 171.965 180.4825
A20018569=C20121991 99.831255 190 167.6327 184 167.6327 177.3164
A20339879=C20058572 99.732901 184 164.5426 180 164.5426 173.2713
A20074407=C20060310 99.432054 180 155.0903 172 155.0903 165.5451
B20656224 96.967109 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.9106 129.8283
A20751862=D20467385 88.654575 88 82.58004 112.73 98 95.3275
C20008597 78.338974 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.7072 60.86266
A20922992 74.137715 48 52.15815 47.20769 58.18432 51.38754
A21004667=B20410215 69.290405 40 42 36.62976 44.8895 40.87982
C20430859 69.00182 39.6972017 38.96855 36 44.098 39.69094
D20398094 68.96609 39.6597121 38.59322 35.96611 44 39.55476
B20236444 67.767255 38.4018305 26 34.82886 43.75353 35.74606
A21141123=C20518247 52.135343 22 17.23122 20 40.5398 24.94276
D20428934 49.50971 20.1081761 15.75836 18.87821 40 23.68619
B20128586=D20032939 46.375115 17.8496346 14 17.53896 32 20.34715
C20045510 38.091932 11.8814266 9.705157 14 31.14103 16.6819
A25465232=C20860609 30.675846 8 5.859905 9 30.37198 13.30797
A26545946=C20861476 27.584445 6 4.257008 5 30.0514 11.3271
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877 5.2651195 4 4.63256 30 10.97442
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.614345 3 28.61435 9.057173
B20042147=D20840699 23.91004 1.6148289 2 2.614829 28 8.557414
A26625216=C20069270 22.351432 1 1.733216 2 26.97122 7.926109
D20084751 20.880028 0.374867 1.481359 1.710431 26 7.391664
A26174451 19.997686 0 1.330331 1.536789 25.79696 7.16602
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.515151 0.599549 24.70105 6.203938
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.007263 24.00849 4.843228
C20355550=D21237483 12.188701 -4.6875164 -0.12212 0 24 4.797591
B20481968 11.621162 -5.3744647 -2 -1.7857 4.03385 -1.28158
D21077463 11.534925 -5.4788463 -2.76798 -2.05704 1 -2.32597
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.43691 -3 -0.76086 -3.75984
A26598636 11.104361 -6 -6.60235 -3.22238 -1.52978 -4.33863
D20348188 11.02433 -6.24622 -7.31507 -3.35838 -2 -4.72992
B20091701 10.498256 -7.8647146 -12 -4.25232 -3.8221 -6.98478
B20549576 10.394742 -8.1831815 -14 -4.42822 -4.18063 -7.69801
B20098269 10.243051 -8.6498685 -30 -4.68599 -4.70603 -12.0105
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.9994 -22 -39.9967 -34.4983
A26596462=B20071356=C 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40 -38
26596462=D25463225
Page 93 of 95
The above method is based on the work: “Normalization of marks in multi-session
examinations”, Abhay G. Bhatt et al, CURRENT SCIENCE, Vol. 118, No. 1, 10
January 2020.
Note: The NTA is planning to do the JOINT CSIR UGC – NET December 2024 examination in a single
shift for each Subject/General Test, so that the need for Normalization will not exist. However, under
unavoidable circumstances, if any subject is conducted in multi-shifts, then normalization will be done.
The performance of every candidate will be evaluated using the equi-percentile method wherein
normalized marks of each candidate will be calculated using the percentiles of each group of students in
a given shift across multiple days for the same subject.
Page 94 of 95
ANNEXURE- XVI
HELPDESK CONTACT DETAILS OF JOINT CSIR- UGC NET DECEMBER 2024
Fellowship under DEPUTY SECRETARY / UNDER SECRETARY (EMR),

CSIR Scheme:
CSIR-HRDG, CSIR COMPLEX (OPPOSITE INSTITUTE OF
HOTEL MANAGEMENT), LIBRARY AVENUE, PUSA, NEW DELHI
– 110012
Fellowships under UNDER SECRETARY,

UGC Schemes
SELECTION AND AWARD BUREAU, UNIVERSITY GRANT

COMMISSION, SOUTH CAMPUS, UNIVERSITY OF DELHI,
BENITO JUAREZ MARG, DHAULA KUAN, NEW DELHI- 110021
For Eligibility for EDUCATION OFFICER,

Assistant Professor:
UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION, SOUTH CAMPUS,
UNIVERSITY OF DELHI, BENITO JUAREZ MARG,
DHAULAKUAN, NEW DELHI-110021
Page 95 of 95

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Page 1 of 95

NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY

ANNEXURE-XV PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR CONVERSION OF NTA SCORES INTO 86-94

CBT Computer Based Test

CSIR Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

EWS Economically Weaker Section

GOI Government of India

MCQ Multiple Choice Question

MoE Ministry of Education

NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

NEGP National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)

NFOBC National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes

NFSC National Fellowship for Schedule Caste

NFPwD National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities

NTA National Testing Agency

OBC-NCL Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer

PwD Persons with Disabilities

QRS Query Redressal System

RPwD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

UGC University Grant Commission

UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

VLE Village level Entrepreneur

Name of the Examination Joint CSIR-UGC NET December, 2024

Fee Payable for

Name of the Examination JOINT CSIR-UGC NET

3. Possession by a candidate of any of the above-mentioned items will be treated as an

1.1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)

1.2. About Joint CSIR-UGC Fellowship

 The candidates qualifying under the ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and

 The eligibility will be determined in the following manner:

The number of fellowship for each subject is limited.

1.4. Joint CSIR-UGC NET Examination December, 2024

2.1 Joint CSIR- UGC NET December 2024 Eligibility Criteria

2.1.2 Upper Age limit:

3.2 Pattern of Question Papers

EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

LIFE SCIENCES (703) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

MATHEMATICAL SCIENCES (704) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

PHYSICAL SCIENCES (705) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL

Earth Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25

Mathematical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 25 and

Physical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 20 and 20

3.3 Medium of Examination

3.4 Marking Scheme of Examinations

Please refer to point no. 3.2.

3.5 Subjects of the Test

The Test will be held in the subjects mentioned below:

Subject Code Subjects of the Test

3.6 Syllabus of the Test

4.1 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):

S. No. Category Type of Disability Specified Disability

1. Physical Locomotor Disability a. Leprosy cured person, b. cerebral palsy,

Hearing Impairment a. deaf, b. hard of hearing

5. Multiple More than one of the above specified

As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with

 Scribe shall be given, if so desired by a person with benchmark disabilities in the

 The compensatory time will be given to a candidate with benchmark disabilities,

5.4. Procedure for Filling Application Form

(i) Candidate’s Photograph: to be uploaded

(ii) Candidate’s Signature: to be uploaded

I __________, a candidate with (name of

bearing Roll No. ____ at (name of the centre)

in the District _______, _ (name

1. I ______, a candidate with _ (nature of disability/condition)